Name: 
 

Metabolism of Cells



Multiple Choice
Identify the choice that best completes the statement or answers the question.
 

 1. 

The ultimate source of energy for almost all living organisms is:
a.
heat.
b.
glucose.
c.
carbohydrates.
d.
lipids.
e.
the sun.
 

 2. 

Energy stored within the molecules of ATP is in the form of ____________ energy.
a.
kinetic
b.
heat
c.
potential
d.
nuclear
e.
light
 

 3. 

Most components of energy conversion systems evolved very early; thus, the most fundamental aspects of energy metabolism tend to be:
a.
quite different among a diverse group of organisms.
b.
very different among plants and animals.
c.
the same among the autotrophs but different among heterotrophs.
d.
the same among prokaryotes but different among eukaryotes.
e.
very similar in a wide range of different organisms.
 

 4. 

Kilojoules are:
a.
units of heat energy.
b.
units of matter.
c.
units of work.
d.
units of kinetics.
e.
units of mechanical change.
 

 5. 

The life and death of cells are governed by:
a.
the laws of thermodynamics.
b.
only the first law of thermodynamics.
c.
only the second law of thermodynamics.
d.
only the third law of thermodynamics.
e.
the laws of dynamic equilibrium.
 

 6. 

In order for a cell to maintain a high degree of order it must:
a.
constantly release energy.
b.
constantly produce energy.
c.
constantly destroy energy.
d.
constantly use energy.
e.
constantly increase energy.
 

 7. 

Select the false statement:
a.
Matter is anything that has mass and takes up space.
b.
Energy is the capacity to do work.
c.
Work is any change in the state or motion of matter.
d.
Mass is a form of energy.
e.
All of the above statements are true.
 

 8. 

Which of the following statements is contrary to the first law of thermodynamics?
a.
When gasoline is burned, its energy is destroyed.
b.
Energy can be transferred or converted from one form to another.
c.
Matter can be converted into energy.
d.
The amount of energy in the universe is constant.
e.
All of the above statements are not contrary to the first law of thermodynamics.
 

 9. 

Only 20% to 30% of the energy stored in the chemical bonds of gasoline molecules is transformed into mechanical energy; the other 70% to 80% is dissipated as waste heat. Which statement explains this phenomenon?
a.
The first law of thermodynamics.
b.
The second law of thermodynamics.
c.
When energy is converted from one form to another, some of the energy is converted into heat.
d.
Both A and B.
e.
Both B and C.
 

 10. 

An organism can exchange matter and energy with its surroundings. Thus, any change in an organism's energy content must be balanced by a corresponding change in the energy content of the surroundings. As such, an organism is referred to as:
a.
a closed system.
b.
an open system.
c.
a dynamic system.
d.
a thermally reactive system.
e.
a potential system.
 

 11. 

Catabolic reactions involve the:
a.
breakdown of large organic molecules to simple building blocks.
b.
breakdown of life sustaining processes within cells.
c.
building up of complex organic molecules from simple building blocks.
d.
anabolic production of complex molecules.
e.
expenditure of energy.
 

 12. 

Pathways that have an overall energy requirement are referred to as:
a.
catabolic reactions.
b.
anabolic reactions.
c.
energy-releasing reactions.
d.
energetically feasible reactions.
e.
reactions that will proceed spontaneously.
 

 13. 

Every type of chemical bond contains a certain amount of energy. The total bond energy, which is essentially equivalent to the total potential energy of the system, is a quantity known as:
a.
entropy.
b.
kinetic energy.
c.
thermodynamic energy.
d.
enthalpy.
e.
free energy.
 

 14. 

Which of the following accurately represents the relationship between the terms anabolism, catabolism, and metabolism?
a.
anabolism = catabolism
b.
metabolism = catabolism
c.
catabolism = anabolism + metabolism
d.
anabolism = catabolism + metabolism
e.
metabolism = catabolism + anabolism
 

 15. 

The sum of all chemical activities taking place in an organism is:
a.
anabolism.
b.
catabolism.
c.
metabolism.
d.
dehydration synthesis.
e.
condensation reactions.
 

 16. 

Which word is defined by this statement: a measure of this disorder, or randomness?
a.
energy
b.
entropy
c.
enthalpy
d.
mass
e.
catabolism
 

 17. 

The equation, G = H - TS, predicts that:
a.
as entropy increases, the amount of free energy decreases.
b.
as enthalpy increases, the amount of free energy increases.
c.
as enthalpy decreases, the amount of entropy also decreases.
d.
metabolism decreases proportionately to anabolism.
e.
metabolism increases proportionately to catabolism.
 

 18. 

A reaction with a negative value of DG is referred to as an _________________ reaction.
a.
endergonic
b.
entropy
c.
exergonic
d.
enthalpy
e.
activation
 

 19. 

Which of the following statements is true of spontaneous reactions?
a.
The amount of free energy after the reaction is less than before the reaction.
b.
The amount of disorder after the reaction is less than before the reaction.
c.
The amount of free energy after the reaction is more than before the reaction.
d.
The amount of disorder is the same before and after the reaction.
e.
The amount of enthalpy is more after the reaction than before the reaction.
 

 20. 

An exergonic reaction is considered to be:
a.
spontaneous.
b.
potentially spontaneous.
c.
endergonic.
d.
non-spontaneous.
e.
energy requiring.
 

 21. 

When the free energy of the reactants is greater than the free energy of the products, such a reaction is referred to as:
a.
an entropic reaction.
b.
an endergonic reaction.
c.
an exergonic reaction.
d.
an enthalpic reaction.
e.
an activation reaction.
 
 
Figure 06-01
Use the figure below to answer the corresponding questions.

nar001-1.jpg
 

 22. 

Which of the following statements about Figure 06-01 is true?
a.
The reactants have more free energy than the products.
b.
The products have more free energy than the reactants.
c.
The figure represents a spontaneous reaction.
d.
The figure represents an endergonic reaction.
e.
B and D
 

 23. 

Which of the following conclusions can be accurately derived from Figure 06-01?
a.
DS is positive.
b.
DH equals zero.
c.
DG is positive.
d.
DG is negative.
e.
DT is negative.
 

 24. 

An endergonic reaction can proceed only if it absorbs:
a.
more free energy than is released by a coupled exergonic reaction.
b.
less free energy than was released by a coupled endergonic reaction.
c.
less free energy than is released by a coupled exergonic reaction.
d.
the same amount of free energy that is absorbed by the enzymatic breakdown of proteins.
e.
energy from ADP, forming ATP.
 

 25. 

In a reaction in which the rate of the reverse reaction is equal to the rate of the forward reaction, a state of ____________ is attained.
a.
total entropy
b.
enthalpy
c.
thermodynamics
d.
dynamic equilibrium
e.
product reversibility
 

 26. 

The ATP molecule is said to have a high group transfer potential because its terminal phosphate group and some of its energy is readily transferred to other:
a.
organisms.
b.
cells.
c.
organelles.
d.
molecules.
e.
sources of energy.
 

 27. 

The reaction ATP + H2O ® ADP + Pi is classified as an:
a.
endergonic reaction.
b.
enthalpy reaction.
c.
entropy reaction.
d.
exergonic reaction.
e.
intermediate phosphorylation reaction.
 

 28. 

The maintenance of a high ATP to ADP ratio within cells ensures that:
a.
the hydrolysis of ADP to ATP will be strongly exergonic.
b.
the hydrolysis of ATP to ADP will be strongly exergonic.
c.
the hydrolysis of ATP to ADP will be strongly endergonic.
d.
the hydrolysis of ADP to ATP will be an energy releasing reaction.
e.
the conversion of ADP to ATP will proceed spontaneously.
 

 29. 

Consider the following two chemical equations:
A) glucose + fructose ® sucrose + H2O, DG = +27kJ/mole (or +6.5 kcal/mole)
B) glucose + fructose + ATP ® sucrose + ADP + Pi, DG = -5kJ/mole (or -1.2 kcal/mole)

The free energy change difference between the chemical equations (A) and (B) above is accomplished by:
a.
a decrease in activation energy.
b.
combining two endergonic reactions.
c.
combining an endergonic and an exergonic reaction.
d.
combining two exergonic reactions.
e.
measuring the reaction rate.
 

 30. 

The transfer of electrons from one compound to another is equivalent to _______________ transfer.
a.
heat
b.
oxygen
c.
enzymatic
d.
phosphorus
e.
energy
 

 31. 

____________ is a process where energy (as electrons) is released, whereas ____________ is a process where energy (as electrons) is accepted.
a.
Reduction; oxidation
b.
Enthalpy; entropy
c.
Entropy; enthalpy
d.
Oxidation; reduction
e.
Anabolism; catabolism
 

 32. 

XH2 + NAD+ ® X + NADH + H+. In the preceding equation, NAD+ is said to be:
a.
an enzyme.
b.
storing two hydrogen atoms.
c.
reduced.
d.
oxidized.
e.
a catalyst.
 

 33. 

Select the compound that contains the most energy:
a.
AMP
b.
ADP
c.
ATP
d.
P
e.
Cannot determine using the information provided.
 

 34. 

Select the phosphorylation reaction:
a.
glucose + fructose ® sucrose + H2O
b.
glucose + ATP ® glucose-P + ADP
c.
glucose-P + fructose ® sucrose + Pi
d.
glucose + glucose ® maltose
e.
None of the reactions are phosphorylation reactions.
 

 35. 

Select the hydrogen acceptor molecule that stores electrons in the process of photosynthesis:
a.
nicotinamide adenine dinucleotide (NAD+)
b.
nicotinamide adenine dinucleotide phosphate (NADP+)
c.
flavin adenine dinucleotide (FAD)
d.
adenine triphosphate (ATP)
e.
adenine diphosphate (ADP)
 

 36. 

Select the reduced molecule:
a.
NAD+
b.
FAD
c.
NADH
d.
H-
e.
None of the molecules are reduced.
 

 37. 

FAD and cytochromes are classified as:
a.
hydrogen or electron acceptors.
b.
phosphate oxidizers.
c.
phosphate reducers.
d.
proteins that donate hydrogens or electrons.
e.
redox intermediate catalysts.
 

 38. 

Enzymes are important biological catalysts because they:
a.
supply the energy to initiate a biochemical reaction.
b.
increase the free energy of a biochemical reaction.
c.
lower the entropy of a biochemical reaction.
d.
decrease the enthalpy of a biochemical reaction.
e.
lower the activation energy of a biochemical reaction.
 

 39. 

Because enzymes affect the speed of chemical reactions without being consumed, they are referred to as:
a.
hydrogen acceptors.
b.
activation energy.
c.
catalysts.
d.
cytochromes.
e.
transformation proteins.
 
 
Figure 06-02
Use the figure below to answer the corresponding questions.

nar002-1.jpg
 

 40. 

In Figure 06-02 the line on the graph labeled B represents the:
a.
activation energy with an enzyme.
b.
activation energy without an enzyme.
c.
free energy of the reactants.
d.
change in entropy.
e.
change in enthalpy.
 

 41. 

In Figure 06-02 the line on the graph labeled C represents the:
a.
activation energy with an enzyme.
b.
activation energy without an enzyme.
c.
change in free energy.
d.
change in entropy.
e.
change in enthalpy.
 

 42. 

Parts of the enzyme molecule that interact with a substrate are called:
a.
cofactors.
b.
active sites.
c.
induced-fit models.
d.
orientation sites.
e.
reaction sites.
 

 43. 

Hydrolases are one important class of enzyme that function to catalyze:
a.
splitting a molecule using water.
b.
conversions between isomers.
c.
reactions in which double bonds are formed.
d.
oxidation-reduction reactions.
e.
None of the above.
 

 44. 

Which of the following does not represent a method by which cells regulate enzyme activity?
a.
controlling the intracellular concentration of the enzyme
b.
feedback inhibition of enzymes
c.
the binding of allosteric regulators to allosteric sites on the enzyme
d.
differential gene expression of the genes that produce enzymes
e.
heat denaturation of the enzyme
 

 45. 

Competitive inhibitors inhibit biochemical reactions in such a way as to seemingly:
a.
increase the concentration of substrate.
b.
reduce the concentration of enzyme.
c.
increase the concentration of enzyme.
d.
reduce the concentration of substrate.
e.
denature the enzyme.
 

 46. 

Penicillin is a drug that acts by:
a.
irreversibly inhibiting transpeptidase.
b.
reversibly inhibiting transpeptidase.
c.
competitively inhibiting transpeptidase.
d.
noncompetitively inhibiting transpeptidase.
e.
None of the above.
 

 47. 

An allosteric enzyme:
a.
has an active site that binds to the substrate and an allosteric site that binds to the product.
b.
allows the movement of molecules and ions from one part of the cell to another.
c.
catalyzes both oxidation and reduction reactions.
d.
raises a reaction's activation energy so that the rate of the reaction declines.
e.
allows a substance other than the substrate to bind to the enzyme, thereby activating or inactivating it.
 

 48. 

If one continues to increase the temperature in an enzyme-catalyzed reaction, the rate of the reaction:
a.
does not change.
b.
increases and then levels off.
c.
decreases and then levels off.
d.
increases and then decreases rapidly.
e.
decreases and then increases rapidly.
 

 49. 

Select the false statement regarding activation energy:
a.
Exergonic reactions have an energy of activation.
b.
Endergonic reactions have an energy of activation.
c.
Enzymes lower a reaction's activation energy.
d.
Catalysts raise a reaction's activation energy.
e.
All of the statements are true.
 

 50. 

The substance on which an enzyme acts:
a.
substrate
b.
product
c.
ATP
d.
free energy
e.
None of the above.
 

 51. 

Select the name of the concept of the binding of a substrate to the enzyme causing a change in the enzyme's shape, facilitating an enzymes function.
a.
active site
b.
cofactor
c.
activation energy
d.
induced fit
e.
None of the above.
 

 52. 

Select the enzyme that does not match the substrate or reaction:
a.
sucrase: splits sucrose into glucose and fructose.
b.
lysozyme: breaks down bacterial cell walls.
c.
pepsin: breaks peptide bonds.
d.
trypsin: breaks peptide bonds.
e.
All of the enzymes match the substrates or reactions.
 

 53. 

The reaction rate an enzyme catalyzed chemical reaction would not likely be affected by:
a.
pH
b.
substrate concentration
c.
temperature
d.
Both A and B.
e.
A, B, and C.
 

 54. 

An organic, nonpolypeptide compound that binds to the apoenzyme and serves as a cofactor:
a.
coenzyme
b.
catalyst
c.
substrate
d.
mineral
e.
pH
 

 55. 

Cell respiration is most accurately described as a ______________ process.
a.
anabolic
b.
catabolic
c.
metabolic
d.
endergonic
e.
fermentative
 

 56. 

Select the anaerobic pathway:
a.
aerobic respiration
b.
citric acid cycle
c.
electron transport chain
d.
fermentation
e.
None of the choices are anaerobic.
 

 57. 

The transfer of electrons from glucose to oxygen during aerobic respiration takes place in a stepwise fashion through a number of intermediates rather than by direct transfer. This is because:
a.
it is chemically impossible to transfer electrons directly from glucose to oxygen.
b.
the chemical intermediates donate some of their electrons in order to increase the electron pool.
c.
the energy of the electrons can be used to make ADP.
d.
the energy of the electrons can be used to make ATP.
e.
None of the above.
 

 58. 

The splitting of molecules into smaller components is referred to as:
a.
anabolism.
b.
metabolism.
c.
catabolism.
d.
redox.
e.
photosynthesis.
 

 59. 

Anabolic reactions:
a.
are generally endergonic.
b.
usually require ATP.
c.
are part of metabolism.
d.
may produce polysaccarides from monosaccharides.
e.
All of the above.
 

 60. 

Aerobic respiration is classified as:
a.
a synthesis reaction.
b.
a hydrolysis reaction.
c.
a redox process.
d.
a polymerization reaction.
e.
an anabolic process.
 

 61. 

Aerobic respiration, anaerobic respiration, and fermentation:
a.
are endergonic pathways.
b.
release free energy.
c.
require oxygen.
d.
are also known as organismic respiration.
e.
are anabolic pathways.
 

 62. 

During chemiosmosis, ____________ are transferred from NADH and FADH2 to electron acceptor molecules, and the energy released is used to create a(an) ____________ gradient across the inner mitochondrial membrane.
a.
protons; electron
b.
electrons; proton
c.
ATP molecules; ADP molecule
d.
ADP molecules; ATP molecule
e.
water molecules; oxygen
 

 63. 

The overall reaction for the aerobic respiration of glucose is summarized as:
a.
C6H12O6 + 6 O2 + 6 H2O ® 6 CO2 + 12 H2O + Energy.
b.
C4H12O4 + 12 H2O + 6 CO2 ® 6 O2 + ATP + Energy.
c.
C4H12O4 + 6 O2 + 6 H2O ® 6 CO2 + ATP + Energy.
d.
C4H12O2 + 6 O2 + ATP ® 6 CO2 + 12 H2O + Energy.
e.
C6H12O6 + 6 H2O ® 6 CO2 + 12 H2 + Energy.
 

 64. 

In aerobic respiration, glucose is completely:
a.
reduced to ATP.
b.
reduced to energy.
c.
oxidized to water.
d.
oxidized to carbon dioxide.
e.
oxidized and reduced simultaneously.
 

 65. 

Which of the following is not one of the stages of the aerobic respiration of glucose?
a.
glycolysis
b.
formation of acetyl CoA
c.
hydrolysis
d.
citric acid cycle
e.
electron transport
 

 66. 

Which process does not match the products?
a.
electron transport and chemiosmosis—ATP, H2O, NAD+, FAD
b.
citric acid cycle—CO2, NADH, FADH2, ATP
c.
formation of acetyl CoA—Acetyl CoA, CO2, NADH
d.
glycolysis—pyruvate, ATP, NADH
e.
All of the processes match the products.
 

 67. 

Which process does not match the starting materials?
a.
electron transport and chemiosmosis—NADH, FADH2, O2, ADP, Pi
b.
glycolysis—glucose, ATP, NAD+, ADP, Pi
c.
citric acid cycle—acetyl CoA, H2O, NAD+, FAD, ADP, Pi
d.
formation of acetyl CoA—citric acid, CO2, NADH
e.
All of the processes match the starting materials.
 

 68. 

Which process does not match the location in skeletal muscle?
a.
glycolysis—mitochondrian
b.
formation of acetyl coenzyme A—mitochondrian
c.
citric acid cycle—mitochondrian
d.
electron transport and chemiosmosis—mitochondrian
e.
All of the processes are matched to the correct location.
 

 69. 

Decarboxylations:
a.
occur as part of the citric acid cycle.
b.
produce CO2 that is then exhaled via breathing.
c.
involve the removal of a carboxyl group (-COOH) from a substrate.
d.
are one type of general reaction that occurs during aerobic respiration.
e.
All of the above.
 

 70. 

In aerobic respiration, the electrons associated with the hydrogen atoms in glucose are transferred to:
a.
carbon in a series of steps.
b.
oxygen in a series of steps.
c.
NADH in a series of steps.
d.
the mitochondrial membranes.
e.
hydrogen ions.
 

 71. 

In eukaryotes, glycolysis occurs in the:
a.
mitochondrial inner membrane.
b.
lysosomes.
c.
Golgi complex.
d.
cytosol.
e.
mitochondrial matrix.
 

 72. 

In glycolysis, a six-carbon glucose molecule is converted to two three-carbon molecules of:
a.
pyruvate.
b.
acetate.
c.
coenzyme A.
d.
oxaloacetate.
e.
citrate.
 

 73. 

Substrate-level phosphorylation involves the transfer of a phosphate group from:
a.
ATP.
b.
ADP.
c.
NADH.
d.
1,3-bisphosphoglycerate.
e.
glucose.
 

 74. 

In glycolysis, fructose-1, 6-bisphosphate splits, forming two molecules of:
a.
ADP.
b.
citric acid.
c.
G3P.
d.
glucose.
e.
acetyl CoA.
 

 75. 

Glycolysis yields a net energy profit of _______ ATP molecules per molecule of glucose.
a.
0
b.
1
c.
2
d.
4
e.
6
 

 76. 

The chemical reaction illustrated in the figure is:

mc076-1.jpg
a.
the first step in the citric acid cycle.
b.
the energy producing step of glycolysis.
c.
fermentation.
d.
part of the electron transport chain.
e.
None of the above.
 

 77. 

In glycolysis, glucose receives two phosphate groups from ____________, thus forming fructose-1, 6-bisphosphate.
a.
ADP
b.
ATP
c.
a bisphosphate group
d.
fructose-1, 6-bisphosphate
e.
G3P
 

 78. 

NADH and FADH2 are the products of:
a.
decarboxylation reactions.
b.
reduction reactions.
c.
glycolysis.
d.
formation of acetyl coenzyme A.
e.
chemiosmosis.
 

 79. 

NADH is formed when NAD+ accepts:
a.
a proton.
b.
a hydrogen atom.
c.
a pair of protons and an electron.
d.
a proton and a pair of electrons.
e.
two hydrogen atoms.
 

 80. 

In chemiosmosis, ATP is produced as hydrogen ions (protons) pass through:
a.
the outer mitochondrial membrane.
b.
ATP synthase.
c.
ATP dehydrogenase.
d.
ATP decarboxylase.
e.
a series of electron carriers.
 

 81. 

Oxidative decarboxylation of two pyruvates yields:
a.
two glucose molecules.
b.
two ATP + four CO2 + two NADH.
c.
two G3P.
d.
two acetyl CoA + two CO2 + 2 NADH.
e.
one fructose-1, 6-bisphosphate.
 

 82. 

Considering only glycolysis and the conversion of pyruvate molecules to acetyl CoA molecules, how many NADH molecules will be produced from one glucose molecule?
a.
one
b.
two
c.
three
d.
four
e.
five
 

 83. 

During the citric acid cycle, each acetyl group entering the cycle yields:
a.
1 ATP, 2 NADH, and 3 FADH2.
b.
1 ATP, 3 NADH, and 1 FADH2.
c.
3 ATP, 2 NADH, and 1 FADH2.
d.
4 ATP, 2 NADH, and 1 FADH2.
e.
1 ATP, 2 NADH, and 4 FADH2.
 

 84. 

One product of the initial (first) reaction of the citric acid cycle is:
a.
ATP.
b.
NADH.
c.
citrate.
d.
oxaloacetate.
e.
acetyl-CoA.
 

 85. 

In the citric acid cycle, two acetyl CoA molecules are metabolized to:
a.
2 CO2 + 2 ATPs + 2 NADH + 2 FADH.
b.
4 CO2 + 6 NADH + 2 FADH2 + 2 ATP.
c.
fructose-1, 6-bisphosphate.
d.
glucose + 2 CO2 + 2 NADH + 2 FADH2 + 2 ATPs.
e.
2 G3P.
 

 86. 

Which of the following steps in the Kreb's cycle directly produces a molecule of ATP (or GTP)?
a.
citrate ® isocitrate
b.
isocitrate ®·mc086-1.jpg-ketoglutarate
c.
succinyl CoA ® succinate
d.
succinate ® fumarate
e.
malate ® oxaloacetate
 

 87. 

A glucose molecule that is metabolized via aerobic respiration has been completely broken down and released as CO2 by the end of:
a.
fermentation.
b.
the electron transport chain.
c.
glycolysis.
d.
ATP synthesis in the mitochondria.
e.
the citric acid cycle.
 

 88. 

Which of the following statements about the electron transport chain is true?
a.
Protons are pumped out of the mitochondria by the complexes of the electron transport chain.
b.
The proton gradient established during electron transport is a form of potential energy.
c.
The electron transport chain can be found in the mitochondria of aerobic bacteria and other cells.
d.
The movement of protons down a concentration gradient is an endergonic process.
e.
ATP synthesis associated with the electron transport chain is an example of substrate level phosphorylation.
 

 89. 

When hydrogen ions (protons) are pumped across the inner mitochondrial membrane, they form a proton gradient. ATP is then formed by a process known as:
a.
glycolysis.
b.
the citric acid cycle.
c.
chemiosmosis.
d.
pyruvate synthesis.
e.
substrate-level phosphorylation.
 

 90. 

Chemiosmosis allows exergonic redox processes to drive the endergonic reaction in which:
a.
ADP is produced by dephosphorylation of ATP.
b.
glucose is produced from phosphorylation of ADP.
c.
G3P is produced from phosphorylation of ADP.
d.
ATP is produced by phosphorylation of ADP.
e.
pyruvate is converted to acetyl CoA.
 

 91. 

Coenzyme Q:
a.
transfers electrons.
b.
oxidizes glucose.
c.
is the ultimate source of energy in the citric acid cycle.
d.
transfers phosphate to ATP.
e.
reduces glucose.
 

 92. 

The role of the oxygen molecules required for aerobic respiration is:
a.
to accept the low energy electrons at the end of the electron transport chain.
b.
to form ATP.
c.
to produce CO2.
d.
to store high energy electrons to pass to complex I of the electron transport chain.
e.
to accept electrons directly from either NADH or FAHD2.
 

 93. 

During aerobic respiration, oxygen is:
a.
formed.
b.
reduced.
c.
oxidized.
d.
catabolized.
e.
decarboxylated.
 

 94. 

In the skeletal muscle cells of vertebrates, as many as ____________ molecules of ATP are produced from one molecule of glucose. This is less than might be expected, because electrons from NADH produced during glycolysis must be shuttled through the ____________ mitochondrial membrane at a cost.
a.
2; outer
b.
2; inner
c.
38; inner
d.
6; outer
e.
36; inner
 

 95. 

Organismal body heat is a:
a.
byproduct of endergonic reactions.
b.
product of glucose synthesis.
c.
byproduct of exergonic reactions.
d.
product of anabolism.
e.
product of ATP synthesis.
 

 96. 

Select the processes that are matched with the incorrect amount of ATP produced by that process per glucose molecule.
a.
glycolysis—2 ATP (net)
b.
citric acid cycle—4 ATP
c.
electron transport chain—32 ATP
d.
alcohol fermentation—2 ATP
e.
lactate fermentation—2 ATP
 

 97. 

Select the incorrect match between the molecule and the amount of ATP produced if that particular molecule is completely oxidized in aerobic respiration:
a.
FAD—2 ATP
b.
NAD—2 ATP
c.
glucose—36 to 38 ATP
d.
pyruvic acid—34 to 36 ATP
e.
All of the answer choices are correctly matched.
 

 98. 

A drowning death would be most directly due to:
a.
The unavailability of glucose to feed into glycolysis.
b.
The accumulation of lactate in the muscle tissue due to anaerobic respiration.
c.
The breakdown of pyruvate into ethyl alcohol.
d.
The lack of oxygen to accept hydrogen.
e.
There is not sufficient information to determine which answer is correct.
 

 99. 

Select the statement that does not support the endosymbiosis theory:
a.
Bacteria, mitochondria, and chloroplasts have circular DNA.
b.
To produce ATP bacteria, cell membranes utilize an electron transport chain similar to mitochondrial membranes.
c.
Mitochondria and chloroplasts reproduce independently of the eukaryotic cells that house them.
d.
Bacteria, mitochondria, and chloroplasts all use glucose for fuel.
e.
All of the statements support endosymbiosis.
 

 100. 

Peter Mitchell demonstrated ATP production by aerobic bacteria by placing the bacteria in:
a.
an acidic environment.
b.
a basic environment.
c.
an aqueous environment.
d.
a buffered environment.
e.
None of the answer choices are correct.
 

 101. 

One gram of ____________ contains more than twice the amount of energy of a gram of glucose.
a.
amino acids
b.
lipids
c.
ATP
d.
protein
e.
starch
 

 102. 

Which of the following molecules can be used as a substrate for cellular respiration?
a.
glucose
b.
fats
c.
proteins
d.
polysaccharides
e.
All of the above.
 

 103. 

Deamination of amino acids in mammals yields amino groups that are converted to ____________, which is(are) excreted, and ____________, which is(are) converted to one of the reactants of glycolysis or the citric acid cycle.
a.
urea; carbon chains
b.
amino acids; ATP
c.
amino groups; ADP
d.
carbon chains; amino acids
e.
amines; ATP
 

 104. 

Saturated fatty acids store more energy than unsaturated fatty acids because saturated fatty acids:
a.
are more highly reduced.
b.
are deaminated.
c.
lack phosphate.
d.
contain more ester linkages.
e.
contain more ATP.
 

 105. 

Select the molecule that contains the most stored chemical energy:
a.
ethyl alcohol.
b.
water.
c.
carbon dioxide.
d.
lactate.
e.
oxygen.
 

 106. 

Which of the following processes or molecules concerning anaerobic respiration is not correctly matched?
a.
terminal electron acceptor-inorganic substances such as O2.
b.
immediate fate of electrons in NADH-transferred to electron transport chain.
c.
reduced product(s) formed-relatively reduced inorganic substances.
d.
mechanism of ATP synthesis-oxidative phosphorylation/chemiosmosis and substrate level phosphorylation.
e.
All of the choices are correct.
 

 107. 

Select the molecule that contains the least stored chemical energy:
a.
ethyl alcohol.
b.
pyruvate.
c.
glucose.
d.
lactate.
e.
oxygen.
 

 108. 

One important regulation point in the aerobic respiration of mammals occurs in glycolysis at the site of the enzyme phosphofructokinase, which is:
a.
inhibited by high levels of ATP.
b.
inhibited by low levels of ATP.
c.
inhibited by high levels of AMP.
d.
activated by the presence of O2.
e.
activated by the introduction of glucose.
 

 109. 

The production of alcohol or lactate from pyruvate during ____________ occurs as a means of regenerating ____________ from ____________.
a.
aerobic respiration; NAD+; NADH
b.
fermentation; NAD+; NADH
c.
fermentation; NADH; NAD+
d.
fermentation; ADP; ATP
e.
aerobic respiration; ATP; ADP
 

 110. 

The ability of some bacteria to produce lactate is exploited by humans to make:
a.
cheese and ethyl alcohol.
b.
insulin and antibodies.
c.
yogurt and sauerkraut.
d.
ethyl alcohol and carbonic acid.
e.
carbon dioxide and water.
 

 111. 

Which of the following statements is not correct about lactic acid fermentation?
a.
It is inefficient compared to aerobic respiration.
b.
It uses glucose as a substrate.
c.
It produces two ATP molecules for every glucose molecule.
d.
Oxygen is the final electron acceptor of this pathway.
e.
Glycolysis is the only energy-yielding step of this pathway.
 

 112. 

During fermentation, the immediate fate of the electrons in NADH is that they:
a.
are transferred to the electron transport chain.
b.
are transferred to an organic molecule.
c.
are transferred to O2.
d.
are used to make CO2.
e.
are used to form H2O.
 

 113. 

Which of the following metabolic pathways is common to all cells?
a.
photosynthesis
b.
electron transport chain
c.
citric acid cycle
d.
glycolysis
e.
None of the above.
 

 114. 

The process by which light energy is converted into the stored chemical energy of organic molecules is:
a.
photosynthesis.
b.
respiration.
c.
diffusion.
d.
fermentation.
e.
None of the above.
 

 115. 

Which term is not correctly matched with the appropriate energy source or carbon source?
a.
heterotroph—organic energy sources
b.
chemotroph—chemical energy sources
c.
phototroph—light energy sources
d.
autotroph—carbon fixation.
e.
All of the choices are correct.
 

 116. 

All organisms are classified into two general trophic groups. These two groups are:
a.
organic and inorganic.
b.
consumers and decomposers.
c.
autotrophs and producers.
d.
autotrophs and heterotrophs.
e.
anaerobic autotrophs and aerobic autotrophs.
 

 117. 

Animals, fungi, and many bacteria that use organic molecules as a source of both energy and carbon are:
a.
photoautotrophs.
b.
catabolic autotrophs.
c.
chemoheterotrophs.
d.
photoheterotrophs.
e.
chemoautotrophs.
 

 118. 

Plants, algae, and certain bacteria are:
a.
inorganic synthesizers.
b.
consumers.
c.
chemosynthetic.
d.
independent trophs.
e.
producers.
 

 119. 

What is the correct sequence of wavelengths (beginning with the shortest)?
a.
gamma rays, UV, x-rays, infrared, visible light, TV and radio waves, and microwaves
b.
TV and radio waves, microwaves, visible light, UV, infrared, x-rays, and gamma rays
c.
microwaves, gamma rays, UV, visible light, infrared, TV, radio waves, and x-rays
d.
gamma rays, x-rays, UV, visible light, infrared, microwaves, TV and radio waves
e.
gamma rays, x-rays, UV, infrared, visible light, microwaves, and TV and radio waves
 

 120. 

Light behaves not only as waves, but also as particles, which are referred to as:
a.
electrons.
b.
protons.
c.
photons.
d.
radiation.
e.
neutrons.
 

 121. 

An electron absorbs a photon of light energy and becomes energized; the electron shifts from a ____________ atomic orbital to a _____________ atomic orbital.
a.
high energy; low energy
b.
fluorescing; ground state
c.
ground state; low energy
d.
low energy; high energy
e.
None of the answer choices are correct.
 
 
Figure 08-01
Use the figure below to answer the corresponding questions.

nar003-1.jpg
 

 122. 

Chloroplasts will be found in the greatest density in the area of Figure 08-01 labeled:
a.
1.
b.
3.
c.
4.
d.
6.
e.
7.
 

 123. 

The primary function of the leaf structure labeled 5 in Figure 08-01 is:
a.
food storage.
b.
photosynthesis.
c.
water transportation.
d.
gas exchange.
e.
nutrient absorption.
 

 124. 

The overall reactions of photosynthesis are best summarized as:
a.
12 CO2 + 6 H2O ® C6H12O6 + 12 O2 + 6 H2O.
b.
C6H12O6 + 6 O2 + 6 H2O ® 6 CO2 + 12 H2O.
c.
6 CO2 + 12 H2O ® C6H12O6 + 6 O2 + 6 H2O.
d.
6 CO2 + 12 H2O ® C6H12O6 + 12 O2.
e.
6 H2CO3 + 6 H2O ® C6H12O6 + C6H12O6 + 6 H2O + 6 O2.
 

 125. 

The ____________________ of a chlorophyll molecule is (are) responsible for absorbing light.
a.
carbon atoms
b.
porphyrin ring
c.
methyl group
d.
magnesium ion
e.
long hydrophobic tail
 

 126. 

Chlorophyll consists of a porphyrin ring that contains a single atom of:
a.
manganese.
b.
magnesium.
c.
phosphorus.
d.
nitrogen.
e.
iron.
 

 127. 

Chlorophyll molecules are attached to thylakoid membranes by:
a.
a long hydrophobic tail.
b.
the porphyrin ring.
c.
the methyl group.
d.
a magnesium ion.
e.
a hydroxide group.
 

 128. 

Chlorophyll and accessory photosynthetic pigments are associated with the:
a.
stroma.
b.
thylakoid membranes.
c.
mesophyll membranes.
d.
light reaction centers of the stroma lamellae.
e.
stroma grana.
 

 129. 

The action spectrum of photosynthesis best matches the absorption spectrum of:
a.
NADPH.
b.
carotenoids.
c.
chlorophyll.
d.
xanthophylls.
e.
anthocyanin.
 

 130. 

Red and blue light support the highest rates of photosynthesis because:
a.
these are the only wavelengths reaching Earth from the sun.
b.
these are the only wavelengths that carotenoids cannot absorb.
c.
these wavelengths have the highest energy in the visible spectrum.
d.
chlorophyll absorbs these wavelengths more than other wavelengths.
e.
these wavelengths activate the ATP sythetase enzyme.
 

 131. 

Substances that absorb visible light:
a.
ATP.
b.
NADP.
c.
RuBP.
d.
pigment.
e.
photon.
 

 132. 

Chlorophyll absorbs primarily _____ and _____ regions of the visible spectrum.
a.
blue; red
b.
green; yellow
c.
red; green
d.
red; yellow
e.
blue; yellow
 

 133. 

The most important photosynthetic pigment(s) is(are):
a.
carotenoids.
b.
xanthophylls.
c.
chlorophyll a.
d.
chlorophyll b.
e.
All are equally important for photosynthesis.
 

 134. 

Accessory photosynthetic pigment that expands the spectrum of light that provides energy for photosynthesis:
a.
carotenoids.
b.
chlorophyll a.
c.
chlorophyll b.
d.
Both A and B.
e.
Both A and C.
 

 135. 

Engelmann concluded that chlorophyll in the chloroplasts is responsible for photosynthesis based on the following results:
a.
Spirogyra cells each contain a long, spiral-shaped, emerald-green chloroplast embedded in the cytoplasm.
b.
The action spectrum of photosynthesis matched the maximum production of oxygen by Spirogyra, observed by the greatest accumulation of bacteria in the blue and red regions of the spectrum.
c.
Bacteria exposed to the action spectrum for photosynthesis showed no preference to any particular color of light.
d.
Accessory pigments transfer some of the energy of excitation produced by green light to chlorophyll molecules.
e.
None of the answer choices are correct.
 
 
Figure 08-02
Use the figure below to answer the corresponding questions.

nar004-1.jpg
 

 136. 

According to the graph in Figure 08-02, chlorophyll absorbs light most strongly in the:
a.
red and blue wavelengths.
b.
blue and green wavelengths.
c.
green and yellow wavelengths.
d.
UV and red wavelengths.
e.
UV and infrared wavelengths.
 

 137. 

The graph in Figure 08-02 represents the:
a.
electromagnetic spectrum.
b.
action spectrum of photosynthesis.
c.
absorption spectra for chlorophylls a and b.
d.
Z scheme for photosynthesis.
e.
None of the above.
 

 138. 

During the reactions of photosynthesis, ____________ is reduced and ____________ is oxidized.
a.
O2; C6H12O6
b.
CO2; C6H12O6
c.
H2O; C6H12O6
d.
O2; H2O
e.
CO2; H2O
 

 139. 

In the overall reactions of photosynthesis, it appears that hydrogen atoms are transferred from water to carbon dioxide to form a carbohydrate. This type of reaction is classified as:
a.
a redox reaction.
b.
an anaerobic reaction.
c.
a catabolic reaction.
d.
an oxidation reaction.
e.
a hydrolytic reaction.
 

 140. 

A group of thylakoid discs make up:
a.
the stroma.
b.
a granum.
c.
a chloroplast.
d.
a vacuole.
e.
the mesophyll layer.
 

 141. 

In a chloroplast, there is an outer and an inner membrane. The inner membrane encloses a fluid filled region called the;
a.
grana.
b.
stroma.
c.
thylakoid.
d.
pigment.
e.
electron acceptor.
 

 142. 

Thylakoid sacs are sometimes arranged in stacks called:
a.
grana.
b.
stroma.
c.
lumen.
d.
pigment.
e.
electron acceptor.
 

 143. 

Thylakoid membranes are involved in __________ synthesis.
a.
glucose
b.
NADP
c.
ATP
d.
RuBP
e.
PEP
 

 144. 

Which of the following is not associated with the thylakoid membranes?
a.
photosystems I and II
b.
the Calvin-Bensen cycle
c.
electron transport systems
d.
ATP synthetase
e.
antenna complex
 

 145. 

The reactions of photosynthesis are divided into two categories:
a.
light-independent reactions and carbon fixation reactions.
b.
carbon fixation reactions and oxygen fixation reactions.
c.
light-dependent reactions and carbon fixation reactions.
d.
light-dependent reactions and citric acid cycle.
e.
chemiosmosis and photochemical reactions.
 

 146. 

During the light-dependent reactions of photosynthesis, a constant supply of electrons is provided by:
a.
water.
b.
oxygen.
c.
the sun.
d.
chlorophyll.
e.
carotenoids.
 

 147. 

ATP is formed when __________________ the thylakoid lumen.
a.
hydrogen ions enter
b.
hydrogen ions leave
c.
electrons enter
d.
electrons leave
e.
water is split in
 

 148. 

The reactions that occur in the thylakoid membranes are:
a.
the energy-releasing reactions.
b.
the photorespiration reactions.
c.
the sugar-producing reactions.
d.
the carbon fixation reactions.
e.
the light-dependent reactions.
 

 149. 

The electron transport chain of photosynthesis is located in:
a.
the cristae.
b.
the mitochondria.
c.
the outer chloroplast membrane.
d.
the chloroplast stroma.
e.
the thylakoid membrane.
 
 
Figure 08-03
Use the figure below to answer the corresponding questions.

nar005-1.jpg
 

 150. 

Carbon is fixed in which part of the diagram in Figure 08-03?
a.
A
b.
G
c.
4
d.
2
e.
1
 

 151. 

Where in Figure 08-03 is NADPH formed?
a.
F
b.
4
c.
3
d.
2
e.
B
 

 152. 

In photosynthesis, ATP and NADPH are produced during:
a.
the carbon fixation reactions.
b.
the light-dependent phase.
c.
the light-independent phase.
d.
glycolysis.
e.
photolysis.
 

 153. 

12 H2O + 12 NADP+ + 18 ADP + Pi ® 6 O2 + 12 NADPH + 18 ATP summarizes the ____________ reactions of photosynthesis.
a.
carbon fixation
b.
light-dependent
c.
light-independent
d.
CAM
e.
electron transport
 

 154. 

Reaction center complexes of the light-dependent reactions contain ____________ and ____________, which receive energy from ____________.
a.
accessory pigments; chlorophyll; antenna complexes
b.
carotenoids; proteins; chlorophyll
c.
chlorophyll; antenna complexes; carotenoid
d.
proteins; antenna complexes; carotenoid
e.
chlorophyll; proteins; antenna complexes
 

 155. 

How many electrons are needed to reduce one molecule of NADP+ to NADPH?
a.
1
b.
2
c.
3
d.
4
e.
5
 

 156. 

Electrons that are excited to a higher energy level may be transferred to an electron acceptor or may return to a ground state. If the latter occurs, energy will be released in a process known as:
a.
photoelectron degradation.
b.
fluorescence.
c.
photoelectron hydrolysis.
d.
porphyrin.
e.
photoelectron deconfiguration.
 

 157. 

The electrons lost by the P680 reactive center are replaced from:
a.
a water molecule.
b.
solar energy.
c.
ATP.
d.
NADP+.
e.
Photosystem II.
 

 158. 

Chlorophyll:
a.
reflects red and blue light, and absorbs green light.
b.
transmits red and blue light, and absorbs green light.
c.
transmits red and blue light, and reflects green light.
d.
absorbs red and blue light, and reflects green light.
e.
absorbs red, blue, and green light.
 

 159. 

The synthesis of ATP as a result of the light-dependent reactions of photosynthesis is an ____________ reaction that is coupled to the diffusion of ____________ down their concentration gradient.
a.
endergonic; protons
b.
energy-releasing; hydrogen ions
c.
exergonic; electrons
d.
energy-acquiring; electrons
e.
oxidation; water
 

 160. 

The synthesis of ATP during photosynthesis or respiration occurs as a result of:
a.
phosphorylation of AMP.
b.
phosphorylation of ATP.
c.
phosphorylation of ADP.
d.
phosphorylation of G3P.
e.
oxidation of NADPH.
 

 161. 

Ribulose phosphate is synthesized from:
a.
NADP+.
b.
pyruvate.
c.
G3P.
d.
RuBP.
e.
CO2.
 

 162. 

The first step in the Calvin-Bensen cycle is the attachment of carbon dioxide to:
a.
Rubisco.
b.
glyceraldehyde 3-phosphate (G3P).
c.
phosphoglycerate
d.
RuBP (ribulose bisphosphate).
e.
None of the above.
 

 163. 

Which of the following is not one of the intermediates or products of the carbon fixation reactions?
a.
NADPH
b.
phosphogylcerate (PGA)
c.
glyceraldehyde 3-phosphate
d.
glucose
e.
ribulose bisphosphate
 

 164. 

The reactants of the light-dependent reactions are:
a.
H2O, ADP, and NADP+.
b.
CO2, ADP, and NADP+.
c.
H2O, ATP, and NADPH.
d.
CO2, ADP, and NADPH.
e.
H2O, CO2, and NADP+.
 

 165. 

The reactants of the Calvin-Benson cycle are:
a.
H2O, ATP, and NADPH.
b.
CO2, ADP, and NADP+.
c.
CO2, ATP, and NADPH.
d.
H2O, ATP, and NADPH.
e.
CO2, H2O, and ATP.
 

 166. 

Noncyclic electron transport needs a constant supply of electrons. These are obtained from:
a.
light.
b.
CO2.
c.
glucose.
d.
H2O.
e.
ATP.
 

 167. 

Oxygen produced by photosynthesis comes directly from:
a.
light.
b.
CO2.
c.
glucose.
d.
H2O.
e.
ATP.
 

 168. 

Which of the following is not common to both photosynthesis and aerobic respiration?
a.
ATP synthesis
b.
electron transport chain
c.
oxidation
d.
terminal electron acceptor
e.
None of the above, all are shared by both processes.
 

 169. 

Which of the following is common to both photosynthesis and aerobic respiration?
a.
NADP+ and NADPH
b.
glycolysis
c.
chemiosmosis
d.
CO2 and O2 as end products
e.
thylakoids
 

 170. 

In C4 plants, reactions that fix CO2 into four-carbon compounds occur in:
a.
guard cells.
b.
epidermal cells.
c.
bundle sheath cells.
d.
mesophyll cells.
e.
xylem cells.
 

 171. 

The ______________ in leaves are typically closed at night and open during the daytime to allow for gas exchange.
a.
stomata
b.
epidermis
c.
spongy mesophyll
d.
grana
e.
cuticles
 

 172. 

At night, CAM plants incorporate CO2 into ____________, which is stored in the ____________ of their cells.
a.
fructose; vacuoles
b.
acetyl CoA; mitochondria
c.
glucose; starch granules
d.
pyruvate; starch granules
e.
malate; vacuoles
 



 
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