Virus Study Guide

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Virus Quiz

 

 
Multiple Choice
Identify the choice that best completes the statement or answers the question.
 1.
Viruses are considered nonliving because
a.
they cannot reproduce by themselves.
b.
they are not made up of cells.
c.
they cannot carry out metabolism by themselves.
d.
All of the above
 2.
The study of viruses is a part of biology because
a.
they belong to the kingdom Eubacteria.
b.
they are about to become extinct.
c.
they are living organisms.
d.
they are active inside living cells.
 3.
Biologists now know that viruses
a.
are the smallest organisms.
b.
consist of a protein surrounded by a nucleic acid coat.
c.
contain RNA or DNA in a protein or lipid-protein coat.
d.
all form the same crystalline shape.
 4.
The capsid of a virus is the
a.
protective outer coat.
b.
cell membrane.
c.
nucleus.
d.
cell wall and membrane complex.
 5.
Viruses are classified according to
a.
whether they contain RNA or DNA.
b.
the shape of their genome.
c.
whether they have a membrane envelope.
d.
All of the above
 6.
All viruses have
a.
cytoplasm.
c.
mitochondria.
b.
ribosomes.
d.
None of the above
 7.
Tobacco mosaic virus
a.
is able to be crystallized.
b.
causes disease in tobacco plants.
c.
is smaller than a bacterium.
d.
All of the above
 8.
Scientists first began to study viruses because they
a.
were seen through a microscope.
b.
could not be seen but caused disease.
c.
formed crystals.
d.
were made of cells.
 9.
Viruses that use reverse transcriptase to cause their host cells to transcribe DNA from an RNA template are called
a.
bacteriophages.
c.
retroviruses.
b.
antibodies.
d.
capsoviruses.
 10.
Which of the following contains only RNA?
a.
a prion
c.
a viroid
b.
a virus
d.
All of the above
 11.
Unlike viruses, prions
a.
are capable of reproducing outside of a host cell.
b.
are composed only of protein.
c.
can cause brain infections.
d.
can be treated with antibiotics.
 12.
A typical virus consists of
a.
a protein coat and a cytoplasm core.
b.
a carbohydrate coat and a nucleic acid core.
c.
a protein coat and a nucleic acid core.
d.
a polysaccharide coat and a nucleic acid core.
 13.
Refer to the illustration above. Which structure could possibly be made of RNA?
a.
structure 2
c.
structure 4
b.
structure 3
d.
structure 5
 14.
Refer to the illustration above. Which structure is found outside the cell after the cell is infected?
a.
structure 1
c.
structure 3
b.
structure 2
d.
structure 4
 15.
Viruses
a.
are cellular organisms.
b.
reproduce only in living cells.
c.
have nuclei and organelles.
d.
are surrounded by a polysaccharide coat.
 16.
Animal viruses often infect only specific host cells because
a.
the virus must have the same DNA as the host cell.
b.
the host cell must have specific receptors for proteins on the virus surface.
c.
viruses have receptors for host cell glycoproteins.
d.
the enzymes of the virus can attach only to specific host cells.
 17.
In which cell cycle(s) does viral DNA become integrated into the host cell’s DNA?
a.
lytic
b.
lysogenic
c.
neither lytic nor lysogenic
d.
both lytic and lysogenic
 18.
Antibiotics are ineffective against viral infections because
a.
host cells protect the viruses.
b.
viruses have enzymes that inactivate the antibiotics.
c.
antibiotics interfere with cellular processes that viruses do not perform.
d.
viral protein coats block the antibiotics from entering the virus.
 19.
Which of the following is not a viral disease of humans?
a.
hepatitis
b.
SARS
c.
shingles
d.
All of the above are viral diseases of humans.
 20.
Which of the following is not linked to cancer?
a.
Ebola virus
c.
hepatitis B virus
b.
human papillomavirus
d.
Epstein-Barr virus
 21.
Which of the following human activities is most closely associated with the emergence of viruses not previously seen in humans?
a.
absence of a vaccination program
b.
crowded living conditions
c.
clearing of forests for housing
d.
eating uncooked meat
 22.
Most scientists think that early viruses originated from
a.
other viruses.
b.
existing cell parts.
c.
animals.
d.
spontaneous generation.
 23.
HIV causes AIDS by
a.
converting a proto-oncogene to an oncogene.
b.
damaging a person’s blood vessels.
c.
destroying the covering of a person’s nerves.
d.
gradually destroying a person’s immune system.
 24.
Which of the following is not a vector of viral diseases?
a.
mosquitoes
c.
prions
b.
ticks
d.
humans
 25.
Which of the following has been the most successful at fighting viral diseases?
a.
vaccination
c.
drug therapy
b.
vector control
d.
Both a and b
 26.
Most scientists believe that viruses first appeared on Earth ____ living cells appeared.
a.
after
b.
a very long time before
c.
at the exact time when
d.
immediately before
 
Completion
Complete each statement.
 27.
The protein coat of a virus is called a(n) ____________________.

 28.
Viruses can vary in size and ____________________.

 29.
A virus that transcribes DNA from an RNA template is called a(n) ____________________.

 30.
An enzyme called _________________________ manufactures DNA that is complementary to a virus’s RNA.

 31.
____________________ are viruses that infect bacteria and have a polyhedral head and a helical tail.

 32.
All viruses reproduce by taking over the reproductive machinery of a(n) ____________________.

 33.
Viruses that infect a host cell and have their nucleic acid replicated but do not harm the host cell are in a(n) ____________________ cycle.

 34.
The replication of a temperate virus includes the ____________________ cycle.

 35.
The virus that causes AIDS is called _________________________.

 36.
Some viruses are thought to induce ____________________, a disease characterized by uncontrolled cell division.

 37.
The Ebola virus, the SARS virus, and hantavirus are examples of ____________________ viruses.

 38.
In the ____________________ cycle, viruses destroy the host cell.

 39.
Chickenpox and ____________________ are caused by the same virus.

 
Problem
 40.

A new disease has suddenly appeared and scientists are trying to determine whether the disease agent is a virus or a bacterium. They collect the following information:

1.      The disease can be transmitted through the air.
2.      The disease agent is too small to be seen under a light microscope.
3.      There are no known antibiotics that are effective against the disease.
4.      The genetic material of the disease agent is DNA.
5.      The disease agent cannot be cultured using any known culture medium.

Is the disease agent most likely a bacterium or a virus? Explain your answer. Write your answer in the space below.

 

   

Quiz Viruses

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Viruses

 

 
True/False
Indicate whether the sentence or statement is true or false.
1.
Although viruses do not consist of cells, biologists consider them to be living because they are capable of reproduction.
2.
Some viruses have a membranous envelope surrounding the protein coat that helps them gain entry into host cells.
3.
Viruses consist of RNA or DNA surrounded by a coat of protein.
4.
Prions are the smallest known particles that are able to replicate.
5.
A virus can only reproduce by controlling a cell.
6.
Once a virus enters either a lytic or a lysogenic cycle, it cannot change to the opposite type of cycle.
7.
Prophages and proviruses can both enter lytic cycles and destroy host cells.
8.
People can contract the influenza virus more than once because the virus tends to mutate rapidly, avoiding the actions of the immune system.
9.
Smallpox is caused by bacteria.
10.
Chickenpox and shingles are caused by the same virus.
 
Multiple Choice
Identify the letter of the choice that best completes the statement or answers the question.
11.
The study of viruses is a part of biology because
a.
they belong to the kingdom Eubacteria.
b.
they are about to become extinct.
c.
they are living organisms.
d.
they are active inside living cells.
12.
The capsid of a virus is the
a.
protective outer coat.
c.
nucleus.
b.
cell membrane.
d.
cell wall and membrane complex.
13.
A membranous envelope surrounding some viruses may be composed of
a.
lipids.
c.
glycoproteins.
b.
proteins.
d.
All of the above
14.
viruses : nucleic acids::
a.
water : ice
c.
simplicity : complexity
b.
brick : wood
d.
a jigsaw puzzle : individual pieces
15.
A typical virus consists of
a.
a protein coat and a cytoplasm core.
b.
a carbohydrate coat and a nucleic acid core.
c.
a protein coat and a nucleic acid core.
d.
a polysaccharide coat and a nucleic acid core.
16.
Refer to the illustration above. Which labeled structure could possibly be made of RNA?
a.
Structure “B”
c.
Structure “D”
b.
Structure “C”
d.
Structure “E”
17.
In which type of cell cycle(s) does viral DNA become integrated into the host cell’s DNA?
a.
lytic
c.
neither lytic nor lysogenic
b.
lysogenic
d.
lytic and lysogenic
18.
A prophage differs from a provirus in that
a.
a prophage contains DNA, while a provirus contains RNA.
b.
a prophage is formed during a lysogenic cycle, while a provirus is formed during a lytic cycle.
c.
a prophage contains DNA found in the infecting virus particle, while a provirus contains DNA produced from viral RNA.
d.
a prophage becomes integrated into a host cell’s DNA, while a provirus cannot become integrated into a host cell’s DNA.
19.
Which of the following is not a virus linked to cancer?
a.
Ebola
c.
hepatitis B
b.
human papillomavirus
d.
Epstein-Barr
20.
Which of the following human activities is most closely associated with emerging viruses?
a.
absence of a vaccination program
c.
clearcutting of forests
b.
crowded living conditions
d.
eating uncooked meat

 

   

 

Protists Quiz

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Simple Protists
  1. Plant-like protists are collectively called:
    protozoans
    algae
    diatoms
    pseudopodia
  2. Where would you find a paramecium?
    in quiet ponds
    in the human body
    in dirt
    on leaves
  3. Which of the following moves using pseudopodia?
    paramecium
    euglena
    diatoms
    ameba
  4. Which of the following is unicellular and heterotrophic?
    ameba
    paramecium
    algae
    both ameba & paramecium
  5. The word “pseudopodia” means:
    small cell
    fake eye
    false foot
    first animal

 

 

 

 

 

  1. Identify the organism pictured above.

ameba
paramecium
euglena
diatom

  1. Which organelle functions to remove excess water?
    micronucleus
    contractile vacuole
    pellicle
    gullet
  2. The ameba reproduces by:
    fusion
    endocytosis
    binary fission
    conjugation
  3. The paramecium belongs to the Kingdom ____ and the Phylum _____
    Ciliphora, Protista
    Protista, Ciliophora
    Protozoa, Protista
    Animalia, Protista
  4. Which of the following is autotrophic?
    paramecium
    foraminifera
    ameba
    euglena

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Protist Study Guide

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Protist Quiz

 

 
Modified True/False
Indicate whether the statement is true or false.  If false, change the identified word or phrase to make the statement true.
 1.
The kingdom Protista contains the eukaryotes that are not plants, animals, or fungi. _________________________


 2.
Sexual reproduction with spores evolved in protists. _________________________


 3.
Tissues, organs, and organ systems evolved in unicellular protists. _________________________


 4.
Sexual reproduction allows Chlamydomonas to delay development of new organisms until environmental conditions are favorable. _________________________


 5.
Amoebas move by means of pseudopodia. _________________________


 6.
Diatoms are the only type of protists with single shells. _________________________


 7.
Paramecium takes in food through its contractile vacuole. _________________________


 8.
Cellular slime molds form a mass of cytoplasm that has many nuclei. _________________________


 9.
Protists have an important effect on humans because they cause disease. _________________________


 10.
Malaria is caused by the protist Plasmodium and is spread by the bite of certain fleas. _________________________


 11.
Carrageenan is a product made by protists that is used to flavor many food products. _________________________


 
Multiple Choice
Identify the choice that best completes the statement or answers the question.
 12.
Which of the following is not true about some or all protists?
a.
unicellular and heterotrophic
c.
multicellular and autotrophic
b.
unicellular and autotrophic
d.
multicellular and prokaryotic
 13.
The kingdom Protista does not include
a.
most of the single-celled eukaryotes.
c.
multicellular seaweed.
b.
slime and water molds.
d.
prokaryotes.
 14.
Which of the following characteristics did not evolve in the Kingdom Protista?
a.
unicellularity
c.
membrane-bound organelles
b.
gametes
d.
complex cilia and flagella
 15.
sexual reproduction : diversity ::
a.
flagella : cilia
c.
green algae : flagella
b.
multicellularity : tissues
d.
unicellularity : protists
 16.
Eukaryotes that lack the features of animals, plants, or fungi are classified in the kingdom
a.
Archaebacteria.
c.
Protista.
b.
Plantae.
d.
Animalia.
 17.
You have been given an unknown organism to identify. You find that it is unicellular and has a cell wall. Which of the following must it also have?
a.
chloroplasts
c.
pseudopodia
b.
asexual reproduction
d.
one or more flagella
 18.
When Chlamydomonas reproduces sexually, it divides by mitosis, producing
a.
zygospores.
c.
haploid gametes.
b.
diploid gametes.
d.
zoospores.
 19.
Zoospores are
a.
produced as a result of meiosis.
c.
produced as a result of mitosis.
b.
diploid.
d.
all parasitic.
 20.
The haploid, gamete-producing phase in the life cycle of some multicellular protists is known as the
a.
zygospore generation.
c.
conjugation generation.
b.
gametophyte generation.
d.
sporophyte generation.
 21.
The marine green alga Ulva reproduces sexually by
a.
alternation of generations.
c.
mitosis.
b.
conjugation.
d.
aggregation.
 22.
Pseudopodia are used for
a.
Paramecium conjugation.
c.
Euglena reproduction.
b.
movement by amoebas.
d.
Paramecium mitosis.
 23.
Amoebas capture food by
a.
engulfing it.
c.
trapping it with flagella.
b.
using cilia.
d.
taking it into an oral groove.
 24.
When an individual diatom gets too small because of repeated division, it
a.
grows to full size in its existing shell.
b.
slips out of its shell, grows to full size, and regenerates a new shell.
c.
slips out of its shell, grows to full size, and reinhabits its old shell.
d.
slips out of its shell and lives the rest of its life without a shell.
 25.
Algae are
a.
sometimes heterotrophic.
b.
always microscopic in size.
c.
found in fresh water, salt water, and damp soil.
d.
found only in fresh water.
 26.
Red algae
a.
are multicellular.
c.
have eyespots.
b.
are unicellular.
d.
have double shells.
 27.
Euglenoids are examples of protists that
a.
can be both autotrophic and heterotrophic.
b.
are only parasitic heterotrophs.
c.
are always autotrophic.
d.
swim away from light.
 28.
dinoflagellates : flagella ::
a.
amoebas : pseudopodia
c.
ciliates : pseudopodia
b.
sporozoans : flagella
d.
amoebas : flagella
 29.
The process in which two Paramecia come together to exchange parts of their genetic material is called
a.
mitosis.
c.
pollination.
b.
replication.
d.
conjugation.
 30.
Refer to the illustration above. Excess water in the body of the Paramecium is forced back out by the structure labeled
a.
A
c.
D
b.
C
d.
E
 31.
Refer to the illustration above. The structure that contains the cell’s chromosomes is labeled
a.
A
c.
C
b.
B
d.
E
 32.
Refer to the illustration above. Structure C is the
a.
macronucleus.
c.
oral groove.
b.
contractile vacuole.
d.
micronucleus.
 33.
Refer to the illustration above. The structure that controls routine cellular functions is labeled
a.
A
c.
C
b.
B
d.
D
 34.
Funguslike protists reproduce by releasing
a.
gametes.
c.
zoospores.
b.
spores.
d.
plasmodia.
 35.
Giardiasis is a disease that is spread
a.
by direct person-to-person contact.
c.
through contaminated water.
b.
through the air.
d.
by the Anopheles mosquito.
 36.
Chagas disease is spread by
a.
kissing bugs.
c.
contaminated food.
b.
mosquitoes.
d.
contaminated water.
 37.
Which of the following is not a human disease caused by a protist?
a.
amebic dysentery
c.
malaria
b.
toxoplasmosis
d.
tuberculosis.
 38.
giardiasis : contaminated water ::
a.
amebic dysentery : mosquito
c.
malaria : mosquito
b.
amebic dysentery : giardiasis
d.
malaria : food contamination
 39.
The protist that causes malaria reproduces in the
a.
intestine of a human.
c.
red blood cells of a human.
b.
red blood cells of a mosquito.
d.
stinger of a mosquito.
 40.
Malaria is caused by several species of
a.
Toxoplasma.
c.
Giardia.
b.
Phytophthora.
d.
Plasmodium.
 41.
The stage in the life cycle of Plasmodium in which it lives in mosquitoes and is injected into humans is called the
a.
gametophyte.
c.
sporophyte.
b.
sporozoite.
d.
zoospore.
 42.
Symbiotic protists live in all of the following organisms except
a.
termites.
c.
cattle.
b.
corals.
d.
bacteria.
 43.
Protists that play an important role in aquatic food webs are called
a.
plankton.
c.
anchovies.
b.
lichens.
d.
cyanobacteria.
 44.
The evolution of the plant kingdom can be inferred by studying
a.
green algae.
c.
red algae.
b.
brown algae.
d.
dinoflagellates.
 45.
A mass of cytoplasm that has many nuclei is a(n)
a.
spore.
c.
colony.
b.
plasmodium.
d.
amoeba.
 46.
A protist that almost destroyed the entire potato crop in Ireland in 1846 is a
a.
plasmodial slime mold.
c.
dinoflagellate.
b.
cellular slime mold.
d.
water mold.
 47.
A downy mildew gets nutrients by
a.
photosynthesis.
b.
absorbing them from the environment.
c.
making them from inorganic chemicals.
d.
making them from organic building blocks.
 48.
When an algal bloom dies, the bacteria that decompose the algae
a.
deplete carbon dioxide levels in the water.
b.
kill the plankton population.
c.
deplete oxygen levels in the water.
d.
kill fish.
 49.
A protist used by scientists to study cell movement and cell signaling is a
a.
dinoflagellate.
c.
paramecium.
b.
diatom.
d.
slime mold.
 50.
Agar is a product used to grow bacteria. Agar comes from
a.
bacteria.
c.
diatoms.
b.
algae.
d.
amoebas.
 
Completion
Complete each statement.
 51.
Two important features that evolved in the protists were multicellularity and sexual reproduction with the production of ____________________.

 52.
The evolution of ____________________ allowed single-celled organisms to perform many functions at the same time.

 53.
When ______________________________ evolved, protists could become genetically diverse.

 54.
Although protists are diverse, they are all ____________________.

Life Cycle of Chlamydomonas
 55.
Refer to the illustration above. Arrow B is pointing to a ____________________ in the life cycle.

 56.
Refer to the illustration above. Arrow A is pointing to ____________________ in the life cycle.

 57.
According to the illustration above, Chlamydomonas reproduces both sexually and ____________________.

 58.
Some protists undergo sexual reproduction only at times of environmental ____________________.

 59.
Ulva is characterized by two distinct multicellular phases: a diploid, spore producing phase called the ____________________ generation and a haploid, gamete-producing phase called the ____________________ generation.

 60.
Refer to the illustration above. The organism shown in A moves and obtains food by means of ____________________.

 61.
Refer to the illustration above. The organism shown in C moves by means of ____________________.

 62.
Refer to the illustration above. The organism shown in B moves by means of ____________________.

 63.
Some amoeboid protists have porous shells called ____________________.

 64.
____________________ have double shells that resemble small boxes with lids.

 65.
The large brown algae that grow along coasts are called ____________________.

 66.
Protists that are strict photoautotrophs are called ____________________.

 67.
Poisonous “red tides” are caused by population explosions of ____________________.

 68.
Brown algae are the only algae that form more than one kind of ____________________.

 69.
Some protists have ____________________ that contain light-sensitive pigments.

 70.
____________________ disease is a protist-caused disease that is transmitted by kissing bugs.

 71.
Disease-causing protists are transmitted mainly by insects or by contaminated ____________________ and ____________________.

 72.
The stage of Plasmodium that infects the liver is called the ____________________; the second stage of the Plasmodium life cycle, which infects red blood cells, is called the ____________________.

 73.
Plantlike protists produce ____________________, which allows most forms of life to live on Earth.

 74.
____________________ are related to green algae and are thought to have evolved from them.

 75.
Funguslike protists resemble fungi in that they reproduce with ____________________ and they ____________________ nutrients from their environment.

 76.
Cellular slime molds usually exist as single-celled amoebas, but they form ____________________ and release ____________________ when food or water is scarce.

 77.
A water mold caused the great potato famine in ____________________ in 1846.

 78.
The empty shells of diatoms are used as ____________________ in cleaning agents.

 79.
Red algae produce carrageenan, which is used in the food industry to ____________________ foods such as ice cream and salad dressings.

 

   

Bacteria and Viruses

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bacteria and Viruses

 

 
Multiple Choice
Identify the choice that best completes the statement or answers the question.
 1.
Many microscopic organisms or entities have been identified as pathogens, including all of the following except:
a.
protozoa.
b.
viruses.
c.
fungi.
d.
bacteria.
e.
None of the above, all may be pathogenic.
 2.
Which of the following statements about bacteria is false?
a.
A small percentage of bacteria are pathogenic.
b.
Some bacteria can photosynthesize.
c.
Bacteria are important decomposers.
d.
Bacteria are not cellular and are sometimes not classified as life forms.
e.
Bacteria convert atmospheric nitrogen into ammonia and then nitrates that can be used by plants.
 3.
Viruses were first identified:
a.
because they caused an infection and formed colonies on nutrient agar plates.
b.
because they were seen in the light microscope.
c.
because they caused an infection and were small enough to pass through filters that trapped bacteria.
d.
because they were smaller than bacteria and had all the properties of living organisms.
e.
because they caused an infection and were seen in the electron microscope.
 4.
The protein coat of a virus is called the:
a.
capsule.
b.
capsid.
c.
exospore.
d.
phage.
e.
pilus.
 5.
Viruses that attack bacteria are called:
a.
phages.
b.
bacteriods
c.
prions.
d.
virons.
e.
viroids.
Figure 23-01
Use the figure below to answer the corresponding questions.
 6.
The structure of the virus in Figure 23-01 that is common to all viruses is:
a.
2.
b.
3.
c.
4.
d.
5.
e.
All of the above.
 7.
In Figure 23-01, the function of the structure labeled 3 is:
a.
attachment to a host cell.
b.
locomotion.
c.
mate recognition.
d.
replication.
e.
to take over host cell mechanisms.
 8.
Viruses are classified by:
a.
the sequence of their DNA.
b.
structural similarities.
c.
the sequence of their rRNA genes.
d.
the traditional Linnaean binomial nomenclature system.
e.
an international committee.
 9.
Viruses:
a.
are very tiny cells on the order of 500 nm.
b.
contain both RNA and DNA.
c.
cannot independently perform metabolic activities.
d.
have a standard morphology that includes a capsid, tail, and tail fibers.
e.
All of the above.
 10.
Viruses:
a.
are usually species-specific.
b.
may have multiple origins.
c.
are probably related to mobile genetic elements.
d.
may have escaped from cells.
e.
All of the above.
 11.
Phages are being considered for:
a.
vectors in gene therapy experiments.
b.
antibiotics in bacterial infections.
c.
gene transfer vectors in animal cells.
d.
being equivalent to the first living organisms.
e.
All of the above.
 12.
Temperate viruses:
a.
always destroy their host immediately.
b.
are considered virulent.
c.
do not always destroy their host.
d.
do not undergo a lysogenic cycle.
e.
undergo a lytic cycle.
 13.
Virulent (lytic) phages:
a.
infect viruses.
b.
destroy bacteria.
c.
infect, but do not destroy bacteria.
d.
infect virions.
e.
infect prions.
 14.
The five stages of a lytic infection are attachment, penetration, _____________, assembly, and release.
a.
lysis
b.
prophage
c.
lysogenesis
d.
transduction
e.
replication
 15.
A prophage:
a.
is phage DNA that is integrated into viral DNA.
b.
is phage DNA that is integrated into bacterial DNA.
c.
replicates only when the eukaryotic cell it infects replicates.
d.
is an underdeveloped lytic virus.
e.
is a bacterial cell about to lyse.
 16.
The bacterium that causes botulism disease is harmless until it:
a.
is infected by lytic bacteria.
b.
is infected by certain retroviruses.
c.
contains a certain prophage DNA.
d.
is irradiated by UV radiation.
e.
is infected by prions.
 17.
____________ conversion occurs when a bacterium carrying viral genes takes on new, atypical characteristics.
a.
Transducing
b.
Lysogenic
c.
Prophage
d.
Lytic
e.
Reverse
 18.
The specificity of viruses to different types of cells is due to _____________ sites on the host cell.
a.
prophage
b.
receptor
c.
transduction
d.
penetration
e.
transcription
 19.
Retroviruses differ from other RNA viruses by:
a.
having reverse transcriptase instead of RNA-dependent RNA polymerase.
b.
the shape of their capsid.
c.
the way they infect their host cells.
d.
the sugar coating on their capsids.
e.
lytically destroying their hosts.
 20.
Which of the following diseases is not caused by a virus?
a.
rabies
b.
polio
c.
warts in humans
d.
chickenpox
e.
Lyme disease
 21.
Which of the following identifies a group of DNA viruses?
a.
retroviruses
b.
herpesviruses
c.
paramyxoviruses
d.
filovirus
e.
picornaviruses
 22.
Viral proteins can damage host cells by:
a.
increasing the rate of fermentation within the host.
b.
producing endotoxins.
c.
causing a decline in coordination and increased irritability.
d.
preventing transcription of viral nucleic acids.
e.
overwhelming the host cell with a large number of viruses.
 23.
Viral infections in humans spread via the circulatory system. Viral infections in plants spread from cell to cell via:
a.
endocytosis.
b.
plasmodesmata.
c.
infected seeds.
d.
pili.
e.
transformation.
 24.
Human viruses can enter human cells by fusion with the cell membrane or by:
a.
diffusion into the cell.
b.
passage through specific protein channels.
c.
coating themselves with lipids that cloak their entrance into the cell.
d.
endocytosis.
e.
hitchhiking onto protein signals entering the cell.
 25.
Viroids cause a variety of plant diseases and are composed only of:
a.
strands of RNA.
b.
strands of DNA.
c.
protein coats.
d.
peptidoglycan.
e.
a capsid.
 26.
Mad cow disease is an example of an infection caused by a:
a.
bacterium.
b.
bacteriophage.
c.
retrovirus.
d.
viroid.
e.
prion.
 27.
_____________ is credited with the discovery of prions as a new biological principle of infection.
a.
Stanley Prusiner
b.
Anton van Leeuwenhoek
c.
Dmitrii Ivanowsky
d.
Stanley Brenner
e.
Carl Woese
 28.
A symptom of a transmissible spongiform encephalopathy (TSE) is:
a.
degeneration of the digestive tract.
b.
progressive immune deficiency.
c.
degeneration of the brain and central nervous system.
d.
inflammation of the reproductive organs.
e.
influenza-like symptoms.
 29.
The volume of a typical bacterium is about ____________ the volume of a typical eukaryotic cell.
a.
equal to
b.
a half
c.
a tenth
d.
a hundredth
e.
a thousandth
 30.
A chain of round bacteria would be called:
a.
spirilla.
b.
diplococci.
c.
bacilli.
d.
streptococci.
e.
streptobacilli.
 31.
Rod-shaped bacteria are called:
a.
streptococci.
b.
bacilli.
c.
diplococci.
d.
vibrio.
e.
spirochete.
Figure 23-02
Use the figure below to answer the corresponding questions.
 32.
The structure in Figure 23-02 labeled C is:
a.
a ribosome.
b.
the plasma membrane.
c.
the capsule.
d.
the cell wall.
e.
the flagellum.
 33.
What is the function of the structure labeled A in Figure 23-02?
a.
to adhere to surfaces or other bacteria
b.
to prevent phagocytosis
c.
support and protection in hypotonic conditions
d.
transmission of DNA between bacteria
e.
locomotion
 34.
Even though bacteria lack membrane-bound organelles, such as chloroplasts and mitochondria, they can still perform the functions of these organelles by localizing certain metabolic enzymes on:
a.
the nuclear membranes.
b.
the endoplasmic reticulum.
c.
the plasma membrane.
d.
ribosomes.
e.
the cell wall.
 35.
Most bacterial cells keep from bursting in a hypotonic environment by:
a.
an efficient water pump.
b.
a tough cell membrane.
c.
pumping large quantities of salts into the cell.
d.
a rigid cell wall.
e.
a stiff capsule.
 36.
Gram-positive bacteria would stain __________ in a gram stain because of a thick layer of __________ in their cell walls.
a.
green; peptidoglycan
b.
purple; peptidoglycan
c.
green; cellulose
d.
purple; polysaccharides
e.
red; polysaccharides
 37.
The walls of Eubacteria contain peptidoglycan, which is:
a.
lipids crosslinked with sugars.
b.
sugars crosslinked with proteins.
c.
a protein.
d.
a lipid.
e.
a polysaccharide.
 38.
Penicillin works most effectively against gram-positive bacteria because:
a.
penicillin affects cell membranes.
b.
they have a thick peptidoglycan cell wall and penicillin affects the synthesis of peptidoglycans.
c.
they have special protein channels that allow penicillin to enter the cell and halt the cell cycle.
d.
they are smaller than gram-negative bacteria and, thus, easily take up penicillin by diffusion.
e.
they contain prophages that negatively interact with penicillin.
 39.
Some bacteria avoid a host’s immune system by means of:
a.
efficient use of their flagella.
b.
ameboid motion.
c.
their capsule.
d.
changing their cell wall structure.
e.
eliminating the use of a membrane.
 40.
Bacteria:
a.
are incapable of locomotion.
b.
move by means of pili
c.
move by means of cilia.
d.
move by means of a rotating flagella.
e.
move by means of a whiplike flagella.
 41.
Small circles of DNA called ______________ exist in addition to the bacterial chromosome.
a.
capsids
b.
plasmids
c.
chromatids
d.
pili
e.
centromeres
 42.
Small hairlike structures on the surface of bacteria are called:
a.
capsids.
b.
pili.
c.
chromatids.
d.
plasmids.
e.
virons.
 43.
Plasmids of bacteria often have genes involved in:
a.
reproduction.
b.
motility.
c.
viral resistance.
d.
antibiotic resistance.
e.
photosynthesis.
 44.
Pili are involved in adhesion of bacterial cells to a substrate or host, or in transmission of __________ between bacteria.
a.
ribosomes
b.
cytoplasm
c.
vectors
d.
RNA
e.
DNA
 45.
Prokaryotes have their genetic information stored in:
a.
several small, circular pieces of DNA.
b.
a single, small, circular piece of DNA.
c.
a large, linear piece of DNA.
d.
several small, linear pieces of DNA.
e.
a large, circular piece of DNA.
 46.
_______________ is a form of genetic exchange in bacteria that involves contact between two cells.
a.
Transformation
b.
Transduction
c.
Conjugation
d.
Binary fission
e.
Budding
 47.
_____________ are dormant structures formed by bacteria in response to adverse environmental conditions.
a.
Capsids
b.
Endospores
c.
Exotoxins
d.
Endotoxins
e.
Heterocysts
 48.
Most bacteria are:
a.
photoheterotrophs.
b.
chemoheterotrophs.
c.
autotrophs.
d.
heterotrophs.
e.
chemoautotrophs.
 49.
A bacterium that gains nourishment from dead organisms is referred to as:
a.
an autotroph.
b.
a parasite.
c.
a saprotroph.
d.
a chemoautotroph.
e.
a pathogen.
 50.
A(an) ___________________ bacterium would not be able to survive in the presence of oxygen.
a.
facultative aerobic
b.
facultative anaerobic
c.
facultative autotrophic
d.
obligate aerobic
e.
obligate anaerobic
 51.
The most common mode of reproduction in bacteria is:
a.
binary fission.
b.
transformation.
c.
transduction.
d.
conjugation.
e.
mitosis.
 52.
The first indication that Archae were different from the Eubacteria came from differences noted in their:
a.
cell wall.
b.
preferred habitats.
c.
16 S rRNA sequence.
d.
protein synthesis machinery.
e.
resistance to antibiotics.
 53.
The Archaea differ from the Eubacteria and eukaryotes by having different ____________ in their cell membranes, but they are similar to eukaryotes in their ____________ process.
a.
sugars; replication
b.
sugars; transcription
c.
lipids; replication
d.
lipids; transcription
e.
proteins; transcription
Figure 23-03
Use the figure below to answer the corresponding questions.
 54.
Which of the following groups from Figure 23-03 represents gram-negative bacteria?
a.
Spirochetes
b.
Protists
c.
Methanogens
d.
Halophiles
e.
None of the above.
 55.
Which of the following groups from Figure 23-03 is a member of the Eubacteria domain?
a.
Fungi
b.
Halophiles
c.
Chlamydias
d.
Protists
e.
More than one of the above.
 56.
About how many different species of bacteria have been classified?
a.
200
b.
2,000
c.
4,000
d.
20,000
e.
40,000
 57.
The most significant difference between the Archaea and the Eubacteria is:
a.
lack of a nuclear envelope in the Archaea.
b.
the absence of the 70S ribosomes in the Eubacteria.
c.
the presence of a single filament flagellum in the Eubacteria.
d.
the absence of peptidoglycans in the cell walls of the Archaea.
e.
All of the above.
 58.
One difference between the Archaea and the Eukarya is:
a.
the lack of a nuclear envelope in the Archaea.
b.
the absence of the 70S ribosomes in the Archaea.
c.
the presence of membrane-bound organelles in the Archaea.
d.
the presence of peptidoglycans in the cell walls of the Archaea.
e.
the presence of simple RNA polymerase in the Archaea.
 59.
One unique characteristic associated with some of the extreme halophilic Archaea is:
a.
that they are found at deep-sea vents on the sea floor.
b.
that they are a source of most known antibiotics.
c.
that they have photosynthetic ability involving a purple bacteriorhodopsin pigment.
d.
that they fix atmospheric nitrogen that is then used by plants.
e.
that most form symbiotic associations.
 60.
_____________ Archae are typically found in abnormally hot environments.
a.
Extreme halophile
b.
Extreme thermophile
c.
Pyrrhanogen
d.
Metanogen
e.
Any of the above.
 61.
Most prokaryotes belong to the:
a.
Fungi.
b.
Archaea.
c.
Protista.
d.
Eubacteria.
e.
Viroids.
 62.
Bacterial ____________ cause systemic symptoms such as fever, whereas bacterial ____________ cause more specific maladies.
a.
phages; prophages
b.
prophages; phages
c.
endotoxins; exotoxins
d.
exotoxins; endotoxins
e.
exotoxins; phages
 63.
The bacterial reproductive parasite Wolbachia is known to:
a.
eradicate males from a population.
b.
convert males into females.
c.
cause infected females to lay eggs that develop without fertilization.
d.
reduce the number of males in a population.
e.
All the above.
 64.
The symbiotic bacteria found in the root nodules of legumes:
a.
supply the plant with the nitrogen it needs in the form of nitrates.
b.
are motile, soil-dwelling bacteria.
c.
belong to the genus Rhizobium.
d.
are gram-negative Eubacteria.
e.
All of the above.
 65.
Koch’s postulates include all the following except:
a.
when a sample of a pure culture is injected into a healthy host causes the same disease.
b.
a sample of the microorganism from a diseased host can be grown in pure culture.
c.
the microorganism can be recovered from an experimentally infected host.
d.
the microorganism must be visible in the electron microscope.
e.
the pathogen must be present in every individual with the disease.
 66.
The first bacteria that was clearly identified as the cause of an infectious disease was:
a.
Legionella pneumophila, which causes Legionnaires’ disease.
b.
Chamydia sp., which causes pelvic inflammatory disease in women.
c.
Clostridium botulinum, which causes botulism.
d.
Vibrio cholerae, which causes cholera.
e.
Bacillus anthracis, which causes anthrax.
 
Short Answer
 67.
Compare and contrast a virus and a bacterium.

 68.
List the characteristics of the following groups and identify examples for each: Archaea, Eubacteria, and Eukarya.

 69.

Compare and contrast the metabolic diversity of bacteria in one of the two groups below.

A. Obligate anaerobes, facultative anaerobes, and aerobes
B. Autotrophic and heterotrophic bacteria

 70.
Identify and briefly discuss two ecological roles filled by bacteria.

 
Essay
 71.
Describe the theory that attempts to explain the species specificity of viruses to their hosts.

 72.
Discuss the distinction between gram-negative and gram-positive bacteria. In the laboratory, how is this determined? What are differences between these two groups of bacteria?

 73.
Describe endotoxins and exotoxins. What effects do they each have on infected persons?

 

   
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