Category: Curriculum Map

First Semester Test 2007 – AP Biology

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First Semester Test 2007 – AP Biology

 

 

Multiple Choice
Identify the choice that best completes the statement or answers the question.

Use the figure below to answer the following questions.

nar001-1.jpg
 1.
Which drawing depicts the electron configuration of neon (Ne)?
a.
 Drawing A
b.
 Drawing B
c.
 Drawing C
d.
 Drawing D
e.
 Drawing E

Use the information extracted from the periodic table in the figure below to answer the following questions.

nar002-1.jpg
 2.
How many electrons does an atom of sulfur have in its valence shell?
a.
 4
b.
 6
c.
 8
d.
 16
e.
 32
 3.
What is the valence of an atom with six electrons in its outer electron shell?
a.
 1
b.
 2
c.
 3
d.
 4
e.
 5
 4.
What do atoms form when they share electron pairs?
a.
 elements
b.
 ions
c.
 aggregates
d.
 isotopes
e.
 molecules
 5.
A van der Waals interaction is the weak attraction between
a.
 the electrons of one molecule and the electrons of a nearby molecule.
b.
 the nucleus of one molecule and the electrons of a nearby molecule.
c.
 a polar molecule and a nearby nonpolar molecule.
d.
 a polar molecule and a nearby molecule that is also polar.
e.
 a nonpolar molecule and a nearby molecule that is also nonpolar.
 6.
The slight negative charge at one end of one water molecule is attracted to the slight positive charge of another water molecule. What is this attraction called?
a.
 a covalent bond
b.
 a hydrogen bond
c.
 an ionic bond
d.
 a hydrophilic bond
e.
 a hydrophobic bond
 7.
Early 19th-century scientists believed that living organisms differed from nonliving things as a result of possessing a “life force” that could create organic molecules from inorganic matter. The term given to this belief is
a.
 organic synthesis.
b.
 vitalism.
c.
 mechanism.
d.
 organic evolution.
e.
 inorganic synthesis.
 8.
Which of the following contains nitrogen in addition to carbon, oxygen, and hydrogen?
a.
 an alcohol such as ethanol
b.
 a monosaccharide such as glucose
c.
 a steroid such as testosterone
d.
 an amino acid such as glycine
e.
 a hydrocarbon such as benzene
 9.
In which of the structures are the atoms bonded by ionic bonds?
a.
 A
b.
 B
c.
 C
d.
 C, D, and E only
e.
 none of the structures

Use the figure below to answer the following questions.

nar003-1.jpg
 10.
Which is a carbonyl functional group?
a.
 Group A
b.
 Group B
c.
 Group C
d.
 Group D
e.
 Group E

Use the molecules shown in the figure below to answer the following questions..

nar004-1.jpg
 11.
Which molecule contains an amino functional group, but is not an amino acid?
a.
 Molecule A
b.
 Molecule B
c.
 Molecule C
d.
 Molecule D
e.
 Molecule E
 12.
Upon chemical analysis, a particular protein was found to contain 556 amino acids. How many peptide bonds are present in this protein?
a.
 139
b.
 554
c.
 555
d.
 556
e.
 558
 13.

The figure below best illustrates the

mc013-1.jpg

a.
 secondary structure of a polypeptide.
b.
 tertiary structure of a polypeptide.
c.
 quaternary structure of a protein.
d.
 double helix structure of DNA.
e.
 primary structure of a polysaccharide.
 14.
The R group or side chain of the amino acid serine is –CH2-OH. The R group or side chain of the amino acid alanine is –CH3. Where would you expect to find these amino acids in a globular protein in aqueous solution?
a.
 Serine would be in the interior, and alanine would be on the exterior of the globular protein.
b.
 Alanine would be in the interior, and serine would be on the exterior of the globular protein.
c.
 Both serine and alanine would be in the interior of the globular protein.
d.
 Both serine and alanine would be on the exterior of the globular protein.
e.
 Both serine and alanine would be in the interior and on the exterior of the globular protein.

The following questions are based on the 15 molecules illustrated below. Each molecule may be used once, more than once, or not at all.

nar005-1.jpg
 15.
Which of the following molecules is (are) a carbohydrate?
a.
 1 and 4
b.
 6
c.
 12
d.
 5 and 14
e.
 all of the above
 16.
Which of the following correctly lists the order in which cellular components will be found in the pellet when homogenized cells are treated with increasingly rapid spins in a centrifuge?
a.
 ribosomes, nucleus, mitochondria
b.
 chloroplasts, ribosomes, vacuoles
c.
 nucleus, ribosomes, chloroplasts
d.
 vacuoles, ribosomes, nucleus
e.
 nucleus, mitochondria, ribosomes
 17.
Which of the following are prokaryotic cells?
a.
 plants
b.
 fungi
c.
 bacteria
d.
 animals
e.
 B and C only
 18.
Which of the following comparisons between prokaryotic and eukaryotic cells is incorrect?
a.
 The lack of organelles in prokaryotes means that they are structurally less complex than eukaryotes.
b.
 The lack of internal membranes means that prokaryotes cannot compartmentalize function to the same extent as eukaryotes.
c.
 All membrane function in prokaryotes is accomplished in the plasma membrane, while in eukaryotes, these functions are more distributed among the organelles.
d.
 The specialization of function in organelles suggests that eukaryotes will contain a wider variety of phospholipids than prokaryotes.
e.
 The lack of organelles in prokaryotes means that the basic cellular functions are different in prokaryotes than in eukaryotes.
 19.
Which of the following statements correctly describes some aspect of protein excretion in prokaryotic cells?
a.
 Prokaryotes are unlikely to be able to excrete proteins because they lack an endomembrane system.
b.
 The mechanism of protein excretion in prokaryotes is probably the same as that in eukaryotes.
c.
 Proteins that are excreted by prokaryotes are synthesized on ribosomes that are bound to the cytoplasmic surface of the plasma membrane.
d.
 In prokaryotes, the ribosomes that are used for the synthesis of secreted proteins are located outside of the cell.
e.
 Prokaryotes contain large pores in their plasma membrane that permit the movement of proteins out of the cell.
 20.
All of the following structures and proteins are directly associated with movement in cells or by cells except
a.
 cilia.
b.
 dynein.
c.
 actin.
d.
 flagella.
e.
 centrosomes.
 21.
All of the following serve an important role in determining or maintaining the structure of plant cells. Which of the following are distinct from the others in terms of composition?
a.
 microtubules
b.
 microfilaments
c.
 plant cell walls
d.
 intermediate filaments
e.
 nuclear lamina
 22.
The surface of an integral membrane protein would be best described as
a.
 hydrophilic.
b.
 hydrophobic.
c.
 amphipathic.
d.
 completely covered with phospholipids.
e.
 exposed on only one surface of the membrane.
 23.
Which of the following is a reasonable explanation for why unsaturated fatty acids help keep any membrane more fluid at lower temperatures?
a.
 The double bonds form a kink in the fatty acid tail, forcing adjacent lipids to be further apart.
b.
 Unsaturated fatty acids have a higher cholesterol content.
c.
 Unsaturated fatty acids permit more water in the interior of the membrane.
d.
 The double bonds block interaction among the hydrophilic head groups of the lipids.
e.
 The double bonds result in a shorter fatty acid tail.
 24.
Of the following functions, which is most important for the glycoproteins and glycolipids of animal cell membranes?
a.
 facilitated diffusion of molecules down their concentration gradients
b.
 active transport of molecules against their concentration gradients
c.
 maintaining the integrity of a fluid mosaic membrane
d.
 maintaining membrane fluidity at low temperatures
e.
 a cell’s ability to distinguish one type of neighboring cell from another
 25.
What membrane-surface molecules are thought to be most important as cells recognize each other?
a.
 phospholipids
b.
 integral proteins
c.
 peripheral proteins
d.
 cholesterol
e.
 glycoproteins
 26.
Which of the following is (are) true for anabolic pathways?
a.
 They do not depend on enzymes.
b.
 They are highly regulated sequences of chemical reactions.
c.
 They consume energy to build up polymers from monomers.
d.
 They release energy as they degrade polymers to monomers.
e.
 both B and C
 27.
Which of the following statements about metabolism is incorrect?
a.
 Metabolism is an emergent property of life at the level of organisms.
b.
 Metabolism manages the utilization of materials and energy resources.
c.
 The uptake of water associated with the hydrolysis of biological polymers is part of metabolism.
d.
 Metabolism depends on a constant supply of energy.
e.
 None of these statements about metabolism is incorrect.
 28.
Which of the following statements is not representative of the second law of thermodynamics?
a.
 Conversion of energy from one form to another is always accompanied by some loss of free energy.
b.
 Heat represents a form of energy that cannot be used by most organisms to do work.
c.
 Without an input of energy, organisms would tend towards increasing entropy.
d.
 Cells require a constant input of energy to maintain their high level of organization.
e.
 Every energy transformation by a cell decreases the entropy of the universe.
 29.
Why is ATP an important molecule in metabolism?
a.
 Its hydrolysis provides an input of free energy for exergonic reactions.
b.
 It provides energy coupling between exergonic and endergonic reactions.
c.
 Its terminal phosphate group contains a strong covalent bond that when hydrolyzed releases free energy.
d.
 A and B only
e.
 A, B and C
 30.
Many different things can alter enzyme activity. Which of the following underlie all types of enzyme regulation?
a.
 changes in the activation energy of the reaction
b.
 changes in the active site of the enzyme
c.
 changes in the free energy of the reaction
d.
 A and B only
e.
 A, B, and C
The following questions are based on the reaction A + B C + D shown in the figure below.

nar006-2.jpg
 31.
Which of the following bests describes the reaction?
a.
 negative G, spontaneous
b.
 positive G, nonspontaneous
c.
 positive G, exergonic
d.
 negative G, endergonic
e.
 G of zero, chemical equilibrium
 32.
What is the term for metabolic pathways that release stored energy by breaking down complex molecules?
a.
 anabolic pathways
b.
 catabolic pathways
c.
 fermentation pathways
d.
 thermodynamic pathways
e.
 bioenergetic pathways
 33.
Which of the following statements about glycolysis false?
a.
 Glycolysis has steps involving oxidation-reduction reactions.
b.
 The enzymes of glycolysis are located in the cytosol of the cell.
c.
 Glycolysis can operate in the complete absence of O2.
d.
 The end products of glycolysis are CO2 and H2O.
e.
 Glycolysis makes ATP exclusively through substrate-level phosphorylation.
 34.
Inside an active mitochondrion, most electrons follow which pathway?
a.
 glycolysis NADH oxidative phosphorylation ATP oxygen
b.
 citric acid cycle FADH2 electron transport chain ATP
c.
 electron transport chain citric acid cycle ATP oxygen
d.
 pyruvate citric acid cycle ATP NADH oxygen
e.
 citric acid cycle NADH electron transport chain oxygen
 35.
Fermentation takes place in the
a.
 cytosol.
b.
 mitochondrial outer membrane.
c.
 mitochondrial inner membrane.
d.
 mitochondrial intermembrane space.
e.
 mitochondrial matrix.
 36.
Muscle cells in oxygen deprivation convert pyruvate to ____, and in this step gain____.
a.
 lactate; ATP
b.
 alcohol; CO2
c.
 alcohol; ATP
d.
 ATP; NADH2
e.
 lactate; NAD+
 37.
In alcohol fermentation, NAD+ is regenerated from NADH during the
a.
 reduction of acetaldehyde to ethanol (ethyl alcohol).
b.
 oxidation of pyruvate to acetyl CoA.
c.
 reduction of pyruvate to form lactate.
d.
 oxidation of NAD+ in the citric acid cycle.
e.
 phosphorylation of ADP to form ATP.
 38.
What does the chemiosmotic process in chloroplasts involve?
a.
 establishment of a proton gradient
b.
 diffusion of electrons through the thylakoid membrane
c.
 reduction of water to produce ATP energy
d.
 movement of water by osmosis into the thylakoid space from the stroma
e.
 formation of glucose, using carbon dioxide, NADPH, and ATP
 39.
Which statement is false?
a.
 Thylakoid membranes contain the photosynthetic pigments.
b.
 The O2 released during photosynthesis comes from water.
c.
 RuBP is produced during cyclic electron flow in the light reactions of photosynthesis.
d.
 The light reactions of photosynthesis provide the energy for the Calvin cycle.
e.
 When chlorophyll is reduced, it gains electrons.
 40.
In C4 photosynthesis, carbon fixation takes place in the ____ cells, and then is transferred as malic or aspartic acid to ____ cells, where carbon dioxide is released for entry into the Calvin cycle.
a.
 mesophyll; bundle-sheath
b.
 stomatal; mesophyll
c.
 bundle-sheath; epidermal
d.
 epidermal; mesophyll
e.
 stomatal; epidermal
 41.
What could happen to the target cells in an animal that lack receptors for local regulators?
a.
 They could compensate by receiving nutrients via an a factor.
b.
 They could develop normally in response to neurotransmitters instead.
c.
 They could divide but never reach full size.
d.
 They would not be able to multiply in response to growth factors from nearby cells.
e.
 Hormones would not be able to interact with target cells.
 42.
G proteins and G-protein-linked receptors
a.
 are found only in animal cells.
b.
 are found only in bacterial cells.
c.
 are thought to have evolved very early, because of their similar structure and function in a wide variety of modern organisms whose common ancestors diverged billions of years ago.
d.
 probably evolved from an adaptation of the citric acid cycle.
e.
 are not widespread in nature and were unimportant in the evolution of eukaryotes.
 43.
Membrane receptors that attach phosphates to specific amino acids in proteins are
a.
 not found in humans.
b.
 called receptor tyrosine-kinases.
c.
 a class of GTP G-protein signal receptors.
d.
 associated with several bacterial diseases in humans.
e.
 important in yeast mating factors that contain amino acids.
 44.
The receptors for a group of signaling molecules known as growth factors are often
a.
 ligand-gated ion channels.
b.
 G-protein-linked receptors.
c.
 cyclic AMP.
d.
 receptor tyrosine kinases.
e.
 neurotransmitters.
 45.
Sutherland discovered that epinephrine
a.
 signals bypass the plasma membrane of cells.
b.
 lowers blood glucose by binding to liver cells.
c.
 interacts with insulin inside muscle cells.
d.
 interacts directly with glycogen phosphorylase.
e.
 elevates the cytosolic concentration of cyclic AMP.
 46.
The general name for an enzyme that transfers phosphate groups from ATP to a protein is
a.
 phosphorylase.
b.
 phosphatase.
c.
 protein kinase.
d.
 ATPase.
e.
 protease.
 47.
Which of the following would be inhibited by a drug that specifically blocks the addition of phosphate groups to proteins?
a.
 G-protein-linked receptor signaling
b.
 ligand-gated ion channel signaling
c.
 adenylyl cyclase activity
d.
 phosphatase activity
e.
 receptor tyrosine kinase activity
 48.
If there are 20 chromatids in a cell, how many centromeres are there?
a.
 10
b.
 20
c.
 30
d.
 40
e.
 80
 49.
If cells in the process of dividing are subjected to colchicine, a drug that interferes with the functioning of the spindle apparatus, at which stage will mitosis be arrested?
a.
 anaphase
b.
 prophase
c.
 telophase
d.
 metaphase
e.
 interphase
 50.
Regarding mitosis and cytokinesis, one difference between higher plants and animals is that in plants
a.
 the spindles contain microfibrils in addition to microtubules, whereas animal spindles do not contain microfibrils.
b.
 sister chromatids are identical, but they differ from one another in animals.
c.
 a cell plate begins to form at telophase, whereas animals a cleavage furrow is initiated at that stage.
d.
 chromosomes become attached to the spindle at prophase, whereas in animals chromosomes do not become attached until anaphase.
e.
 spindle poles contain centrioles, whereas spindle poles in animals do not.
 51.
Which of the following is true concerning cancer cells?
a.
 They do not exhibit density-dependent inhibition when growing in culture.
b.
 When they stop dividing, they do so at random points in the cell cycle.
c.
 They are not subject to cell cycle controls.
d.
 B and C only
e.
 A, B, and C
 52.
Which of the following is true of a species that has a chromosome number of 2n = 16?
a.
 The species is diploid with 32 chromosomes.
b.
 The species has 16 sets of chromosomes.
c.
 There are 8 homologous pairs.
d.
 During the S phase of the cell cycle there will be 32 separate chromosomes.
e.
 A gamete from this species has 4 chromosomes.
 53.
Which of the following is the term for a human cell that contains 22 pairs of autosomes and two X chromosomes?
a.
 an unfertilized egg cell
b.
 a sperm cell
c.
 a male somatic cell
d.
 a female somatic cell
e.
 both A and D
 54.
In animals, meiosis results in gametes, and fertilization results in
a.
 spores.
b.
 gametophytes.
c.
 zygotes.
d.
 sporophytes.
e.
 clones.
 55.
All of the following are functions of meiosis in plants except
a.
 production of spores.
b.
 reduction of chromosome number by half.
c.
 independent assortment of chromosomes.
d.
 crossing over and recombination of homologous chromosomes.
e.
 production of identical daughter cells.
 56.
Which of the following is true of the process of meiosis?
a.
 Two diploid cells result.
b.
 Four diploid cells result.
c.
 Four haploid cells result.
d.
 Four autosomes result.
e.
 Four chiasmata result.
 57.
Which sample might represent an animal cell in G2 phase of the cell cycle?
a.
 I
b.
 II
c.
 III
d.
 both I and II
e.
 both II and III

The following questions refer to the essential steps in meiosis described below.

1. formation of four new nuclei, each with half the chromosomes present in the parental nucleus
2. alignment of tetrads at the metaphase plate
3. separation of sister chromatids
4. separation of the homologues; no uncoupling of the centromere
5. synapsis; chromosomes moving to the middle of the cell in pairs
 58.
From the descriptions above, which of the following is the order that most logically illustrates a sequence of meiosis?
a.
 1, 2, 3, 4, 5
b.
 5, 4, 2, 1, 3
c.
 5, 3, 2, 4, 1
d.
 4, 5, 2, 1, 3
e.
 5, 2, 4, 3, 1
 59.
Which of the following statements about Mendel’s breeding experiments is correct?
a.
 None of the parental (P) plants were true-breeding.
b.
 All of the F2 progeny showed a phenotype that was intermediate between the two parental (P) phenotypes.
c.
 Half of the F1 progeny had the same phenotype as one of the parental (P) plants, and the other half had the same phenotype as the other parent.
d.
 All of the F1 progeny resembled one of the parental (P) plants, but only some of the F2 progeny did.
e.
 none of the above
 60.
A cross between homozygous purple-flowered and homozygous white-flowered pea plants results in offspring with purple flowers. This demonstrates
a.
 the blending model of genetics.
b.
 true-breeding.
c.
 dominance.
d.
 a dihybrid cross.
e.
 the mistakes made by Mendel.
 61.
When crossing a homozygous recessive with a heterozygote, what is the chance of getting an offspring with the homozygous recessive phenotype?
a.
 0%
b.
 25%
c.
 50%
d.
 75%
e.
 100%
 62.
P = purple, pp = white. The offspring of a cross between two heterozygous purple-flowering plants (Pp Pp) results in
a.
 all purple-flowered plants.
b.
 purple-flowered plants and white-flowered plants.
c.
 two types of white-flowered plants: PP and Pp.
d.
 all white-flowered plants.
e.
 all pink-flowered plants.
 63.
A couple has three children, all of whom have brown eyes and blond hair. Both parents are homozygous for brown eyes (BB) but one is a blond (rr) and the other is a redhead (Rr). What is the probability that their next child will be a brown-eyed redhead?
a.
 1/16
b.
 1/8
c.
 1/4
d.
 1/2
e.
 1
 64.
Which of the following is true regarding linkage maps? They
a.
 always have a total of 100 map units.
b.
 can be used to pinpoint the precise physical position of a gene on a chromosome.
c.
 are a genetic map based on recombination frequencies.
d.
 require preparation of karyotypes.
e.
 reflect the frequency of crossing over between X and Y chromosomes.
 65.

The figure below represents the stained nucleus from a cheek epithelial cell of an individual whose genotype would probably be

mc065-1.jpg

a.
 XX.
b.
 XY.
c.
 XYY.
d.
 XXX.
e.
 XXY.

 
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Introduction to Animals

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Introduction to Animals

 

 

Multiple Choice
Identify the choice that best completes the statement or answers the question.
 1.
Which of the following attributes is not used to characterize animals?
a.
 locomotion at some time during the life cycle
b.
 multicellular eukaryotes
c.
 heterotrophic
d.
 sexual reproduction involving motile sperm
e.
 None of the above, all of the attributes are typical of animals.
 2.
The kingdom Animalia is divided into about:
a.
 325 phyla.
b.
 16 classes.
c.
 32 classes.
d.
 35 phyla.
e.
 6 phyla.
 3.
The diverse body plans seen in Animalia apparently developed during the:
a.
 Precambrian
b.
 Cambrian.
c.
 Mesozoic.
d.
 Silurian.
e.
 Devonian.
 4.
Traditional phylogenies of Animalia are being reconsidered and changed due to:
a.
 newly discovered prokaryotes in soil.
b.
 extensive fossil finds in China.
c.
 new phyla of Protista.
d.
 better pictures from scanning electron microscopes.
e.
 recent molecular data.
 5.
Which of the following group of animals is sessile?
a.
 sponge
b.
 jellyfish
c.
 ctenophore
d.
 planarian
e.
 fluke
 6.
Animals apparently evolved:
a.
 in freshwater.
b.
 in the ocean.
c.
 during the Cambrian explosion.
d.
 in swamps.
e.
 during the Devonian.
 7.
Fewer animals live in freshwater than in the ocean, because:
a.
 freshwater is hypotonic and animals must spend energy to remove water from their bodies.
b.
 freshwater is a less constant temperature environment.
c.
 freshwater contains less food.
d.
 freshwater is a much more variable environment.
e.
 All of the above.
 8.
All of the following are characteristic of life in marine environments except:
a.
 many nutrients and gases are dissolved in the water and are readily available.
b.
 buoyancy helps to support the organisms.
c.
 currents may wash organisms away from suitable habitats.
d.
 osmotic balance is very difficult for invertebrates to maintain.
e.
 temperatures are relatively stable.
 9.
The first air-breathing land animals were:
a.
 vertebrates.
b.
 amphibians.
c.
 snails.
d.
 reptiles.
e.
 arthropods.
 10.
The first land animals, arthropods, moved onto land about:
a.
 650 million years ago.
b.
 450 million years ago.
c.
 250 million years ago.
d.
 230 million years ago.
e.
 65 million years ago.
 11.
Amphibians appeared on land about:
a.
 543 million years ago.
b.
 450 million years ago.
c.
 420 million years ago.
d.
 250 million years ago.
e.
 65 million years ago.
 12.
To adapt to land the primary problem was:
a.
 mating.
b.
 locomotion.
c.
 predation.
d.
 desiccation.
e.
 acquiring enough nitrogen.
 13.
Adaptations of animals to land include:
a.
 internal fertilization.
b.
 egg shell.
c.
 embryo development within the female.
d.
 internal respiratory surfaces.
e.
 All of the above.
 14.
The only extant Parazoa are the:
a.
 jellyfish.
b.
 sponges.
c.
 flatworms.
d.
 roundworms.
e.
 ribbon worms.
 15.
A true body cavity completely surrounded by __________ is called a coelom.
a.
 ectoderm
b.
 mesoderm
c.
 endoderm
d.
 exoderm
e.
 mesoglea
 16.
Because sponges function in ways similar to colonial unicellular protozoans, they are classified among the ____________. All other animals are considered ____________, which are distinct from sponges.
a.
 protozoa; metazoa
b.
 parazoa; metazoa
c.
 parazoa; eumetazoa
d.
 metazoa; protozoa
e.
 protozoa; parazoa
 17.
Bilateral symmetry:
a.
 evolved along with a corresponding trend toward cephalization.
b.
 is characteristic of Cnidarians.
c.
 characterizes the surfaces of an animal as dorsal and ventral.
d.
 results from schizocoelous development.
e.
 describes ectoderm and endoderm, the first two germ layers that developed.
 18.
The major phylum of animals that has an asymmetrical body plan is:
a.
 Cnidaria.
b.
 Ctenophora.
c.
 Echinodermata.
d.
 Porifera.
e.
 All of the above.
 19.
Ctenophores exhibit:
a.
 bilateral symmetry.
b.
 spherical symmetry.
c.
 linear symmetry.
d.
 radial symmetry.
e.
 circular symmetry.
 20.
The head end of an animal is termed its:
a.
 posterior end.
b.
 ventral end.
c.
 inferior end.
d.
 lateral end.
e.
 anterior end.
 21.
A ___________ plane divides the animal body into dorsal and ventral parts:
a.
 median.
b.
 frontal.
c.
 sagittal.
d.
 cross.
e.
 transverse.
 22.
Cnidarians and flatworms:
a.
 are coelomate.
b.
 are pseudocoelomate.
c.
 are acoelomate.
d.
 have two germ layers.
e.
 have three germ layers.
 23.
The __________ gives rise to muscles, bones, and the circulatory system.
a.
 endoderm
b.
 ectoderm
c.
 mesoderm
d.
 blastopore
e.
 mesoglea
 24.
The lining of the digestive tube is formed from:
a.
 endoderm.
b.
 ectoderm.
c.
 germ cells.
d.
 mesoderm.
e.
 pseudoderm.
 25.
Diploblastic animals, such as cnidarians and ____________, have only two germ layers, ectoderm and ____________.
a.
 sponges; ectoderm
b.
 sponges; mesoderm
c.
 ctenophores; mesoderm
d.
 ctenophores; endoderm
e.
 ctenophores; metaderm
Figure 28-01
Use the figure below to answer the corresponding questions.nar001-1.jpg
 26.
In Figure 28-01, the tissue layer labeled 5 will give rise to the:
a.
 skeletal system.
b.
 muscles.
c.
 circulatory system.
d.
 lining of the digestive system.
e.
 All of the above.
 27.
In Figure 28-01, the development pattern labeled Type A is characteristic of:
a.
 Ctenophores.
b.
 Chordates.
c.
 Cnidarians.
d.
 Annelids.
e.
 Echinoderms.
 28.
The first opening which develops in deuterostomes develops into the:
a.
 coelom.
b.
 gut.
c.
 anus.
d.
 mouth.
e.
 nostril.
 29.
Radial cleavage is found in the:
a.
 arthropods.
b.
 mollusks.
c.
 echinoderms.
d.
 annelids.
e.
 cnidarians.
 30.
Pseudocoelomates have a body cavity that is not completely lined with ____________. These animals include ____________ and the roundworms.
a.
 endoderm; nemerteans
b.
 endoderm; flatworms
c.
 mesoderm; rotifers
d.
 mesoderm; flatworms
e.
 mesoderm; nemerteans
 31.
In most deuterostomes, the mesoderm forms by:
a.
 duplication of the ectoderm.
b.
 schizocoely.
c.
 migration.
d.
 enterocoely.
e.
 blastocoely.
 32.
Determinate cleavage takes place in ____________ and is characterized by a pattern of development where the ultimate fate of each cell is ____________.
a.
 protostomes; not fixed until late in the developmental process
b.
 protostomes; fixed early in the developmental process
c.
 deuterostomes; not fixed until late in the developmental process
d.
 deuterostomes; fixed early in the developmental process
e.
 coelomates; fixed early in the developmental process
 33.
All of the following are protostomes except:
a.
 Porifera.
b.
 Mollusca.
c.
 Annelida.
d.
 Arthropoda.
e.
 Echinodermata.
Figure 28-02
Use the figure below to answer the corresponding questions.nar002-1.jpg
 34.
Radial symmetry developed at the point on Figure 28-02 labeled _________.
a.
 2
b.
 3
c.
 4
d.
 5
e.
 6
 35.
In Figure 28-02, three germ layers arose in a common ancestor at the point labeled:
a.
 1.
b.
 4.
c.
 5.
d.
 6.
e.
 None of the above.
 36.
The placozoans are the simplest animals, and appear to have evolved:
a.
 from poriferans.
b.
 from more complex invertebrates.
c.
 independently from the remainder of the kingdom Animalia.
d.
 from fungi.
e.
 None of the above.
 37.
Sponges are believed to have arisen from the choanoflagellates because they possess:
a.
 amebocytes.
b.
 spicules.
c.
 spongin.
d.
 collar cells.
e.
 oscula.
 38.
Sponge larvae:
a.
 are miniature sponges that float about in the plankton.
b.
 crawl along the bottom like an amoeba.
c.
 are flagellated and able to swim.
d.
 bud off the adult sponge.
e.
 float out of the adult, fall to the bottom, and attach to form a new sponge.
 39.
Most sponges are ______________, meaning that one individual can produce both male and female gametes.
a.
 asexual
b.
 hermaphroditic
c.
 indeterminate
d.
 heterozygous
e.
 enterocoelous
 40.
Digestion in a sponge takes place in:
a.
 the osculum.
b.
 individual cells.
c.
 the spongocoel.
d.
 the spicule.
e.
 the mesohyl.
 41.
Most representatives of the phylum Porifera gain nutrition as:
a.
 parasites.
b.
 predators.
c.
 autotrophs.
d.
 herbivores.
e.
 None of the above.
 42.
Within the phylum Cnidaria, corals are most closely related to:
a.
 Hydra.
b.
 jellyfish.
c.
 sea anemones.
d.
 Portuguese man-of-war.
e.
 hydrozoans.
 43.
From an evolutionary perspective, true nerve cells are first seen in the phylum:
a.
 Porifera.
b.
 Cnidaria.
c.
 Ctenophora.
d.
 Mollusca.
e.
 Arthropoda.
 44.
In the class Anthozoa are found:
a.
 Hydra.
b.
 Obelia.
c.
 Cyanea.
d.
 corals.
e.
 jellyfish.
 45.
Cnidarians are _______________, meaning they have two tissue layers.
a.
 diploid
b.
 protostomes
c.
 diploblastic
d.
 bilateral
e.
 hermaphroditic
 46.
The Portuguese man-of-war belongs to the class:
a.
 Cnidozoa.
b.
 Scyphozoa.
c.
 Hydrozoa.
d.
 Anthozoa.
e.
 Cubezoa.
 47.
In cnidarians, nematocysts are housed in specialized cells, the ___________, located primarily on the tentacles.
a.
 choanocytes
b.
 cnidocils
c.
 pseudopodia
d.
 nerve nets
e.
 cnidocytes
 48.
Hundreds or thousands of individuals of certain _________ form colonies in which each polyp has a special function such as feeding, reproduction, or defense.
a.
 sea anemones
b.
 hydrozoans
c.
 jellyfish
d.
 ctenophores
e.
 sponges
 49.
The larvae of some cnidarians are known as ____________ larvae.
a.
 veliger
b.
 trochophore
c.
 planula
d.
 nauplius
e.
 zoea
 50.
Corals can capture prey, but also depend for nutrition on:
a.
 symbiotic photosynthetic zooxanthellae.
b.
 symbiotic lichens.
c.
 dead animals they colonize on the bottom.
d.
 photosynthesis in the shallow water since they are part animal and plant.
e.
 suspended materials captured by filter feeding.
 51.
Among the scyphozoans, the ____________ stage is reduced or absent.
a.
 polyp
b.
 hydra
c.
 medusa
d.
 larval
e.
 juvenile
 52.
Sea anemones, unlike scyphozoans, have a partitioned gastrovascular cavity. This serves as a means of:
a.
 harboring enteric bacteria.
b.
 digesting very large food items.
c.
 harboring photosynthetic zooxanthellae.
d.
 digesting different categories of organic molecules in different areas.
e.
 decreasing the surface area of the gastrovascular cavity.
Figure 28-03
Use the figure below to answer the corresponding questions.nar003-1.jpg
 53.
The type of larva pictured at # 4 in Figure 28-03 is a:
a.
 planula.
b.
 miracidium.
c.
 cercaria.
d.
 polyp.
e.
 medusa.
 54.
In Figure 28-03, asexual reproduction is occurring at point:
a.
 1.
b.
 2.
c.
 4.
d.
 7.
e.
 9.
 55.
In Figure 28-03, which of the following structures was produced by meiosis?
a.
 1
b.
 3
c.
 4
d.
 5
e.
 6
 56.
Members of the phylum _______________ are the simplest organisms that have a separate mouth and anus.
a.
 Platyhelminthe
b.
 Ctenophora
c.
 Cnidaria
d.
 Porifera
e.
 Placozoa
 57.
Ctenophores capture food by:
a.
 sticky mucus on their tentacles that capture small invertebrates.
b.
 adhesive glue cells that trap prey.
c.
 stinging hair cells that immobilize small invertebrates.
d.
 digging through the bottom muds for small invertebrates.
e.
 filter feeding.
 58.
Comb jellies move by:
a.
 floating in the water, since they are so small.
b.
 flagella.
c.
 ameboid movements in the water.
d.
 rows of cilia.
e.
 jet propulsion of water from the gastrovascular cavity.
 59.
The body wall of cnidarians and ctenophores consist of:
a.
 three tissue layers.
b.
 a single epidermal layer.
c.
 loosely organized cells.
d.
 two epidermal layers with scattered mesophyll cells in between.
e.
 inner and outer cell layers separated by a jelly-like mesoglea.
 60.
Deuterostomes are characterized by ____________ and ____________ cleavage.
a.
 radial; determinate
b.
 radial; indeterminate
c.
 spiral; determinate
d.
 spiral; indeterminate
e.
 None of the above.
 61.
Deuterostomes evolved during the:
a.
 Cambrian.
b.
 Precambrian.
c.
 Paleozoic.
d.
 Cenozoic.
e.
 Devonian.
 62.
Molecular data suggests that hemichordates are most closely related to:
a.
 tunicates
b.
 lancelets.
c.
 echinoderms.
d.
 vertebrates.
e.
 annelids
 63.
Echinoderms are unusual invertebrates as they have:
a.
 an endoskeleton.
b.
 pentaradial symmetry.
c.
 a water vascular system.
d.
 pedicellariae present in some classes.
e.
 All of the above.
 64.
All Echinodermata are found:
a.
 in marine habitats.
b.
 in freshwater.
c.
 on land.
d.
 on the bottom of the ocean or lakes.
e.
 in shallow ocean waters.
 65.
Class ___________ includes mostly extinct species and a few extant species such as feather stars and sea lilies.
a.
 Asteroidea
b.
 Holothuroidea
c.
 Ophiuroidea
d.
 Echinoidea
e.
 Crinoidea
 66.
Echinoderms are unique because:
a.
 the larvae are radially symmetrical and the adult is bilaterally symmetrical.
b.
 the adults and larva are both pentaradially symmetrical.
c.
 the adult and larva are both radially symmetrical.
d.
 the adult and larva are both biradially symmetrical.
e.
 their larvae are bilaterally symmetrical while the adult is pentaradially symmetrical.
 67.
Which class within the echinoderms has the greatest species diversity?
a.
 Asteroidea
b.
 Holothuroidea
c.
 Ophiuroidea
d.
 Echinoidea
e.
 Crinoidea
 68.
The most unique feature of the echinoderms is their:
a.
 digestive system.
b.
 nervous system.
c.
 closed circulatory system.
d.
 water vascular system.
e.
 mantle.
 69.
Prominent spines are found on __________ of the phylum Echinodermata.
a.
 Ophiuroidea
b.
 Echinoidea
c.
 Asteroidea
d.
 Concentricycloidea
e.
 Holothuroidea
 70.
One characteristic of the class Holothuroidea is:
a.
 that most are predators that consume partially digested prey.
b.
 that most of the species are extinct.
c.
 that they have a reduced endoskeleton consisting of microscopic plates embedded in the body wall.
d.
 that moveable spines are used to facilitate locomotion.
e.
 that they have a distinct central disk with very long, slender arms.
 71.
Sea stars eat:
a.
 large fish.
b.
 mostly algae.
c.
 sea weed.
d.
 mostly bivalves.
e.
 debris on the bottom.
 72.
Sea cucumbers will __________ when environmental conditions deteriorate.
a.
 eject their digestive tract, respiratory structures, and gonads.
b.
 crawl to an area with more favorable conditions.
c.
 form a resistant spore.
d.
 float to the surface and then later drop to a more favorable location.
e.
 crawl deep into the ocean muds on the bottom.
 73.
Which of the following is not a characteristic shared by all chordates at some point in their life cycle?
a.
 possession of a coelom
b.
 three primary cell layers
c.
 dorsal tubular nerve cord
d.
 pharyngeal gill slits
e.
 vertebrae
 74.
Urochordates are odd chordates, as typically only the ____________ shows the basic chordate characteristics.
a.
 head end
b.
 tail end
c.
 adult
d.
 larva
e.
 egg
 75.
Adult tunicates resemble ______________ and are _________________.
a.
 eels; carnivorous.
b.
 corals; photosynthetic
c.
 starfish; carnivorous
d.
 sponges; filter feeders
e.
 earthworms; detritivores
 76.
The neural crest cells of vertebrates influence the development of all of the following except the:
a.
 lungs.
b.
 nerves.
c.
 cranium.
d.
 jaws.
e.
 head muscles.
 77.
The most closely related animal to vertebrates are the:
a.
 Hemichordata.
b.
 Urodela.
c.
 Cephalochordata.
d.
 Ophiuroidea.
e.
 Urochordates.
Figure 30-01
Use the figure below to answer the corresponding questions.nar004-1.jpg
 78.
The organism in Figure 30-01 is a representative of:
a.
 the phylum Hemichordata.
b.
 the phylum Echinodermata.
c.
 the phylum Chordata.
d.
 the subphylum Urochordata.
e.
 the subphylum Cephalochordata.
 79.
The structure in Figure 30-01 labeled ___________ is characteristic of the phylum to which this organism belongs.
a.
 9
b.
 6
c.
 5
d.
 4
e.
 10
 80.
Lancelets are:
a.
 carnivores.
b.
 filter feeders.
c.
 parasites.
d.
 herbivores.
e.
 algae feeders.
 81.
There are about _______________ identified species of vertebrates.
a.
 2,000
b.
 6,000
c.
 32,000
d.
 48,000
e.
 124,000
 82.
The coelacanth is found in the class:
a.
 Dipnoi.
b.
 Actinistia.
c.
 Placoderms.
d.
 Cephalochordata.
e.
 Urochordata.
 83.
The two groups representing the “jawless” fishes are:
a.
 Cephalochordata and Placoderms.
b.
 Chondrichthyes and Actinistia.
c.
 Myxiniformes and Cephalaspidormorphi.
d.
 Dipnoi and Actinistia.
e.
 Placoderms and Petromyzontiformes.
 84.
Which of the following characteristics is used to characterize vertebrates?
a.
 a bony endoskeleton
b.
 blood containing hemoglobin
c.
 a four-chambered heart
d.
 lungs
e.
 live birth
 85.
The superclass Tetrapods includes:
a.
 fish, amphibians, reptiles, and mammals.
b.
 lancelets, cartilage, and bony fish.
c.
 amphibians and reptiles.
d.
 amphibians, reptiles, birds, and mammals.
e.
 echinoderms and chordates.
 86.
Hagfishes are differentiated from lampreys and all other fishes in that:
a.
 hagfishes do not have gills.
b.
 hagfishes lack a jaw.
c.
 hagfishes are parasitic.
d.
 hagfishes lack vertebrae.
e.
 All of the above.
 87.
Extinct jawless fish include the:
a.
 lungfish.
b.
 lancelets.
c.
 placoderms.
d.
 acanthodians.
e.
 ostracoderms.
 88.
A fish with a cartilaginous skeleton and paired fins would be:
a.
 an Agnathan.
b.
 a Crinoid.
c.
 a Cephalochordate.
d.
 a Urochordate.
e.
 a Chondrichthyean.
 89.
Scales of enamel are found on:
a.
 lungfish.
b.
 sharks.
c.
 ray-finned fish.
d.
 lob-finned.
e.
 snakes.
 90.
Sharks may detect their prey using all of the following except:
a.
 olfaction.
b.
 their lateral lines.
c.
 electroreceptors.
d.
 sight.
e.
 None of the above, all are used by sharks to detect their prey.
 91.
Sharks detect motion in the water or waves by their:
a.
 lateral lines.
b.
 electroreceptors.
c.
 keen olfaction.
d.
 sight.
e.
 dorsal fin.
 92.
Sharks that are __________________ incubate their eggs in the uterus.
a.
 oviparous
b.
 viviparous
c.
 ovoviviparous
d.
 placental
e.
 eutherial
 93.
The chordate class with the most species is the:
a.
 Osteichythyes.
b.
 Reptilia.
c.
 Amphibia.
d.
 Mammalia.
e.
 Chondrichthyes.
 94.
The first members of classes Osteichythyes and Chondrichthyes appeared in the ____________ period.
a.
 Permian
b.
 Paleozoic
c.
 Devonian
d.
 Jurassic
e.
 Cretaceous
Figure 30-02
Use the figure below to answer the corresponding questions.nar005-1.jpg
 95.
The structure labeled 18 in Figure 30-02 is the:
a.
 brain.
b.
 gills.
c.
 heart.
d.
 stomach.
e.
 swim bladder.
 96.
The function of the structure labeled ________ in Figure 30-02 is to aid buoyancy regulation of the fish.
a.
 4
b.
 16
c.
 14
d.
 5
e.
 None of the above.
 97.
Based on Figure 30-02, which of the following structures places this fish in the class Actinopterygii?
a.
 5
b.
 19
c.
 6
d.
 13
e.
 7
 98.
The amphibians are believed to have arisen from ancestral:
a.
 chondrichthyean fish.
b.
 actinopterygian fish.
c.
 reptiles.
d.
 dipnoi.
e.
 actinistia.
 99.
The first amphibians were the ____________.
a.
 squamata
b.
 anurans
c.
 lungfish
d.
 labyrinthodonts
e.
 coelacanths
 100.
Which taxon is not part of the class Amphibia?
a.
 Squamata
b.
 Anura
c.
 Apoda
d.
 Urodela
e.
 None of the above, all belong to the class Amphibia.
 101.
Salamanders are members of the order:
a.
 Apoda.
b.
 Urodela.
c.
 Anuran.
d.
 Tetrapoda.
e.
 Squamata.
 102.
Metamorphosis occurs in which of the following vertebrate classes?
a.
 Chondrichthyes
b.
 Reptilia
c.
 Myxiniformes
d.
 Amphibia
e.
 All of the above.
 103.
At some point in their life cycle, amphibians may respire via all of the following except:
a.
 gills.
b.
 lungs.
c.
 swim bladder.
d.
 skin.
e.
 book lungs.
 104.
The heart of amphibians has ________ chambers. The hearts of birds and mammals have _______ chambers.
a.
 two; three
b.
 three; four
c.
 two; four
d.
 three; five
e.
 three; two
 105.
Which of the following is not an adaptation of reptiles for life in a terrestrial habitat?
a.
 internal fertilization
b.
 an amniotic egg
c.
 excretion of uric acid
d.
 dry, scaly skin
e.
 None of the above, all are adaptations of reptiles for life in a terrestrial habitat.
 106.
Because most reptiles are terrestrial, fertilization is ____________ and they are ____________.
a.
 external; ovoviviparous
b.
 external; oviparous
c.
 internal; ovoviviparous
d.
 internal; oviparous
e.
 external; viviparous
 107.
Which of these pairings is correct?
a.
 diapsids: lizards
b.
 diapsids: turtles
c.
 synapsids: dinosaurs
d.
 anapsids: mammals
e.
 synapsids: crocodiles
 108.
Fish excrete nitrogenous wastes in the form of ____________; reptiles and birds excrete it as __________.
a.
 uric acid; ammonia
b.
 ammonia; uric acid
c.
 urea; ammonia
d.
 urea; uric acid
e.
 ammonia; urea
 109.
Order ____________ includes the snakes.
a.
 Apoda
b.
 Chelonia
c.
 Aves
d.
 Squamata
e.
 Reptilia
 110.
Order ____________ includes the turtles and tortoises.
a.
 Crocodilia
b.
 Squamata
c.
 Chelonia
d.
 Apoda
e.
 Anapsida
 111.
Snakes are most closely related to:
a.
 lizards.
b.
 turtles.
c.
 eels.
d.
 caecilians.
e.
 synapsids.
 112.
Birds are most closely related to:
a.
 lizards.
b.
 turtles.
c.
 mammals.
d.
 labyrinthodonts.
e.
 terrapins.
 113.
Within the chordate classes, the unique characteristic of the class Aves is:
a.
 flight.
b.
 production of uric acid.
c.
 feathers.
d.
 endothermy.
e.
 All of the above.
 114.
The only living descendant of the dinosaurs are the:
a.
 marsupials
b.
 monotremes.
c.
 birds.
d.
 mammals.
e.
 amphibians.
 115.
Which of the following functions is not associated with the presence of feathers in birds?
a.
 temperature regulation
b.
 minimization of water loss
c.
 respiration
d.
 flight
e.
 protection
 116.
Feathers probably first provided primarily _________ before they aided flight.
a.
 protection from predators
b.
 insulation
c.
 camouflage
d.
 bright colors
e.
 protection from parasites
 117.
Which of the following adaptations is associated with the ability of birds to fly?
a.
 high metabolic rate
b.
 broad, keeled breast bone
c.
 “one-way” air flow through the respiratory system
d.
 hollow bones
e.
 All of the above.
 118.
About ____________ species of birds have been described.
a.
 1,000
b.
 2,000
c.
 4,500
d.
 9,000
e.
 20,000
 119.
A characteristic seen only in mammals is:
a.
 hair.
b.
 mammary glands.
c.
 three middle ear bones.
d.
 incisors, canines, premolars, and molars.
e.
 All of the above.
 120.
Mammals descended from a group of reptiles known as:
a.
 euthurians.
b.
 lancelets.
c.
 therapsids.
d.
 holothurians.
e.
 labyrnthodonts.
 121.
The earliest mammals resembled small:
a.
 dogs.
b.
 koalas.
c.
 kangaroos.
d.
 monkeys.
e.
 shrews.
 122.
The wide adaptive radiation of mammals occurred during the early:
a.
 Cenozoic.
b.
 Paleozoic.
c.
 Tertiary.
d.
 Devonian.
e.
 Jurassic.
 123.
Marsupials include the:
a.
 cat.
b.
 armadillo.
c.
 opossum.
d.
 crocodile.
e.
 spiny anteater.
 124.
The monotremes are unusual as they:
a.
 lack mammary glands.
b.
 lack hair.
c.
 lay eggs.
d.
 have pouches.
e.
 exhibit parthenogenesis.
 125.
Horses and cattle are in different mammalian orders based on differences in their:
a.
 diet.
b.
 foot structure.
c.
 locomotion.
d.
 teeth.
e.
 reproductive mechanisms.
Figure 30-03
Use the figure below to answer the corresponding questions.nar006-1.jpg
 126.
The animals pictured in Figure 30-03 belong to the order:
a.
 Xenarthra.
b.
 Rodentia.
c.
 Lagomorpha.
d.
 Perissodactyla.
e.
 Insectivora.
 127.
Which of the following characteristics does not apply to members of the order in Figure 30-03?
a.
 nocturnal
b.
 insectivores
c.
 aquatic
d.
 placental mammals
e.
 some weigh less than 5 g
Figure 30-04
Use the figure below to answer the corresponding questions.nar007-1.jpg
 128.
The animal pictured in Figure 30-04 belongs to the order:
a.
 Xenarthra.
b.
 Rodentia.
c.
 Lagomorpha.
d.
 Perissodactyla.
e.
 Insectivora.
 129.
Which of the following characteristics does not apply to members of the order in Figure 30-04?
a.
 teeth reduced or absent
b.
 insectivores
c.
 some are arboreal
d.
 complex social interactions
e.
 All of the above, none of these characteristics apply to this order.
 130.
All of the following are linked to the development of the coelom except:
a.
 a hydrostatic skeleton.
b.
 protection of internal organs.
c.
 transport of food and wastes.
d.
 the pumping action of the heart.
e.
 None of the above, all are linked to the development of the coelom.
 131.
The protostome coelomates are divided into 2 major groups, the:
a.
 flatworms and roundworms.
b.
 Lophotrochozoa and Ecdysozoa.
c.
 Mollusca and Arthropoda.
d.
 invertebrates and vertebrates
e.
 Chelicerata and Mandibulata.
 132.
A coelom provides several benefits, including:
a.
 a hydrostatic skeleton.
b.
 transport of materials.
c.
 independent movement of the digestive system and the body wall.
d.
 a space for internal organs.
e.
 All of the above.
 133.
A lophophore is:
a.
 a ciliated ring of tentacles surrounding the mouth.
b.
 Lophotrochozoa and Ecdysozoa.
c.
 a muscular foot for locomotion.
d.
 invertebrates and vertebrates.
e.
 Chelicerata and Mandibulata.
 134.
The trend toward cephalization is first seen in the:
a.
 scyphozoans.
b.
 poriferans.
c.
 platyhelminths.
d.
 nematodes.
e.
 nemerteans.
 135.
The type of excretory structures characteristic of platyhelminths are:
a.
 protonemas.
b.
 protonephridia.
c.
 nephridia.
d.
 Malpighian tubules.
e.
 antennal organs.
 136.
Like the cnidarians, flatworms depend on ____________ for achieving circulation and gas exchange.
a.
 blood
b.
 hemolymph
c.
 diffusion
d.
 hearts
e.
 lungs
 137.
The intermediate host for many flukes is a:
a.
 human.
b.
 cow.
c.
 dog.
d.
 cat.
e.
 snail
Figure 29-01
Use the figure below to answer the corresponding questions.nar008-1.jpg
 138.
In Figure 29-01, which structure is responsible for circulation in this animal?
a.
 1
b.
 4
c.
 5
d.
 6
e.
 None of the above.
 139.
In Figure 29-01, the structure labeled 5 is used for:
a.
 food intake.
b.
 digestion.
c.
 locating food.
d.
 coordination of movement.
e.
 locomotion.
 140.
The anterior end of a tapeworm is known as the:
a.
 proglottid.
b.
 cnidocyte.
c.
 auricle.
d.
 protonephridia.
e.
 scolex.
 141.
The nervous system of flatworms:
a.
 consists of a single, large ganglia in the head region.
b.
 is sometimes referred to as tube like.
c.
 includes two dorsal nerve cords.
d.
 is diffuse and net like.
e.
 None of the above.
 142.
Free-living flatworms belong to the class:
a.
 Monogena.
b.
 Lophotrochozoa.
c.
 Turbellaria.
d.
 Cestoda.
e.
 Chelicerata.
 143.
Planaria are:
a.
 detritivores.
b.
 omnivores.
c.
 herbivores.
d.
 carnivores.
e.
 parasites.
 144.
Tapeworm(s):
a.
 have a tube like digestive system.
b.
 have a closed circulatory system.
c.
 bodies consist of hundreds of reproductive segments.
d.
 have a well developed sensory system to find vertebrate hosts.
e.
 life cycles are simple and completed in their vertebrate hosts.
 145.
Which of the following characteristics is not associated with nemerteans?
a.
 presence of a true coelomic space, the rhynchocoel
b.
 blood vessels
c.
 a heart
d.
 a proboscis
e.
 None of the above, all are characteristic of nemerteans.
 146.
Ribbons worms have a unique ___________ that is used to capture prey.
a.
 proboscis
b.
 tentacle
c.
 set of jaws
d.
 claw
e.
 forked leg
 147.
Which of the following terms can be associated with many molluscan species?
a.
 chelicerae
b.
 pupa
c.
 radula
d.
 pen
e.
 internal shell
 148.
Most molluscs are:
a.
 found in freshwater.
b.
 marine.
c.
 terrestrial.
d.
 arboreal.
e.
 None of the above.
 149.
The veliger larval form is unique to:
a.
 insects.
b.
 annelids.
c.
 molluscs.
d.
 arthropods.
e.
 crustaceans.
 150.
Closed circulatory systems are found in the:
a.
 Cephalopoda.
b.
 Mollusca.
c.
 Bivalvia.
d.
 Gastropoda.
e.
 Polyplacophora.
 151.
An animal found in the rocky intertidal zone has eight overlapping plates and is tightly adhering to the rock with a muscular foot. This animal is most likely a member of the class:
a.
 Polyplacophora.
b.
 Polychaeta.
c.
 Bivalvia.
d.
 Gastropoda.
e.
 Cephalopoda.
 152.
Members of the class Bivalvia:
a.
 have gills that secrete the shell.
b.
 have a mantle that may form pearls.
c.
 are all sessile.
d.
 all have a radula.
e.
 have a broad foot used for locomotion.
 153.
Bivalves are:
a.
 detritivores.
b.
 herbivores
c.
 omnivores.
d.
 carnivores.
e.
 filter feeders.
 154.
Torsion may be an adaptation in __________ that allows the ___________ to be withdrawn first into the shell.
a.
 bivalves; foot
b.
 bivalves; head
c.
 gastropods; foot
d.
 gastropods; head
e.
 cephalopods; head
 155.
Which of the following are shell-less molluscs?
a.
 nudibranchs
b.
 scallops
c.
 pulmonate gastropods
d.
 chitons
e.
 squids
 156.
Which of the following is an adaptation that enables cephalopods to escape from their predators?
a.
 torsion
b.
 poisonous salivary secretions
c.
 a hard shell
d.
 rapidly changing colors
e.
 a modified radula
 157.
Which of the following terms is associated with polychaetes?
a.
 radula
b.
 metamorphosis
c.
 parapodia
d.
 mantle
e.
 visceral mass
 158.
Annelids:
a.
 have a visceral mass.
b.
 have a segmented body.
c.
 surround their body with a mantle.
d.
 move with a muscular foot.
e.
 have an open circulatory system.
 159.
In both mollusks and annelids, the first larval stage is known as:
a.
 a veliger.
b.
 a glochidium.
c.
 a zoea.
d.
 a protostome.
e.
 a trochophore.
 160.
Critical to polychaete and oligochaete locomotion are:
a.
 jointed appendages.
b.
 parapodia.
c.
 setae.
d.
 fins.
e.
 tentacles.
Figure 29-02
Use the figure below to answer the corresponding questions.nar009-1.jpg
 161.
The larva in Figure 29-02 is:
a.
 a veliger.
b.
 a glochidium.
c.
 a trochophore.
d.
 a nauplius.
e.
 a pupa.
 162.
The larva in Figure 29-02 is representative of the phyla:
a.
 Annelida and Arthropoda.
b.
 Mollusca and Annelida.
c.
 Nemertea and Rotifera.
d.
 Nemertea and Nematoda.
e.
 Rotifera and Arthropoda.
 163.
Members of the class ________________ include blood-sucking parasites.
a.
 Oligochaeta
b.
 Polychaeta
c.
 Polyplacophora
d.
 Hirudinea
e.
 Cephalopoda
 164.
The class __________ includes Lumbricus terrestris, the common earthworm.
a.
 Oligochaeta
b.
 Polychaeta
c.
 Polyplacophora
d.
 Hirudinea
e.
 Malacostraca
 165.
Some spawning marine polychaetes ensure fertilization by:
a.
 synchronizing release of sperm and eggs.
b.
 using internal fertilization.
c.
 being hermaphroditic.
d.
 living in close colonies.
e.
 None of the above.
 166.
Hermaphroditic earthworms reproduce sexually by connecting their bodies by their ____________. This allows transfer of ____________ from one worm to the other.
a.
 setae; zygotes
b.
 setae; eggs
c.
 setae; sperm
d.
 clitellum; eggs
e.
 clitellum; sperm
 167.
Segmentation is important in annelids as an aid in:
a.
 respiration.
b.
 reproduction.
c.
 movement.
d.
 sensation.
e.
 eating.
Figure 29-03
Use the figure below to answer the corresponding questions.nar010-1.jpg
 168.
The dorsal blood vessel is the structure labeled ____ in Figure 29-03.
a.
 1
b.
 2
c.
 3
d.
 5
e.
 6
 169.
The cross section in Figure 29-03 is representative of the architecture found in:
a.
 phoronids.
b.
 nemerteans.
c.
 Diplopoda.
d.
 Polyplacophora.
e.
 oligochaetes.
 170.
_________________ is an anticoagulant used by leeches.
a.
 Chitin
b.
 Calcium carbonate
c.
 Hirudin
d.
 Pheromone
e.
 Saxitoxin
 171.
________________ superficially resemble bivalves.
a.
 Brachiopods
b.
 Rotifera
c.
 Mollusca
d.
 Bryozoa
e.
 Chelicerata
 172.
After embryonic development, members of the phylum Rotifera are incapable of:
a.
 locomotion.
b.
 cell division.
c.
 ingestion.
d.
 reproduction.
e.
 None of the above, all are functions of post-embryonic rotifers.
 173.
Animals with a crown of cilia that look like a spinning wheel are the:
a.
 bryozoans.
b.
 phoronids.
c.
 ctenophores.
d.
 rotifers.
e.
 platyhelminths.
 174.
You have a sample of cat emesis (vomit) and find worms in the sample. The cylindrical worms are long and slender, pointed at each end, with no other distinguishing characteristics. They are members of the phylum:
a.
 Platyhelminthes.
b.
 Nematoda.
c.
 Cnidaria.
d.
 Annelida.
e.
 Nemertea.
 175.
The ____________ of roundworms allows them to resist desiccation in terrestrial environments.
a.
 epidermis
b.
 endodermis
c.
 shell
d.
 cuticle
e.
 mesoglea
 176.
________________ are parasites that infect humans, and, as adults, reside in the small intestines of the host.
a.
 Pinworms
b.
 Ascarid worms
c.
 Trichina worms
d.
 Rotifers
e.
 Caenorhabditis elegans
 177.
A Trichinella infection is most common in persons who:
a.
 eat undercooked beef.
b.
 eat undercooked pork.
c.
 eat undercooked fish.
d.
 walk barefoot in a cow pasture.
e.
 walk barefoot in a rice field.
 178.
The phylum name Arthropoda refers to:
a.
 a hard exoskeleton.
b.
 the ability to fly.
c.
 jointed appendages.
d.
 respiratory capabilities.
e.
 a segmented coelom.
 179.
Which of the following does not characterize arthropods?
a.
 presence of a coelom
b.
 segmentation
c.
 an open circulatory system
d.
 an exoskeleton
e.
 an incomplete digestive tract
 180.
One of the disadvantages of exoskeletons in arthropods is that:
a.
 they severely limit locomotion.
b.
 they interfere with ingestion.
c.
 they must be shed when the animal grows.
d.
 they do not provide adequate protection from predators.
e.
 they do not prevent desiccation.
 181.
Velvet worms belong to the phylum:
a.
 Nematoda.
b.
 Annelida.
c.
 Mollusca.
d.
 Onychophora.
e.
 Arthropoda.
 182.
The ___________ are very common arthropod Paleozoic fossils, and are extinct today.
a.
 moss animals
b.
 trilobites
c.
 lophophorate animals
d.
 tardigrades
e.
 phoronids
 183.
Members of the subphylum ________ lack antenna but possess unique mouthparts, which are not mandibles.
a.
 Crustacea
b.
 Uniramia
c.
 Chelicerata
d.
 Chilopoda
e.
 Arachnida
 184.
Segmentation in arthropods differs from that of annelids because arthropod segments are:
a.
 smaller.
b.
 less specialized.
c.
 only present in adults.
d.
 more specialized.
e.
 only present in larvae.
 185.
Biramous appendages in arthropods are only present in:
a.
 crustaceans.
b.
 horseshoe crabs.
c.
 insects.
d.
 arachnids.
e.
 centipedes.
 186.
The dragline that is laid by many spiders serves as a means of:
a.
 capturing prey.
b.
 capturing a mate.
c.
 detecting the pull of gravity.
d.
 communicating with other spiders of the same species.
e.
 holding the eggs of spiders.
 187.
An arthropod with chelicerae, pedipalps, and silk glands would be:
a.
 a scorpion.
b.
 a tick.
c.
 a mite.
d.
 a spider.
e.
 a barnacle.
 188.
Scorpion pincers are enlarged:
a.
 chelicerae.
b.
 maxillae.
c.
 mandibles.
d.
 pedipalps.
e.
 legs.
 189.
_________________ are the most economically important chelicerate pests.
a.
 Spiders
b.
 Scorpions
c.
 Mites and ticks
d.
 Horseshoe crabs
e.
 Trilobites and eurypterids
 190.
Arthropods with mandibles, gills, antennal glands, and statocysts are the:
a.
 insects.
b.
 spiders.
c.
 scorpions.
d.
 crustaceans.
e.
 mites.
 191.
Arthropods with mandibles, a single pair of antennae, and two legs on most body segments are:
a.
 ribbon worms.
b.
 centipedes.
c.
 millipedes.
d.
 trilobites.
e.
 mites.
 192.
As adults, ______________ are sessile crustaceans.
a.
 ticks
b.
 the decapods
c.
 shrimp
d.
 the uniramids
e.
 barnacles
 193.
A nauplius larva is characteristic of:
a.
 echinoderms.
b.
 gastropods.
c.
 molluscs.
d.
 crustaceans.
e.
 ctenophores.
 194.
__________________ are used by crustaceans for detecting the pull of gravity.
a.
 Antennal glands
b.
 Maxillae
c.
 Draglines
d.
 Statocysts
e.
 Swimmerets
 195.
Insects are most closely related to:
a.
 mites.
b.
 ticks.
c.
 millipedes.
d.
 lobsters.
e.
 crustaceans.
 196.
Gas exchange in terrestrial insects is accomplished through:
a.
 the use of gills.
b.
 the use of book lungs.
c.
 the use of tracheae.
d.
 diffusion across the epidermal layer.
e.
 a closed circulatory system.
 197.
The largest class of animals in terms of the number of different species is the class:
a.
 Arachnida.
b.
 Insecta.
c.
 Gastropoda.
d.
 Bivalvia.
e.
 Arthropoda.
 198.
Horseshoe crabs belong to:
a.
 the subphylum Uniramia.
b.
 the subphylum Crustacea.
c.
 the class Chilopoda.
d.
 the class Merostomata.
e.
 the class Malacostraca.
 199.
One adaptation of insects that is specific to this group among all arthropods is:
a.
 cephalization.
b.
 hard exoskeletons.
c.
 segmentation.
d.
 specialized mouthparts.
e.
 wings.
 200.
An elongate uniramid with many legs as well as poison claws is called:
a.
 a mite.
b.
 a tick.
c.
 an insect.
d.
 a centipede.
e.
 a millipede.
 201.
Which of the following arthropod groups is almost exclusively aquatic in habitat?
a.
 Arachnida
b.
 Crustacea
c.
 Insecta
d.
 Chilopoda
e.
 Diplopoda
 202.
Which of the following animals has an open circulatory system?
a.
 clams
b.
 crabs
c.
 insects
d.
 snails
e.
 All of the above.
Figure 29-04
Use the figure below to answer the corresponding questions.nar011-1.jpg
 203.
Which of the insects in Figure 29-04 represents orders that have incomplete metamorphosis?
a.
 2 and 3
b.
 1 and 4
c.
 3 and 5
d.
 1 and 6
e.
 5 and 6
 204.
Which insect in Figure 29-04 represents a group that parasitizes plants?
a.
 1
b.
 2
c.
 3
d.
 4
e.
 5

 

Picturing Lab Safety

Get the Picture?
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View the picture and answer the questions concerning lab safety.

Questions:

1. List 3 unsafe activities shown in the illustration and explain why each is unsafe.

 

2. List 3 correct procedures depicted in the illustration.

3. What should Bob do after the accident?

4. What should Sue have done to avoid an accident?

5. Compare Luke and Duke’s lab techniques. Who is following the rules?

6. What are three things shown in the lab that should not be there?

7. Compare Joe and Carl’s lab techniques. Who is doing it the correct way?

8. What will happen to Ray and Tim when the teacher catches them?

9. List three items in the illustration that are there for the safety of the students in the lab.

 

10. What is Betty doing wrong?