Category: PreAP Biology

Chapters 1 and 2 PreAP Biology

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Chapters 1 and 2 PreAP Biology
 

Multiple Choice
Identify the choice that best completes the statement or answers the question.
 1.
Biology is the study of
a.
minerals.
c.
the weather.
b.
life.
d.
energy.
 2.
All organisms possess DNA. DNA
a.
creates energy for cells.
b.
allows sensitivity to environmental stimuli.
c.
contains information for growth and development.
d.
captures energy from the sun.
 3.
Homeostasis means
a.
a change over long periods of time.
b.
keeping things the same.
c.
rapid change.
d.
the same thing as evolution.
 4.
The smallest units that can carry on all the functions of life are called
a.
molecules.
c.
organelles.
b.
cells.
d.
species.
 5.
Living things
a.
need energy for life processes.
b.
have the ability to reproduce.
c.
are composed of cells.
d.
All of the above
 6.
All living things maintain a balance within their cells and the environment through the process of
a.
growth.
c.
homeostasis.
b.
development.
d.
evolution.
 7.
A scientist noticed that in acidic pond water some salamanders developed with curved spines. This was a(n)
a.
hypothesis.
c.
observation.
b.
theory.
d.
control.
 8.
The English physician Ronald Ross wanted to try to find the cause of malaria. Based on his observations, Dr. Ross suggested that the Anopheles mosquito might spread malaria from person to person. This suggestion was a
a.
prediction.
c.
theory.
b.
hypothesis.
d.
scientific “truth.”
 9.
The English physician Ronald Ross knew that the parasite Plasmodium was always found in the blood of malaria patients. He thought that if the Anopheles mosquitoes were responsible for spreading malaria, then Plasmodium would be found in the mosquitoes. This idea was a
a.
prediction.
c.
theory.
b.
hypothesis.
d.
scientific “truth.”
 10.
Scientific hypotheses are most often tested by the process of
a.
communicating.
c.
experimenting.
b.
inferring.
d.
analyzing data.
 11.
A hypothesis is
a.
a definite answer to a given problem.
b.
a testable possible explanation of an observation.
c.
a proven statement.
d.
a concluding statement.
 12.
A unifying explanation for a broad range of observations is a
a.
hypothesis.
c.
prediction.
b.
theory.
d.
controlled experiment.
 13.
A hypothesis that does not explain an observation
a.
is known as an inaccurate forecast.
b.
often predicts a different observation.
c.
is rejected.
d.
None of the above
 14.
Scientists usually design experiments
a.
with a good idea of the expected experimental results.
b.
based on wild guesses.
c.
in order to develop new laboratory tools.
d.
All of the above
 15.
A scientific theory
a.
is absolutely certain.
b.
is unchangeable.
c.
may be revised as new evidence is presented.
d.
is a controlled experiment.
 16.
The word theory used in a scientific sense means
a.
a highly tested, generally accepted principle.
b.
a guess made with very little knowledge to support it.
c.
an absolute scientific certainty.
d.
None of the above
 17.
observation : hypothesis ::
a.
theory : observation
c.
hypothesis : experiment
b.
guess : hypothesis
d.
theory : control
 18.
Which of the following components of a scientific investigation would benefit from communication between scientists?
a.
observing
c.
analyzing data
b.
measuring
d.
All of the above
 19.
Scientists share their research results by
a.
publishing in scientific journals.
b.
presenting at scientific meetings.
c.
avoiding conflicts of interest.
d.
Both a and b
 20.
Atoms are composed of
a.
protons with a positive charge.
b.
neutrons with no charge.
c.
electrons with a negative charge.
d.
All of the above
 21.
The smallest particle of carbon that can retain the chemical properties of carbon is
a.
a carbon molecule.
b.
a carbon macromolecule.
c.
a carbon atom.
d.
the nucleus of a carbon atom.
 22.
A substance that is composed of only one type of atom is called a(n)
a.
nucleus.
c.
element.
b.
cell.
d.
molecule.
 23.
All matter in the universe is composed of
a.
cells.
c.
atoms.
b.
molecules.
d.
carbon.
 24.
The electrons of an atom
a.
are found in the nucleus along with the protons.
b.
orbit the nucleus in various energy levels.
c.
have a positive charge.
d.
are attracted to the positive charge of neutrons.
 25.
Atoms that have gained energy
a.
have protons and neutrons that move farther apart.
b.
lose neutrons from the nucleus.
c.
have electrons that move to higher energy levels.
d.
absorb electrons into the nucleus.
 26.
Which of the following states of matter contain(s) particles that are tightly linked together in a definite shape?
a.
solid
c.
gas
b.
liquid
d.
solid and liquid
 27.
Because carbon has four electrons in its outer energy level,
a.
it can form bonds with carbon atoms only.
b.
these atoms are naturally chemically stable.
c.
it can react with up to four other atoms to form covalent bonds.
d.
it cannot react with anything other than organic molecules.
 28.
The bond formed when two atoms share a pair of electrons is called a
a.
hydrogen bond.
c.
covalent bond.
b.
nonpolar bond.
d.
water bond.
 29.
Sharing of electrons between atoms of two or more elements
a.
results in the formation of an ion.
b.
results in the formation of a compound.
c.
results in the formation of noble gases.
d.
results in destabilization of the atoms involved.
 30.
An atom that has gained or lost electrons is called a(n)
a.
molecule.
c.
ion.
b.
nucleon.
d.
element.
nar001-1.jpg
 31.
Refer to the graph above. Reaction 1 in the graph
a.
is an energy-storing reaction.
b.
requires a greater activation energy than reaction 2.
c.
may use the same initial reactant condition needed to form product Y.
d.
All of the above
 32.
Refer to the graph above. Reaction 3 in the graph
a.
probably occurred in the presence of a catalyst.
b.
requires a greater activation energy than reaction 2.
c.
is the same as reaction 1, but faster.
d.
takes longer than reaction 2.
 33.
Refer to the graph above. Which of these statements regarding the graph is true?
a.
Reaction 2 occurs faster than reaction 3 because reaction 2 requires more energy than reaction 3.
b.
The difference in the graphs shown for reaction 2 and reaction 3 is due to a difference in the activation energy needed for these reactions.
c.
Reactant X contains more energy at the beginning of the reaction than product Z has after the reaction.
d.
All of the above
 34.
Changing the course or pathway of a chemical reaction so that it requires less activation energy
a.
is a violation of the laws of nature.
b.
requires higher temperatures than those found within cells.
c.
occurs only when reactants are quickly added to the reaction mixture.
d.
is accomplished by the action of catalysts on reactants.
 35.
Enzymes
a.
are able to heat up molecules so that they can react.
b.
provide CO2 for chemical reactions.
c.
are biological catalysts.
d.
absorb excess heat so that reactions occur at low temperatures.
 36.
When a molecule gains an electron, it has been
a.
oxidized.
c.
digested.
b.
reduced.
d.
inactivated.
 37.
Oxidation-reduction reactions are important in organisms because they
a.
allow the passage of energy from molecule to molecule.
b.
prevent nuclear reactions from occurring.
c.
allow the creation and destruction of energy.
d.
None of the above; oxidation-reduction reactions do not occur in living organisms.
 38.
The concentration of a solution is
a.
the number of particles of a substance in a solvent.
b.
the amount of a solvent that is dissolved in a fixed amount of a solution.
c.
the amount of a solute that is dissolved in a fixed amount of a solution.
d.
the ratio of solute to solvent in a solution.
 39.
A neutral solution has an equal number of
a.
hydrogen and hydronium ions.
b.
hydroxide and hydronium ions.
c.
hydrogen and hydroxide ions.
d.
oxygen and hydrogen ions.
 40.
The terms base and alkaline refer to solutions that
a.
contain dissolved sodium hydroxide.
b.
contain more hydronium ions than hydroxide ions.
c.
contain more hydroxide ions than hydronium ions.
d.
contain more hydroxide ions than hydrogen ions.
 41.
A solution with a pH of 11 is
a.
acidic.
c.
neutral.
b.
alkaline.
d.
a buffer.
 42.
Acidic solutions have a pH that is
a.
less than 7.
c.
a negative number.
b.
between 0 and 14.
d.
more than 7.
 43.
Buffers
a.
are of relatively little importance in living things.
b.
are formed when a large number of hydroxide ions are released in a solution.
c.
are formed when a large number of hydronium ions are released in a solution.
d.
tend to prevent great fluctuations in pH.
 44.
Atoms become more stable when they form compounds because
a.
they always lose electrons when they form compounds.
b.
their outer orbitals become filled when they form compounds.
c.
they always gain electrons when they form compounds.
d.
their nucleus loses extra protons when they form compounds.
 45.
A water molecule is polar because its hydrogen and oxygen atoms
a.
both lose electrons.
b.
become ions.
c.
both gain electrons.
d.
do not share the electrons equally.
 46.
Polar molecules such as water have
a.
no negative or positive poles.
b.
both negative and positive poles.
c.
only a negative pole.
d.
only a positive pole.
 47.
A molecule that has a partial positive charge on one side and a partial negative charge on the other side is called a
a.
nonpolar molecule.
c.
charged molecule.
b.
polar molecule.
d.
bipolar molecule.
 48.
Water is a polar molecule because
a.
it contains two hydrogen atoms for each oxygen atom.
b.
it has a charge.
c.
different parts of the molecule have slightly different charges.
d.
it does not have a charge.
 49.
Water molecules break up other polar substances
a.
such as salts.
b.
because of the uneven charge distribution that exists in water molecules.
c.
thus freeing ions in these substances for use by the body.
d.
All of the above
 50.
Which of the following characteristics of water is not a result of hydrogen bonding?
a.
adhesive strength
b.
capillarity
c.
cohesive strength
d.
All of the above are a result of hydrogen bonding.

 

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Darwinian Evolution – PreAP Biology

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Darwinian Evolution – PreAP Biology
  

Multiple Choice
Identify the choice that best completes the statement or answers the question.
 
 1.
Which of the following are examples of fossils?
a.
shells or old bones
b.
any traces of dead organisms
c.
insects trapped in tree sap
d.
All of the above
 
 2.
Animal fossils may form when
a.
an animal is buried by sediment.
b.
an animal is buried on the ocean floor, in swamps, in mud, or in tar pits.
c.
an animal’s tissue is replaced by harder minerals.
d.
All of the above
 
 3.
Darwin drew ideas for his theory from observations of organisms on
a.
the Samoan Islands.
b.
Manhattan Island.
c.
the Hawaiian Islands.
d.
the Galápagos Islands.
 
 4.
The species of finches that Darwin observed differed in the shape of their beaks. According to Darwin, all of these species probably
a.
had a common ancestor.
b.
had migrated from Africa.
c.
had descended from similar birds in Africa.
d.
ate the same diet.
 
 5.
Darwin thought that the animals of the Galápagos Islands were similar to those of the nearby coast of South America because
a.
the animals’ ancestors had migrated from South America to the Galápagos Islands.
b.
the animals had all been brought to the islands by humans.
c.
the islands had slowly drifted away from the mainland.
d.
the animals in both places had evolved in nearly identical environments
 
 6.
According to Darwin, evolution occurs
a.
only through artificial selection.
b.
during half-life periods of 5,715 years.
c.
because of natural selection.
d.
so rapidly that it can be observed easily.
 
 7.
When Darwin published his first book about evolution, he included all of the following ideas except
a.
the idea that species change slowly over time.
b.
the idea that some organisms reproduce at a greater rate than others.
c.
the idea that species are permanent and unchanging.
d.
the idea that some species become better suited to their environment than others.
 
 8.
The major idea that Darwin presented in his book The Origin of Species was that
a.
species change over time and never compete with each other.
b.
animals change, but plants remain the same over time.
c.
species may change in small ways but cannot give rise to new species.
d.
species change over time by natural selection.
 
 9.
Natural selection is the process by which
a.
the age of selected fossils is calculated.
b.
organisms with traits well suited to their environment survive and reproduce more successfully than organisms less suited to the same environment.
c.
acquired traits are passed on from one generation to the next.
d.
All of the above
 
 10.
Populations of the same species living in different places
a.
do not vary.
b.
always show balancing selection.
c.
are genetically identical to each other.
d.
become increasingly different as each population becomes adapted to its own environment.
 
 11.
Scarcity of resources and a growing population are most likely to result in
a.
decreased homology.
b.
increased genetic variation.
c.
increased competition.
d.
convergent evolution.
 
  
 
nar001-1.jpg
 
 12.
Refer to the illustration above. An analysis of DNA from these organisms would indicate that
a.
they have identical DNA.
b.
they all have the same number of bones.
c.
their nucleotide sequences show many similarities.
d.
they all have the same number of chromosomes.
 
 13.
Refer to the illustration above. The similarity of these structures is one form of evidence that the organisms
a.
share a common ancestor.
b.
all grow at different rates.
c.
evolved instantaneously.
d.
live for a long time.
 
 14.
Refer to the illustration above. The bones labeled “X” can be referred to as
a.
vestigial structures.
b.
sequential structures.
c.
homologous structures.
d.
fossil structures.
 
 15.
Which of the following is most likely a vestigial structure?
a.
the human tailbone
c.
flower color
b.
the beak of a finch
d.
a fossil of a snail
 
 16.
Homologous structures in organisms provide evidence that the organisms
a.
share a common ancestor.
b.
must have lived at different times.
c.
have a skeletal structure.
d.
are now extinct.
 
 17.
Anatomical structures that appear to be derived from a functional structure in an ancestor, but that currently do not serve an important function, are called
a.
inorganic.
c.
fossilized.
b.
mutated.
d.
vestigial.
 
 18.
The beak of a bird and the beak of a giant squid evolved independently and serve the same function. The beaks are
a.
divergent structures.
c.
analogous structures.
b.
homologous structures.
d.
hybrid structures.
 
 19.
Evidence that evolution occurs includes all of the following except
a.
acquired characteristics.
b.
similarities and differences in proteins and DNA sequences between organisms.
c.
the fossil record.
d.
homologous structures among different organisms.
 
 20.

Cytochrome c is a protein that is involved in cellular respiration in all eukaryotic organisms. Human cytochrome c contains 104 amino acids. The following table compares human cytochrome c with cytochrome c from a number of other organisms.

 

Organism		Number of cytochrome c amino acids
that differ from human cytochrome c amino acids
Chickens
18
Chimpanzees
0
Dogs
13
Rattlesnakes
20
Rhesus monkeys
1
Yeasts
56
  

Which of the following is not a valid inference from these data?

a.
Chimpanzees are more closely related to humans than yeasts are.
b.
The cytochrome c of chimpanzees differs from that of rhesus monkeys by only one amino acid.
c.
Dogs are more closely related to humans than chickens are.
d.
All of the proteins produced by chimpanzees and humans are identical.
 
 21.
The accumulation of differences between populations that once formed a single population is called
a.
coevolution.
b.
adaptation.
c.
divergent evolution.
d.
cumulative differentiation.
 
 22.
Over millions of years, plants and their pollinators have
a.
coevolved.
c.
become parasites.
b.
crossbred.
d.
become competitive.
 
 23.

mc023-1.jpg

Refer to the illustration above. While the shark and dolphin are similar in appearance, dolphins evolved from ancestors that were very different from sharks. The current similarity between sharks and dolphins is an example of

a.
coevolution.
c.
convergent evolution.
b.
biogeography.
d.
divergent evolution.
 
 24.
What is the idea developed by Charles Lyell which states that the geologic processes that shaped Earth in the past continue to operate in the same way today?
a.
inheritance of acquired characteristics
b.
catastrophism
c.
uniformitarianism
d.
descent with modification
 
 25.
The idea of inheritance of acquitted characteristics was proposed by
a.
Charles Darwin.
c.
Jean-Baptiste Lamarck.
b.
George Cuvier.
d.
Charles Lyell.
 
 26.
Which of the following describes a population?
a.
dogs and cats living in Austin, Texas
b.
four species of fish living in a pond
c.
dogwood trees in Middletown, Connecticut
d.
roses and tulips in a garden
 
 27.
The movement of alleles into or out of a population due to migration is called
a.
mutation.
c.
nonrandom mating.
b.
gene flow.
d.
natural selection.
 
 28.
What type of population is most susceptible to loss of genetic variability as a result of genetic drift?
a.
large populations
b.
medium-sized populations
c.
small populations
d.
populations that fluctuate in size
 
 29.
A change in the frequency of a particular gene in one direction in a population is called
a.
directional selection.
b.
acquired variation.
c.
chromosome drift.
d.
stabilizing selection.
 
 30.
The type of selection that may eliminate intermediate phenotypes is
a.
direction selection.
b.
disruptive selection.
c.
polygenic selection.
d.
stabilizing selection.
 
 31.
Directional selection tends to eliminate
a.
both extremes in a range of phenotypes.
b.
one extreme in a range of phenotypes.
c.
intermediate phenotypes.
d.
None of the above; it causes new phenotypes to form.
 
 32.
The large, brightly colored tail feathers of the male peacock are valuable to him because
a.
they attract potential predators.
b.
they warn off potential competitors for mates.
c.
they attract potential mates.
d.
they attract people who provide them with food.
 
 33.
The hypothesis that evolution occurs at an irregular rate through geologic time is known as
a.
directional evolution.
b.
directional equilibrium.
c.
punctuated equilibrium.
d.
punctuated evolution.
 

 

 
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Pre AP Grades

 

Pre AP Biology Grades  

August 20, 2011
Fourth Nine Weeks Grades

1st Period8th Period
CHERYL MASSENGALE COMPLETE DETAILED RECORD – Quarter 1
1 PREAP BIOLOGY 1 2
Qtr. 1 Aug 18, 2011 100100 QUARTER Method: Weight/Categories
Student H T HOMEWORK LAB QUIZ TEST Qtr. 1
= = > 91100 A- 91% A 100% A 99%
= = > 94 94 A 94% A 94% A 94%
= = > 91 94 A- 91% A 94% A 94%
= = > 91 94 A- 91% A 94% A 94%
= = > 88 94 B+ 88% A 94% A- 93%
= = > 88 94 B+ 88% A 94% A- 93%
= = > 91 89 A- 91% B+ 89% B+ 89%
= = > 88 89 B+ 88% B+ 89% B+ 89%
= = > 88 89 B+ 88% B+ 89% B+ 89%
= = > 79 89 C+ 79% B+ 89% B+ 88%
= = > 73 89 C- 73% B+ 89% B+ 87%
= = > 94 83 A 94% B- 83% B 84%
= = > 91 83 A- 91% B- 83% B 84%
= = > 91 83 A- 91% B- 83% B 84%
= = > 88 83 B+ 88% B- 83% B 84%
= = > 88 83 B+ 88% B- 83% B 84%
= = > 85 83 B 85% B- 83% B- 83%
= = > 85 83 B 85% B- 83% B- 83%
= = > 83 B- 83% B- 83%
= = > 80 83 B- 80% B- 83% B- 83%
= = > 73 83 C- 73% B- 83% B- 82%
= = > 97 78 A 97% C+ 78% B- 80%
= = > 91 78 A- 91% C+ 78% C+ 79%
= = > 88 78 B+ 88% C+ 78% C+ 79%
= = > 85 78 B 85% C+ 78% C+ 79%
= = > 82 78 B- 82% C+ 78% C+ 79%
= = > 85 72 B 85% C- 72% C 74%
= = > 73 72 C- 73% C- 72% C- 72%
Average = = > 87 85 B+ 87% B 85% B 85%
WT.10% WT.20% WT.70% Weight/PercentagesASSIGNMENTS FOR 1 PREAP BIOLOGY Quarter 1
AUG 17 1 H 100 SAFETY WKSHT AUG 18 2 T 100 SAFETY TEST		CHERYL MASSENGALE COMPLETE DETAILED RECORD – Quarter 1
8 PREAP BIOLOGY 1 2
Qtr. 1 Aug 18, 2011 100100 QTR PTS. QUARTER Method: Cumulative Points
Student H T HOMEWORK LAB QUIZ TEST Qtr. 1
= = > 91 89 180/200 A- 91% B+ 89% A- 90%
= = > 91 89 180/200 A- 91% B+ 89% A- 90%
= = > 79100 179/200 C+ 79% A 100% B+ 89%
= = > 85 94 179/200 B 85% A 94% B+ 89%
= = > 88 89 177/200 B+ 88% B+ 89% B+ 89%
= = > 88 89 177/200 B+ 88% B+ 89% B+ 89%
= = > 82 94 176/200 B- 82% A 94% B+ 88%
= = > 82 94 176/200 B- 82% A 94% B+ 88%
= = > 85 89 174/200 B 85% B+ 89% B+ 87%
= = > 79 94 173/200 C+ 79% A 94% B 86%
= = > 88 83 171/200 B+ 88% B- 83% B 86%
= = > 82 89 171/200 B- 82% B+ 89% B 86%
= = > 82 89 171/200 B- 82% B+ 89% B 86%
= = > 79 89 168/200 C+ 79% B+ 89% B 84%
= = > 79 89 168/200 C+ 79% B+ 89% B 84%
= = > 73 94 167/200 C- 73% A 94% B 84%
= = > 82 83 165/200 B- 82% B- 83% B- 83%
= = > 82 83 165/200 B- 82% B- 83% B- 83%
= = > 82 83 165/200 B- 82% B- 83% B- 83%
= = > 76 89 165/200 C 76% B+ 89% B- 83%
= = > 79 83 162/200 C+ 79% B- 83% B- 81%
= = > 79 83 162/200 C+ 79% B- 83% B- 81%
= = > 76 78 154/200 C 76% C+ 78% C+ 77%
= = > 55 83 138/200 F 55% B- 83% D+ 69%
= = > NC 94 94/200 F 0% A 94% F 47%
= = > NC 89 89/200 F 0% B+ 89% F 45%
Average = = > 75 89 164/200 C 75% B+ 89% B- 82%
WT. 50% WT. 0% WT. 0% WT. 50% Cumulative PointsASSIGNMENTS FOR 8 PREAP BIOLOGY Quarter 1
AUG 17 1 H 100 SAFETY WKSHT AUG 18 2 T 100 SAFETY TEST

Massengale

Pre AP Lab Reports

 

Pre AP Lab Reports

Calorimetry of Food Energy
Sample 1     Sample 2     Sample 3		Scientific Method – All Thumbs!
Sample 1     Sample 2
Osmosis Through an Egg Membrane
Sample 1     Sample 2    Sample 3     Sample 4		Environmental pH
Sample 1     Sample 2
Chromatography of Plant Pigments
Sample 1     Sample 2     Sample 3		Planarian Regeneration
Sheep Heart Dissection Chromatography of Pigments
Metric MeasurementWater Properties
 
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