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Chapter 2 Study Guide

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Chapter 2 study guide
 

Multiple Choice
Identify the choice that best completes the statement or answers the question.
 1.
Atoms are composed of
a.
 protons with a positive charge.
b.
 neutrons with no charge.
c.
 electrons with a negative charge.
d.
 All of the above
 2.
The smallest particle of carbon that can retain the chemical properties of carbon is
a.
 a carbon molecule.
b.
 a carbon macromolecule.
c.
 a carbon atom.
d.
 the nucleus of a carbon atom.
 3.
A substance that is composed of only one type of atom is called a(n)
a.
 nucleus.
c.
 element.
b.
 cell.
d.
 molecule.
 4.
All matter in the universe is composed of
a.
 cells.
c.
 atoms.
b.
 molecules.
d.
 carbon.
 5.
The electrons of an atom
a.
 are found in the nucleus along with the protons.
b.
 orbit the nucleus in various energy levels.
c.
 have a positive charge.
d.
 are attracted to the positive charge of neutrons.
 6.
Atoms that have gained energy
a.
 have protons and neutrons that move farther apart.
b.
 lose neutrons from the nucleus.
c.
 have electrons that move to higher energy levels.
d.
 absorb electrons into the nucleus.
 7.
Which of the following states of matter contain(s) particles that are tightly linked together in a definite shape?
a.
 solid
c.
 gas
b.
 liquid
d.
 solid and liquid
 8.
Because carbon has four electrons in its outer energy level,
a.
 it can form bonds with carbon atoms only.
b.
 these atoms are naturally chemically stable.
c.
 it can react with up to four other atoms to form covalent bonds.
d.
 it cannot react with anything other than organic molecules.
 9.
The bond formed when two atoms share a pair of electrons is called a
a.
 hydrogen bond.
c.
 covalent bond.
b.
 nonpolar bond.
d.
 water bond.
 10.
Sharing of electrons between atoms of two or more elements
a.
 results in the formation of an ion.
b.
 results in the formation of a compound.
c.
 results in the formation of noble gases.
d.
 results in destabilization of the atoms involved.
 11.
An atom that has gained or lost electrons is called a(n)
a.
 molecule.
c.
 ion.
b.
 nucleon.
d.
 element.
 12.
Which of the following statements most accurately describes the difference between an ionic bond and a covalent bond?
a.
 Atoms held together by ionic bonds separate when placed in water, while atoms held together by covalent bonds do not separate in water.
b.
 Ionic bonds hold together atoms of two different types, while covalent bonds hold together atoms of the same type.
c.
 Electrons are exchanged between atoms held together by an ionic bond, but they are shared between atoms held together by a covalent bond.
d.
 Ionic bonds form between atoms that carry opposite charges, while covalent bonds form between uncharged atoms.
nar001-1.jpg
 13.
Refer to the graph above. Reaction 1 in the graph
a.
 is an energy-storing reaction.
b.
 requires a greater activation energy than reaction 2.
c.
 may use the same initial reactant condition needed to form product Y.
d.
 All of the above
 14.
Refer to the graph above. Reaction 3 in the graph
a.
 probably occurred in the presence of a catalyst.
b.
 requires a greater activation energy than reaction 2.
c.
 is the same as reaction 1, but faster.
d.
 takes longer than reaction 2.
 15.
Refer to the graph above. Which of these statements regarding the graph is true?
a.
 Reaction 2 occurs faster than reaction 3 because reaction 2 requires more energy than reaction 3.
b.
 The difference in the graphs shown for reaction 2 and reaction 3 is due to a difference in the activation energy needed for these reactions.
c.
 Reactant X contains more energy at the beginning of the reaction than product Z has after the reaction.
d.
 All of the above
 16.
Changing the course or pathway of a chemical reaction so that it requires less activation energy
a.
 is a violation of the laws of nature.
b.
 requires higher temperatures than those found within cells.
c.
 occurs only when reactants are quickly added to the reaction mixture.
d.
 is accomplished by the action of catalysts on reactants.
 17.
Enzymes
a.
 are able to heat up molecules so that they can react.
b.
 provide CO2 for chemical reactions.
c.
 are biological catalysts.
d.
 absorb excess heat so that reactions occur at low temperatures.
 18.
A single organism may contain
a.
 thousands of different enzymes, each one specific to a different chemical reaction.
b.
 one enzyme that plays a role in thousands of different chemical reactions.
c.
 approximately 100 kinds of enzymes, each one specific to a different chemical reaction.
d.
 one enzyme that is specific to photosynthesis and one enzyme that is specific to cellular respiration.
 19.
When a molecule gains an electron, it has been
a.
 oxidized.
c.
 digested.
b.
 reduced.
d.
 inactivated.
 20.
Oxidation-reduction reactions are important in organisms because they
a.
 allow the passage of energy from molecule to molecule.
b.
 prevent nuclear reactions from occurring.
c.
 allow the creation and destruction of energy.
d.
 None of the above; oxidation-reduction reactions do not occur in living organisms.
 21.
The concentration of a solution is
a.
 the number of particles of a substance in a solvent.
b.
 the amount of a solvent that is dissolved in a fixed amount of a solution.
c.
 the amount of a solute that is dissolved in a fixed amount of a solution.
d.
 the ratio of solute to solvent in a solution.
 22.
A neutral solution has an equal number of
a.
 hydrogen and hydronium ions.
b.
 hydroxide and hydronium ions.
c.
 hydrogen and hydroxide ions.
d.
 oxygen and hydrogen ions.
 23.
The terms base and alkaline refer to solutions that
a.
 contain dissolved sodium hydroxide.
b.
 contain more hydronium ions than hydroxide ions.
c.
 contain more hydroxide ions than hydronium ions.
d.
 contain more hydroxide ions than hydrogen ions.
 24.
A solution with a pH of 11 is
a.
 acidic.
c.
 neutral.
b.
 alkaline.
d.
 a buffer.
 25.
Acidic solutions have a pH that is
a.
 less than 7.
c.
 a negative number.
b.
 between 0 and 14.
d.
 more than 7.
 26.
Buffers
a.
 are of relatively little importance in living things.
b.
 are formed when a large number of hydroxide ions are released in a solution.
c.
 are formed when a large number of hydronium ions are released in a solution.
d.
 tend to prevent great fluctuations in pH.
 27.
Atoms become more stable when they form compounds because
a.
 they always lose electrons when they form compounds.
b.
 their outer orbitals become filled when they form compounds.
c.
 they always gain electrons when they form compounds.
d.
 their nucleus loses extra protons when they form compounds.
 28.
A water molecule is polar because its hydrogen and oxygen atoms
a.
 both lose electrons.
b.
 become ions.
c.
 both gain electrons.
d.
 do not share the electrons equally.
 29.
Polar molecules such as water have
a.
 no negative or positive poles.
b.
 both negative and positive poles.
c.
 only a negative pole.
d.
 only a positive pole.
 30.
A molecule that has a partial positive charge on one side and a partial negative charge on the other side is called a
a.
 nonpolar molecule.
c.
 charged molecule.
b.
 polar molecule.
d.
 bipolar molecule.
 31.
Water is a polar molecule because
a.
 it contains two hydrogen atoms for each oxygen atom.
b.
 it has a charge.
c.
 different parts of the molecule have slightly different charges.
d.
 it does not have a charge.
 32.
Water molecules break up other polar substances
a.
 such as salts.
b.
 because of the uneven charge distribution that exists in water molecules.
c.
 thus freeing ions in these substances for use by the body.
d.
 All of the above
 33.
Which of the following characteristics of water is not a result of hydrogen bonding?
a.
 adhesive strength
b.
 capillarity
c.
 cohesive strength
d.
 All of the above are a result of hydrogen bonding.
 

Completion
Complete each statement.
 34.
Substances that are changed when they become involved in chemical reactions are called ____________________, while the new substances that are formed are called ____________________.
 35.
The energy needed to break existing chemical bonds during the initiation of a chemical reaction is called ____________________.
 36.
Chemical reactions in the body can be speeded up by adding a(n) ____________________, which lowers the amount of activation energy required to start the reaction.
 37.
The loss of electrons from a molecule is called ____________________, while the gain of electrons by a molecule is called ____________________.
 38.
A substance that dissolves in another is called a(n) ____________________.
 39.
____________________ is the most common solvent in cells.
 40.
____________________ and ____________________ ions form when water dissociates.
 41.
An acidic solution is one that has more ____________________ than ____________________ ions.
 42.
A solution with a pH of 3 has ____________________ times more hydronium ions than a solution with a pH of 6.
 43.
Buffers are important because body fluids must be maintained within a relatively narrow range of ____________________.
 44.
Water is very effective at dissolving other polar substances because of its ____________________.
 45.
Breaking of ____________________ bonds is the first thing that happens when water is heated, which means that it takes a great deal of thermal energy to raise the temperature of water.
 

Problem
 46.

pr046-1.jpg

Refer to the illustration above. The graph depicts the relative energy levels of the products and reactants for the following chemical reaction: A + B C + D. Write your answers to the following in the spaces below.

a.      Which substances, A, B, C, and/or D, are present at point 1 on the graph?
b.      Which substances, A, B, C, and/or D, are present at point 3 on the graph?
c.      Why is point 2 at a higher energy level than point 1?
d.      Why is point 3 at a lower energy level than point 1?
e.      Draw a dashed line on the graph indicating how the energy level of this reaction over time would be different if the enzyme that catalyzes the reaction were not present.
 

Essay
 47.
Plant growers often use sprinkler irrigation to protect crops they are growing from frost damage. The water that lands on the leaves turns to ice. How does this protect the plants from frost damage? Write your answer in the space below.
 48.
Define enzyme, and describe how an enzyme can function in speeding up a chemical reaction within a cell. Write your answer in the space below.
 49.
How does water’s polar nature affect its ability to dissolve different substances? Write your answer in the space below.
 50.
Explain the relationship between hydrogen bonding and the observation that a full sealed bottle of water breaks when it freezes. Write your answer in the space below.

 
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Biochemistry PCC

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Multiple Choice
Identify the choice that best completes the statement or answers the question.
 1.
At what temperature is water most dense?
a.
 0 degrees Celsius
b.
 1 degrees Celsius
c.
 4 degrees Celsius
d.
 10 degrees Celsius
e.
 100 degrees Celsius
 2.
Which property of water enables living things to survive in it?
a.
 high heat of vaporization
b.
 high specific heat
c.
 degree of surface tension
d.
 cohesion
e.
 density of ice
 3.
Which characteristic of water makes the existence of pH possible?
a.
 ionization
b.
 polarity
c.
 adhesion
d.
 cohesion
e.
 None of the above.
 4.
Which of the following types of biologist would need an understanding of chemistry?
a.
 molecular biologist
b.
 ecologist
c.
 evolutionary biologist
d.
 botanist
e.
 All of the above.
 5.
All of the following are inorganic compounds except:
a.
 glucose.
b.
 hydrochloric acid.
c.
 sodium chloride.
d.
 sodium hydroxide.
e.
 water.
 6.
An element is defined as a substance that:
a.
 is composed of more than one kind of atom.
b.
 is held together by covalent bonds.
c.
 cannot be broken into simpler substances by chemical reactions.
d.
 cannot burn.
e.
 is soluble in both acid and water.
 7.
Which of the following determines the type of element?
a.
 the number of electrons
b.
 the number of protons
c.
 the number of neutrons
d.
 the number of valence electrons
e.
 the number of energy levels
 8.
Which of the following elements is not responsible for a significant portion of the mass of living organisms?
a.
 O
b.
 S
c.
 N
d.
 H
e.
 C
 9.
An element found in minute quantities in living organisms is called:
a.
 a heavy element.
b.
 a vitamin.
c.
 an organic compound.
d.
 an isotope.
e.
 a trace element.
 10.
Select the incorrectly matched pair:
a.
 The 1st principal energy level contains 1 orbital.
b.
 The 2nd principal energy level contains 4 orbitals.
c.
 The 1st principal energy level contains a maximum of 2 electrons.
d.
 The 2nd energy level contains a maximum of 10 electrons.
e.
 All of the above are correctly matched.
 11.
Chlorine has seven electrons in its valence shell. The number of electrons it must gain to complete its valence shell is:
a.
 one.
b.
 two.
c.
 three.
d.
 seven.
e.
 eight.
 12.
An atom has six protons and eight neutrons. Its atomic mass is ____________ atomic mass units.
a.
 two
b.
 four
c.
 six
d.
 eight
e.
 fourteen
 13.
This determines the chemical properties of an element:
a.
 the atomic number.
b.
 the atomic weight.
c.
 the number of energy levels.
d.
 the number of valence electrons.
e.
 orbitals.
 14.
The difference between an electrically neutral atom and an ion is that:
a.
 an ion has an unequal number of protons and electrons, while an atom has an equal number.
b.
 an ion has an equal number of protons and electrons, while an atom has an unequal number.
c.
 an atom has an unequal number of neutrons and protons, while an ion has an equal number.
d.
 an atom has its electrons in orbitals, while an ion has its electrons in its nucleus.
e.
 an atom must have an equal number of neutrons and electrons, while an ion does not.
 15.
The difference between a stable isotope and a radioisotope is that:
a.
 the stable isotope emits radiation.
b.
 the radioisotope emits radiation.
c.
 the stable isotope emits light.
d.
 the stable isotope absorbs radiation.
e.
 the radioisotope has an unequal number of protons and electrons.
Figure 02-01
Use the figure below to answer the corresponding questions.nar001-1.jpg
 16.
Figure 02-01 represents:
a.
 two isotopes of the same element.
b.
 two different elements.
c.
 two different ions.
d.
 an acid and a base.
e.
 a cation and an anion.
 17.
The atomic mass of the atom identified as A in Figure 02-01 is:
a.
 2.
b.
 6.
c.
 8.
d.
 12.
e.
 18.
 18.
The difference between the two atoms in Figure 02-01 is:
a.
 pH.
b.
 the number of electrons.
c.
 the number of protons.
d.
 the number of neutrons.
e.
 electric charge.
 19.
Radioisotopes are used in all of the following scientific applications except:
a.
 dating fossils.
b.
 determining the sequence of genetic information in DNA.
c.
 localization of a drug, such as marijuana.
d.
 the treatment of cancer.
e.
 monitoring changes in the salinity of an estuary.
 20.
Isotopes differ from each other with respect to the number of:
a.
 protons.
b.
 electrons.
c.
 neutrons.
d.
 protons and electrons.
e.
 neutrons and protons.
 21.
When a chemical reaction is at equilibrium:
a.
 the forward reaction is going faster.
b.
 the reverse reaction is going faster.
c.
 the forward and reverse reactions are proceeding at equal rates.
d.
 the forward reaction stops.
e.
 the reverse reaction stops.
 22.
Any chemical interaction between atoms:
a.
 involves neutrons.
b.
 may potentially involve any electron.
c.
 involves protons.
d.
 involves only valence electrons.
e.
 involves only the nuclear subatomic particles.
 23.
The molecular mass of C6H12O6 is 180 amu. 0.25 moles of this substance contain:
a.
 180 daltons.
b.
 45 g.
c.
 1.8 g.
d.
 45 daltons.
e.
 180 g.
 24.
How many molecules are present in one mole of C6H12O6?
a.
 1.7 ´ 10-10 molecules
b.
 1.3 ´ 1010 molecules
c.
 5 molecules
d.
 1.7 ´ 1022 molecules
e.
 6.02 ´ 1023 molecules
Figure 02-02
Use the figure below to answer the corresponding questions.nar002-1.jpg
 25.
Figure 02-02 represents:
a.
 elemental helium.
b.
 molecular hydrogen.
c.
 molecular helium.
d.
 a water molecule.
e.
 molecular oxygen.
 26.
The type of bond illustrated in Figure 02-02 is:
a.
 an ionic bond.
b.
 a polar bond.
c.
 a single covalent bond.
d.
 a hydrogen bond.
e.
 a double covalent bond.
 27.
Select the covalent bond that involves 2 electrons:
a.
 single
b.
 double
c.
 triple
d.
 Both A and B.
e.
 Both A and C.
 28.
The representation H – O – H is known as:
a.
 a structural formula.
b.
 a simplest formula.
c.
 a molecular formula.
d.
 a Lewis structure.
e.
 an orbital diagram.
 29.
Which of the following choices correctly identifies a reactant in the following chemical equation? CO2 + H2O « H2CO3
a.
 carbonic acid
b.
 oxygen
c.
 water
d.
 sugar
e.
 carbon monoxide
 30.
In a chemical reaction, the product is:
a.
 generally written on the right side of the equation.
b.
 always in equilibrium with the reactants.
c.
 the substance that is generated by the reaction.
d.
 only joined by an ionic bond.
e.
 Both A and C.
 31.
A covalent bond:
a.
 can form only between identical atoms.
b.
 involves a sharing of only one pair of electrons.
c.
 is always polar.
d.
 may be polar or nonpolar depending on the atoms involved.
e.
 always forms between identical molecules.
 32.
In a water molecule, because oxygen is more electronegative than hydrogen, the shared electrons are more commonly found around the ____________ nucleus than the ____________ nucleus.
a.
 oxygen; hydrogen
b.
 hydrogen; oxygen
c.
 hydrogen; other hydrogen
d.
 oxygen; nitrogen
e.
 nitrogen; oxygen
 33.
The covalent bond between a hydrogen atom and the oxygen atom in water is formed when:
a.
 hydrogen gains an electron from oxygen.
b.
 hydrogen and oxygen share an electron pair.
c.
 hydrogen and oxygen both lose electrons from their outer shells.
d.
 hydrogen and oxygen both gain electrons in their outer shells.
e.
 hydrogen gains an electron from oxygen.
 34.
Covalently bonded atoms with similar electronic negativities are:
a.
 ionic.
b.
 polar.
c.
 nonpolar.
d.
 partially positive.
e.
 partially negative.
 35.
An atom becomes a cation if:
a.
 it gains one or more electron.
b.
 it loses one or more electron.
c.
 it shares electrons.
d.
 one or more of its electrons changes energy levels.
e.
 it emits radiation.
 36.
In the formation of common table salt, sodium and chlorine interact because:
a.
 sodium and chlorine share a pair of electrons.
b.
 sodium and chlorine share two pairs of electrons.
c.
 chlorine donates seven electrons to sodium.
d.
 there is no electron exchange.
e.
 sodium donates one electron to chlorine.
 37.
Table salt dissolves easily in water because:
a.
 water can form covalent linkages with salt molecules.
b.
 water can remove electrons from the chloride ion, which causes the latter to dissociate from the sodium and dissolve.
c.
 water can add electrons to the sodium ion.
d.
 water is polar and salt is nonpolar. Nonpolar compounds are more soluble in polar solvents because they are able to form strong covalent bonds that result in a breaking up of the molecule being dissolved.
e.
 the partial positive charge of the hydrogens in the water molecule can associate with the negative charge of the chloride ion, and the partial negative charge of the oxygen of the water molecule can associate with the positive charge of the sodium atom.
 38.
Which one of the following atoms would most likely be involved in an ionic bond?
a.
 hydrogen
b.
 oxygen
c.
 sodium
d.
 Both A and B.
e.
 Both A and C.
 39.
The process whereby water molecules surround ions during the process of dissolving is called:
a.
 reduction.
b.
 hydration.
c.
 buffering.
d.
 oxidation.
e.
 vaporization.
 40.
Which component becomes oxidized in the following chemical reaction?
4 Fe + 3 O2 ® 2 Fe2O3
a.
 water
b.
 iron
c.
 oxygen
d.
 rust
e.
 hydrogen
 41.
Which component is the oxidizing agent in the following chemical reaction?
4 Fe + 3 O2 ® 2 Fe2O3
a.
 water
b.
 iron
c.
 oxygen
d.
 rust
e.
 hydrogen
 42.
Which of the following statements is not correct?
a.
 Water heats up and cools down very quickly.
b.
 The amount of heat required to raise the temperature of 1 g of water 1 °C is one calorie.
c.
 Due to hydrogen bonds, water has a high surface tension.
d.
 Large bodies of water have relatively constant temperatures.
e.
 When one gram of water evaporates, it removes heat.
 43.
It takes one calorie of heat to raise the temperature of one gram of water one degree Celsius at sea level. This is referred to as the _______________________ of water.
a.
 heat of fusion
b.
 heat of vaporization
c.
 specific heat
d.
 heat of transformation
e.
 heat of homeostasis
 44.

Which characteristic of water molecules directly contributes to the remarkable “water walking” success of the aquatic insects pictured in the accompanying figure?

mc044-1.jpg

a.
 hydrogen bonds
b.
 capillary action
c.
 nonpolar covalent bonds
d.
 ionic bonds
e.
 adhesive forces
 45.
The cohesiveness between water molecules is due largely to:
a.
 hydrogen bonds.
b.
 polar covalent bonds.
c.
 nonpolar covalent bonds.
d.
 ionic bonds.
e.
 hydrophobic interactions.
 46.
A stalk of celery is placed in a solution of blue colored dye. After one hour, the leaves have blue fluid in their veins. Which property of water is being demonstrated?
a.
 adhesion and cohesion
b.
 evaporation and cooling
c.
 lower density as a solid than as a liquid
d.
 high specific heat
e.
 surface tension
 47.
Evaporative cooling is a process whereby ____________ moving ____________ molecules vaporize, thus ____________ large amounts of heat.
a.
 slow; water; adding
b.
 fast; water; removing
c.
 slow; oxygen; adding
d.
 fast; oxygen; removing
e.
 fast; carbon dioxide; removing
 48.
In a mixture, which one would be present in the least amount?
a.
 solvent
b.
 solute
c.
 water
d.
 Both A and B.
e.
 Both A and C.
 49.
This characteristic of a molecule determines the ability of hydrogen bonds to form between it and hydrogen:
a.
 A non polar atom
b.
 An atom with a partial positive charge
c.
 An atom with a partial negative charge
d.
 None of the above.
e.
 All of the above.
 50.
A pH of 4 is ____________ times more ____________ than a pH of 7.
a.
 3; basic
b.
 3; acidic
c.
 1000; neutral
d.
 1000; basic
e.
 1000; acidic
 51.
What is the OH- concentration of a solution having a pH of 2?
a.
 1 ´ 10-12
b.
 1 ´ 10-10
c.
 1 ´ 10-7
d.
 1 ´ 10-2
e.
 1 ´ 10-1
 52.
When a small amount of hydrochloric acid (HCl) is added to a solution of Na2HPO4, the pH of the solution does not change markedly. The pH also does not change drastically when a small amount of sodium hydroxide (NaOH) is added to this same solution. Based on these observations, the compound Na2HPO4 is:
a.
 able to donate hydrogen atoms to HCl.
b.
 able to remove hydrogen ions from the OH- of NaOH.
c.
 acting as a buffer.
d.
 an enzyme facilitating the reaction between HCl and NaOH.
e.
 All of the above.
 53.
A salt is a compound in which the hydrogen ion of _________________ is replaced by some other cation.
a.
 a base
b.
 an acid
c.
 an anion
d.
 a hydroxide ion
e.
 water
 54.
Which concentration(s) results in a pH of 7?
a.
 higher concentrations of hydrogen ions than hydroxide ions
b.
 higher concentrations of hydroxide ions than hydrogen ions
c.
 equal concentrations of hydroxide ions than hydrogen ions
d.
 Both A and B.
e.
 None of the above.
 55.
Identify the chemical(s) that act(s) as a buffer in human blood:
a.
 bicarbonate
b.
 hydrogen ions
c.
 carbon dioxide
d.
 water
e.
 None of the above.
 56.
Identify the hydrogen ion concentration that represents the lowest pH from the following list:
a.
 1 ´ 10-3
b.
 1 ´ 10-4
c.
 1 ´ 10-7
d.
 1 ´ 10-11
e.
 1 ´ 10-14
 57.
Which of the following has a pH closest to that of human blood?
a.
 beer
b.
 coffee
c.
 rain water
d.
 sea water
e.
 oven cleaner
 58.
Which of the following would most likely form electrolytes in water?
a.
 glucose
b.
 ethanol
c.
 An organic compound
d.
 An inorganic compound
e.
 None of the above.
 59.
Which of the following is not a property of carbon?
a.
 Carbon-to-carbon bonds are limited to single bonds.
b.
 Carbon has four valence electrons.
c.
 Carbon can form bonds to various other atoms.
d.
 Two carbon atoms can share three electron pairs with each other.
e.
 Carbon-to-carbon bonds are strong.
 60.
What aspect of long carbon chains makes them ideal for forming the backbones of long biomolecules?
a.
 The carbon atom itself is strong and hard to split.
b.
 Carbon can form a maximum of five covalent bonds with other atoms.
c.
 Carbons can form a maximum of three covalent bonds with other atoms.
d.
 Carbon-to-carbon covalent bonds are strong.
e.
 Carbon-to-carbon hydrogen bonds are weak and transitory.
 61.
The highly polarized nature of compounds containing carboxyl groups can be attributed to:
a.
 the presence of two highly electronegative carbon atoms.
b.
 the presence of two highly electropositive carbon atoms.
c.
 the presence of two highly electronegative oxygen atoms.
d.
 the presence of two highly electropositive oxygen atoms.
e.
 None of the above.
 62.

The number of electron pairs shared between carbon 2 and 3 in the accompanying figure is:

mc062-1.jpg

a.
 one.
b.
 one and a half.
c.
 two.
d.
 three.
e.
 None of the above.
 63.

The two molecules in the following figure represent:

mc063-1.jpg

a.
 ionized structures.
b.
 enantiomers.
c.
 secondary structures.
d.
 geometric isomers.
e.
 polymers.
 64.
This functional group is weakly basic because it can accept an H+ ion:
a.
 hydroxyl
b.
 carbonyl
c.
 amino
d.
 phosphate
e.
 sulfhydryl
 65.
This functional group forms cross bridges that help stabilize protein tertiary structure:
a.
 hydroxyl
b.
 carbonyl
c.
 amino
d.
 phosphate
e.
 sulfhydryl
 66.
The chemical interactions of large hydrocarbons are largely determined by:
a.
 their solubility in water.
b.
 their functional groups.
c.
 their polar nature.
d.
 isomerization of these hydrocarbons into other forms.
e.
 the hydrogens bonded to the carbon atoms.
 67.
Hydrocarbons are hydrophobic because:
a.
 the covalent bonds between hydrogen and carbon are nonpolar.
b.
 they contain functional groups.
c.
 they exist as isomers.
d.
 Both A and B.
e.
 Both A and C.
 68.
Which pair is mismatched?
a.
 monsaccharide:maltose
b.
 disaccharide:sucrose
c.
 polysaccharide:cellulose
d.
 None of these pairs are correctly matched.
e.
 All of these pairs are correctly matched.
 69.
Which of these terms is most inclusive?
a.
 monosaccharide
b.
 starch
c.
 polysaccharide
d.
 disaccharide
e.
 carbohydrate
 70.
Glucose dissolves in water because:
a.
 it ionizes.
b.
 it is a polysaccharide.
c.
 it has polar hydroxyl groups that interact with polar water molecules.
d.
 it has a very reactive primary structure.
e.
 it is hydrophobic.
 71.
Carbohydrate molecules:
a.
 serve as structural components of human cell walls.
b.
 form the regulatory compounds known as enzymes.
c.
 are a source of energy.
d.
 help protect vital organs from damage.
e.
 contain the genetic information of a cell.
 72.
A chemical reaction in which organic compounds are synthesized from their building blocks is called:
a.
 hydrolysis.
b.
 condensation.
c.
 oxidation.
d.
 reduction.
e.
 dissociation.
Figure 03-01
Use the figure below to answer the corresponding questions.nar003-1.jpg
 73.
The process illustrated in Figure 03-01 is called:
a.
 condensation.
b.
 protein synthesis.
c.
 hydrolysis.
d.
 dehydration synthesis.
e.
 denaturation.
 74.
The products of the process in Figure 03-01 are:
a.
 amino acids.
b.
 molecules of glycerol.
c.
 representative of a glycoside linkage.
d.
 enzymes.
e.
 monosaccharides.
 75.
Which one of the following carbohydrates is the most structurally complex?
a.
 sucrose
b.
 fructose
c.
 cellulose
d.
 glucose
e.
 a disaccharide
 76.
In which of the following reactions must the equivalent of a water molecule be added in order to break a bond?
a.
 fatty acids + glycerol ® fat
b.
 glucose + fructose ® sucrose
c.
 glycogen ® glucose
d.
 alanine + glycine ® dipeptide
e.
 glucose ® cellulose
 77.
Which of the following illustrates hydrolysis?
a.
 the reaction of two monosaccharides to form a disaccharide
b.
 the reaction of two amino acids to form a dipeptide
c.
 the reaction of a hydrogen atom and a hydroxide ion to form water
d.
 the reaction of a fat to form glycerol and fatty acids
e.
 the formation of ATP from ADP and inorganic phosphate
 78.
The difference between a hexose and a pentose is that:
a.
 a hexose is saturated, and a pentose is undersaturated.
b.
 a hexose is hydrophilic, and a pentose is hydrophobic.
c.
 a hexose always has six hydroxyl groups, and a pentose always has five.
d.
 a hexose always has six carbons, but a pentose always has five carbons.
e.
 a hexose can be polymerized, but a pentose cannot.
 79.
Monosaccharides are water soluble because:
a.
 they contain a large number of methyl groups.
b.
 they have a large number of polar hydroxyl groups.
c.
 they have at least one double bond between adjacent carbons.
d.
 they have large numbers of nonpolar carbons in their backbones.
e.
 they can form ring structures.
 80.
A carbohydrate energy storage molecule found in animal liver and muscle cells is:
a.
 starch.
b.
 glycogen.
c.
 cellulose.
d.
 fatty acids.
e.
 cholesterol.
 81.
Amyloplasts are organelles that store:
a.
 fat.
b.
 starch.
c.
 protein.
d.
 lipids.
e.
 DNA.
 82.
The major function(s) of lipids includes:
a.
 storing energy.
b.
 serving as structural components of cellular membranes.
c.
 serving as hormones.
d.
 Both A and B.
e.
 A, B, and C are correct.
 83.
The hydrolysis of triacylglycerol will yield:
a.
 three fatty acids and one glycerol.
b.
 three glycerols and one fatty acid.
c.
 two fatty acids and three glycerols.
d.
 one fatty acid, one amino acid, and one glucose.
e.
 one fatty acid, one phosphate, and one glycerol.
 84.
A molecule of a saturated triacylglycerol contains:
a.
 the maximum number of double bonds between carbons in the fatty acid chains.
b.
 the maximum number of triple bonds between carbons in the fatty acid chains.
c.
 the maximum number of hydrogen atoms in the fatty acid chains.
d.
 fatty acid chains with both amino and carboxyl groups.
e.
 alternating single and double bonds between carbons in the fatty acid chains.
 85.
Which of the following statements concerning unsaturated fats is correct?
a.
 They are more common in animals.
b.
 They have no double bonds in the carbon chains of their fatty acids.
c.
 They are generally liquids at room temperature.
d.
 They contain more hydrogen than do saturated fats having the same number of carbon atoms.
e.
 They have fewer fatty acids per fat molecule than do saturated fats.
 86.
The major difference between a structural lipid, such as those in cell membranes, and a storage fat is the fact that the structural lipid:
a.
 most commonly contains phosphate.
b.
 does not contain glycerol.
c.
 has four fatty acids attached to glucose.
d.
 is entirely hydrophobic.
e.
 is nonpolar.
 87.
An amphipathic molecule has:
a.
 two polar ends.
b.
 two hydrophobic ends.
c.
 a hydrophobic and a hydrophilic portion.
d.
 only one hydrophobic end.
e.
 only one hydrophilic end.
 88.

The most abundant molecules in this structure are:

mc088-1.jpg

a.
 structural proteins.
b.
 polysaccharides.
c.
 triacylglycerols.
d.
 phospholipids.
e.
 polypeptides.
 89.
Which of the following molecules is not grouped with the lipids?
a.
 prostaglandins
b.
 steroids
c.
 cholesterol
d.
 carotenoids
e.
 None of the above, all are lipids.
 90.
The hydrogenation process used to make margarine from cooking oil produces fatty acids that:
a.
 are known to increase the risk of cardiovascular disease.
b.
 contain fewer double bonds.
c.
 can contain rearrange double bonds to the cis configuration.
d.
 Both A and B are correct.
e.
 A, B, and C are correct.
 91.
Which statement is false?
a.
 Trans fatty acids are unsaturated.
b.
 Trans fatty acids are more solid at room temperature than cis fatty acids.
c.
 Unsaturated fatty acids are liquid at room temperature.
d.
 Saturated fatty acids are solid at room temperature.
e.
 All of these statements are true.
 92.
The major function(s) of proteins includes:
a.
 catalyzing chemical reactions.
b.
 controlling the expression of genes.
c.
 strengthening and protecting cells and tissues.
d.
 Both A and B.
e.
 A, B, and C are correct.
 93.
There are 20 different amino acids in the proteins that make up the tissues of living organisms. The primary difference between these amino acids is in their:
a.
 R or variable groups.
b.
 number of potassium groups.
c.
 number of phosphate groups.
d.
 number of carbonyl groups.
e.
 number of asymmetric carbons.
Figure 03-02
Use the figure below to answer the corresponding questions.nar004-1.jpg
 94.
In Figure 03-02, ionic attractions would form between the R groups of which amino acids?
a.
 1 and 3
b.
 2 and 4
c.
 3 and 5
d.
 4 and 6
e.
 None of the above.
 95.
Hydrophobic interactions would occur between the R groups of which two amino acids in Figure 03-02?
a.
 1 and 4
b.
 2 and 5
c.
 3 and 6
d.
 2 and 4
e.
 3 and 5
 96.
Which of the following is responsible for the alpha-helical structure of proteins?
a.
 hydrophobic interactions
b.
 nonpolar covalent bonds
c.
 ionic interactions
d.
 hydrogen bonds
e.
 polar covalent bonds
 97.
At which level of protein structure are peptide bonds most important?
a.
 primary
b.
 secondary
c.
 tertiary
d.
 quaternary
e.
 globular
 98.
Proteins with alpha helical forms exhibit this property:
a.
 strength
b.
 elasticity
c.
 heat stability
d.
 rigidity
e.
 All of the above.
 99.
Which of the following would help stabilize a protein the most?
a.
 alpha helix
b.
 beta pleated sheet
c.
 hydrogen bonds
d.
 hydrophobic interactions
e.
 disulfide bonds
 100.
Some proteins are important biological buffers because:
a.
 they react with water to produce carbon dioxide, which neutralizes acids.
b.
 they contain weakly acidic and weakly basic groups.
c.
 they are able to absorb great amounts of carbon dioxide during condensation reactions.
d.
 they produce carbonic acid upon hydrolysis.
e.
 All of the above.
 101.
The tertiary structure of proteins is typified by the:
a.
 association of several polypeptide chains by weak bonds.
b.
 order in which amino acids are joined in a peptide chain.
c.
 bonding of two amino acids to form a dipeptide.
d.
 folding of a peptide chain to form an alpha helix.
e.
 three-dimensional shape of an individual polypeptide chain.
 102.

All of the following types of chemical bonds are responsible for maintaining the tertiary structure of this polypeptide except:

mc102-1.jpg

a.
 ionic bonds.
b.
 hydrogen bonds.
c.
 hydrophobic interactions.
d.
 disulfide bonds.
e.
 peptide bonds.
 103.
Regulatory proteins:
a.
 defend against foreign invaders.
b.
 store nutrients.
c.
 catalyze a specific chemical reaction.
d.
 control the expression of specific genes.
e.
 strengthen and protect cells and tissues.
 104.
Molecular chaperones are proteins that mediate the folding process of:
a.
 other proteins.
b.
 amino acids.
c.
 lipids.
d.
 DNA.
e.
 sugars.
 105.

The following amino acid would be characterized as __________ based on the chemical properties of its side chain.

mc105-1.jpg

a.
 nonpolar
b.
 acidic
c.
 basic
d.
 hydrophilic
e.
 electrically charged
 106.
Which of the following statements is true of proteins?
a.
 Proteins lose some or all of their normal activity if their three-dimensional structure is disrupted.
b.
 Proteins are composed of ribose, phosphate, and a nitrogen-containing base.
c.
 The activity of proteins is independent of temperature and pH.
d.
 Denaturation is usually reversible.
e.
 All proteins are enzymes.
 107.

If the differently shaded portions of this molecule represent different polypeptide chains, then this figure is representative of:

mc107-1.jpg

a.
 an amino acid.
b.
 the quaternary structure of a protein.
c.
 a steroid hormone.
d.
 cellulose.
e.
 a carotenoid.
 108.
Which of the following statements is false?
a.
 DNA is usually composed of two nucleotide strands.
b.
 DNA contains deoxyribose.
c.
 DNA does not normally contain uracil.
d.
 The nucleotides of DNA are linked by phosphodiester linkages.
e.
 DNA does not normally contain a phosphate group.
 109.
ATP is important in living organisms because:
a.
 like all other nucleic acids, it stores hereditary information.
b.
 like RNA, it acts as a source code for the formation of proteins.
c.
 it can transfer some of its energy to other chemicals.
d.
 it is an important structural component of cell membranes.
e.
 it is easily converted to starch for long-term storage.
 110.
Which of the following statements best summarizes the differences between RNA and DNA?
a.
 RNA is a protein and DNA is a nucleic acid.
b.
 DNA is a polymer and RNA is a monomer.
c.
 DNA comprises the genes, while RNA is a direct participant in the process of protein synthesis.
d.
 RNA is a single-stranded form of DNA.
e.
 DNA is the primary energy currency of all cells.
 111.
Analysis of a certain complex compound shows that it contains phosphate groups, ribose groups, and pyrimidines. Based on this information, which of the following is the best description of this compound?
a.
 It is most likely ribonucleic acid.
b.
 It is DNA.
c.
 It is an inorganic compound.
d.
 It contains thymine.
e.
 It is a polypeptide.
 112.
Which of the following are most directly arranged from DNA structure?
a.
 polysaccharides
b.
 polypeptides
c.
 nucleotides
d.
 triglycerides
e.
 fatty acids
 113.
This molecule transmits heredity information:
a.
 cholesterol
b.
 adenosine triphosphate
c.
 nucleic acid
d.
 fatty acid
e.
 polysaccharide
Figure 03-03
Use the figure to answer the corresponding questions.
nar005-1.jpg
 114.
The molecular fragment represented in Figure 03-03 is:
a.
 ATP.
b.
 RNA.
c.
 a protein.
d.
 a nucleotide.
e.
 a polysaccharide.
 115.
The type of connection between the atoms at the point labeled 1 in Figure 03-03 is:
a.
 a peptide bond.
b.
 a glycoside linkage.
c.
 a disulfide bond.
d.
 a phosphodiester linkage.
e.
 a hydrogen bond.
 116.

Which portion of the following molecule is easily transferred and therefore responsible for the energy transfer property of this molecule?

mc116-1.jpg

a.
 1
b.
 2
c.
 3
d.
 1 and 2
e.
 None of the above.
 117.
Ester linkages would not be formed during condensation reactions that produce:
a.
 polysaccahrides.
b.
 triacylglycerols.
c.
 polypeptides.
d.
 nucleic acids.
e.
 All of the above contain ester linkages that are formed during condensation reactions.
 118.
Which monomer is incorrectly matched with the corresponding polymer?
a.
 Amino acids are used to build proteins.
b.
 Monosaccharides are used to build polysaccharides.
c.
 Fatty acids are used to build nucleic acids.
d.
 Glucose molecules are used to build starches.
e.
 All of these monomers are correctly matched with the corresponding polymer.

 
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Cell Membrane & Transport Study Guide

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Cell membrane & Transport Quiz

 

 

True/False
Indicate whether the statement is true or false.
 1.
During diffusion, molecules diffuse from a region where their concentration is low to a region where their concentration is higher, until the particles are evenly dispersed.
 2.
When the concentration of dissolved particles outside a cell is equal to the concentration of dissolved particles inside the cell, the cell solution is isotonic.
 3.
Membranes are selectively permeable if they allow only certain substances to move across them.
 4.
A cell placed in a strong salt solution would probably burst because of osmosis.
 5.
Water will diffuse out of a cell when the cell is placed in a hypertonic solution.
 6.
Osmosis is the diffusion of starch molecules through a selectively permeable membrane.
 7.
The binding of specific molecules to ion channels controls the ability of particular ions to cross the cell membrane.
 8.
To pass through a cell membrane, water requires carrier proteins.
 9.
In facilitated diffusion, carrier proteins require energy to transport substances across the cell membrane.
 10.
The transport of specific particles down their concentration gradient through a membrane by carrier proteins is known as facilitated diffusion.
 11.
Diffusion is an active process that requires a cell to expend a great deal of energy.
 12.
Diffusion through ion channels is a form of active transport.
 13.
Facilitated diffusion moves molecules and ions against their concentration gradient, while active transport moves molecules and ions down their concentration gradient.
 14.
Passive transport uses ATP to move molecules against their concentration gradient.
 15.
In active transport, energy is required to move a substance across a cell membrane.
 16.
The sodium-potassium pump requires energy to move ions across the cell membrane.
 17.
The sodium-potassium pump moves sodium ions and potassium ions against their concentration gradient.
 18.
The sodium-potassium pump transports sodium ions out of a cell while causing potassium ions to move into the cell.
 19.
The sodium-potassium pump uses ATP.
 20.
Exocytosis is a process that uses vesicles to capture substances and bring them into a cell.
 21.
Exocytosis helps the cell rid itself of wastes.
 22.
During the process of exocytosis, the cell membrane extends to engulf substances that are too big to pass through the cell membrane.
 23.
Exocytosis does not use energy to expel proteins from the cell.
 24.
Receptor proteins pump sodium ions into a cell.
 25.
Receptor proteins may cause the formation of a second messenger molecule inside a cell.
 26.
A receptor protein sends signals into a cell by transporting a specific molecule through the cell membrane.
 

Modified True/False
Indicate whether the statement is true or false.  If false, change the identified word or phrase to make the statement true.
 27.
One way that cells maintain homeostasis is by controlling the movement of substances across the cell membrane. _________________________
 28.
The cell membrane is made up of a double layer called the DNA bilayer. _________________________
 29.
A phospholipid is made up of a lipid “head” and two fatty acid “tails.” _________________________
 30.
The nonpolar tails of a phospholipid are attracted to water. _________________________
 31.
Cell-surface markers face the inside of the cell. _________________________
 32.
A concentration gradient exists when one area has a higher concentration of a substance than another area does. _________________________
 33.
The movement down a concentration gradient is called diffusion. _________________________
 34.
When the solute concentration outside a cell is equal to the solute concentration inside the cell, the cell’s environment is hypotonic. _________________________
 35.
A cell placed in a high salt solution would swell because of osmosis. _________________________
 36.
Osmosis is the diffusion of starch molecules through a selectively permeable membrane. _________________________
 37.
To pass through a cell membrane, water requires carrier proteins. _________________________
 38.
Facilitated diffusion is an active process that requires a cell to expend a great deal of energy. _________________________
 39.
Passive transport uses ATP to move molecules against their concentration gradient. _________________________
 40.
Exocytosis is a process that uses vesicles to capture substances and bring them into a cell. _________________________
 41.
Cells use exocytosis to export proteins modified by the Golgi apparatus. _________________________
 42.
Cells communicate by sending chemical signals that carry information to other cells. _________________________
 43.
Receptor proteins bind only to signals that match the specific color of the binding site. _________________________
 44.
Receptor proteins may cause the formation of a second messenger molecule inside the cell. _________________________
 

Multiple Choice
Identify the choice that best completes the statement or answers the question.
 45.
As a result of diffusion, the concentration of many types of substances
a.
 always remains greater inside a membrane.
b.
 eventually becomes balanced on both sides of a membrane.
c.
 always remains greater outside of a membrane.
d.
 becomes imbalanced on both sides of a membrane.
nar001-1.jpg
 46.
Refer to the illustration above. The process shown is called
a.
 osmosis.
c.
 active transport.
b.
 facilitated diffusion.
d.
 diffusion.
 47.
Refer to the illustration above. The process shown is called
a.
 osmosis.
c.
 active transport.
b.
 facilitated diffusion.
d.
 diffusion.
 48.
Diffusion is the movement of a substance
a.
 only through a lipid bilayer membrane.
b.
 from an area of low concentration to an area of higher concentration.
c.
 only in liquids.
d.
 from an area of high concentration to an area of lower concentration.
 49.
The dispersal of ink in a beaker of water is an example of
a.
 diffusion.
c.
 active transport.
b.
 osmosis.
d.
 endocytosis.
 50.
The diffusion of water into or out of a cell is called
a.
 solubility.
c.
 selective transport.
b.
 osmosis.
d.
 endocytosis.
 51.
Osmosis is a type of
a.
 active transport.
c.
 facilitated diffusion.
b.
 passive transport.
d.
 endocytosis.
 52.
A cell will swell when it is placed in a(n)
a.
 hypotonic solution.
c.
 isotonic solution.
b.
 hypertonic solution.
d.
 None of the above
 53.
The interior portion of a cell membrane forms a nonpolar zone that
a.
 allows polar molecules to pass through the membrane.
b.
 allows food to pass through the membrane.
c.
 prevents ions and most large molecules from passing through the membrane.
d.
 None of the above
 54.
Ions move through ion channels by
a.
 endocytosis.
c.
 passive transport.
b.
 diffusion.
d.
 active transport.
 55.
Ion channel gates close the pores of some ion channels in response to
a.
 stretching of the cell membrane.
b.
 a change in electrical charge.
c.
 the binding of specific molecules to the channel.
d.
 All of the above
 56.
Proteins that act like selective passageways in the cell membrane are known as
a.
 marker proteins.
c.
 receptor proteins.
b.
 channel proteins.
d.
 None of the above
 57.
Transport proteins that allow ions to pass through the cell membrane are called
a.
 receptor proteins.
c.
 ion channels.
b.
 marker proteins.
d.
 None of the above
 58.
Sugar molecules cross the cell membrane by
a.
 active transport.
c.
 osmosis.
b.
 facilitated diffusion.
d.
 gated channels.
 59.
Proteins involved in facilitated diffusion are
a.
 carrier proteins.
c.
 Both (a) and (b)
b.
 receptor proteins.
d.
 None of the above
 60.
Sugar molecules can enter cells through the process of
a.
 exocytosis.
c.
 osmosis.
b.
 facilitated diffusion.
d.
 ion pumps.
 61.
Which of the following does not require energy?
a.
 diffusion
c.
 active transport
b.
 endocytosis
d.
 sodium-potassium pump
 62.
Unlike passive transport, active transport
a.
 requires energy.
b.
 moves substances down their concentration gradient.
c.
 does not involve carrier proteins.
d.
 All of the above
 63.
Both active transport and facilitated diffusion involve
a.
 ATP.
b.
 movement against a concentration gradient.
c.
 carrier proteins.
d.
 All of the above
 64.
Which of the following is a form of active transport?
a.
 osmosis
c.
 facilitated diffusion
b.
 diffusion
d.
 sodium-potassium pump
 65.
The sodium-potassium pump
a.
 is a carrier protein
c.
 is located in the cytoplasm of a cell.
b.
 uses passive transport.
d.
 transports sugar molecules.
 66.
The sodium-potassium pump usually pumps
a.
 potassium ions out of the cell.
b.
 sodium ions into the cell.
c.
 potassium ions into the cell.
d.
 only potassium ions and sugar molecules.
 67.
The sodium-potassium pump
a.
 increases the concentration of sodium ions inside a cell.
b.
 decreases the concentration of sodium ions inside a cell.
c.
 increases the concentration of potassium ions inside a cell.
d.
 Both (b) and (c)
 68.
Proteins and polysaccharides that are too large to move into a cell through diffusion or active transport move in by
a.
 exocytosis.
c.
 the sodium-potassium pump.
b.
 endocytosis.
d.
 None of the above
 69.
Molecules that are too large to be moved through the membrane can be transported into the cell by
a.
 osmosis.
c.
 exocytosis.
b.
 endocytosis.
d.
 diffusion.
 70.
Molecules that are too large to be moved across a cell membrane can be removed from the cell by
a.
 diffusion.
c.
 endocytosis.
b.
 exocytosis.
d.
 osmosis.
 71.
Ridding the cell of materials by discharging the materials in vesicles is called
a.
 osmosis.
c.
 exocytosis.
b.
 diffusion.
d.
 endocytosis.
nar002-1.jpg
 72.
Refer to the illustration above. What happens when the structure labeled A binds to the structure labeled B?
a.
 Information is sent into the cell.
c.
 The cell begins to undergo mitosis.
b.
 Proteins enter the cell.
d.
 None of the above
 73.
Refer to the illustration above. What happens when the structure labeled A binds to the structure labeled B?
a.
 Information is sent into the cell.
c.
 The cell begins to swell.
b.
 Proteins enter the cell.
d.
 Ions enter the cell.
 74.
Refer to the illustration above. The structure labeled B in the diagram is an example of a(n)
a.
 channel protein.
c.
 receptor protein.
b.
 signal molecule.
d.
 ion pump.
 75.
Signal molecules bind to
a.
 carbohydrates.
c.
 receptor proteins.
b.
 marker proteins.
d.
 transport proteins.
 76.
When a signal molecule binds to a receptor protein, the receptor protein may
a.
 change the permeability of the membrane.
b.
 cause the formation of a second messenger molecule.
c.
 catalyze certain chemical reactions in the cell.
d.
 All of the above
 77.
Which of the following transmit information into a cell by binding to signal molecules?
a.
 channel proteins
c.
 marker proteins
b.
 receptor proteins
d.
 end proteins
 78.
cell membrane : cell ::
a.
 window : house
c.
 door : house
b.
 roof : house
d.
 wall : house
 79.
Which type of molecule forms the cell membrane?
a.
 protein
c.
 nucleic acid
b.
 phospholipid
d.
 carbohydrate
 80.
Phospholipids are molecules that have
a.
 one polar phosphate head and two polar fatty acid tails.
b.
 one polar phosphate head and two nonpolar fatty acid tails.
c.
 one polar phosphate head and one polar fatty acid tail.
d.
 one nonpolar phosphate head and two polar fatty acid tails.
 81.
The interior of the lipid bilayer of a cell membrane forms a nonpolar zone that
a.
 allows most polar molecules to pass through the membrane.
b.
 allows food to pass through the membrane.
c.
 repels ions and most polar molecules.
d.
 makes the membrane permeable to most molecules.
nar004-1.jpg
 82.
Refer to the illustration above. The structure labeled A is composed of
a.
 lipids.
c.
 proteins.
b.
 carbohydrates.
d.
 DNA.
 83.
Refer to the illustration above. The structure labeled D is a(n)
a.
 cell-surface marker.
c.
 enzyme.
b.
 receptor protein.
d.
 transport protein.
 84.
Refer to the illustration above. The structure labeled C is a(n)
a.
 cell-surface marker.
c.
 enzyme.
b.
 receptor protein.
d.
 transport protein.
 85.
Proteins in the cell membrane that identify the cell are called
a.
 cell-surface markers.
c.
 enzymes.
b.
 receptor proteins.
d.
 transport proteins.
 86.
As a result of diffusion, the concentration of many types of substances
a.
 always remains greater inside a membrane.
b.
 eventually becomes balanced on both sides of a membrane.
c.
 always remains greater outside of a membrane.
d.
 becomes imbalanced on both sides of a membrane.
 87.
Diffusion is the movement of a substance
a.
 only through a lipid bilayer membrane.
b.
 from an area of low concentration to an area of higher concentration.
c.
 only in liquids.
d.
 from an area of high concentration to an area of lower concentration.
 88.
The dispersal of ink in a beaker of water is an example of
a.
 diffusion.
c.
 active transport.
b.
 osmosis.
d.
 endocytosis.
 89.
Proteins that serve as tunnels for specific substances through the lipid bilayer are
a.
 cell-surface markers.
c.
 receptor proteins.
b.
 channel proteins.
d.
 enzymes.
 90.
Sugar molecules cross the cell membrane by
a.
 active transport.
c.
 osmosis.
b.
 facilitated diffusion.
d.
 simple diffusion.
 91.
Which of the following does not require energy?
a.
 diffusion
c.
 active transport
b.
 endocytosis
d.
 sodium-potassium pump
 92.
Ions move through ion channels by
a.
 endocytosis.
c.
 passive transport.
b.
 simple diffusion.
d.
 active transport.
 93.
The diffusion of water into or out of a cell is called
a.
 solubility.
c.
 selective transport.
b.
 osmosis.
d.
 endocytosis.
 94.
Osmosis is a type of
a.
 active transport.
c.
 simple diffusion.
b.
 passive transport.
d.
 endocytosis.
 95.
How does water pass through the cell membrane?
a.
 directly through the lipid bilayer
b.
 through a water ion pump
c.
 through water carrier proteins
d.
 through channel proteins just for water
 96.
Which of the following statements about an isotonic solution and a cell is correct?
a.
 The solution has the same solute concentration that the cytoplasm does.
b.
 The solution has a higher solute concentration than the cytoplasm does.
c.
 A cell in the solution will lose water.
d.
 A cell in the solution will gain water.
 97.
Unlike passive transport, active transport
a.
 requires energy.
b.
 moves substances down their concentration gradient.
c.
 does not involve carrier proteins.
d.
 moves water across the cell membrane.
 98.
Both active transport and facilitated diffusion involve
a.
 ATP.
b.
 movement against a concentration gradient.
c.
 carrier proteins.
d.
 channel proteins.
 99.
Which of the following is a form of active transport?
a.
 osmosis
c.
 facilitated diffusion
b.
 simple diffusion
d.
 sodium-potassium pump
 100.
The sodium-potassium pump
a.
 is a carrier protein.
c.
 is located in the cytoplasm of a cell.
b.
 uses passive transport.
d.
 transports sugar molecules.
 101.
The sodium-potassium pump usually pumps
a.
 potassium ions out of the cell.
b.
 sodium ions into the cell.
c.
 potassium ions into the cell.
d.
 only potassium ions and sugar molecules.
 102.
How many potassium ions does the sodium-potassium pump move into a cell if it moves six sodium ions out of the cell?
a.
 two
c.
 six
b.
 four
d.
 eight
 103.
Proteins and polysaccharides that are too large to move into a cell through diffusion or active transport move in by
a.
 exocytosis.
c.
 the sodium-potassium pump.
b.
 endocytosis.
d.
 channel proteins.
 104.
Molecules that are too large to be moved across a cell membrane can be removed from the cell by
a.
 diffusion.
c.
 endocytosis.
b.
 exocytosis.
d.
 osmosis.
 105.
Removing materials from a cell in vesicles is called
a.
 osmosis.
c.
 exocytosis.
b.
 diffusion.
d.
 endocytosis.
 106.
Which of the following descriptions of hormones is correct?
a.
 signal molecules distributed throughout the body
b.
 signal molecules that affect all cells in the body
c.
 target molecules that communicate through direct contact
d.
 target molecules that originate outside the body
 107.
Signal molecules bind to
a.
 carbohydrates.
c.
 receptor proteins.
b.
 marker proteins.
d.
 transport proteins.
 108.
Which of the following transmit information into a cell by binding to signal molecules?
a.
 channel proteins
c.
 marker proteins
b.
 receptor proteins
d.
 signal proteins
 109.
What change takes place in the cell membrane if a signal molecule causes a transport protein to open?
a.
 permeability change
c.
 formation of a second messenger
b.
 activation of an enzyme
d.
 change in chemical reactions
 

Completion
Complete each statement.
 110.
The random motion of particles of a substance that causes the substance to move from an area of high concentration to an area of lower concentration is called ____________________.
 111.
The diffusion of ____________________ through cell membranes is called osmosis.
 112.
Substances always flow from an area of high concentration to an area of ____________________ concentration.
 113.
When the concentration of free water molecules is higher outside a cell than inside the cell, water will diffuse ____________________ the cell.
 114.
If a cell is placed in a(n) ____________________ solution, water will flow out of the cell.
 115.
If a cell is placed in a(n) ____________________ solution, water will flow into the cell.
 116.
If a cell is placed in a(n) ____________________ solution, water flows into the cell at a rate that is equal to the rate at which water flows out of the cell.
 117.
Diffusion of ions through ion channels is a form of ____________________ transport.
 118.
If the interior of a typical cell is negatively charged, ____________________ charged ions will not require energy to diffuse into the cell using an ion channel.
 119.
In facilitated diffusion, ____________________ proteins are used to transport substances down their concentration gradient.
 120.
In ____________________ ____________________, carrier proteins do not require energy to transport amino acids into a cell.
 121.
Carrier proteins ____________________ shape to transport sugars to the interior of cells.
 122.
A cell does not expend ____________________ when diffusion takes place.
 123.
Active transport requires the use of ____________________ by a cell.
 124.
The ____________________-____________________ pump transports ions against their concentration gradients.
 125.
The sodium-potassium pump uses energy supplied by ____________________.
 126.
The sodium-potassium pump prevents the accumulation of ____________________ ions inside the cell.
 127.
The movement of a substance into a cell by a vesicle is called ____________________.
nar003-1.jpg
A
B
 128.
Refer to the illustration above. The process shown in figure B is called ____________________.
 129.
Refer to the illustration above. Cells often engulf extracellular particles and fluid, as shown in figure A. This is called ____________________.
 130.
Refer to the illustration above. The process shown in figure B is called ____________________.
 131.
Refer to the illustration above. The process shown in figure A is called ____________________.
 132.
Receptor proteins can change the ____________________ of the cell membrane.
 133.
Receptor proteins may act as ____________________, catalyzing certain chemical reactions inside the cell.
 134.
In the cell membrane, proteins that transmit information into the cell by responding to signal molecules are called ____________________.
 135.
One way cells maintain homeostasis is by controlling the movement of substances across the cell ____________________.
 136.
A(n) ____________________ is a specialized lipid made of a phosphate head and two fatty acid tails.
 137.
The phosphate head of a phospholipid is attracted to water because it is ____________________.
 138.
The fatty acid tails of a phospholipid are repelled by water because they are ____________________.
 139.
The phospholipids form a barrier through which only small, ____________________ substances can pass.
 140.
Ions and most polar molecules are repelled by the ____________________ interior of the lipid bilayer.
 141.
____________________ – ____________________ markers are attached to the cell surface and have sugars attached to their protein.
 142.
Proteins that aid in moving substances into and out of cells are called ____________________ proteins.
 143.
____________________ are proteins in the cell membrane that help with important biochemical reactions inside the cell.
 144.
____________________ proteins enable a cell to sense its surroundings by binding to certain substances outside the cell.
 145.
To reach equilibrium, substances always flow from an area of high concentration to an area of ____________________ concentration.
 146.
When one area has a higher concentration than another area does, a concentration ____________________ exists.
 147.
Substances diffuse through a cell membrane either through the lipid bilayer or through ____________________ proteins.
 148.
Oxygen and carbon dioxide pass through the lipid bilayer by ____________________ diffusion.
 149.
Diffusion of ions through ion channels is a form of ____________________ transport.
 150.
Carrier proteins change ____________________ to transport substances to the interior of cells.
 151.
A cell does not expend ____________________ when diffusion takes place.
 152.
The diffusion of ____________________ through cell membranes is called osmosis.
 153.
When the concentration of free water molecules is higher outside a cell than inside the cell, water will diffuse ____________________ the cell.
 154.
If a cell is placed in a(n) ____________________ solution, water will flow out of the cell.
 155.
If a cell is placed in a(n) ____________________ solution, water will flow into the cell.
 156.
If a cell is placed in a(n) ____________________ solution, water flows into the cell at a rate that is equal to the rate at which water flows out of the cell.
 157.
Active transport requires the use of ____________________ by a cell.
 158.
The ____________________ – ____________________ pump transports ions against their concentration gradients.
 159.
The sodium-potassium pump uses energy supplied by ____________________.
 160.
The sodium-potassium pump prevents the accumulation of ____________________ ions inside the cell.
 161.
The movement of a substance into a cell by a vesicle is called ____________________.
 162.
A signaling cell produces a signal that is detected by a ____________________ cell.
 163.
Light is an environmental ____________________ for the flowering of some plants.
 164.
In the cell membrane, proteins that bind to specific signal molecules and respond are called ____________________ proteins.
 165.
Receptor proteins can change the ____________________ of the cell membrane.
 166.
Receptor proteins may act as ____________________, triggering certain chemical reactions inside the cell.
 

Short Answer
 167.
In addition to its function as a gatekeeper, what are three other functions of the cell membrane?
 168.
What makes up the lipid bilayer?
 169.
In the lipid bilayer, what causes one layer of polar heads to face the cell’s cytoplasm and the other layer of heads to face the cell’s surroundings?
 170.
What characteristic of membrane proteins causes them to be held in the cell membrane?
 171.
What are four types of proteins in cell membranes?
 172.
What exists across a cell membrane if equilibrium is not reached?
 173.
What is the difference between how a molecule crosses the cell membrane in simple diffusion and in facilitated diffusion?
 174.
What are two types of transport proteins?
 175.
Why are some water molecules not free to move across the cell membrane?
 176.
Explain why osmosis is a form of facilitated diffusion.
 177.
What specific carrier protein moves sodium ions out of a cell and potassium ions into a cell?
 178.
What is the function of the cell membrane during endocytosis?
 179.
What are hormones, how are they distributed, and what cells do they affect?
 180.
What happens to a receptor protein once it binds to a signal molecule?
 181.
How can the cell’s response to a signal cause a permeability change?

 
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Cell Reproduction

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Cell Reproduction

 

 

Modified True/False
Indicate whether the statement is true or false.  If false, change the identified word or phrase to make the statement true.
 1.
A gene is a segment of DNA that directs the production of RNA and protein. _________________________
 2.
The information needed by a cell to direct its activities and to determine its characteristics is contained in molecules of protein. _________________________
 3.
After the replication of a cell’s DNA, there are twice as many centromeres as there are chromatids. _________________________
 4.
Cells that seldom divide spend most of their time in interphase. _________________________
 5.
After mitosis and interphase, each new cell has a complete set of the parent cell’s chromosomes. _________________________
 6.
In animal cells, cytokinesis results when a cell plate forms across the cell to divide the cytoplasm. _________________________
 7.
Plant cells separate their cytoplasm during cytokinesis when protein threads pinch the cell in half. _________________________
 8.
The cell cycle has four checkpoints that act to inhibit uncontrolled cell division. _________________________
 9.
Offspring formed by asexual reproduction look exactly like their parent. _________________________
 10.
In budding, new individuals develop from pieces of the original individual. _________________________
 11.
Some eukaryotes reproduce asexually, and some produce sexually. _________________________
 12.
In asexual reproduction, two parents each pass genetic material to their offspring. _________________________
 13.
Asexual reproduction provides for genetic diversity, the raw material for evolution. _________________________
 14.
Genetic diversity is the raw material for evolution. _________________________
 15.
Genes on chromosomes are the units of inheritance. _________________________
 16.
Each human somatic cell contains two copies of each chromosome for a total of 23 chromosomes. _________________________
 17.
Gametes are diploid so that when fertilization occurs, the resulting zygote will have the characteristic number of chromosomes for that species. _________________________
 18.
While paired together during the second division of meiosis, two chromosomes may exchange segments of DNA. _________________________
 19.
Crossing-over is the exchange of corresponding portions of chromatids between homologous chromosomes. _________________________
 20.
Random fertilization refers to the fact that homologous chromosomes are distributed randomly during meiosis. _________________________
 21.
The process by which sperm are produced in male animals is called spermatogenesis. _________________________
 22.
During the diploid life cycle, all of the cells are diploid. _________________________
 23.
During the haploid life cycle, the zygote is the only diploid cell. _________________________
 24.
In the life cycle of a plant, the gametophyte is the haploid phase that produces gametes by mitosis. _________________________
 25.
A spore gives rise to a multicellular individual without joining with another cell. _________________________
 26.
Moss plants have haploid life cycles. ______________________________
 

Multiple Choice
Identify the choice that best completes the statement or answers the question.
 27.
Which of the following is not a reason cells divide?
a.
 The cell gets too big to process and transport nutrients.
b.
 New cells are needed for growth.
c.
 DNA cannot be copied quickly enough in large cells.
d.
 Surface area-to-volume ratio becomes too large.
 28.
The chromosome of a bacterium
a.
 is wrapped around proteins.
b.
 has a circular shape.
c.
 occurs in multiple pairs within the cell.
d.
 is found within the nucleus.
 29.
The region of a chromosome where two sister chromatids are held together is called a
a.
 spindle.
c.
 nucleosome.
b.
 centromere.
d.
 centriole.
 30.
Chromatids are
a.
 dense patches within the nucleus.
b.
 bacterial chromosomes.
c.
 joined strands of duplicated genetic material.
d.
 prokaryotic nuclei.
 31.
When a chromosome condenses,
a.
 a histone wraps around chromatin.
b.
 beads form on the DNA double helix.
c.
 its centromere splits.
d.
 looped domains coil into a structure.
 32.
In order to fit within a cell, DNA becomes more compact by
a.
 breaking apart into separate genes.
b.
 extending to form very long, thin molecules.
c.
 wrapping tightly around histones.
d.
 being enzymatically changed into a protein.
 33.
In a bacterium, cell division takes place when
a.
 its nucleus divides.
b.
 the cell splits into two cells, one of which receives all of the DNA.
c.
 the DNA is copied, a new cell wall forms between the DNA copies, and the cell splits into two cells.
d.
 spindle fibers form.
 34.
The phase of the cell cycle that occupies most of an average cell’s life is
a.
 G1.
c.
 G2.
b.
 mitosis.
d.
 S.
 35.
What occurs after cytokinesis is completed?
a.
 The cell organizes its microtubules.
c.
 The cell enters G1.
b.
 The cell begins to replicate its DNA.
d.
 The cell enters G2.
 36.
Which of the following shows the correct sequence of the cell cycle?
a.
 cytokinesis ® mitosis ® G1 ® S ® G2
b.
 S ® G1 ® G2 ® mitosis ® cytokinesis
c.
 G1 ® S ® G2 ® mitosis ® cytokinesis
d.
 mitosis ® G1 ® S® G2 ® cytokinesis
 37.
Cells that are not dividing remain in the
a.
 mitosis phase.
c.
 first gap phase.
b.
 synthesis phase.
d.
 second gap phase.
 38.
The synthesis (S) phase is characterized by
a.
 DNA replication.
b.
 cell division.
c.
 replication of mitochondria and other organelles.
d.
 the division of cytoplasm.
 39.
5 steps : the cell cycle ::
a.
 6 steps : prophase
c.
 3 steps : meiosis
b.
 9 steps : cytokinesis
d.
 4 steps : mitosis
 40.
The first three phases of the cell cycle are collectively known as
a.
 a gap.
c.
 mitosis.
b.
 telophase.
d.
 interphase.
 41.
cell growth : G1 ::
a.
 mitosis : cytokinesis
b.
 mitosis : meiosis
c.
 mitochondria replication : synthesis phase
d.
 DNA copying : synthesis phase
 42.
metaphase : prophase ::
a.
 G1 : mitosis
c.
 mitosis : cytokinesis
b.
 G2 : S
d.
 S : mitosis
 43.
Mitosis is the process by which
a.
 microtubules are assembled.
b.
 cytoplasm is divided.
c.
 the nucleus is divided into two nuclei.
d.
 the cell rests.
 44.
A spindle fiber is a specialized form of
a.
 microtubule.
c.
 centriole.
b.
 centrosome.
d.
 chromosome.
 45.
The phase of mitosis that is characterized by the arrangement of all chromosomes along the equator of the cell is called
a.
 telophase.
c.
 anaphase.
b.
 metaphase.
d.
 prophase.
nar001-1.jpg
 46.
Refer to the illustration above. The cell in diagram 1 is in
a.
 metaphase.
c.
 anaphase.
b.
 telophase.
d.
 prophase.
 47.
Refer to the illustration above. Mitosis begins with the stage shown in diagram
a.
 1.
c.
 3.
b.
 2.
d.
 4.
 48.
Refer to the illustration above. The cell shown in diagram 5 is in
a.
 metaphase.
c.
 anaphase.
b.
 telophase.
d.
 prophase.
nar002-1.jpg
 49.
Refer to the illustration above. Which of the following correctly indicates the order in which these events occur?
a.
 A, B, C, D
c.
 B, A, C, D
b.
 C, B, A, D
d.
 A, C, B, D
 50.
Refer to the illustration above. During which stage do the centromeres divide?
a.
 A
c.
 C
b.
 B
d.
 D
 51.
As a result of mitosis, each of the two new cells produced from the parent cell during cytokinesis
a.
 receives a few chromosomes from the parent cell.
b.
 receives an exact copy of all the chromosomes present in the parent cell.
c.
 donates a chromosome to the parent cell.
d.
 receives exactly half the chromosomes from the parent cell.
 52.
Cytokinesis in plant cells involves the formation of
a.
 a belt of protein threads.
c.
 spindle fibers.
b.
 a cell plate.
d.
 centrioles.
 53.
Which of the following statements is true?
a.
 Prokaryotes divide by mitosis.
b.
 Eukaryotes have circular chromosomes.
c.
 Animal cells form new cell walls when they divide.
d.
 Plant cells and animal cells have different strategies for cytokinesis.
 54.
In eukaryotes, the cell cycle is controlled by
a.
 proteins.
c.
 lipids.
b.
 carbohydrates.
d.
 fats.
 55.
At the G2 checkpoint, DNA replication is checked by
a.
 receptor proteins.
c.
 repair enzymes.
b.
 electron transport chains.
d.
 cell-surface markers.
 56.
The cell cycle is monitored as each cell passes through
a.
 the S phase.
c.
 the interphase checkpoint.
b.
 checkpoints.
d.
 cytokinesis.
 57.
Normal cells become cancer cells when
a.
 regulation of cell growth and division occurs.
b.
 cells respond to control mechanisms.
c.
 cells pass through G1.
d.
 cells do not respond to checkpoints.
 58.
Which of the following is not a type of asexual reproduction?
a.
 budding
c.
 binary fission
b.
 fragmentation
d.
 fertilization
 59.
Hydras reproduce by
a.
 budding.
c.
 binary fission.
b.
 fragmentation.
d.
 parthenogenesis.
 60.
Budding is an example of
a.
 endosymbiosis.
c.
 meiosis.
b.
 asexual reproduction.
d.
 sexual reproduction.
 61.
The simplest and most primitive method of reproduction is
a.
 sexual.
c.
 haploid.
b.
 diploid.
d.
 asexual.
 62.
Binary fission
a.
 occurs when two cells collide with each other.
b.
 produces excess energy.
c.
 creates new species.
d.
 is the process by which bacteria reproduce.
 63.
The process of producing offspring is called reproduction and can be
a.
 eukaryotic or prokaryotic.
c.
 zygotic or gametic.
b.
 asexual or sexual.
d.
 haploid or diploid
 64.
Sexual reproduction includes
a.
 budding.
c.
 binary fission.
b.
 fragmentation.
d.
 fertilization
 65.
Normal human males develop from fertilized eggs containing which of the following sex chromosome combinations?
a.
 XY
c.
 XO
b.
 XX
d.
 OO
 66.
Homologous chromosomes are pairs of chromosomes containing genes that code for
a.
 different traits.
c.
 DNA.
b.
 the same traits.
d.
 sex.
 67.
In humans, gametes contain
a.
 22 autosomes and 1 sex chromosome.
b.
 1 autosome and 22 sex chromosomes.
c.
 45 autosomes and 1 sex chromosome.
d.
 1 autosome and 45 sex chromosomes.
 68.
In humans, the male determines the sex of the child because males have
a.
 two X chromosomes.
c.
 two Y chromosomes.
b.
 one X and one Y chromosome.
d.
 46 chromosomes.
 69.
The X and Y chromosomes are called
a.
 extra chromosomes.
c.
 sex chromosomes.
b.
 homologous chromosomes.
d.
 autosomes.
 70.
female : XX ::
a.
 female : gametes
c.
 male : YY
b.
 female : eggs
d.
 male : XY
 71.
How many chromosomes are in the body cells of an organism that has a haploid number of 8?
a.
 4
c.
 12
b.
 8
d.
 16
 72.
The diploid number of chromosomes in a human skin cell is 46. The number of chromosomes found in a human egg cell is
a.
 46.
c.
 23.
b.
 92.
d.
 12.5.
 73.
diploid : somatic cell :: haploid :
a.
 body cell
c.
 gamete
b.
 chromosome
d.
 zygote
 74.
A haploid cell is one that
a.
 has two homologues of each chromosome.
b.
 is designated by the symbol 2n.
c.
 has chromosomes found in pairs.
d.
 has one set of chromosomes.
nar003-1.jpg
 75.
Refer to the illustration above. The process shown is
a.
 mitosis.
c.
 meiosis.
b.
 chromosomal mutation.
d.
 dominance.
 76.
Separation of homologues occurs during
a.
 mitosis.
c.
 meiosis II.
b.
 meiosis I.
d.
 fertilization.
 77.
When crossing-over takes place, chromosomes
a.
 mutate in the first division.
b.
 produce new genes.
c.
 decrease in number.
d.
 exchange corresponding segments of DNA.

Using the information you have learned about cell reproduction, infer answers to the questions below about a cell with a diploid number of 4 chromosomes. Select from among the diagrams below, labeled A, B, C, D, and E, to answer the questions.

nar004-1.jpg
 78.
Which of the diagrams above depicts a cell at the end of meiosis I?
a.
 B
c.
 D
b.
 C
d.
 E
 79.
Which of the diagrams above depicts a cell at the end of meiosis II?
a.
 A
c.
 C
b.
 B
d.
 D
 80.
Which of the diagrams above depicts a cell at the beginning of mitosis?
a.
 B
c.
 D
b.
 C
d.
 E
 81.
Which of the diagrams above depicts a cell at the end of mitosis?
a.
 A
c.
 C
b.
 B
d.
 D
 82.
The difference between anaphase of mitosis and anaphase I of meiosis is that
a.
 the chromosomes line up at the equator in anaphase I.
b.
 centromeres do not exist in anaphase I.
c.
 chromatids do not separate at the centromere in anaphase I.
d.
 crossing-over occurs only in anaphase of mitosis.
 83.
The exchange of segments of DNA between the members of a pair of chromosomes
a.
 ensures that variations within a species never occur.
b.
 acts as a source of variations within a species.
c.
 always produces genetic disorders.
d.
 is called genetic crossing.
 84.
Crossing-over occurs
a.
 during prophase II.
c.
 during prophase I.
b.
 during fertilization.
d.
 at the centromere.
 85.
Which of the following does not provide new genetic combinations?
a.
 random fertilization
c.
 independent assortment
b.
 cytokinesis
d.
 crossing-over
 86.
During cytokinesis in the female, what divides unequally?
a.
 the sperm cell
c.
 the cytoplasm
b.
 the ovary
d.
 the DNA
 87.
The more common name for an ovum is a(n)
a.
 egg.
c.
 nutrient.
b.
 hormone.
d.
 polar body.
 88.
To create new haploid cells during the haploid life cycle, the zygote undergoes
a.
 mitosis.
c.
 fusion.
b.
 fertilization.
d.
 meiosis.
 89.
Which of the following is not a type of sexual life cycle?
a.
 alternation of generations
c.
 diploid
b.
 haploid
d.
 parthenogenesis
 90.
In alternation of generations, a diploid spore-forming cell gives rise to four
a.
 zygotes.
c.
 haploid spores.
b.
 sperm cells.
d.
 diploid spores.
 91.
During alternation of generations, cells reproduce by
a.
 meiosis only.
c.
 both meiosis and mitosis.
b.
 mitosis only.
d.
 binary fission.
 

Completion
Complete each statement.
 92.
Growth occurs through cell enlargement and cell ____________________.
 93.
The DNA in eukaryotic cells is packaged into structures called ____________________.
 94.
A duplicated chromosome consists of two identical ____________________, which are held together at the centromere.
 95.
The sequence of events that occurs in a cell from one cell division to the next is called the ____________________.
 96.
Collectively, the time spent in G1 + S + G2 is called ____________________.
 97.
A cell’s DNA is copied during the ____________________ phase.
 98.
Cells that are not dividing remain in the ____________________ phase.
 99.
Spindle fibers are made of hollow tubes of protein called ____________________.
 100.
The spindle is assembled by the ____________________.
 101.
In most eukaryotic cells, ____________________ takes place after the nucleus divides.
 102.
In plant cells, a(n) ____________________ forms in the center of the cell during cytokinesis.
 103.
Normal cell growth and cell division are regulated by ____________________.
 104.
The cell cycle is controlled in eukaryotes at three principal ____________________.
 105.
Loss of control and regulation of the ____________________ can result in the development of cancer.
 106.
The separation of a parent into two or more individuals of about equal size is called ____________________.
 107.
Binary fission is the process by which ____________________ split asexually into two identical organisms.
 108.
Only ____________________ cells can produce gametes.
 109.
Somatic cells containing two sets of 23 chromosomes each are always ____________________.
 110.
After a new nuclear membrane forms during telophase I of meiosis, the ____________________ divides, resulting in two cells.
 111.
The process called ____________________ guarantees that the number of chromosomes in gametes is half the number of chromosomes in body cells.
 112.
Prophase I of meiosis is different from prophase of mitosis in that every chromosome pairs with its ____________________.
 113.
A reciprocal exchange of corresponding segments of DNA is called ____________________ – ____________________.
 114.
The four haploid cells formed in the male at the end of meiosis II develop tails and are called ____________________.
 115.
The diploid number of chromosomes is re-established through ____________________.
 116.
In a haploid life cycle, ____________________ results in the first cell of a multicellular haploid organism.

 
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Chapter 5 Homeostasis and Transport RETEST

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Chapter 5 Homeostasis and Transport RETEST
 

Multiple Choice
Identify the choice that best completes the statement or answers the question.
 1.
As a result of diffusion, the concentration of many types of substances
a.
 always remains greater inside a membrane.
b.
 eventually becomes balanced on both sides of a membrane.
c.
 always remains greater on the outside of a membrane.
d.
 becomes imbalanced on both sides of a membrane.
 2.
Diffusion takes place
a.
 only through a lipid bilayer membrane.
b.
 from an area of low concentration to an area of high concentration.
c.
 only in liquids.
d.
 from an area of high concentration to an area of low concentration.
            Concentration of Water and Solutes in Four Adjacent Cells

nar001-1.jpg
 3.
Refer to the illustration above. Which cell is most likely to lose both water molecules and solute molecules as the system approaches equilibrium?
a.
 cell “A”
c.
 cell “C”
b.
 cell “B”
d.
 cell “D”
 4.
Refer to the illustration above. In this system, solute molecules in cell “B” are most likely to
a.
 remain in cell “B.”
c.
 diffuse into cell “A.”
b.
 adhere to cell “B’s” membrane.
d.
 diffuse into cell “D”
 5.
Refer to the illustration above. In this system, water molecules are most likely to diffuse in which direction?
a.
 from “A” to “B”
c.
 from “D” to “C”
b.
 from “B” to “D”
d.
 from “C” to “A”
 6.
The dispersal of ink in a beaker of water is an example of
a.
 diffusion.
c.
 active transport.
b.
 osmosis.
d.
 endocytosis.
 7.
heavy rains : flooding ::
a.
 osmosis : proton pumping
b.
 high solute concentration : isotonic solution
c.
 active transport : ATP
d.
 concentration difference : osmosis
 8.
Sugar molecules can enter cells through the process of
a.
 exocytosis.
c.
 osmosis.
b.
 facilitated diffusion.
d.
 ion pumps.
 9.
Channels utilizing facilitated diffusion
a.
 work in two directions.
b.
 require an electrical signal to function.
c.
 Both a and b
d.
 None of the above
 10.
Which of the following is not characteristic of facilitated diffusion?
a.
 It requires a carrier protein.
b.
 It moves substances against a concentration gradient.
c.
 It requires no energy input.
d.
 It involves a change in the shape of its carrier.
 11.
Which of the following is true of ions and their transport across cell membranes?
a.
 The “gates” for ion channels are always open.
b.
 Ions are very small and thus can cross cell membranes readily.
c.
 Electrical or chemical signals may control the movement of ions across cell membranes.
d.
 Because they are charged particles, the movement of ions across cell membranes requires energy input.
 12.
Which of the following does not expend energy?
a.
 diffusion
c.
 active transport
b.
 chemiosmosis
d.
 a sodium-potassium pump
 13.
Which of the following enters a cell by active transport?
a.
 glucose
c.
 sodium ion
b.
 water
d.
 potassium ion
 14.
The process by which water passes into or out of a cell is called
a.
 solubility.
c.
 selective transport.
b.
 osmosis.
d.
 endocytosis.
nar002-1.jpg
 15.
Refer to the illustration above. The process shown is called
a.
 osmosis.
c.
 active transport.
b.
 facilitated diffusion.
d.
 diffusion.
 16.
The sodium-potassium pump usually pumps
a.
 potassium out of the cell.
b.
 sodium into the cell.
c.
 potassium into the cell.
d.
 only a potassium and sugar molecule together.
 17.
proton pump : protons ::
a.
 ATP : protons
c.
 sodium-potassium pump : ATP
b.
 channel : protons
d.
 sodium-potassium pump : sodium
 18.
Ridding the cell of material by discharging it from sacs at the cell surface is called
a.
 chemiosmosis.
c.
 exocytosis.
b.
 exorcism.
d.
 endocytosis.
 19.
Molecules that are too large to be moved across a cell membrane can be removed from the cell by
a.
 diffusion.
c.
 lipid carriers.
b.
 exocytosis.
d.
 osmosis.
 20.
Molecules that are too large to be moved through the membrane can be transported into the cell by
a.
 osmosis.
c.
 lipid carriers.
b.
 endocytosis.
d.
 diffusion.
 21.
endocytosis : exocytosis ::
a.
 phagocytosis : bacteria
c.
 cold : hot
b.
 secrete : exocytosis
d.
 white blood cell : bacteria

 
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