Author: Biology Junction Team

Plant Evolution, Structure, and Function

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Plant Evolution, Structure, and Function

 

 

Multiple Choice
Identify the choice that best completes the statement or answers the question.
 1.
The ancestors of today’s land plants were probably
a.
 brown algae.
c.
 green algae.
b.
 red algae.
d.
 lichens.
 2.
The challenges faced by early land plants included
a.
 conserving water.
b.
 reproducing on land.
c.
 absorbing minerals from the rocky surface.
d.
 All of the above
 3.
The waxy protective covering of a land plant is called a
a.
 cuticle.
c.
 rhizome.
b.
 capsule.
d.
 stoma.
 4.
The cuticle
a.
 helps reduce the evaporation of fluids from a plant.
b.
 is a plant adaptation to an aquatic environment.
c.
 is a reproductive structure in some plants.
d.
 is crucial to plant cell nourishment.
 5.
Some land plants developed an internal system of interconnected tubes and vessels called
a.
 cuticles.
b.
 nonvascular canals.
c.
 the circulatory system.
d.
 vascular tissues.
 6.
The xylem in a plant
a.
 transports food from the leaves.
b.
 transports water and minerals to the stems and leaves.
c.
 exchanges carbon dioxide with the atmosphere.
d.
 All of the above
 7.
liverworts, hornworts, mosses : nonvascular plants ::
a.
 gymnosperms, angiosperms : bryophytes
b.
 ferns : mosses
c.
 gymnosperms, angiosperms : vascular plants
d.
 bryophytes, liverworts : vascular plants
 8.
gymnosperms : naked seeds ::
a.
 pollen : mosses
b.
 ferns : seeds
c.
 liverwort : vascular tissue
d.
 angiosperms : enclosed seeds
 9.
The diploid form in a plant’s life cycle is called the
a.
 sporophyte.
b.
 gametophyte.
c.
 parental generation.
d.
 alternate generation.
 10.
The haploid form in a plant’s life cycle is called the
a.
 sporophyte.
b.
 gametophyte.
c.
 parental generation.
d.
 alternate generation.
 11.
Alternation between a haploid stage and a diploid stage in a plant’s life cycle is called
a.
 generational recycling.
b.
 periodic gametogenesis.
c.
 alternating forms.
d.
 alternation of generations.
 12.
In plants, haploid gametes are produced as a result of
a.
 fertilization.
c.
 encapsulation.
b.
 meiosis.
d.
 mitosis.
 13.
The dominant generation in vascular plants is the
a.
 gametophyte.
c.
 angiosperm.
b.
 gymnosperm.
d.
 sporophyte.
 14.
vascular plants : sporophytes ::
a.
 sporophytic plants : gametophytes
b.
 nonvascular plants : gametophytes
c.
 spores : gametes
d.
 plants with seeds : seedless plants
 15.
sporophytes : spores ::
a.
 sporophytes : gametophytes
b.
 gametophytes : gametes
c.
 gametophytes : spores
d.
 sporophytes : gametes
 16.
Which of the following is not a nonvascular plant?
a.
 moss
c.
 hornwort
b.
 liverwort
d.
 fern
 17.
Which of the following is not characteristic of all nonvascular plants?
a.
 They produce seeds.
b.
 They have a life cycle characterized by alternation of generations.
c.
 They produce spores.
d.
 They require water for sexual reproduction.
 18.
Which of the following is a reason why mosses are good pioneer plants?
a.
 They can survive in very wet areas.
b.
 They can survive in areas that receive only low levels of sunlight.
c.
 They can create a layer of soil on bare rock.
d.
 They grow very slowly.
 19.
The water-retaining ability of peat moss makes it ideal for
a.
 use in garden-soil mixes.
b.
 use in packing bulbs and flowers for shipping.
c.
 use in houseplant soils.
d.
 All of the above
 20.
All of the following developed in some vascular plants and are not present in any nonvascular plants except
a.
 pollen.
c.
 chlorophyll.
b.
 deep roots.
d.
 seeds.
 21.
The primary distinguishing characteristics of all vascular plants are
a.
 xylem and phloem; true roots, stems, and leaves; pollen; seeds.
b.
 xylem and phloem; true roots, stems, and leaves; spores.
c.
 true roots, stems, and leaves; spores.
d.
 xylem and phloem; true roots, stems, and leaves.
 22.
Which of the following is not a seed plant?
a.
 a flowering plant
c.
 a fern
b.
 a pine tree
d.
 a ginkgo
 23.
Which of the following is characteristic of all seed plants?
a.
 a seed containing an embryo, a nutrient supply, and a protective coat
b.
 enclosure and protection of seeds within a fruit
c.
 production of flowers
d.
 All of the above
 24.
Pines, spruces, and firs are
a.
 angiosperms.
c.
 flowering plants.
b.
 gymnosperms.
d.
 sometimes nonvascular.
 25.
The tallest trees in the world are species of
a.
 conifers.
c.
 liverworts.
b.
 dicots.
d.
 angiosperms.
 26.
Which of the following were the first land plants to evolve seeds?
a.
 angiosperms
c.
 mosses
b.
 gymnosperms
d.
 ferns
 27.
Seed plants are the dominant land plants because
a.
 they include the largest plants on Earth.
b.
 the seeds they produce enable the plant to survive in a dormant state when conditions are not suitable for growth.
c.
 they are vascular plants with large root systems, so they can obtain water from any kind of environment.
d.
 they produce flowers that are pollinated by insects, enabling them to produce many offspring.
 28.
Monocots have
a.
 leaves with branching veins.
b.
 flower parts in multiples of four or five.
c.
 leaves with parallel veins.
d.
 two cotyledons.
 29.
Flowering plants are classified as monocots or dicots according to their number of
a.
 leaves.
c.
 meristems.
b.
 roots.
d.
 cotyledons.
 30.
Which of the following associations between a plant cell type and its characteristics is incorrect?
a.
 collenchyma cell—thin cell walls; do not occur in groups
b.
 parenchyma cell—cube-shaped or elongated; large vacuole
c.
 sclerenchyma cell—thick, rigid cell walls
d.
 All of the above are correct.
 31.
Which of the following types of plant cells provides structural support and is typically dead at functional maturity?
a.
 collenchyma
c.
 sclerenchyma
b.
 parenchyma
d.
 None of the above
 32.
The conducting cells of phloem are called
a.
 tracheids.
c.
 sieve plates.
b.
 sieve tube members.
d.
 vessel elements.
 33.
In xylem tissue, water moves from tracheid to tracheid through
a.
 pits.
c.
 sieve tubes.
b.
 vessel elements.
d.
 companion cells.
 34.
The outermost layer consisting of ground tissue in a stem is the
a.
 sapwood.
c.
 pith.
b.
 nodes.
d.
 cortex.
 35.
vascular tissue : transport of fluids ::
a.
 epidermis : support
b.
 dermal tissue : storage
c.
 dermal tissue : transport of fluids
d.
 ground tissue : metabolism
 36.
Regions of active cell division in plants are called
a.
 meristems.
c.
 phloem.
b.
 xylem.
d.
 dermal tissue.
 37.
Meristems can be found
a.
 only at the tips of roots.
b.
 only at the tips of stems.
c.
 at the tips of stems and roots.
d.
 None of the above
 38.
Which of the following types of meristems is found in some monocots above the bases of leaves and stems?
a.
 apical meristems
b.
 vascular cambium
c.
 intercalary meristems
d.
 cork cambium
 39.
The lengthening of plant roots and shoots is called
a.
 secondary growth.
c.
 primary growth.
b.
 germination.
d.
 vascular growth.
 40.
During periods of primary growth at apical meristems, stems and roots
a.
 become wider.
b.
 become longer.
c.
 maintain a constant number of cells.
d.
 undergo photoperiodism.
 41.
secondary growth : width ::
a.
 secondary growth : height
b.
 lateral meristem : length
c.
 apical meristem : width
d.
 primary growth : length
 42.
The primary function of root hairs is
a.
 to strengthen roots as they grow downward.
b.
 to transport food up the stem.
c.
 to absorb water and minerals.
d.
 to store water.
 43.
leaves : carbon dioxide from the air ::
a.
 leaves : water from the air
b.
 roots : light from the air
c.
 roots : carbon dioxide from the air
d.
 roots : nutrients from the soil
 44.
Which of the following are taproots?
a.
 underground roots of grass plants
b.
 prop roots of corn plants
c.
 roots of radish plants
d.
 aerial roots of orchids
 45.
Which of the following is not characteristic of fibrous roots?
a.
 many branch roots
b.
 shallow roots
c.
 dominant primary root
d.
 possible development from the base of the stem
 46.
Which of the following is not characteristic of secondary growth of roots?
a.
 Vascular cambium is formed.
b.
 Secondary xylem is produced toward the inside of the root and secondary phloem is produced toward the outside of the root.
c.
 Cork cambium is formed.
d.
 It occurs in monocot, dicot, and gymnosperm roots.
 47.
Which of the following is the function of the endodermis?
a.
 water absorption
b.
 water storage
c.
 regulation of passage of water and minerals into the vascular tissue
d.
 production of new cells for secondary growth
The diagram below shows the stem of a coleus plant.

nar001-1.jpg
 48.
Refer to the illustration above. The tissue labeled “1” in the diagram is called
a.
 meristem.
c.
 phloem.
b.
 xylem.
d.
 ground tissue.
 49.
Refer to the illustration above. In the diagram, the tissue labeled “2,” which conducts water and is made of elongated cells that connect end to end, is called
a.
 meristem.
c.
 phloem.
b.
 xylem.
d.
 ground tissue.
 50.
Refer to the illustration above. In the diagram, the tissue labeled “3,” which transports sugars from regions where they are made to regions where they are used, is called
a.
 meristem.
c.
 phloem.
b.
 xylem.
d.
 ground tissue.
 51.
The ground tissue in the center of roots and stems
a.
 turns into meristem.
b.
 transports food.
c.
 provides support.
d.
 germinates at least once a year.
 52.
Leaves connect to the stems of plants at the
a.
 lateral buds.
c.
 nodes.
b.
 pith.
d.
 internodes.
 53.
Secondary xylem and phloem are produced from the
a.
 cork cambium.
c.
 apical meristems.
b.
 vascular cambium.
d.
 bark.
 54.
xylem : inner side of vascular cambium ::
a.
 vascular cambium : cork cambium
b.
 cork : vascular cambium
c.
 phloem : outer side of vascular cambium
d.
 phloem : inner side of vascular cambium
 55.
Bark contains
a.
 xylem and phloem.
c.
 phloem and cork cells.
b.
 sapwood.
d.
 mesophyll.
 56.
In a woody stem, cork cambium
a.
 forms phloem.
b.
 forms xylem.
c.
 produces the outer bark.
d.
 becomes vascular cambium.
 57.
The movement of water through a plant is caused by
a.
 the attraction of water molecules for each other.
b.
 capillary action.
c.
 transpiration.
d.
 All of the above
 58.
The loss of water by the leaves and stem of a plant is called
a.
 translocation.
c.
 active transport.
b.
 osmosis.
d.
 transpiration.
 59.
The phloem in a plant
a.
 transports sugars.
b.
 transports water and minerals.
c.
 exchanges carbon dioxide and oxygen with the atmosphere.
d.
 None of the above
 60.
The transport of food from the leaf to the rest of the plant is called
a.
 translocation.
c.
 active transport.
b.
 osmosis.
d.
 transpiration.
 61.
A hypothesis that explains the movement of sugar in a plant is the
a.
 transpiration hypothesis.
c.
 pressure-flow hypothesis.
b.
 translocation hypothesis.
d.
 source-sink hypothesis.
 62.
cohesion : adhesion ::
a.
 hydrogen : polar
c.
 hand : people
b.
 book : pages
d.
 night : day
The diagram below shows a portion of a plant’s vascular system.

nar002-1.jpg
 63.
Refer to the illustration above. Structure 2 is a
a.
 tracheid.
c.
 vessel element.
b.
 companion cell.
d.
 sieve tube member.
 64.
Refer to the illustration above. Structure 3 is a
a.
 tracheid.
c.
 vessel element.
b.
 companion cell.
d.
 sieve tube member.
 65.
Refer to the illustration above. Which structure allows the cytoplasm of one cell to connect to the cytoplasm of a neighboring cell?
a.
 1
c.
 4
b.
 3
d.
 5
 66.
The xylem in a plant
a.
 transports sugars.
b.
 transports water and minerals.
c.
 exchanges carbon dioxide and oxygen with the atmosphere.
d.
 None of the above
 67.

Scientists studying the transport of sugars in plants found it difficult to conduct experiments that didn’t damage the plants they were studying. Some of them decided to use some insects they knew fed on plants. The insects they chose were aphids, which have mouthparts that they insert into plants and use to suck out nutrients. Many of these aphids also release excess sugars from the anal end of their digestive tracts. These substances are called honeydew because they are released as sugary droplets. The scientists conducted the following experiments:

(1) They measured the rate at which honeydew was released from aphids feeding on cucumber plants. The average rate was two drops per hour.
(2) They froze some aphids and the plant parts to which the aphids were attached. They then examined cross sections of the plant parts using an electron microscope. They found that the tips of the aphids’ mouthparts were in individual cells in the phloem tissue.
(3) They anesthetized aphids feeding on plants and then cut away the aphids, leaving the mouthparts in place. They noted that the honeydew continued to be released through the mouthparts at a rate of two drops per hour. They also analyzed the honeydew and found that it had the same chemical composition as the sugars transported in the plants.

Which of the following statements is not supported by the data obtained in these experiments?

a.
 The contents of the phloem are under pressure.
b.
 Sugars are transported in the phloem of plants.
c.
 Sugars are actively transported into cells of the phloem.
d.
 Some aphids take up more sugars from plants than they can use.
 68.
mc068-1.jpg

Refer to the illustration above. Which of the leaves is a doubly compound leaf?

a.
 1
c.
 3
b.
 2
d.
 4
 69.
In plants, the ground tissue that is made up of chloroplast-rich cells is the
a.
 vascular bundle.
c.
 pith.
b.
 petiole.
d.
 mesophyll.
 70.
The tissue of the leaf mesophyll that is located directly below the upper epidermis and consists of tightly packed column-shaped cells is the
a.
 palisade layer.
c.
 adventitious layer.
b.
 cortex.
d.
 spongy mesophyll.
The diagram below shows a leaf cross section.

nar003-1.jpg
 71.
Refer to the illustration above. Which label indicates the spongy layer?
a.
 2
c.
 4
b.
 3
d.
 5
 72.
Refer to the illustration above. Structure 1
a.
 is the cuticle.
c.
 covers the epidermis.
b.
 protects the leaf.
d.
 All of the above
 73.
Refer to the illustration above. The vein is made up of
a.
 only xylem vessels.
b.
 only phloem vessels.
c.
 both xylem and phloem vessels.
d.
 neither xylem nor phloem vessels.
 74.
Photosynthesis enables plants to produce most of the organic molecules they need. This process requires the use of all of the following except
a.
 carbon dioxide.
c.
 light.
b.
 water.
d.
 glucose.
 75.
Which of the following is an adaptation found in leaves of shade-grown plants?
a.
 high density of chloroplasts
b.
 small leaf area
c.
 chloroplasts not shading each other
d.
 dense hair coatings
 76.
The stomata are responsible for
a.
 translocation.
b.
 leaf growth.
c.
 regulation of water loss.
d.
 transport of minerals.
 77.
The guard cells that surround a stoma
a.
 have no cell walls.
b.
 swell with water, causing the stoma to open.
c.
 shrivel up when opening the stoma.
d.
 are responsible for translocation.
 78.
guard cells : stomata ::
a.
 can openers : cans
c.
 cushions : rocking chairs
b.
 hammers : nails
d.
 trout : stream
 79.
cuticle : above-ground parts ::
a.
 vascular system : plant
c.
 guard cell : stoma
b.
 sperm : pollen
d.
 root system : wax
 

Completion
Complete each statement.
 80.
In leaves, the openings called ____________________ regulate the exchange of carbon dioxide and oxygen.
 81.
The surface of a vascular plant is covered by a waxy, waterproof layer called a(n) ____________________.
 82.
One of the first environmental challenges that early land plants had to overcome was finding a way to conserve ____________________.
 83.
The tissues that transport water and minerals within a plant make up the ____________________ system.
 84.
____________________ are seed plants with uncovered seeds.
 85.
In alternation of generations, the ____________________ generation alternates with the diploid generation.
 86.
co086-1.jpg

Refer to the illustration above. The cycle shown in the diagram is referred to as _________________________.
 87.
The fusion of two gametes results in the production of a(n) ____________________ sporophyte.
 88.
The haploid form of a plant is the ____________________ generation.
 89.
Conifers produce ____________________ to protect their seeds.
 90.
The sporophyte generation produces haploid spores by the process of ____________________.
 91.
Peat bogs contain organic matter that decomposes very slowly because of a(n) ____________________ produced by peat moss.
 92.
Bryophytes have a dominant ____________________ generation.
 93.
In mosses and liverworts, the ____________________ generation is the dominant generation.
 94.
A rootlike structure that anchors plants in the phylum Bryophyta is called a(n) ____________________.
 95.
The ability of mosses to absorb and retain ____________________ contributes to their ability to help prevent soil erosion.
 96.
Partially decomposed moss plants of the genus Sphagnum are dried and used as a source of ____________________ for heating.
 97.
A plant that has flower parts that occur in multiples of four or five is usually a(n) ____________________.
 98.
Most ____________________ have thin, transparent leaflike structures along a stemlike axis.
 99.
Nonvascular plants known as ____________________ usually have cells with a single large chloroplast, similar to algae.
 100.
Photosynthetic and storage tissues of plants are made up of ____________________ cells.
 101.
____________________ are narrow, elongated, thick-walled sclerenchyma cells that taper at each end.
 102.
The lateral meristem that produces secondary vascular tissue is called the _________________________.
 103.
The lateral meristem that produces the cork cells of the outer bark is called the ____________________.
 104.
Plants grow at the tips of roots and stems in regions of active cell division called ____________________.
 105.
Cell division in the ____________________ adds layers of new cells around the outside of a plant’s body.
 106.
Growth that occurs from the formation of new cells at the tip of a plant is called ____________________.
 107.
Growth that causes a plant to increase in width is called _________________________.
 108.
The thickening of a plant body by the production of new xylem and phloem is called ____________________ growth.
 109.
The ____________________ of plants absorb water and minerals necessary for growth.
 110.
The two main types of root systems are fibrous root systems and ____________________ systems.
 111.
Primary growth in roots occurs in cells of the _________________________, carbohydrate storage occurs in cells of the ____________________, and water absorption occurs through cells of the ____________________.
 112.
Flexible, soft, and usually green stems are called ____________________ stems.
 113.
Edible parts of the potato plant are modified stems called ____________________, which grow underground and store starch.
 114.
The darker wood in the center of a tree trunk is called ____________________.
 115.
Wood consists primarily of _________________________ cells.
 116.
The transport of organic molecules from the leaf to the rest of the plant is called ____________________.
 117.
The broad, flat portion of a typical leaf is called the ____________________.
 118.
When the guard cells that surround a stoma fill with water, the stoma ____________________.
 119.
____________________ ions play an important role in opening and closing stomata.
 

Problem
 120.

pr120-1.jpg

Refer to the illustration above. This cladogram depicts the presumed evolutionary relationships between the major phyla of land plants. The list below consists of paired characteristics found in at least some land plants. For each pair of characteristics, choose the one that is the more evolutionarily advanced. Then complete the cladogram by indicating on it where each of the more advanced characteristics first appeared.

Characteristics:

cones / flowers
sporophyte dominant / gametophyte dominant
waxy cuticle present / waxy cuticle absent
vascular tissue absent / vascular tissue present
gametophyte independent of sporophyte / gametophyte dependent on sporophyte
stomata absent / stomata present
seeds / spores
multicellular reproductive structure / unicellular reproductive structure
 

Essay
 121.
What problems were encountered by the first land plants? What adaptations evolved to solve these problems? Write your answer in the space below.
 122.
How is a seed an adaptation for life on land? Write your answer in the space below.
 123.
Describe three characteristics of angiosperms that have helped to make the group successful. Write your answer in the space below.
 124.
Describe the functions of ground tissue in a plant. Write your answer in the space below.
 125.
What kinds of plants have lateral meristems, and what kind of growth occurs in the lateral meristems? Write your answer in the space below.
 126.
While walking through a forest you notice that someone has carved his or her initials into the bark of a tree. The initials are exactly 1.5 meters from the ground. How far from the ground will the initials be next year and the year after that? Why? Discuss growth tissues in plants in your answer. Write your answer in the space below.
 127.
Secondary growth adds width to a woody stem. Briefly describe the tissues involved and explain how they increase the stem’s diameter. Write your answer in the space below.
 128.
Define the terms source and sink in relation to the transportation of organic molecules in the phloem of plants. Write your answer in the space below.
 129.
Compare the movement of sugar and water in a plant. Write your answer in the space below.
 130.
Why is it advantageous for mesophyll cells to be more densely packed in the upper part of a plant leaf than in the lower part? Write your answer in the space below.
 131.
Describe how stomata open and close. Write your answer in the space below.


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PCC Prokaryotes

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PCC Prokaryotes

 

 

Multiple Choice
Identify the choice that best completes the statement or answers the question.
 1.
Eubacteria and archaebacteria differ in
a.
 the presence of a nucleus.
c.
 size.
b.
 the makeup of their cell walls.
d.
 the presence of a cell wall.
 2.
Escherichia coli is classified as a(an)
a.
 archaebacterium.
b.
 eubacterium.
c.
 eukaryote.
d.
 virus.
 3.
Which of the following is NOT a way in which archaebacteria and eubacteria differ?
a.
 Archaebacteria lack an important carbohydrate found in the cell walls of eubacteria.
b.
 The two groups have very different membrane lipids.
c.
 Archaebacteria have gene sequences that are similar to those of eukaryotes.
d.
 Archaebacteria follow the lytic cycle, while eubacteria follow the lysogenic cycle.
 4.
Which of the following are members of the kingdom Archaebacteria?
a.
 methanogens
c.
 eukaryotes
b.
 eubacteria
d.
 E. coli

nar001-1.jpg

Figure 19–1
 5.
The structure in Figure 19–1 represents a(an)
a.
 virus.
c.
 methanogen.
b.
 archaebacterium.
d.
 eubacterium.
 6.
Which structure or structures shown in Figure 19–1 have key differences in eubacteria and archaebacteria?
a.
 A, B, C
c.
 D only
b.
 A, B, E
d.
 A only

nar002-1.jpg

Figure 19–2
 7.
Which cell shape in Figure 19–2 is called a coccus?
a.
 A
c.
 C
b.
 B
d.
 none of the above
 8.
Which of the following can survive either with oxygen or without it?
a.
 obligate aerobes
c.
 facultative anaerobes
b.
 obligate anaerobes
d.
 bacteriophages
 9.
Some bacteria are able to survive unfavorable conditions by forming
a.
 photoautotrophs.
c.
 coccus.
b.
 capsids.
d.
 endospores.
 10.
Which of the following is(are) used to identify prokaryotes?
a.
 cell shape
c.
 the way prokaryotes obtain energy
b.
 the way prokaryotes move
d.
 all of the above
 11.
Where are you likely to find a photoautotroph?
a.
 in your refrigerator
b.
 in the darkness of the ocean
c.
 in your digestive system
d.
 near the surfaces of lakes, streams, and oceans
 12.
Unlike photoautotrophs, chemoautotrophs obtain energy
a.
 directly from the sun.
c.
 indirectly from organic molecules.
b.
 directly from inorganic molecules.
d.
 indirectly from other organisms.
 13.
A method called Gram staining is used to tell
a.
 what shape a prokaryote has.
b.
 how a prokaryote obtains energy.
c.
 what kind of cell wall a prokaryote has.
d.
 whether a prokaryote has flagella.
 14.
Which of the following describes a role of bacteria in the environment?
a.
 carrying out photosynthesis
c.
 fixing nitrogen
b.
 recycling nutrients
d.
 all of the above
 15.
Bacteria that break down the nutrients in dead matter into simpler substances that are taken up by plant roots are called
a.
 endospores.
c.
 photoautotrophs.
b.
 flagella.
d.
 decomposers.
 16.
Nitrogen fixation involves each of the following EXCEPT
a.
 soybeans.
c.
 fertilizer.
b.
 Rhizobium.
d.
 nodules on roots.
 17.
Which of the following is produced when bacteria break down complex compounds in sewage?
a.
 carbon dioxide gas
c.
 nitrogen
b.
 purified water
d.
 all of the above
 18.
Humans use bacteria to
a.
 clean up small oil spills.
c.
 synthesize drugs.
b.
 mine minerals from the ground.
d.
 all of the above
 19.
Bacteria living in extreme environments may be a good source of
a.
 antibiotics.
c.
 nitrogen-fixing bacteria.
b.
 heat-stable enzymes.
d.
 Gram stains.
 20.
Which of the following is a way that bacteria cause disease?
a.
 by capsids
c.
 by conjugation
b.
 by nitrogen fixation
d.
 by releasing toxins
 21.
Bacteria that cause disease are called
a.
 viruses.
c.
 endospores.
b.
 pathogens.
d.
 antibiotics.
 22.
Food stored in a refrigerator will keep longer because the bacteria that spoil food
a.
 die at low temperatures.
b.
 take longer to multiply at low temperatures.
c.
 require light to live.
d.
 grow more slowly in the dark.
 23.
Which of the following is a characteristic of bacteria that is key to keeping them under control?
a.
 Most bacteria cannot survive high temperatures for long periods.
b.
 Most bacteria are resistant to harmful chemicals.
c.
 Most bacteria form endospores when subjected to harsh conditions.
d.
 Most bacteria do not cause food to spoil.
 24.
Which of the following will NOT kill bacteria?
a.
 refrigeration
c.
 chemical disinfection
b.
 boiling
d.
 frying
 25.
The chromosomes of bacteria
a.
 contain numerous types of organelles.
b.
 are divided into compartments.
c.
 vary in number, depending on the species of bacteria.
d.
 contain a single circular piece of DNA.
 26.
Structures found in bacterial cells but not in eukaryotic cells are
a.
 nuclei.
c.
 membrane-bound organelles.
b.
 linear chromosomes.
d.
 circular chromosomes.
nar003-1.jpg
 27.
Refer to the illustration above. Organism B has a shape similar to that of
a.
 Micrococcus.
c.
 Streptococcus.
b.
 Bacillus.
d.
 Leptospira.
 28.
Refer to the illustration above. The shape represented by Organism A applies to the bacterial genus
a.
 Streptococcus, which causes strep throat.
b.
 Leptospira, which can cause urinary tract infections in humans.
c.
 Bacillus, which produces antibiotics.
d.
 Penicillium, which produces penicillin.
 29.
Refer to the illustration above. The shape represented by Organism C is called
a.
 a coccus.
c.
 a bacillus.
b.
 a spirillum.
d.
 filamentous.
 30.
Bacteria often have small extra loops of DNA called
a.
 nucleoids.
c.
 plasmids.
b.
 pili.
d.
 prions.
 31.
Cell organelles that Escherichia coli and other bacteria have in common with eukaryotes are
a.
 chloroplasts.
c.
 nuclei.
b.
 mitochondria.
d.
 ribosomes.
 32.
It is important to distinguish between Gram-positive and Gram-negative bacteria in diagnosing a bacterial infection because
a.
 Gram-negative and Gram-positive bacteria differ in their response to different antibiotics.
b.
 Gram-positive bacteria never cause fatal diseases.
c.
 Gram-positive bacteria destroy antibiotics, preventing them from working.
d.
 Gram-positive bacteria do not respond to many antibiotics.
 33.
Bacterial cells have
a.
 a cell wall only.
b.
 a cell membrane only.
c.
 both a cell membrane and an outer cell wall.
d.
 a cell wall inside their cell membrane.
 34.
Escherichia coli is an example of a bacterium that has
a.
 a thin layer of peptidoglycan in its cell wall.
b.
 a thick layer of peptidoglycan in its cell wall.
c.
 a shape called a coccus.
d.
 a cell wall but no cell membrane.
 35.
Cyanobacteria are photoautotrophs because they require
a.
 oxygen.
c.
 inorganic chemicals.
b.
 carbon dioxide.
d.
 light.
 36.
Nitrogen-fixing bacteria
a.
 repair nitrogen-damaged soybean roots.
b.
 damage the environment by using atmospheric oxygen to produce toxic nitrogen compounds.
c.
 convert atmospheric nitrogen into a usable form of nitrogen.
d.
 convert ammonia in the soil into nitrogen gas.
 37.
Bacterial cells such as Escherichia coli transfer pieces of genetic material in a process called
a.
 binary fission.
c.
 conjugation.
b.
 mitosis.
d.
 sexual reproduction.
 38.
Bacterial endospores
a.
 are formed when there is plenty of available food.
b.
 allow certain species to survive harsh environmental conditions.
c.
 are similar to human tumors.
d.
 can cause growth abnormalities in plants.
 39.
A chain of round bacteria would be called:
a.
 spirilla.
b.
 diplococci.
c.
 bacilli.
d.
 streptococci.
e.
 streptobacilli.
 40.
Rod-shaped bacteria are called:
a.
 streptococci.
b.
 bacilli.
c.
 diplococci.
d.
 vibrio.
e.
 spirochete.
Figure 23-02
Use the figure below to answer the corresponding questions.nar004-1.jpg
 41.
The structure in Figure 23-02 labeled C is:
a.
 a ribosome.
b.
 the plasma membrane.
c.
 the capsule.
d.
 the cell wall.
e.
 the flagellum.
 42.
What is the function of the structure labeled A in Figure 23-02?
a.
 to adhere to surfaces or other bacteria
b.
 to prevent phagocytosis
c.
 support and protection in hypotonic conditions
d.
 transmission of DNA between bacteria
e.
 locomotion
 43.
The walls of Eubacteria contain peptidoglycan, which is:
a.
 lipids crosslinked with sugars.
b.
 sugars crosslinked with proteins.
c.
 a protein.
d.
 a lipid.
e.
 a polysaccharide.
 44.
Penicillin works most effectively against gram-positive bacteria because:
a.
 penicillin affects cell membranes.
b.
 they have a thick peptidoglycan cell wall and penicillin affects the synthesis of peptidoglycans.
c.
 they have special protein channels that allow penicillin to enter the cell and halt the cell cycle.
d.
 they are smaller than gram-negative bacteria and, thus, easily take up penicillin by diffusion.
e.
 they contain prophages that negatively interact with penicillin.
 45.
Some bacteria avoid a host’s immune system by means of:
a.
 efficient use of their flagella.
b.
 ameboid motion.
c.
 their capsule.
d.
 changing their cell wall structure.
e.
 eliminating the use of a membrane.
 46.
Bacteria:
a.
 are incapable of locomotion.
b.
 move by means of pili
c.
 move by means of cilia.
d.
 move by means of a rotating flagella.
e.
 move by means of a whiplike flagella.
 47.
Small circles of DNA called ______________ exist in addition to the bacterial chromosome.
a.
 capsids
b.
 plasmids
c.
 chromatids
d.
 pili
e.
 centromeres
 48.
Small hairlike structures on the surface of bacteria are called:
a.
 capsids.
b.
 pili.
c.
 chromatids.
d.
 plasmids.
e.
 virons.
 49.
Plasmids of bacteria often have genes involved in:
a.
 reproduction.
b.
 motility.
c.
 viral resistance.
d.
 antibiotic resistance.
e.
 photosynthesis.
 50.
Pili are involved in adhesion of bacterial cells to a substrate or host, or in transmission of __________ between bacteria.
a.
 ribosomes
b.
 cytoplasm
c.
 vectors
d.
 RNA
e.
 DNA

 
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Genetics

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Genetics
 

Modified True/False
Indicate whether the statement is true or false.  If false, change the identified word or phrase to make the statement true.
 1.
Mendel discovered predictable patterns in the inheritance of traits. _________________________
 2.
Garden peas are difficult to grow because they mature slowly. _________________________
 3.
When Mendel cross-pollinated two varieties from the P generation that exhibited contrasting traits, he called the offspring the second filial, or F2, generation. _________________________
 4.
The contrasting forms of each character studied by Mendel appeared in a 3:1 ratio in the F2 generation. _________________________
 5.
A dominant allele masks the effect of a recessive allele. _________________________
 6.
The allele for a recessive trait is usually represented by a capital letter. _________________________
 7.
Heterozygous individuals have two of the same alleles for a particular gene. _________________________
 8.
The inheritance of sex-linked traits can be studied by making a pedigree of several generations of a family. _________________________
nar001-1.jpg
 9.
Refer to the illustration above. The father listed in the pedigree is most likely heterozygous for the trait. _________________________
 10.
Refer to the illustration above. Child #3 probably has the dominant phenotype. _________________________
 11.
Albinism is caused by a recessive allele. _________________________
 12.
The phenotype that results from an inherited pair of alleles depends on the instructions in the genes only. _________________________
 13.
Traits for different characters that are usually inherited together are said to be combined. _________________________
 

Multiple Choice
Identify the choice that best completes the statement or answers the question.
 14.
The passing of traits from parents to offspring is called
a.
 genetics.
c.
 development.
b.
 heredity.
d.
 maturation.
 15.
The difference between Mendel’s experiments in the area of heredity and those done by earlier researchers was that
a.
 earlier researchers did not have microscopes.
b.
 earlier researchers used detailed and numerical procedures.
c.
 Mendel expressed the results of his experiments in terms of numbers.
d.
 Mendel used pea plants with both purple and white flowers.
 16.
The scientific study of heredity is called
a.
 meiosis.
c.
 genetics.
b.
 crossing-over.
d.
 pollination.
 17.
The “father” of genetics was
a.
 A. Knight.
c.
 Gregor Mendel.
b.
 Hans Krebs.
d.
 Charles Darwin.
 18.
Garden peas are good subjects for studying heredity because they
a.
 are difficult to grow.
c.
 produce few offspring.
b.
 mature quickly.
d.
 have few traits.
 19.
Mendel obtained his P generation by allowing the plants to
a.
 self-pollinate.
c.
 assort independently.
b.
 cross-pollinate.
d.
 segregate.
 20.
Step 1 of Mendel’s garden pea experiment, allowing each variety of garden pea to self-pollinate for several generations, produced the
a.
 F1 generation.
c.
 P generation.
b.
 F2 generation.
d.
 P1 generation.
 21.
F2 : F1 ::
a.
 P : F1
c.
 F1 : P
b.
 F1 : F2
d.
 P : F2
 22.
An allele that is always expressed whenever it is present is called
a.
 dominant.
c.
 recessive.
b.
 phenotypic.
d.
 superior.
 23.
The discovery of chromosomes provided a link between the first law of heredity that stemmed from Mendel’s work and
a.
 pollination.
c.
 mitosis.
b.
 inheritance.
d.
 meiosis.
 24.
The law of segregation states that
a.
 alleles of a gene separate from each other during meiosis.
b.
 different alleles of a gene can never be found in the same organism.
c.
 each gene of an organism ends up in a different gamete.
d.
 each gene is found on a different molecule of DNA.
 25.
Mendel’s law of segregation states that
a.
 pairs of alleles are dependent on one another when separation occurs during gamete formation.
b.
 pairs of alleles separate independently of one another after gamete formation.
c.
 each pair of alleles remains together when gametes are formed.
d.
 the two alleles for a trait segregate independently when gametes are formed.
 26.
The phenotype of an organism
a.
 is used to represent its genetic composition.
b.
 is the physical appearance of a trait.
c.
 occurs only in dominant individuals.
d.
 cannot be seen.
 27.
If an individual possesses two recessive alleles for the same trait, the individual is said to be
a.
 homozygous for the trait.
c.
 heterozygous for the trait.
b.
 haploid for the trait.
d.
 mutated.
 28.
When an individual heterozygous for a trait is crossed with an individual homozygous recessive for the trait, the offspring produced will
a.
 all have the same genotype.
b.
 show two different phenotypes.
c.
 show three different phenotypes.
d.
 all have the same phenotype.
 29.
Tallness (T) is dominant to shortness (t) in pea plants. Which of the following represents a genotype of a pea plant that is heterozygous for tallness?
a.
 T
c.
 Tt
b.
 TT
d.
 tt
 30.
homozygous : heterozygous ::
a.
 heterozygous : Bb
c.
 probability : chance
b.
 gg : Gg
d.
 factor : gene
 31.
Mendel’s finding that the inheritance of one trait had no effect on the inheritance of another became known as the
a.
 law of dominance.
b.
 law of universal inheritance.
c.
 law of separate convenience.
d.
 law of independent assortment.

In humans, having freckles (F) is dominant to not having freckles (f). The inheritance of these traits can be studied using a Punnett square similar to the one shown below.

nar002-1.jpg
 32.
Refer to the illustration above. The child represented in box 1 in the Punnett square would
a.
 be homozygous for freckles.
b.
 have an extra freckles chromosome.
c.
 be heterozygous for freckles.
d.
 not have freckles.
 33.
Refer to the illustration above. The parents shown in the Punnett square could have children with a phenotype ratio of
a.
 1:2:1.
c.
 3:1.
b.
 4:0.
d.
 2:2.
 34.
Refer to the illustration above. Which box in the Punnett square represents a child who does not have freckles?
a.
 box 1
c.
 box 3
b.
 box 2
d.
 box 4
 35.
Refer to the illustration above. The child in box 3 of the Punnett square has the genotype
a.
 FF.
c.
 ff.
b.
 Ff.
d.
 FfFf.

In rabbits, black fur (B) is dominant to brown fur (b). Consider the following cross between two rabbits.

nar003-1.jpg
 36.
Refer to the illustration above. The device shown, which is used to determine the probable outcome of genetic crosses, is called a
a.
 Mendelian box.
c.
 genetic graph.
b.
 Punnett square.
d.
 phenotypic paradox.
 37.
Refer to the illustration above. Both of the parents in the cross are
a.
 black.
c.
 homozygous dominant.
b.
 brown.
d.
 homozygous recessive.
 38.
Refer to the illustration above. The phenotype of the offspring indicated by box 3 would be
a.
 brown.
c.
 a mixture of brown and black.
b.
 black.
d.
 white.
 39.
Refer to the illustration above. The genotypic ratio of the F1 generation would be
a.
 1:1.
c.
 1:3.
b.
 3:1.
d.
 1:2:1.
 40.
What is the expected genotypic ratio resulting from a homozygous dominant ´ heterozygous monohybrid cross?
a.
 1:0
c.
 1:2:1
b.
 1:1
d.
 1:3:1
 41.
What is the expected genotypic ratio resulting from a heterozygous ´ heterozygous monohybrid cross?
a.
 1:2:1
c.
 1:2
b.
 1:3:1
d.
 1:0
 42.
What is the expected phenotypic ratio resulting from a homozygous dominant ´ heterozygous monohybrid cross?
a.
 1:3:1
c.
 2:1
b.
 1:2:1
d.
 1:0
 43.
The unknown genotype of an individual with a dominant phenotype can be determined using a
a.
 ratio.
c.
 probability formula.
b.
 dihybrid cross.
d.
 test cross.
 44.
What is the probability that the offspring of a homozygous dominant individual and a homozygous recessive individual will exhibit the dominant phenotype?
a.
 0.25
c.
 0.66
b.
 0.5
d.
 1.0
 45.
Probability is calculated by dividing the number of one kind of possible outcome by the
a.
 number of other kinds of outcomes.
b.
 total number of all possible outcomes.
c.
 number of genes being considered.
d.
 total number of offspring produced.
 46.
If a characteristic is sex-linked, the gene for it is found on
a.
 a sex chromosome.
c.
 a linked chromosome.
b.
 an autosome.
d.
 an allele.
 47.
Since the allele for colorblindness is located on the X chromosome, colorblindness
a.
 cannot be inherited.
c.
 is sex-linked.
b.
 occurs only in adults.
d.
 occurs only in females.
 48.
A diagram in which several generations of a family and the occurrence of certain genetic characteristics are shown is called a
a.
 Punnett square.
c.
 pedigree.
b.
 monohybrid cross.
d.
 family karyotype.
 49.
In humans, eye color and height are controlled by
a.
 simple dominance.
c.
 polygenic inheritance.
b.
 multiple alleles.
d.
 incomplete dominance.
 50.
Which of the following traits is controlled by multiple alleles in humans?
a.
 eye color
c.
 colorblindness
b.
 blood type
d.
 albinism
 51.
What would be the blood type of a person who inherited an A allele from one parent and an O allele from the other?
a.
 type A
c.
 type AB
b.
 type B
d.
 type O
 52.
Which of the following is not an outcome of the environment modifying a phenotype?
a.
 the changing of the color of an animal’s fur as the temperature changes
b.
 the increased intelligence of a person who attended school for many years
c.
 the very short stature of a kind of tree that grows at a high altitude in comparison with the same kind of tree growing at a lower altitude
d.
 the pink-flowered snapdragons that result from crosses between red-flowered and white-flowered snapdragon plants
 53.
Genes that are close together on a single chromosome are considered to be
a.
 alleles.
c.
 independent.
b.
 homozygous.
d.
 linked.

 
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PCC Biochemistry 2011

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PCC Biochemistry 2011
 

Multiple Choice
Identify the choice that best completes the statement or answers the question.
 1.
The three particles that make up atoms are
a.
 protons, neutrons, and isotopes.
c.
 positives, negatives, and electrons.
b.
 neutrons, isotopes, and electrons.
d.
 protons, neutrons, and electrons.
 2.
The space surrounding the nucleus of an atom contains
a.
 protons.
c.
 neutrons.
b.
 electrons.
d.
 ions.
 3.
Democritus believed that atoms
a.
 were composed of electrons.
c.
 could be divided.
b.
 were composed of protons.
d.
 could not be divided.
 4.
If an atom contains 3 protons, 4 neutrons,  and 3 electrons, its mass number would be
a.
 3.
c.
 7.
b.
 4.
d.
 11.
 5.
If a chlorine atom had 17 protons and 18 neutrons, it would be called
a.
 chlorine-17.
c.
 chlorine-35.
b.
 chlorine-18.
d.
 chlorine-1.
 6.
Isotopes are atoms of the same element with the same number of protons and
a.
 a different number of electrons.
c.
 a different number of neutrons.
b.
 a different number of molecules.
d.
 the same number of neutrons.
 7.
Which of the following is a use of radioactive isotopes?
a.
 can determine the ages of rocks and fossils
b.
 can be used to treat cancer and kill bacteria that cause food to spoil
c.
 can be used as “tracers” to follow the movements of substances within organisms
d.
 all of the above
 8.
If an atom contains 11 protons and 12 neutrons, its atomic number is
a.
 1.
c.
 12.
b.
 11.
d.
 23.
 9.
Which of the following terms describes a substance formed by the combination of two or more elements in definite proportions?
a.
 compound
c.
 nucleus
b.
 isotope
d.
 enzyme
 10.
Which of the following makes up a molecule of water?
a.
 one atom of hydrogen and one atom of oxygen
b.
 one atom of sodium and one atom of chlorine
c.
 one atom of hydrogen and two atoms of oxygen
d.
 two atoms of hydrogen and one atom of oxygen
 11.
Which of the following is NOT true about chlorine?
a.
 It is a poisonous, greenish gas.
b.
 It combines with sodium to form table salt.
c.
 It was used to kill many soldiers in World War I.
d.
 It is not reactive.
 12.
Which of the following statements about a compound is true?
a.
 The physical and chemical properties of a compound are usually very different from those of the elements from which it is formed.
b.
 Only the physical properties of a compound are usually the same as those of the elements from which it is formed.
c.
 Only the chemical properties of a compound are usually the same as those of the elements from which it is formed.
d.
 The physical and chemical properties of a compound are usually the same as those of the elements from which it is formed.
 13.
A covalent bond is formed as the result of
a.
 transferring electrons.
c.
 transferring protons.
b.
 sharing an electron pair.
d.
 sharing a proton pair.
 14.
Which term does NOT apply to sodium chloride?
a.
 molecule
c.
 compound
b.
 ionic bonding
d.
 crystal
 15.
What type of electron is available to form bonds?
a.
 valence
c.
 ionic
b.
 nucleus
d.
 covalent
 16.
What type of ion forms when an atom loses electrons?
a.
 neutral
c.
 negative
b.
 positive
d.
 possibly positive or negative
 17.
Ice floats on water because
a.
 of cohesion.
c.
 water shrinks when it freezes.
b.
 ice has a higher density than water.
d.
 water expands when it freezes.
 18.
The most abundant compound in most living things is
a.
 carbon dioxide.
c.
 sodium chloride.
b.
 water.
d.
 sugar.
 19.
Water molecules are polar, with the
a.
 oxygen side being slightly positive and the hydrogen side being slightly negative.
b.
 oxygen and hydrogen sides being slightly positive.
c.
 oxygen and hydrogen sides being slightly negative.
d.
 oxygen side being slightly negative and the hydrogen side being slightly positive.
 20.
In a water molecule, shared electrons spend more time around the oxygen atom than the hydrogen atoms.  As a result, the oxygen atom is
a.
 slightly negative.
c.
 slightly positive.
b.
 very negative.
d.
 very positive.
 21.
A solution is a(an)
a.
 combination of isotopes.
b.
 chemical reaction.
c.
 evenly distributed mixture of two or more substances.
d.
 combination of two or more liquids.
 22.
If you stir salt into boiling water, you produce a
a.
 mixture called a suspension.
c.
 solution and suspension.
b.
 mixture called a solution.
d.
 mixture only.
 23.
When salt is dissolved in water, water is the
a.
 reactant.
c.
 solute.
b.
 solution.
d.
 solvent.
 24.
While preparing a cell culture, a scientist places a colony of bacteria into distilled water and stirs it up.  This mixture of water and living cells would best be called a(an)
a.
 solution.
b.
 suspension.
c.
 buffer.
d.
 adhesion.
 25.
If the pH of stomach acid and of oven cleaner were measured,
a.
 both would be below 7.
b.
 both would be above 7.
c.
 the pH of stomach acid would be above 7, but the pH of oven cleaner would be below 7.
d.
 the pH of stomach acid would be below 7, but the pH of oven cleaner would be above 7.
 26.
A map of eastern North America, showing the pH of rainfall in the various states, indicates that the pH of rain in New York State varies from 4.22 to 4.40. According to these figures, the most acidic rainfall in New York State has a pH of
a.
 4.22.
c.
 4.35.
b.
 4.30.
d.
 4.40.
 27.
A substance with a pH of 6 is called
a.
 an acid.
c.
 both an acid and a base.
b.
 a base.
d.
 neither an acid nor a base.
 28.
Solutions that contain concentrations of H+ ions lower than pure water
a.
 have pH values below 7.
c.
 are bases.
b.
 are acids.
d.
 are enzymes.
 29.
Amino acid is to protein as
a.
 fat is to lipid.
c.
 sugar is to fat.
b.
 DNA is to RNA.
d.
 simple sugar is to starch.
 30.
A monosaccharide is a
a.
 carbohydrate.
c.
 nucleic acid.
b.
 lipid.
d.
 protein.
 31.
Which of the following is NOT a monomer?
a.
 a glucose molecule
c.
 a nucleotide
b.
 an amino acid
d.
 a protein
 32.
Which of the following is NOT a function of proteins?
a.
 store and transmit genetic information
b.
 help to fight disease
c.
 control the rate of reactions and regulate cell processes
d.
 build tissues such as bone and muscle
 33.
Which statement is true?
a.
 Simple sugars are made of polysaccharides.
b.
 Glycerol is made of fatty acids.
c.
 RNA molecules are made of nucleotides.
d.
 Amino acids are made of proteins.
 34.
In chemical reactions, atoms are
a.
 created.
c.
 rearranged.
b.
 destroyed.
d.
 neutralized.
 35.
When hydrogen and oxygen combine to form water, water is
a.
 a product.
c.
 both a product and a reactant.
b.
 a reactant.
d.
 neither a product nor a reactant.
 36.
Identify the reactant(s) in the chemical reaction, CO2 + H2O ® H2CO3.
a.
 CO2, H2O, and H2CO3
c.
 H2CO3
b.
 CO2 and H2O
d.
 CO2
 37.
What is the process that changes one set of chemicals into another set of chemicals?
a.
 cohesion
c.
 chemical reaction
b.
 adhesion
d.
 dissolving
 38.
What is the term used to describe the energy needed to get a reaction started?
a.
 adhesion energy
c.
 cohesion energy
b.
 activation energy
d.
 chemical energy
 39.
Chemical reactions that release energy
a.
 will not occur.
c.
 will always explode.
b.
 will never explode.
d.
 often occur spontaneously.
 40.
If a reaction in one direction releases energy, the reaction in the opposite direction
a.
 also releases energy.
c.
 destroys energy.
b.
 absorbs energy.
d.
 cannot occur.
 41.
Which of the following is a form of energy that may be released during a chemical reaction?
a.
 heat
c.
 light
b.
 sound
d.
 all of the above
 42.
Which of the following statements about enzymes is NOT true?
a.
 Enzymes work best at a specified pH.
b.
 All enzymes have the same shape as their substrates.
c.
 Enzymes are proteins.
d.
 The shape of an enzyme allows it to do its job.
 43.
Which of the following statements is true about catalysts?
a.
 Catalysts slow down the rate of chemical reactions.
b.
 All catalysts are enzymes.
c.
 Catalysts are used up during a chemical reaction.
d.
 Catalysts lower the activation energy of a chemical reaction.
 44.
A substance that accelerates the rate of a chemical reaction is called a(an)
a.
 catalyst.
c.
 molecule.
b.
 lipid.
d.
 element.
 45.
Enzymes affect the reactions in living cells by changing the
a.
 products of the reaction.
c.
 temperature of the reaction.
b.
 speed of the reaction.
d.
 pH of the reaction.
 

Short Answer
 46.
Why are atoms considered neutral?
 47.
What is a molecule?
 

Other

USING SCIENCE SKILLS

 

pH Values of Some Common Substances
Substance pH
Hydrochloric acid
1.0
Sulfuric acid
1.2
Tomatoes
4.2
Rainwater
6.2
Pure water
7.0
Sea water
8.5
Ammonium chloride
11.1
Sodium hydroxide
13.0

Figure 2–2
 48.
Applying Concepts What is the strongest acid listed in Figure 2–2?
 49.
Applying Concepts What is the pH of the strongest base listed in Figure 2–2?
 50.
Applying Concepts Using your knowledge of the pH scale, which of the chemicals in Figure 2-2 has the lowest concentration of H+ ions?

 
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PCC Phylogeny Study Guide

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PCC Phylogeny Study Guide

 

 

Multiple Choice
Identify the choice that best completes the statement or answers the question.
 1.
Biologists use a classification system to group organisms in part because organisms
a.
 are going extinct.
c.
 are too much alike.
b.
 are very numerous and diverse.
d.
 share too many derived characters.
 2.
The study of organisms requires the use of
a.
 only large, general categories of organisms.
b.
 only small, specific categories of organisms.
c.
 both large and small categories of organisms.
d.
 no categories of organisms.
 3.
Scientists assign each type of organism a universally accepted name in the system known as
a.
 traditional classification.
c.
 binomial nomenclature.
b.
 the three domains.
d.
 cladistics.
 4.
For many species, there are often regional differences in their
a.
 common names.
c.
 taxa.
b.
 scientific names.
d.
 binomial nomenclature.
 5.
In taxonomy, a group at any level of organization is referred to as a
a.
 cladogram.
c.
 taxon.
b.
 binomial.
d.
 system.
 6.
Scientists have identified and named
a.
 all living species.
c.
 all extinct species.
b.
 all living and extinct species.
d.
 a fraction of all species.
 7.
In the scientific version of a species name, which of the terms is capitalized?
a.
 the first term only
c.
 both the first and second terms
b.
 the second term only
d.
 neither the first nor the second term
 8.
Based on their names, you know that the baboons Papio annubis and Papio cynocephalus do NOT belong to the same
a.
 class.
c.
 genus.
b.
 family.
d.
 species.
 9.
How do binomial, or two-part, names compare with early versions of scientific names?
a.
 They are longer.
c.
 They are completely descriptive.
b.
 They are shorter.
d.
 They are in English.
 10.
The second part of a scientific name is unique to each
a.
 order in its class.
c.
 genus in its family.
b.
 family in its order.
d.
 species in its genus.
 11.
Often, the second part of a scientific name is
a.
 a Latinized description of a particular trait.
b.
 the same as for other members of the same genus.
c.
 capitalized if it derives from a proper name.
d.
 different in different locations.
 12.
Before Linnaeus, scientific names were problematic because they were
a.
 too brief to be descriptive.
c.
 written only in Greek.
b.
 very long and difficult to standardize.
d.
 written only in Latin.
 13.
In Linnaeus’s system of classification, how many taxonomic categories were there?
a.
 one
c.
 five
b.
 three
d.
 seven
 14.
A genus is composed of a number of related
a.
 kingdoms.
c.
 orders.
b.
 phyla.
d.
 species.
 15.
Several different classes make up a
a.
 kingdom.
c.
 family.
b.
 phylum.
d.
 genus.
 16.
Which two kingdoms did Linnaeus recognize?
a.
 bacteria and animals
c.
 plants and animals
b.
 plants and fungi
d.
 protists and animals
 17.
Animals that are warm-blooded, have body hair, and produce milk for their young are grouped in the class
a.
 Amphibia.
c.
 Aves.
b.
 Mammalia.
d.
 Reptilia.
 18.
The most general and largest category in Linnaeus’s system is
a.
 the phylum.
c.
 the genus.
b.
 the kingdom.
d.
 the domain.
 19.
Traditional classifications tended to take into account primarily
a.
 extinct organisms.
c.
 DNA similarities.
b.
 RNA similarities.
d.
 general similarities in appearance.
 20.
Sometimes, organisms that are not closely related look similar because of
a.
 convergent evolution.
c.
 mutations.
b.
 molecular clocks.
d.
 reclassification.
 21.
The procedure of grouping organisms based on their evolutionary history is called
a.
 traditional classification.
c.
 derived characters.
b.
 binomial nomenclature.
d.
 evolutionary classification.
 22.
In an evolutionary classification scheme, species within one genus should
a.
 be more similar to one another than they are to species in other genera.
b.
 not be similar in appearance.
c.
 be limited to species that can interbreed.
d.
 have identical genes.
 23.
What kind of analysis focuses on the order in which derived characters appeared in organisms?
a.
 cladistic analysis
c.
 taxonomy
b.
 traditional classification
d.
 anatomy
 24.
In biology, an evolutionary innovation is also referred to as a
a.
 derived character.
c.
 molecular clock.
b.
 taxonomic group.
d.
 physical similarity.
 25.
What do scientists consider when they perform a cladistic analysis?
a.
 only the RNA of organisms
c.
 derived characters
b.
 all traits of organisms
d.
 only physical similarities
 26.
An analysis of derived characters is used to generate a
a.
 family tree based on external appearance.
b.
 family tree based on DNA structure.
c.
 cladogram.
d.
 traditional classification system.
 27.
What does a cladistic analysis show about organisms?
a.
 the relative importance of each derived character
b.
 the order in which derived characters evolved
c.
 the general fitness of the organisms analyzed
d.
 all traits of each organism analyzed
 28.
Similar genes are evidence of
a.
 binomial nomenclature.
c.
 common ancestry.
b.
 mutations.
d.
 different anatomy.
 29.
What do all organisms have in common?
a.
 They use DNA and RNA to pass on information.
b.
 They are all prokaryotes.
c.
 They are all eukaryotes.
d.
 They are genetically identical.
 30.
What is true about dissimilar organisms such as a cow and a yeast?
a.
 They are not related at all.
b.
 Their degree of relatedness cannot be evaluated.
c.
 Their degree of relatedness can be determined from their genes.
d.
 They can interbreed and thus are the same species.
 31.
Scientists have found that humans and yeasts
a.
 have similar genes for the assembly of certain proteins.
b.
 share all aspects of cellular structure.
c.
 have nothing in common.
d.
 cannot be evaluated for degree of relatedness.
 32.
What does the presence of similar genes in very dissimilar organisms imply?
a.
 The genes were produced by different selection pressures.
b.
 The organisms share a common ancestor.
c.
 The organisms do not share a common ancestor.
d.
 The genes became identical through mutation.
 33.
What is the main idea behind the model of a molecular clock?
a.
 that neutral mutations accumulate at a steady rate
b.
 that certain traits are under the pressure of natural selection
c.
 that segments of DNA can be compared with segments of RNA
d.
 that phenotypes, not genotypes, are affected by natural selection
 34.
All organisms in the kingdoms Protista, Plantae, Fungi, and Animalia are
a.
 multicellular organisms.
c.
 eukaryotes.
b.
 photosynthetic organisms.
d.
 prokaryotes.
 35.
Which kingdom contains heterotrophs with cell walls of chitin?
a.
 Protista
c.
 Plantae
b.
 Fungi
d.
 Animalia
 36.
What kingdoms composed the three-kingdom classification system used by scientists in the late 1800s?
a.
 animals, plants, fungi
c.
 animals, fungi, protists
b.
 animals, plants, bacteria
d.
 animals, plants, protists
 37.
Which of the kingdoms in the six-kingdom system of classification was once grouped with plants?
a.
 Animalia
c.
 Fungi
b.
 Carnivores
d.
 Protista
 38.
Some scientists propose that the kingdom Protista should be broken up into several kingdoms. Which of these statements accurately supports this idea?
a.
 Protists are all very similar and easy to confuse.
b.
 Protista contains very diverse organisms that do not fit into the other kingdoms.
c.
 Protists are the most numerous organisms on Earth.
d.
 Protista evolved before any other kingdom.
 39.
The domain that corresponds to the kingdom Eubacteria is
a.
 Archaea.
c.
 Eukarya.
b.
 Bacteria.
d.
 Fungi.
 40.
The domain that contains unicellular organisms that live in extreme environments is
a.
 Eubacteria.
c.
 Archaea.
b.
 Eukarya.
d.
 Bacteria.
 41.
The two domains composed of only unicellular organisms are
a.
 Eubacteria and Archaea.
c.
 Archaea and Bacteria.
b.
 Eukarya and Bacteria.
d.
 Archaea and Eukarya.
 42.
The three-domain system arose when scientists grouped organisms according to how long they have been
a.
 alive in their present forms.
c.
 evolving independently.
b.
 going extinct.
d.
 using DNA to store information.
 43.
The three-domain system recognizes fundamental differences between two groups of
a.
 prokaryotes.
c.
 protists.
b.
 eukaryotes.
d.
 multicellular organisms.
 44.
Organisms in the kingdoms Eubacteria and Archaebacteria were previously grouped in a kingdom called
a.
 Animalia.
c.
 Monera.
b.
 Fungi.
d.
 Eukarya.
 45.
What is thought to be true about the three domains of living things?
a.
 They diverged from a common ancestor fairly recently.
b.
 They diverged from a common ancestor before the evolution of the main groups of eukaryotes.
c.
 They did not have a common ancestor.
d.
 Domains Bacteria and Archaea evolved after the main groups of eukaryotes.
 46.
Taxonomy is the science of:
a.
 making new biological species.
b.
 generating cladograms that represent evolutionary relationships between organisms.
c.
 naming, describing, and classifying organisms.
d.
 conserving biodiversity.
e.
 comparing macromolecules to assess evolutionary relationships.
 47.
About __________ different species have been described and named to date.
a.
 160,000
b.
 265,000
c.
 750,000
d.
 1.75 million
e.
 6.25 million
 48.
The scientific study of the diversity of organisms and the evolutionary relationships between them is:
a.
 taxonomy.
b.
 ecology.
c.
 biological classification.
d.
 evolutionary biology.
e.
 systematics.
 49.
What is the correct format for the scientific name of an extinct carnivorous dinosaur?
a.
 tyrannosaurus Rex
b.
 Tyrannosaurus Rex
c.
 Tyrannosaurus rex
d.
 Tyrannosaurusrex
e.
 tyrannosaurus rex
 50.
The binomial system of nomenclature is a product of the work of:
a.
 Charles Darwin.
b.
 Carolus Linnaeus.
c.
 Gregor Mendel.
d.
 Paul Hebert.
e.
 Ernst Haeckel.
 51.
Which classification level would contain the greatest number of species?
a.
 class
b.
 division or phylum
c.
 domain
d.
 family
e.
 order
 52.
Which classification level would be the least inclusive?
a.
 genus
b.
 family
c.
 phylum
d.
 order
e.
 class
 53.
Zea mays is the scientific name of the corn plant. Zea is the ____________ name.
a.
 class
b.
 division
c.
 genus
d.
 ordinal
e.
 species
 54.
Closely related or similar genera are grouped into a single:
a.
 class.
b.
 phylum.
c.
 order.
d.
 species.
e.
 family.
 55.
How would the scientific name of the yellow perch, Perca flavescens, be abbreviated?
a.
 Perca f.
b.
 Perca Fl.
c.
 P. flavescens
d.
 Perc. fl.
e.
 P. flav.
 56.
The classification scheme of Linnaeus was originally based on ________, but has now been altered to reflect ___________.
a.
 similarities; structural differences
b.
 biodiversity; structural similarity
c.
 evolutionary history; structural similarity
d.
 similarities; evolutionary history
e.
 differences; similarities
 57.
Which of the following is a taxon?
a.
 class
b.
 family
c.
 phylum
d.
 species
e.
 All of the above.
 58.
Some biologists are considering adopting a different classification scheme based on common ancestors, called:
a.
 BioDiversity.
b.
 the biological BarCode.
c.
 the phylogical guide.
d.
 the molecular blueprint.
e.
 PhyloCode.
 59.
Which of the following is the taxon that can be most clearly defined in biological terms?
a.
 class
b.
 species
c.
 strain
d.
 subspecies
e.
 variety
 60.
Most biologists recognize ___________ domains.
a.
 3
b.
 4
c.
 5
d.
 6
e.
 12
 61.
The classification level of domain is immediately “above” (more inclusive than) the level of:
a.
 a class.
b.
 a genus.
c.
 a kingdom.
d.
 a phylum.
e.
 a species.
 62.
The first kingdom recognized beyond Plantae and Animalia was:
a.
 Archae.
b.
 Protista.
c.
 Eubacteria.
d.
 Archaebacteria.
e.
 Fungi.
Figure 22-02
Use the figure below to answer the corresponding questions.nar001-1.jpg
 63.
The animals in Figure 22-02 are all representative of the:
a.
 Class Carnivora.
b.
 Order Carnivora.
c.
 Phylum Animalia.
d.
 Class Chordata.
e.
 Order Mammalia.
 64.
The taxonomic grouping that would represent the next highest (more inclusive) level above that represented in Figure 22-02 is:
a.
 Family.
b.
 Order.
c.
 Class.
d.
 Phylum.
e.
 None of the above.
 65.
The original two Kingdoms that were established to organize living organisms were:
a.
 Protista and Animalia.
b.
 Eukaryotae and Prokaryotae.
c.
 Plantae and Animalia.
d.
 Plantae and Eukarya.
e.
 Eubacteria and Eukarya.
 66.
Early biologists classified living things into two kingdoms. Many biologists today recognize ____________ kingdom(s).
a.
 one
b.
 two
c.
 three
d.
 six
e.
 twelve
 67.
Bacteria are found in the Kingdom:
a.
 Eubacteria.
b.
 Fungi.
c.
 Protista.
d.
 Animalia.
e.
 Plantae.
 68.
Which Kingdom contains the protozoa, water and slime molds, and algae?
a.
 Prokaryotae
b.
 Fungi
c.
 Protista
d.
 Animalia
e.
 Plantae
 69.
Which of the following does not describe members of the Kingdom Fungi?
a.
 absorb nutrients produced by other organisms
b.
 possess cell walls
c.
 not photosynthetic
d.
 cells lack a nucleus
e.
 yeasts and mushrooms
 70.
Fungi may be differentiated from plants, because fungi are:
a.
 photosynthetic.
b.
 all macroscopic.
c.
 all multicellular.
d.
 heterotrophic.
e.
 all prokaryotic.
 71.
The evolutionary history of a group of organisms from a common ancestor is termed:
a.
 biohistory.
b.
 phylogeny.
c.
 phrenology.
d.
 phenetics.
e.
 species origenetics.
 72.
An example of homologous structures is the wing of a bat and:
a.
 the arm of a human.
b.
 the wing of a beetle.
c.
 the tail of a whale.
d.
 the leg of a chimpanzee.
e.
 the dorsal fin of a shark.
 73.
An example of homoplastic structures is the wing of a butterfly and:
a.
 the wing of a moth.
b.
 the wing of a bird.
c.
 the antenna of the butterfly.
d.
 the legs of the butterfly.
e.
 the antenna of a moth.
 74.
Humans, as well as other mammals ranging from mice to elephants, have hair. Hair, then, would be considered to be:
a.
 a derived character.
b.
 an ancestral character.
c.
 a cladistic character.
d.
 an analogous character.
e.
 a polyphyletic character.
 75.
Sea snakes, which are reptiles, are similar in body form to eels, which are fish. Sea snakes and eels therefore share ________________ body form.
a.
 ancestral
b.
 homoplastic
c.
 homologous
d.
 monophyletic
e.
 cladistic
 76.
A(an) __________________ character is a trait that has evolved relatively recently.
a.
 derived
b.
 ancestral
c.
 cladistic
d.
 homologous
e.
 polyphyletic
 77.
Phylogenetic systematics produces branching diagrams called:
a.
 phylogenic trees.
b.
 cladistic trees.
c.
 phenograms.
d.
 molecular clocks.
e.
 cladograms.
 78.
A cladogram is based on:
a.
 homologous characteristics.
b.
 homoplastic characteristics.
c.
 polyphyletic taxa.
d.
 fossil evidence only.
e.
 derived characters only.
Figure 22-03
Use the figure below to answer the corresponding questions.nar002-1.jpg
 79.
The organism labeled B in Figure 22-03 is a common ancestor to:
a.
 organism 2.
b.
 organism 3.
c.
 organism 5.
d.
 organism 6.
e.
 All of the above.
 80.
In Figure 22-03, the pair of organisms that have the most recent ancestor is:
a.
 2 and 4.
b.
 6 and 4.
c.
 4 and 5.
d.
 2 and 3.
e.
 1 and 2.
 81.
In Figure 22-03, the taxon labeled II is:
a.
 monophyletic.
b.
 paraphyletic.
c.
 polyphyletic.
d.
 a clade.
e.
 an outgroup.

 
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