Author: Biology Junction Team

Worms Puzzle

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Flatworms, Roundworms, & Rotifers
Fill in the blanks with the correct letters. The words in the list on the right provide a clue to the answer. 

1) _at_he _ m _ _ th_s phylum of flatworms
2) _ hre_ number of body layers in worms
3) b _ l _ te_al symmetry f flatworms
4) d _ rs _ l upper body surface of worms
5) _ en _ ral lower body surface of worms
6) _cto _ erm outermost cell layer of worms
7) _es _ d _ rm middle cell layer of worms
8) _ nd_der _ innermost cell layer of worms
9) _c _ e _ om_te solid body in flatworms
10) _oe _ o _ body cavity
11) _ast_ov _ sc _ l _ r gut with a single opening in flatworms
12) a _ sor_ti _ n how flatworms exchanges gases with their environment
13) _nte _ io _ head or front end of a flatworm
14) c _ ph _ li _ ati_n anterior end with sensory structures concentrated there
15) p _ r _ si_e worms that live on or inside the body of their host
16) _ur_ell _ r _ _ class of flatworms containing the frehwater planarian
17) p _ ar _ n_ extendable feeding tube on the underside of planarians
18) _ ucu_ secreted by planarians to glide across
19) f _ a_e excretory cells in worms that filter wastes
20) a _ _ lia clusters of nerve cells in worms
21) _erm _ _ hr _ di_es worms that make both eggs & sperm
22) _re _ a _ oda class of flatworms containg flukes
23) _ucke _ s found on the ends of flukes to attach to hosts
24) _e _ u _ ent tough outer covering on flukes
25) _ e _ to_a _ class containing tapeworms
26) s _ ol _ x anterior end of a tapeworm with hooks & suckers
27) _r_gl _ t_id _ reproductive sections of a tapeworm’s body
28) _e _ _ to_a phylum for roundworms
29) _a _ er shape of both ends of a roundworms body
30) _ ut _ cle protective noncellular layer of roundworms
31) a _ ca _ is roundworm found in pig & horse intestines
32) _ oo _ w_r_s intestinal parasitic roundworm with cutting plates in it’s mouth
33) _ri_h _ n _ _ is disease that result from eating infected undercooked pork
34) _i _ wo_m _ most common parasitic roundworm of children in the U.S.
35) _ot _ f _ ra phylum of worms with a crown of cilia surrounding the mouth
36) _as _ _ x muscular organ of rotifers to break down food
37) _se _ do_oel _ mat _ _ rotifers & nematodes are examples

 

 

Solution

 

 

PCC Cell Structure and Function 2011

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PCC Cell Structure and Function 2011
 

Multiple Choice
Identify the choice that best completes the statement or answers the question.
 1.
The smallest units of life in all living things are
a.
 cells.
c.
 cytoplasm.
b.
 mitochondria.
d.
 Golgi apparatus.
 2.
When the volume of a cell increases, its surface area
a.
 increases at the same rate.
b.
 remains the same.
c.
 increases at a faster rate.
d.
 increases at a slower rate.
 3.
Surface area is an important factor in limiting cell growth because
a.
 the cell can burst if the membrane becomes too large.
b.
 materials cannot enter the cell if the surface is too large.
c.
 the cell may become too large to take in enough food and to remove enough wastes.
d.
 waste products cannot leave the cell if the cell is too small.
 4.
The size to which a cell can grow is limited by its
a.
 location.
c.
 function.
b.
 structure.
d.
 surface area.
 5.
A cell that can change its shape would be well suited for
a.
 receiving and transmitting nerve impulses.
b.
 covering the body surface.
c.
 moving to different tissues through narrow openings.
d.
 All of the above
 6.
One difference between prokaryotes and eukaryotes is that
a.
 nucleic acids are found only in prokaryotes.
b.
 mitochondria are found in larger quantities in eukaryotes.
c.
 the Golgi apparatus is found only in prokaryotes.
d.
 prokaryotes have no nuclear membrane.
 7.
Which of the following is characteristic of prokaryotes?
a.
 They have a nucleus.
b.
 They existed on Earth before eukaryotes.
c.
 The organelles in their cytoplasm are surrounded by membranes.
d.
 None of the above
 8.
Which of the following is an example of a prokaryotic cell?
a.
 an amoeba
c.
 a bacterium
b.
 a virus
d.
 a liver cell
 9.
Only eukaryotic cells have
a.
 DNA.
c.
 ribosomes.
b.
 membrane-bound organelles.
d.
 cytoplasm.
 10.
Studying a picture of a cell taken with an electron microscope, you find that the cell has no nucleus and no mitochondria, but it does have a plasma membrane and a cell wall. You conclude that the cell is probably from a(n)
a.
 animal.
c.
 prokaryote.
b.
 plant.
d.
 extinct organism.
 11.
Plasma membranes
a.
 are part of only a small number of cells.
b.
 contain genes.
c.
 are made of DNA.
d.
 are thin coverings that surround cells.
 12.
The structure that regulates what enters and leaves the cell is called the
a.
 nucleus.
c.
 nuclear membrane.
b.
 cell wall.
d.
 plasma membrane.
 13.
The plasma membrane
a.
 encloses the contents of a cell.
b.
 allows material to enter and leave the cell.
c.
 is selectively permeable.
d.
 All of the above
 14.
A structure within a cell that performs a specific function is called a(n)
a.
 organelle.
c.
 tissue.
b.
 organ tissue.
d.
 biocenter.
 15.
A particularly active cell might contain large numbers of
a.
 chromosomes.
c.
 mitochondria.
b.
 vacuoles.
d.
 walls.
 16.
The Golgi apparatus is an organelle that
a.
 receives proteins and lipids from the endoplasmic reticulum.
b.
 labels the molecules made in the endoplasmic reticulum with tags that specify their destination.
c.
 releases molecules in vesicles.
d.
 All of the above
 17.
One important organelle that helps maintain homeostasis by moving supplies from one part of the cell to the other is the
a.
 endoplasmic reticulum.
c.
 nucleus.
b.
 mitochondrion.
d.
 cytoplasm.
 18.
In which of the following organelles is a cell’s ATP produced?
a.
 mitochondrion
c.
 Golgi apparatus
b.
 endoplasmic reticulum
d.
 lysosome
 19.
Numerous hairlike organelles that protrude from the surface of a cell and are packed in tight rows are called
a.
 flagella.
c.
 actin filaments.
b.
 microtubules.
d.
 cilia.
 20.
Proteins are made on the
a.
 mitochondria.
c.
 nucleus.
b.
 ribosomes.
d.
 plasma membrane.
 21.
The packaging and distribution center of the cell is the
a.
 nucleus.
c.
 central vacuole.
b.
 Golgi apparatus.
d.
 nuclear envelope.
 22.
The double membrane surrounding the nucleus is called the
a.
 nucleolus.
c.
 nucleoplasm.
b.
 nuclear wall.
d.
 nuclear envelope.
 23.
All cells have
a.
 a covering called a plasma membrane that surrounds the cell and controls what information and materials enter and leave it.
b.
 an internal fluid that gives shape to the cell and supports the other things within it.
c.
 either a central zone or a nucleus that contains the cell’s genes.
d.
 All of the above
 24.
cell : plasma membrane ::
a.
 nucleus : chromosome
b.
 nucleus : nuclear envelope
c.
 chromosome : DNA
d.
 cell : DNA
nar001-1.jpg
 25.
Refer to the illustration above. Which structure immediately identifies this cell as a eukaryote?
a.
 structure 1
c.
 structure 3
b.
 structure 2
d.
 structure 4
 26.
Refer to the illustration above. The cell uses structure 3
a.
 to transport material from one part of the cell to another.
b.
 to package proteins so they can be stored by the cell.
c.
 as a receptor.
d.
 to transfer energy from organic molecules to ATP.
 27.
Refer to the illustration above. Structure 1 is
a.
 the endoplasmic reticulum.
b.
 a Golgi apparatus.
c.
 a mitochondrion.
d.
 the nucleus.
 28.
Refer to the illustration above. This cell’s chromosomes are found in
a.
 structure 1.
c.
 structure 3.
b.
 structure 2.
d.
 structure 5.
 29.
Refer to the illustration above. The cell shown is probably an animal cell because
a.
 it has mitochondria.
b.
 it does not have a cell wall.
c.
 it has a plasma membrane.
d.
 it does not have a nucleus.
 30.
All of the following are found in both plant and animal cells, except
a.
 a cell wall.
c.
 mitochondria.
b.
 a plasma membrane.
d.
 the endoplasmic reticulum.
 31.
How are chloroplasts like mitochondria?
a.
 They can both use energy from sunlight.
b.
 They look alike.
c.
 They both contain DNA.
d.
 They are both found in animal cells.
 32.
The organelles associated with photosynthesis are the
a.
 mitochondria.
c.
 Golgi apparatus.
b.
 chloroplasts.
d.
 vacuoles.
 33.
The organelles in plant cells that contain a green pigment are the
a.
 mitochondria.
c.
 chloroplasts.
b.
 bilayer lipids.
d.
 Golgi apparatus.
 34.
Plant cells have a large membrane-bound space in which water, waste products, and nutrients are stored. This place is known as a
a.
 mitochondrion.
c.
 Golgi apparatus.
b.
 chloroplast.
d.
 central vacuole.
 35.
Which of the following pairs contains unrelated items?
a.
 eukaryote–amoeba
c.
 cell wall–animal cell
b.
 ribosomes–protein
d.
 mitochondria–energy
 36.
Plant cells
a.
 do not contain mitochondria.
b.
 have a cell wall instead of a plasma membrane.
c.
 have a large central vacuole instead of a Golgi apparatus.
d.
 have chloroplasts and a cell wall.
 37.
Which of the following is the correct order of organization of structures in living things, from simplest to most complex?
a.
 organ systems, organs, tissues, cells
b.
 tissues, cells, organs, organ systems
c.
 cells, tissues, organ systems, organs
d.
 cells, tissues, organs, organ systems
 38.
As a result of diffusion, the concentration of many types of substances
a.
 always remains greater inside a membrane.
b.
 eventually becomes balanced on both sides of a membrane.
c.
 always remains greater on the outside of a membrane.
d.
 becomes imbalanced on both sides of a membrane.
nar002-1.jpg
 39.
Refer to the illustration above. In which direction are water molecules in this system most likely to diffuse?
a.
 from 1 to 2
c.
 from 4 to 3
b.
 from 2 to 4
d.
 from 3 to 1
 40.
The dispersal of ink in a beaker of water is an example of
a.
 diffusion.
c.
 active transport.
b.
 osmosis.
d.
 endocytosis.
 41.
Sugar molecules can enter cells through the process of
a.
 exocytosis.
c.
 osmosis.
b.
 facilitated diffusion.
d.
 ion pumps.
 42.
Channels utilizing facilitated diffusion
a.
 work in two directions.
b.
 require an electrical signal to function.
c.
 Both a and b
d.
 None of the above
 43.
Which of the following is not characteristic of facilitated diffusion?
a.
 It requires a carrier protein.
b.
 It moves substances against a concentration gradient.
c.
 It requires no energy input.
d.
 It involves a change in the shape of its carrier.
 44.
Which of the following does not expend energy?
a.
 diffusion
c.
 active transport
b.
 endocytosis
d.
 a sodium-potassium pump
 45.
Which of the following enters a cell by active transport?
a.
 glucose
c.
 lactose
b.
 water
d.
 potassium ion
 46.
The process by which water passes into or out of a cell is called
a.
 solubility.
c.
 selective transport.
b.
 osmosis.
d.
 endocytosis.
 47.
The sodium-potassium pump usually pumps
a.
 potassium out of the cell.
b.
 sodium into the cell.
c.
 potassium into the cell.
d.
 only a potassium and sugar molecule together.
 48.
Ridding the cell of material by discharging it from sacs at the cell surface is called
a.
 pinocytosis.
c.
 exocytosis.
b.
 phagocytosis.
d.
 endocytosis.
 49.
Molecules that are too large to be moved across a cell membrane can be removed from the cell by
a.
 diffusion.
c.
 lipid carriers.
b.
 exocytosis.
d.
 osmosis.
 50.
Placing a plant into a hypertonic environment will
a.
 cause turgor pressure to increase.
b.
 cause the plant to take in water.
c.
 have no effect.
d.
 cause turgor pressure to decrease.

 
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PCC Biochemistry 2011

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PCC Biochemistry 2011
 

Multiple Choice
Identify the choice that best completes the statement or answers the question.
 1.
The three particles that make up atoms are
a.
 protons, neutrons, and isotopes.
c.
 positives, negatives, and electrons.
b.
 neutrons, isotopes, and electrons.
d.
 protons, neutrons, and electrons.
 2.
The space surrounding the nucleus of an atom contains
a.
 protons.
c.
 neutrons.
b.
 electrons.
d.
 ions.
 3.
Democritus believed that atoms
a.
 were composed of electrons.
c.
 could be divided.
b.
 were composed of protons.
d.
 could not be divided.
 4.
If an atom contains 3 protons, 4 neutrons,  and 3 electrons, its mass number would be
a.
 3.
c.
 7.
b.
 4.
d.
 11.
 5.
If a chlorine atom had 17 protons and 18 neutrons, it would be called
a.
 chlorine-17.
c.
 chlorine-35.
b.
 chlorine-18.
d.
 chlorine-1.
 6.
Isotopes are atoms of the same element with the same number of protons and
a.
 a different number of electrons.
c.
 a different number of neutrons.
b.
 a different number of molecules.
d.
 the same number of neutrons.
 7.
Which of the following is a use of radioactive isotopes?
a.
 can determine the ages of rocks and fossils
b.
 can be used to treat cancer and kill bacteria that cause food to spoil
c.
 can be used as “tracers” to follow the movements of substances within organisms
d.
 all of the above
 8.
If an atom contains 11 protons and 12 neutrons, its atomic number is
a.
 1.
c.
 12.
b.
 11.
d.
 23.
 9.
Which of the following terms describes a substance formed by the combination of two or more elements in definite proportions?
a.
 compound
c.
 nucleus
b.
 isotope
d.
 enzyme
 10.
Which of the following makes up a molecule of water?
a.
 one atom of hydrogen and one atom of oxygen
b.
 one atom of sodium and one atom of chlorine
c.
 one atom of hydrogen and two atoms of oxygen
d.
 two atoms of hydrogen and one atom of oxygen
 11.
Which of the following is NOT true about chlorine?
a.
 It is a poisonous, greenish gas.
b.
 It combines with sodium to form table salt.
c.
 It was used to kill many soldiers in World War I.
d.
 It is not reactive.
 12.
Which of the following statements about a compound is true?
a.
 The physical and chemical properties of a compound are usually very different from those of the elements from which it is formed.
b.
 Only the physical properties of a compound are usually the same as those of the elements from which it is formed.
c.
 Only the chemical properties of a compound are usually the same as those of the elements from which it is formed.
d.
 The physical and chemical properties of a compound are usually the same as those of the elements from which it is formed.
 13.
A covalent bond is formed as the result of
a.
 transferring electrons.
c.
 transferring protons.
b.
 sharing an electron pair.
d.
 sharing a proton pair.
 14.
Which term does NOT apply to sodium chloride?
a.
 molecule
c.
 compound
b.
 ionic bonding
d.
 crystal
 15.
What type of electron is available to form bonds?
a.
 valence
c.
 ionic
b.
 nucleus
d.
 covalent
 16.
What type of ion forms when an atom loses electrons?
a.
 neutral
c.
 negative
b.
 positive
d.
 possibly positive or negative
 17.
Ice floats on water because
a.
 of cohesion.
c.
 water shrinks when it freezes.
b.
 ice has a higher density than water.
d.
 water expands when it freezes.
 18.
The most abundant compound in most living things is
a.
 carbon dioxide.
c.
 sodium chloride.
b.
 water.
d.
 sugar.
 19.
Water molecules are polar, with the
a.
 oxygen side being slightly positive and the hydrogen side being slightly negative.
b.
 oxygen and hydrogen sides being slightly positive.
c.
 oxygen and hydrogen sides being slightly negative.
d.
 oxygen side being slightly negative and the hydrogen side being slightly positive.
 20.
In a water molecule, shared electrons spend more time around the oxygen atom than the hydrogen atoms.  As a result, the oxygen atom is
a.
 slightly negative.
c.
 slightly positive.
b.
 very negative.
d.
 very positive.
 21.
A solution is a(an)
a.
 combination of isotopes.
b.
 chemical reaction.
c.
 evenly distributed mixture of two or more substances.
d.
 combination of two or more liquids.
 22.
If you stir salt into boiling water, you produce a
a.
 mixture called a suspension.
c.
 solution and suspension.
b.
 mixture called a solution.
d.
 mixture only.
 23.
When salt is dissolved in water, water is the
a.
 reactant.
c.
 solute.
b.
 solution.
d.
 solvent.
 24.
While preparing a cell culture, a scientist places a colony of bacteria into distilled water and stirs it up.  This mixture of water and living cells would best be called a(an)
a.
 solution.
b.
 suspension.
c.
 buffer.
d.
 adhesion.
 25.
If the pH of stomach acid and of oven cleaner were measured,
a.
 both would be below 7.
b.
 both would be above 7.
c.
 the pH of stomach acid would be above 7, but the pH of oven cleaner would be below 7.
d.
 the pH of stomach acid would be below 7, but the pH of oven cleaner would be above 7.
 26.
A map of eastern North America, showing the pH of rainfall in the various states, indicates that the pH of rain in New York State varies from 4.22 to 4.40. According to these figures, the most acidic rainfall in New York State has a pH of
a.
 4.22.
c.
 4.35.
b.
 4.30.
d.
 4.40.
 27.
A substance with a pH of 6 is called
a.
 an acid.
c.
 both an acid and a base.
b.
 a base.
d.
 neither an acid nor a base.
 28.
Solutions that contain concentrations of H+ ions lower than pure water
a.
 have pH values below 7.
c.
 are bases.
b.
 are acids.
d.
 are enzymes.
 29.
Amino acid is to protein as
a.
 fat is to lipid.
c.
 sugar is to fat.
b.
 DNA is to RNA.
d.
 simple sugar is to starch.
 30.
A monosaccharide is a
a.
 carbohydrate.
c.
 nucleic acid.
b.
 lipid.
d.
 protein.
 31.
Which of the following is NOT a monomer?
a.
 a glucose molecule
c.
 a nucleotide
b.
 an amino acid
d.
 a protein
 32.
Which of the following is NOT a function of proteins?
a.
 store and transmit genetic information
b.
 help to fight disease
c.
 control the rate of reactions and regulate cell processes
d.
 build tissues such as bone and muscle
 33.
Which statement is true?
a.
 Simple sugars are made of polysaccharides.
b.
 Glycerol is made of fatty acids.
c.
 RNA molecules are made of nucleotides.
d.
 Amino acids are made of proteins.
 34.
In chemical reactions, atoms are
a.
 created.
c.
 rearranged.
b.
 destroyed.
d.
 neutralized.
 35.
When hydrogen and oxygen combine to form water, water is
a.
 a product.
c.
 both a product and a reactant.
b.
 a reactant.
d.
 neither a product nor a reactant.
 36.
Identify the reactant(s) in the chemical reaction, CO2 + H2O ® H2CO3.
a.
 CO2, H2O, and H2CO3
c.
 H2CO3
b.
 CO2 and H2O
d.
 CO2
 37.
What is the process that changes one set of chemicals into another set of chemicals?
a.
 cohesion
c.
 chemical reaction
b.
 adhesion
d.
 dissolving
 38.
What is the term used to describe the energy needed to get a reaction started?
a.
 adhesion energy
c.
 cohesion energy
b.
 activation energy
d.
 chemical energy
 39.
Chemical reactions that release energy
a.
 will not occur.
c.
 will always explode.
b.
 will never explode.
d.
 often occur spontaneously.
 40.
If a reaction in one direction releases energy, the reaction in the opposite direction
a.
 also releases energy.
c.
 destroys energy.
b.
 absorbs energy.
d.
 cannot occur.
 41.
Which of the following is a form of energy that may be released during a chemical reaction?
a.
 heat
c.
 light
b.
 sound
d.
 all of the above
 42.
Which of the following statements about enzymes is NOT true?
a.
 Enzymes work best at a specified pH.
b.
 All enzymes have the same shape as their substrates.
c.
 Enzymes are proteins.
d.
 The shape of an enzyme allows it to do its job.
 43.
Which of the following statements is true about catalysts?
a.
 Catalysts slow down the rate of chemical reactions.
b.
 All catalysts are enzymes.
c.
 Catalysts are used up during a chemical reaction.
d.
 Catalysts lower the activation energy of a chemical reaction.
 44.
A substance that accelerates the rate of a chemical reaction is called a(an)
a.
 catalyst.
c.
 molecule.
b.
 lipid.
d.
 element.
 45.
Enzymes affect the reactions in living cells by changing the
a.
 products of the reaction.
c.
 temperature of the reaction.
b.
 speed of the reaction.
d.
 pH of the reaction.
 

Short Answer
 46.
Why are atoms considered neutral?
 47.
What is a molecule?
 

Other

USING SCIENCE SKILLS

 

pH Values of Some Common Substances
Substance pH
Hydrochloric acid
1.0
Sulfuric acid
1.2
Tomatoes
4.2
Rainwater
6.2
Pure water
7.0
Sea water
8.5
Ammonium chloride
11.1
Sodium hydroxide
13.0

Figure 2–2
 48.
Applying Concepts What is the strongest acid listed in Figure 2–2?
 49.
Applying Concepts What is the pH of the strongest base listed in Figure 2–2?
 50.
Applying Concepts Using your knowledge of the pH scale, which of the chemicals in Figure 2-2 has the lowest concentration of H+ ions?

 
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PCC Prokaryotes

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PCC Prokaryotes

 

 

Multiple Choice
Identify the choice that best completes the statement or answers the question.
 1.
Eubacteria and archaebacteria differ in
a.
 the presence of a nucleus.
c.
 size.
b.
 the makeup of their cell walls.
d.
 the presence of a cell wall.
 2.
Escherichia coli is classified as a(an)
a.
 archaebacterium.
b.
 eubacterium.
c.
 eukaryote.
d.
 virus.
 3.
Which of the following is NOT a way in which archaebacteria and eubacteria differ?
a.
 Archaebacteria lack an important carbohydrate found in the cell walls of eubacteria.
b.
 The two groups have very different membrane lipids.
c.
 Archaebacteria have gene sequences that are similar to those of eukaryotes.
d.
 Archaebacteria follow the lytic cycle, while eubacteria follow the lysogenic cycle.
 4.
Which of the following are members of the kingdom Archaebacteria?
a.
 methanogens
c.
 eukaryotes
b.
 eubacteria
d.
 E. coli

nar001-1.jpg

Figure 19–1
 5.
The structure in Figure 19–1 represents a(an)
a.
 virus.
c.
 methanogen.
b.
 archaebacterium.
d.
 eubacterium.
 6.
Which structure or structures shown in Figure 19–1 have key differences in eubacteria and archaebacteria?
a.
 A, B, C
c.
 D only
b.
 A, B, E
d.
 A only

nar002-1.jpg

Figure 19–2
 7.
Which cell shape in Figure 19–2 is called a coccus?
a.
 A
c.
 C
b.
 B
d.
 none of the above
 8.
Which of the following can survive either with oxygen or without it?
a.
 obligate aerobes
c.
 facultative anaerobes
b.
 obligate anaerobes
d.
 bacteriophages
 9.
Some bacteria are able to survive unfavorable conditions by forming
a.
 photoautotrophs.
c.
 coccus.
b.
 capsids.
d.
 endospores.
 10.
Which of the following is(are) used to identify prokaryotes?
a.
 cell shape
c.
 the way prokaryotes obtain energy
b.
 the way prokaryotes move
d.
 all of the above
 11.
Where are you likely to find a photoautotroph?
a.
 in your refrigerator
b.
 in the darkness of the ocean
c.
 in your digestive system
d.
 near the surfaces of lakes, streams, and oceans
 12.
Unlike photoautotrophs, chemoautotrophs obtain energy
a.
 directly from the sun.
c.
 indirectly from organic molecules.
b.
 directly from inorganic molecules.
d.
 indirectly from other organisms.
 13.
A method called Gram staining is used to tell
a.
 what shape a prokaryote has.
b.
 how a prokaryote obtains energy.
c.
 what kind of cell wall a prokaryote has.
d.
 whether a prokaryote has flagella.
 14.
Which of the following describes a role of bacteria in the environment?
a.
 carrying out photosynthesis
c.
 fixing nitrogen
b.
 recycling nutrients
d.
 all of the above
 15.
Bacteria that break down the nutrients in dead matter into simpler substances that are taken up by plant roots are called
a.
 endospores.
c.
 photoautotrophs.
b.
 flagella.
d.
 decomposers.
 16.
Nitrogen fixation involves each of the following EXCEPT
a.
 soybeans.
c.
 fertilizer.
b.
 Rhizobium.
d.
 nodules on roots.
 17.
Which of the following is produced when bacteria break down complex compounds in sewage?
a.
 carbon dioxide gas
c.
 nitrogen
b.
 purified water
d.
 all of the above
 18.
Humans use bacteria to
a.
 clean up small oil spills.
c.
 synthesize drugs.
b.
 mine minerals from the ground.
d.
 all of the above
 19.
Bacteria living in extreme environments may be a good source of
a.
 antibiotics.
c.
 nitrogen-fixing bacteria.
b.
 heat-stable enzymes.
d.
 Gram stains.
 20.
Which of the following is a way that bacteria cause disease?
a.
 by capsids
c.
 by conjugation
b.
 by nitrogen fixation
d.
 by releasing toxins
 21.
Bacteria that cause disease are called
a.
 viruses.
c.
 endospores.
b.
 pathogens.
d.
 antibiotics.
 22.
Food stored in a refrigerator will keep longer because the bacteria that spoil food
a.
 die at low temperatures.
b.
 take longer to multiply at low temperatures.
c.
 require light to live.
d.
 grow more slowly in the dark.
 23.
Which of the following is a characteristic of bacteria that is key to keeping them under control?
a.
 Most bacteria cannot survive high temperatures for long periods.
b.
 Most bacteria are resistant to harmful chemicals.
c.
 Most bacteria form endospores when subjected to harsh conditions.
d.
 Most bacteria do not cause food to spoil.
 24.
Which of the following will NOT kill bacteria?
a.
 refrigeration
c.
 chemical disinfection
b.
 boiling
d.
 frying
 25.
The chromosomes of bacteria
a.
 contain numerous types of organelles.
b.
 are divided into compartments.
c.
 vary in number, depending on the species of bacteria.
d.
 contain a single circular piece of DNA.
 26.
Structures found in bacterial cells but not in eukaryotic cells are
a.
 nuclei.
c.
 membrane-bound organelles.
b.
 linear chromosomes.
d.
 circular chromosomes.
nar003-1.jpg
 27.
Refer to the illustration above. Organism B has a shape similar to that of
a.
 Micrococcus.
c.
 Streptococcus.
b.
 Bacillus.
d.
 Leptospira.
 28.
Refer to the illustration above. The shape represented by Organism A applies to the bacterial genus
a.
 Streptococcus, which causes strep throat.
b.
 Leptospira, which can cause urinary tract infections in humans.
c.
 Bacillus, which produces antibiotics.
d.
 Penicillium, which produces penicillin.
 29.
Refer to the illustration above. The shape represented by Organism C is called
a.
 a coccus.
c.
 a bacillus.
b.
 a spirillum.
d.
 filamentous.
 30.
Bacteria often have small extra loops of DNA called
a.
 nucleoids.
c.
 plasmids.
b.
 pili.
d.
 prions.
 31.
Cell organelles that Escherichia coli and other bacteria have in common with eukaryotes are
a.
 chloroplasts.
c.
 nuclei.
b.
 mitochondria.
d.
 ribosomes.
 32.
It is important to distinguish between Gram-positive and Gram-negative bacteria in diagnosing a bacterial infection because
a.
 Gram-negative and Gram-positive bacteria differ in their response to different antibiotics.
b.
 Gram-positive bacteria never cause fatal diseases.
c.
 Gram-positive bacteria destroy antibiotics, preventing them from working.
d.
 Gram-positive bacteria do not respond to many antibiotics.
 33.
Bacterial cells have
a.
 a cell wall only.
b.
 a cell membrane only.
c.
 both a cell membrane and an outer cell wall.
d.
 a cell wall inside their cell membrane.
 34.
Escherichia coli is an example of a bacterium that has
a.
 a thin layer of peptidoglycan in its cell wall.
b.
 a thick layer of peptidoglycan in its cell wall.
c.
 a shape called a coccus.
d.
 a cell wall but no cell membrane.
 35.
Cyanobacteria are photoautotrophs because they require
a.
 oxygen.
c.
 inorganic chemicals.
b.
 carbon dioxide.
d.
 light.
 36.
Nitrogen-fixing bacteria
a.
 repair nitrogen-damaged soybean roots.
b.
 damage the environment by using atmospheric oxygen to produce toxic nitrogen compounds.
c.
 convert atmospheric nitrogen into a usable form of nitrogen.
d.
 convert ammonia in the soil into nitrogen gas.
 37.
Bacterial cells such as Escherichia coli transfer pieces of genetic material in a process called
a.
 binary fission.
c.
 conjugation.
b.
 mitosis.
d.
 sexual reproduction.
 38.
Bacterial endospores
a.
 are formed when there is plenty of available food.
b.
 allow certain species to survive harsh environmental conditions.
c.
 are similar to human tumors.
d.
 can cause growth abnormalities in plants.
 39.
A chain of round bacteria would be called:
a.
 spirilla.
b.
 diplococci.
c.
 bacilli.
d.
 streptococci.
e.
 streptobacilli.
 40.
Rod-shaped bacteria are called:
a.
 streptococci.
b.
 bacilli.
c.
 diplococci.
d.
 vibrio.
e.
 spirochete.
Figure 23-02
Use the figure below to answer the corresponding questions.nar004-1.jpg
 41.
The structure in Figure 23-02 labeled C is:
a.
 a ribosome.
b.
 the plasma membrane.
c.
 the capsule.
d.
 the cell wall.
e.
 the flagellum.
 42.
What is the function of the structure labeled A in Figure 23-02?
a.
 to adhere to surfaces or other bacteria
b.
 to prevent phagocytosis
c.
 support and protection in hypotonic conditions
d.
 transmission of DNA between bacteria
e.
 locomotion
 43.
The walls of Eubacteria contain peptidoglycan, which is:
a.
 lipids crosslinked with sugars.
b.
 sugars crosslinked with proteins.
c.
 a protein.
d.
 a lipid.
e.
 a polysaccharide.
 44.
Penicillin works most effectively against gram-positive bacteria because:
a.
 penicillin affects cell membranes.
b.
 they have a thick peptidoglycan cell wall and penicillin affects the synthesis of peptidoglycans.
c.
 they have special protein channels that allow penicillin to enter the cell and halt the cell cycle.
d.
 they are smaller than gram-negative bacteria and, thus, easily take up penicillin by diffusion.
e.
 they contain prophages that negatively interact with penicillin.
 45.
Some bacteria avoid a host’s immune system by means of:
a.
 efficient use of their flagella.
b.
 ameboid motion.
c.
 their capsule.
d.
 changing their cell wall structure.
e.
 eliminating the use of a membrane.
 46.
Bacteria:
a.
 are incapable of locomotion.
b.
 move by means of pili
c.
 move by means of cilia.
d.
 move by means of a rotating flagella.
e.
 move by means of a whiplike flagella.
 47.
Small circles of DNA called ______________ exist in addition to the bacterial chromosome.
a.
 capsids
b.
 plasmids
c.
 chromatids
d.
 pili
e.
 centromeres
 48.
Small hairlike structures on the surface of bacteria are called:
a.
 capsids.
b.
 pili.
c.
 chromatids.
d.
 plasmids.
e.
 virons.
 49.
Plasmids of bacteria often have genes involved in:
a.
 reproduction.
b.
 motility.
c.
 viral resistance.
d.
 antibiotic resistance.
e.
 photosynthesis.
 50.
Pili are involved in adhesion of bacterial cells to a substrate or host, or in transmission of __________ between bacteria.
a.
 ribosomes
b.
 cytoplasm
c.
 vectors
d.
 RNA
e.
 DNA

 
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Plant Evolution, Structure, and Function

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Plant Evolution, Structure, and Function

 

 

Multiple Choice
Identify the choice that best completes the statement or answers the question.
 1.
The ancestors of today’s land plants were probably
a.
 brown algae.
c.
 green algae.
b.
 red algae.
d.
 lichens.
 2.
The challenges faced by early land plants included
a.
 conserving water.
b.
 reproducing on land.
c.
 absorbing minerals from the rocky surface.
d.
 All of the above
 3.
The waxy protective covering of a land plant is called a
a.
 cuticle.
c.
 rhizome.
b.
 capsule.
d.
 stoma.
 4.
The cuticle
a.
 helps reduce the evaporation of fluids from a plant.
b.
 is a plant adaptation to an aquatic environment.
c.
 is a reproductive structure in some plants.
d.
 is crucial to plant cell nourishment.
 5.
Some land plants developed an internal system of interconnected tubes and vessels called
a.
 cuticles.
b.
 nonvascular canals.
c.
 the circulatory system.
d.
 vascular tissues.
 6.
The xylem in a plant
a.
 transports food from the leaves.
b.
 transports water and minerals to the stems and leaves.
c.
 exchanges carbon dioxide with the atmosphere.
d.
 All of the above
 7.
liverworts, hornworts, mosses : nonvascular plants ::
a.
 gymnosperms, angiosperms : bryophytes
b.
 ferns : mosses
c.
 gymnosperms, angiosperms : vascular plants
d.
 bryophytes, liverworts : vascular plants
 8.
gymnosperms : naked seeds ::
a.
 pollen : mosses
b.
 ferns : seeds
c.
 liverwort : vascular tissue
d.
 angiosperms : enclosed seeds
 9.
The diploid form in a plant’s life cycle is called the
a.
 sporophyte.
b.
 gametophyte.
c.
 parental generation.
d.
 alternate generation.
 10.
The haploid form in a plant’s life cycle is called the
a.
 sporophyte.
b.
 gametophyte.
c.
 parental generation.
d.
 alternate generation.
 11.
Alternation between a haploid stage and a diploid stage in a plant’s life cycle is called
a.
 generational recycling.
b.
 periodic gametogenesis.
c.
 alternating forms.
d.
 alternation of generations.
 12.
In plants, haploid gametes are produced as a result of
a.
 fertilization.
c.
 encapsulation.
b.
 meiosis.
d.
 mitosis.
 13.
The dominant generation in vascular plants is the
a.
 gametophyte.
c.
 angiosperm.
b.
 gymnosperm.
d.
 sporophyte.
 14.
vascular plants : sporophytes ::
a.
 sporophytic plants : gametophytes
b.
 nonvascular plants : gametophytes
c.
 spores : gametes
d.
 plants with seeds : seedless plants
 15.
sporophytes : spores ::
a.
 sporophytes : gametophytes
b.
 gametophytes : gametes
c.
 gametophytes : spores
d.
 sporophytes : gametes
 16.
Which of the following is not a nonvascular plant?
a.
 moss
c.
 hornwort
b.
 liverwort
d.
 fern
 17.
Which of the following is not characteristic of all nonvascular plants?
a.
 They produce seeds.
b.
 They have a life cycle characterized by alternation of generations.
c.
 They produce spores.
d.
 They require water for sexual reproduction.
 18.
Which of the following is a reason why mosses are good pioneer plants?
a.
 They can survive in very wet areas.
b.
 They can survive in areas that receive only low levels of sunlight.
c.
 They can create a layer of soil on bare rock.
d.
 They grow very slowly.
 19.
The water-retaining ability of peat moss makes it ideal for
a.
 use in garden-soil mixes.
b.
 use in packing bulbs and flowers for shipping.
c.
 use in houseplant soils.
d.
 All of the above
 20.
All of the following developed in some vascular plants and are not present in any nonvascular plants except
a.
 pollen.
c.
 chlorophyll.
b.
 deep roots.
d.
 seeds.
 21.
The primary distinguishing characteristics of all vascular plants are
a.
 xylem and phloem; true roots, stems, and leaves; pollen; seeds.
b.
 xylem and phloem; true roots, stems, and leaves; spores.
c.
 true roots, stems, and leaves; spores.
d.
 xylem and phloem; true roots, stems, and leaves.
 22.
Which of the following is not a seed plant?
a.
 a flowering plant
c.
 a fern
b.
 a pine tree
d.
 a ginkgo
 23.
Which of the following is characteristic of all seed plants?
a.
 a seed containing an embryo, a nutrient supply, and a protective coat
b.
 enclosure and protection of seeds within a fruit
c.
 production of flowers
d.
 All of the above
 24.
Pines, spruces, and firs are
a.
 angiosperms.
c.
 flowering plants.
b.
 gymnosperms.
d.
 sometimes nonvascular.
 25.
The tallest trees in the world are species of
a.
 conifers.
c.
 liverworts.
b.
 dicots.
d.
 angiosperms.
 26.
Which of the following were the first land plants to evolve seeds?
a.
 angiosperms
c.
 mosses
b.
 gymnosperms
d.
 ferns
 27.
Seed plants are the dominant land plants because
a.
 they include the largest plants on Earth.
b.
 the seeds they produce enable the plant to survive in a dormant state when conditions are not suitable for growth.
c.
 they are vascular plants with large root systems, so they can obtain water from any kind of environment.
d.
 they produce flowers that are pollinated by insects, enabling them to produce many offspring.
 28.
Monocots have
a.
 leaves with branching veins.
b.
 flower parts in multiples of four or five.
c.
 leaves with parallel veins.
d.
 two cotyledons.
 29.
Flowering plants are classified as monocots or dicots according to their number of
a.
 leaves.
c.
 meristems.
b.
 roots.
d.
 cotyledons.
 30.
Which of the following associations between a plant cell type and its characteristics is incorrect?
a.
 collenchyma cell—thin cell walls; do not occur in groups
b.
 parenchyma cell—cube-shaped or elongated; large vacuole
c.
 sclerenchyma cell—thick, rigid cell walls
d.
 All of the above are correct.
 31.
Which of the following types of plant cells provides structural support and is typically dead at functional maturity?
a.
 collenchyma
c.
 sclerenchyma
b.
 parenchyma
d.
 None of the above
 32.
The conducting cells of phloem are called
a.
 tracheids.
c.
 sieve plates.
b.
 sieve tube members.
d.
 vessel elements.
 33.
In xylem tissue, water moves from tracheid to tracheid through
a.
 pits.
c.
 sieve tubes.
b.
 vessel elements.
d.
 companion cells.
 34.
The outermost layer consisting of ground tissue in a stem is the
a.
 sapwood.
c.
 pith.
b.
 nodes.
d.
 cortex.
 35.
vascular tissue : transport of fluids ::
a.
 epidermis : support
b.
 dermal tissue : storage
c.
 dermal tissue : transport of fluids
d.
 ground tissue : metabolism
 36.
Regions of active cell division in plants are called
a.
 meristems.
c.
 phloem.
b.
 xylem.
d.
 dermal tissue.
 37.
Meristems can be found
a.
 only at the tips of roots.
b.
 only at the tips of stems.
c.
 at the tips of stems and roots.
d.
 None of the above
 38.
Which of the following types of meristems is found in some monocots above the bases of leaves and stems?
a.
 apical meristems
b.
 vascular cambium
c.
 intercalary meristems
d.
 cork cambium
 39.
The lengthening of plant roots and shoots is called
a.
 secondary growth.
c.
 primary growth.
b.
 germination.
d.
 vascular growth.
 40.
During periods of primary growth at apical meristems, stems and roots
a.
 become wider.
b.
 become longer.
c.
 maintain a constant number of cells.
d.
 undergo photoperiodism.
 41.
secondary growth : width ::
a.
 secondary growth : height
b.
 lateral meristem : length
c.
 apical meristem : width
d.
 primary growth : length
 42.
The primary function of root hairs is
a.
 to strengthen roots as they grow downward.
b.
 to transport food up the stem.
c.
 to absorb water and minerals.
d.
 to store water.
 43.
leaves : carbon dioxide from the air ::
a.
 leaves : water from the air
b.
 roots : light from the air
c.
 roots : carbon dioxide from the air
d.
 roots : nutrients from the soil
 44.
Which of the following are taproots?
a.
 underground roots of grass plants
b.
 prop roots of corn plants
c.
 roots of radish plants
d.
 aerial roots of orchids
 45.
Which of the following is not characteristic of fibrous roots?
a.
 many branch roots
b.
 shallow roots
c.
 dominant primary root
d.
 possible development from the base of the stem
 46.
Which of the following is not characteristic of secondary growth of roots?
a.
 Vascular cambium is formed.
b.
 Secondary xylem is produced toward the inside of the root and secondary phloem is produced toward the outside of the root.
c.
 Cork cambium is formed.
d.
 It occurs in monocot, dicot, and gymnosperm roots.
 47.
Which of the following is the function of the endodermis?
a.
 water absorption
b.
 water storage
c.
 regulation of passage of water and minerals into the vascular tissue
d.
 production of new cells for secondary growth
The diagram below shows the stem of a coleus plant.

nar001-1.jpg
 48.
Refer to the illustration above. The tissue labeled “1” in the diagram is called
a.
 meristem.
c.
 phloem.
b.
 xylem.
d.
 ground tissue.
 49.
Refer to the illustration above. In the diagram, the tissue labeled “2,” which conducts water and is made of elongated cells that connect end to end, is called
a.
 meristem.
c.
 phloem.
b.
 xylem.
d.
 ground tissue.
 50.
Refer to the illustration above. In the diagram, the tissue labeled “3,” which transports sugars from regions where they are made to regions where they are used, is called
a.
 meristem.
c.
 phloem.
b.
 xylem.
d.
 ground tissue.
 51.
The ground tissue in the center of roots and stems
a.
 turns into meristem.
b.
 transports food.
c.
 provides support.
d.
 germinates at least once a year.
 52.
Leaves connect to the stems of plants at the
a.
 lateral buds.
c.
 nodes.
b.
 pith.
d.
 internodes.
 53.
Secondary xylem and phloem are produced from the
a.
 cork cambium.
c.
 apical meristems.
b.
 vascular cambium.
d.
 bark.
 54.
xylem : inner side of vascular cambium ::
a.
 vascular cambium : cork cambium
b.
 cork : vascular cambium
c.
 phloem : outer side of vascular cambium
d.
 phloem : inner side of vascular cambium
 55.
Bark contains
a.
 xylem and phloem.
c.
 phloem and cork cells.
b.
 sapwood.
d.
 mesophyll.
 56.
In a woody stem, cork cambium
a.
 forms phloem.
b.
 forms xylem.
c.
 produces the outer bark.
d.
 becomes vascular cambium.
 57.
The movement of water through a plant is caused by
a.
 the attraction of water molecules for each other.
b.
 capillary action.
c.
 transpiration.
d.
 All of the above
 58.
The loss of water by the leaves and stem of a plant is called
a.
 translocation.
c.
 active transport.
b.
 osmosis.
d.
 transpiration.
 59.
The phloem in a plant
a.
 transports sugars.
b.
 transports water and minerals.
c.
 exchanges carbon dioxide and oxygen with the atmosphere.
d.
 None of the above
 60.
The transport of food from the leaf to the rest of the plant is called
a.
 translocation.
c.
 active transport.
b.
 osmosis.
d.
 transpiration.
 61.
A hypothesis that explains the movement of sugar in a plant is the
a.
 transpiration hypothesis.
c.
 pressure-flow hypothesis.
b.
 translocation hypothesis.
d.
 source-sink hypothesis.
 62.
cohesion : adhesion ::
a.
 hydrogen : polar
c.
 hand : people
b.
 book : pages
d.
 night : day
The diagram below shows a portion of a plant’s vascular system.

nar002-1.jpg
 63.
Refer to the illustration above. Structure 2 is a
a.
 tracheid.
c.
 vessel element.
b.
 companion cell.
d.
 sieve tube member.
 64.
Refer to the illustration above. Structure 3 is a
a.
 tracheid.
c.
 vessel element.
b.
 companion cell.
d.
 sieve tube member.
 65.
Refer to the illustration above. Which structure allows the cytoplasm of one cell to connect to the cytoplasm of a neighboring cell?
a.
 1
c.
 4
b.
 3
d.
 5
 66.
The xylem in a plant
a.
 transports sugars.
b.
 transports water and minerals.
c.
 exchanges carbon dioxide and oxygen with the atmosphere.
d.
 None of the above
 67.

Scientists studying the transport of sugars in plants found it difficult to conduct experiments that didn’t damage the plants they were studying. Some of them decided to use some insects they knew fed on plants. The insects they chose were aphids, which have mouthparts that they insert into plants and use to suck out nutrients. Many of these aphids also release excess sugars from the anal end of their digestive tracts. These substances are called honeydew because they are released as sugary droplets. The scientists conducted the following experiments:

(1) They measured the rate at which honeydew was released from aphids feeding on cucumber plants. The average rate was two drops per hour.
(2) They froze some aphids and the plant parts to which the aphids were attached. They then examined cross sections of the plant parts using an electron microscope. They found that the tips of the aphids’ mouthparts were in individual cells in the phloem tissue.
(3) They anesthetized aphids feeding on plants and then cut away the aphids, leaving the mouthparts in place. They noted that the honeydew continued to be released through the mouthparts at a rate of two drops per hour. They also analyzed the honeydew and found that it had the same chemical composition as the sugars transported in the plants.

Which of the following statements is not supported by the data obtained in these experiments?

a.
 The contents of the phloem are under pressure.
b.
 Sugars are transported in the phloem of plants.
c.
 Sugars are actively transported into cells of the phloem.
d.
 Some aphids take up more sugars from plants than they can use.
 68.
mc068-1.jpg

Refer to the illustration above. Which of the leaves is a doubly compound leaf?

a.
 1
c.
 3
b.
 2
d.
 4
 69.
In plants, the ground tissue that is made up of chloroplast-rich cells is the
a.
 vascular bundle.
c.
 pith.
b.
 petiole.
d.
 mesophyll.
 70.
The tissue of the leaf mesophyll that is located directly below the upper epidermis and consists of tightly packed column-shaped cells is the
a.
 palisade layer.
c.
 adventitious layer.
b.
 cortex.
d.
 spongy mesophyll.
The diagram below shows a leaf cross section.

nar003-1.jpg
 71.
Refer to the illustration above. Which label indicates the spongy layer?
a.
 2
c.
 4
b.
 3
d.
 5
 72.
Refer to the illustration above. Structure 1
a.
 is the cuticle.
c.
 covers the epidermis.
b.
 protects the leaf.
d.
 All of the above
 73.
Refer to the illustration above. The vein is made up of
a.
 only xylem vessels.
b.
 only phloem vessels.
c.
 both xylem and phloem vessels.
d.
 neither xylem nor phloem vessels.
 74.
Photosynthesis enables plants to produce most of the organic molecules they need. This process requires the use of all of the following except
a.
 carbon dioxide.
c.
 light.
b.
 water.
d.
 glucose.
 75.
Which of the following is an adaptation found in leaves of shade-grown plants?
a.
 high density of chloroplasts
b.
 small leaf area
c.
 chloroplasts not shading each other
d.
 dense hair coatings
 76.
The stomata are responsible for
a.
 translocation.
b.
 leaf growth.
c.
 regulation of water loss.
d.
 transport of minerals.
 77.
The guard cells that surround a stoma
a.
 have no cell walls.
b.
 swell with water, causing the stoma to open.
c.
 shrivel up when opening the stoma.
d.
 are responsible for translocation.
 78.
guard cells : stomata ::
a.
 can openers : cans
c.
 cushions : rocking chairs
b.
 hammers : nails
d.
 trout : stream
 79.
cuticle : above-ground parts ::
a.
 vascular system : plant
c.
 guard cell : stoma
b.
 sperm : pollen
d.
 root system : wax
 

Completion
Complete each statement.
 80.
In leaves, the openings called ____________________ regulate the exchange of carbon dioxide and oxygen.
 81.
The surface of a vascular plant is covered by a waxy, waterproof layer called a(n) ____________________.
 82.
One of the first environmental challenges that early land plants had to overcome was finding a way to conserve ____________________.
 83.
The tissues that transport water and minerals within a plant make up the ____________________ system.
 84.
____________________ are seed plants with uncovered seeds.
 85.
In alternation of generations, the ____________________ generation alternates with the diploid generation.
 86.
co086-1.jpg

Refer to the illustration above. The cycle shown in the diagram is referred to as _________________________.
 87.
The fusion of two gametes results in the production of a(n) ____________________ sporophyte.
 88.
The haploid form of a plant is the ____________________ generation.
 89.
Conifers produce ____________________ to protect their seeds.
 90.
The sporophyte generation produces haploid spores by the process of ____________________.
 91.
Peat bogs contain organic matter that decomposes very slowly because of a(n) ____________________ produced by peat moss.
 92.
Bryophytes have a dominant ____________________ generation.
 93.
In mosses and liverworts, the ____________________ generation is the dominant generation.
 94.
A rootlike structure that anchors plants in the phylum Bryophyta is called a(n) ____________________.
 95.
The ability of mosses to absorb and retain ____________________ contributes to their ability to help prevent soil erosion.
 96.
Partially decomposed moss plants of the genus Sphagnum are dried and used as a source of ____________________ for heating.
 97.
A plant that has flower parts that occur in multiples of four or five is usually a(n) ____________________.
 98.
Most ____________________ have thin, transparent leaflike structures along a stemlike axis.
 99.
Nonvascular plants known as ____________________ usually have cells with a single large chloroplast, similar to algae.
 100.
Photosynthetic and storage tissues of plants are made up of ____________________ cells.
 101.
____________________ are narrow, elongated, thick-walled sclerenchyma cells that taper at each end.
 102.
The lateral meristem that produces secondary vascular tissue is called the _________________________.
 103.
The lateral meristem that produces the cork cells of the outer bark is called the ____________________.
 104.
Plants grow at the tips of roots and stems in regions of active cell division called ____________________.
 105.
Cell division in the ____________________ adds layers of new cells around the outside of a plant’s body.
 106.
Growth that occurs from the formation of new cells at the tip of a plant is called ____________________.
 107.
Growth that causes a plant to increase in width is called _________________________.
 108.
The thickening of a plant body by the production of new xylem and phloem is called ____________________ growth.
 109.
The ____________________ of plants absorb water and minerals necessary for growth.
 110.
The two main types of root systems are fibrous root systems and ____________________ systems.
 111.
Primary growth in roots occurs in cells of the _________________________, carbohydrate storage occurs in cells of the ____________________, and water absorption occurs through cells of the ____________________.
 112.
Flexible, soft, and usually green stems are called ____________________ stems.
 113.
Edible parts of the potato plant are modified stems called ____________________, which grow underground and store starch.
 114.
The darker wood in the center of a tree trunk is called ____________________.
 115.
Wood consists primarily of _________________________ cells.
 116.
The transport of organic molecules from the leaf to the rest of the plant is called ____________________.
 117.
The broad, flat portion of a typical leaf is called the ____________________.
 118.
When the guard cells that surround a stoma fill with water, the stoma ____________________.
 119.
____________________ ions play an important role in opening and closing stomata.
 

Problem
 120.

pr120-1.jpg

Refer to the illustration above. This cladogram depicts the presumed evolutionary relationships between the major phyla of land plants. The list below consists of paired characteristics found in at least some land plants. For each pair of characteristics, choose the one that is the more evolutionarily advanced. Then complete the cladogram by indicating on it where each of the more advanced characteristics first appeared.

Characteristics:

cones / flowers
sporophyte dominant / gametophyte dominant
waxy cuticle present / waxy cuticle absent
vascular tissue absent / vascular tissue present
gametophyte independent of sporophyte / gametophyte dependent on sporophyte
stomata absent / stomata present
seeds / spores
multicellular reproductive structure / unicellular reproductive structure
 

Essay
 121.
What problems were encountered by the first land plants? What adaptations evolved to solve these problems? Write your answer in the space below.
 122.
How is a seed an adaptation for life on land? Write your answer in the space below.
 123.
Describe three characteristics of angiosperms that have helped to make the group successful. Write your answer in the space below.
 124.
Describe the functions of ground tissue in a plant. Write your answer in the space below.
 125.
What kinds of plants have lateral meristems, and what kind of growth occurs in the lateral meristems? Write your answer in the space below.
 126.
While walking through a forest you notice that someone has carved his or her initials into the bark of a tree. The initials are exactly 1.5 meters from the ground. How far from the ground will the initials be next year and the year after that? Why? Discuss growth tissues in plants in your answer. Write your answer in the space below.
 127.
Secondary growth adds width to a woody stem. Briefly describe the tissues involved and explain how they increase the stem’s diameter. Write your answer in the space below.
 128.
Define the terms source and sink in relation to the transportation of organic molecules in the phloem of plants. Write your answer in the space below.
 129.
Compare the movement of sugar and water in a plant. Write your answer in the space below.
 130.
Why is it advantageous for mesophyll cells to be more densely packed in the upper part of a plant leaf than in the lower part? Write your answer in the space below.
 131.
Describe how stomata open and close. Write your answer in the space below.


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