Metabolism of Cells

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Metabolism of Cells

 

 

Multiple Choice
Identify the choice that best completes the statement or answers the question.
 1.
The ultimate source of energy for almost all living organisms is:
a.
heat.
b.
glucose.
c.
carbohydrates.
d.
lipids.
e.
the sun.
 2.
Energy stored within the molecules of ATP is in the form of ____________ energy.
a.
kinetic
b.
heat
c.
potential
d.
nuclear
e.
light
 3.
Most components of energy conversion systems evolved very early; thus, the most fundamental aspects of energy metabolism tend to be:
a.
quite different among a diverse group of organisms.
b.
very different among plants and animals.
c.
the same among the autotrophs but different among heterotrophs.
d.
the same among prokaryotes but different among eukaryotes.
e.
very similar in a wide range of different organisms.
 4.
Kilojoules are:
a.
units of heat energy.
b.
units of matter.
c.
units of work.
d.
units of kinetics.
e.
units of mechanical change.
 5.
The life and death of cells are governed by:
a.
the laws of thermodynamics.
b.
only the first law of thermodynamics.
c.
only the second law of thermodynamics.
d.
only the third law of thermodynamics.
e.
the laws of dynamic equilibrium.
 6.
In order for a cell to maintain a high degree of order it must:
a.
constantly release energy.
b.
constantly produce energy.
c.
constantly destroy energy.
d.
constantly use energy.
e.
constantly increase energy.
 7.
Select the false statement:
a.
Matter is anything that has mass and takes up space.
b.
Energy is the capacity to do work.
c.
Work is any change in the state or motion of matter.
d.
Mass is a form of energy.
e.
All of the above statements are true.
 8.
Which of the following statements is contrary to the first law of thermodynamics?
a.
When gasoline is burned, its energy is destroyed.
b.
Energy can be transferred or converted from one form to another.
c.
Matter can be converted into energy.
d.
The amount of energy in the universe is constant.
e.
All of the above statements are not contrary to the first law of thermodynamics.
 9.
Only 20% to 30% of the energy stored in the chemical bonds of gasoline molecules is transformed into mechanical energy; the other 70% to 80% is dissipated as waste heat. Which statement explains this phenomenon?
a.
The first law of thermodynamics.
b.
The second law of thermodynamics.
c.
When energy is converted from one form to another, some of the energy is converted into heat.
d.
Both A and B.
e.
Both B and C.
 10.
An organism can exchange matter and energy with its surroundings. Thus, any change in an organism’s energy content must be balanced by a corresponding change in the energy content of the surroundings. As such, an organism is referred to as:
a.
a closed system.
b.
an open system.
c.
a dynamic system.
d.
a thermally reactive system.
e.
a potential system.
 11.
Catabolic reactions involve the:
a.
breakdown of large organic molecules to simple building blocks.
b.
breakdown of life sustaining processes within cells.
c.
building up of complex organic molecules from simple building blocks.
d.
anabolic production of complex molecules.
e.
expenditure of energy.
 12.
Pathways that have an overall energy requirement are referred to as:
a.
catabolic reactions.
b.
anabolic reactions.
c.
energy-releasing reactions.
d.
energetically feasible reactions.
e.
reactions that will proceed spontaneously.
 13.
Every type of chemical bond contains a certain amount of energy. The total bond energy, which is essentially equivalent to the total potential energy of the system, is a quantity known as:
a.
entropy.
b.
kinetic energy.
c.
thermodynamic energy.
d.
enthalpy.
e.
free energy.
 14.
Which of the following accurately represents the relationship between the terms anabolism, catabolism, and metabolism?
a.
anabolism = catabolism
b.
metabolism = catabolism
c.
catabolism = anabolism + metabolism
d.
anabolism = catabolism + metabolism
e.
metabolism = catabolism + anabolism
 15.
The sum of all chemical activities taking place in an organism is:
a.
anabolism.
b.
catabolism.
c.
metabolism.
d.
dehydration synthesis.
e.
condensation reactions.
 16.
Which word is defined by this statement: a measure of this disorder, or randomness?
a.
energy
b.
entropy
c.
enthalpy
d.
mass
e.
catabolism
 17.
The equation, G = H – TS, predicts that:
a.
as entropy increases, the amount of free energy decreases.
b.
as enthalpy increases, the amount of free energy increases.
c.
as enthalpy decreases, the amount of entropy also decreases.
d.
metabolism decreases proportionately to anabolism.
e.
metabolism increases proportionately to catabolism.
 18.
A reaction with a negative value of DG is referred to as an _________________ reaction.
a.
endergonic
b.
entropy
c.
exergonic
d.
enthalpy
e.
activation
 19.
Which of the following statements is true of spontaneous reactions?
a.
The amount of free energy after the reaction is less than before the reaction.
b.
The amount of disorder after the reaction is less than before the reaction.
c.
The amount of free energy after the reaction is more than before the reaction.
d.
The amount of disorder is the same before and after the reaction.
e.
The amount of enthalpy is more after the reaction than before the reaction.
 20.
An exergonic reaction is considered to be:
a.
spontaneous.
b.
potentially spontaneous.
c.
endergonic.
d.
non-spontaneous.
e.
energy requiring.
 21.
When the free energy of the reactants is greater than the free energy of the products, such a reaction is referred to as:
a.
an entropic reaction.
b.
an endergonic reaction.
c.
an exergonic reaction.
d.
an enthalpic reaction.
e.
an activation reaction.
Figure 06-01
Use the figure below to answer the corresponding questions.

nar001-1.jpg

 22.
Which of the following statements about Figure 06-01 is true?
a.
The reactants have more free energy than the products.
b.
The products have more free energy than the reactants.
c.
The figure represents a spontaneous reaction.
d.
The figure represents an endergonic reaction.
e.
B and D
 23.
Which of the following conclusions can be accurately derived from Figure 06-01?
a.
DS is positive.
b.
DH equals zero.
c.
DG is positive.
d.
DG is negative.
e.
DT is negative.
 24.
An endergonic reaction can proceed only if it absorbs:
a.
more free energy than is released by a coupled exergonic reaction.
b.
less free energy than was released by a coupled endergonic reaction.
c.
less free energy than is released by a coupled exergonic reaction.
d.
the same amount of free energy that is absorbed by the enzymatic breakdown of proteins.
e.
energy from ADP, forming ATP.
 25.
In a reaction in which the rate of the reverse reaction is equal to the rate of the forward reaction, a state of ____________ is attained.
a.
total entropy
b.
enthalpy
c.
thermodynamics
d.
dynamic equilibrium
e.
product reversibility
 26.
The ATP molecule is said to have a high group transfer potential because its terminal phosphate group and some of its energy is readily transferred to other:
a.
organisms.
b.
cells.
c.
organelles.
d.
molecules.
e.
sources of energy.
 27.
The reaction ATP + H2O ® ADP + Pi is classified as an:
a.
endergonic reaction.
b.
enthalpy reaction.
c.
entropy reaction.
d.
exergonic reaction.
e.
intermediate phosphorylation reaction.
 28.
The maintenance of a high ATP to ADP ratio within cells ensures that:
a.
the hydrolysis of ADP to ATP will be strongly exergonic.
b.
the hydrolysis of ATP to ADP will be strongly exergonic.
c.
the hydrolysis of ATP to ADP will be strongly endergonic.
d.
the hydrolysis of ADP to ATP will be an energy releasing reaction.
e.
the conversion of ADP to ATP will proceed spontaneously.
 29.

Consider the following two chemical equations:

A) glucose + fructose ® sucrose + H2O, DG = +27kJ/mole (or +6.5 kcal/mole)
B) glucose + fructose + ATP ® sucrose + ADP + Pi, DG = -5kJ/mole (or -1.2 kcal/mole)

The free energy change difference between the chemical equations (A) and (B) above is accomplished by:

a.
a decrease in activation energy.
b.
combining two endergonic reactions.
c.
combining an endergonic and an exergonic reaction.
d.
combining two exergonic reactions.
e.
measuring the reaction rate.
 30.
The transfer of electrons from one compound to another is equivalent to _______________ transfer.
a.
heat
b.
oxygen
c.
enzymatic
d.
phosphorus
e.
energy
 31.
____________ is a process where energy (as electrons) is released, whereas ____________ is a process where energy (as electrons) is accepted.
a.
Reduction; oxidation
b.
Enthalpy; entropy
c.
Entropy; enthalpy
d.
Oxidation; reduction
e.
Anabolism; catabolism
 32.
XH2 + NAD+ ® X + NADH + H+. In the preceding equation, NAD+ is said to be:
a.
an enzyme.
b.
storing two hydrogen atoms.
c.
reduced.
d.
oxidized.
e.
a catalyst.
 33.
Select the compound that contains the most energy:
a.
AMP
b.
ADP
c.
ATP
d.
P
e.
Cannot determine using the information provided.
 34.
Select the phosphorylation reaction:
a.
glucose + fructose ® sucrose + H2O
b.
glucose + ATP ® glucose-P + ADP
c.
glucose-P + fructose ® sucrose + Pi
d.
glucose + glucose ® maltose
e.
None of the reactions are phosphorylation reactions.
 35.
Select the hydrogen acceptor molecule that stores electrons in the process of photosynthesis:
a.
nicotinamide adenine dinucleotide (NAD+)
b.
nicotinamide adenine dinucleotide phosphate (NADP+)
c.
flavin adenine dinucleotide (FAD)
d.
adenine triphosphate (ATP)
e.
adenine diphosphate (ADP)
 36.
Select the reduced molecule:
a.
NAD+
b.
FAD
c.
NADH
d.
H-
e.
None of the molecules are reduced.
 37.
FAD and cytochromes are classified as:
a.
hydrogen or electron acceptors.
b.
phosphate oxidizers.
c.
phosphate reducers.
d.
proteins that donate hydrogens or electrons.
e.
redox intermediate catalysts.
 38.
Enzymes are important biological catalysts because they:
a.
supply the energy to initiate a biochemical reaction.
b.
increase the free energy of a biochemical reaction.
c.
lower the entropy of a biochemical reaction.
d.
decrease the enthalpy of a biochemical reaction.
e.
lower the activation energy of a biochemical reaction.
 39.
Because enzymes affect the speed of chemical reactions without being consumed, they are referred to as:
a.
hydrogen acceptors.
b.
activation energy.
c.
catalysts.
d.
cytochromes.
e.
transformation proteins.
Figure 06-02
Use the figure below to answer the corresponding questions.

nar002-1.jpg

 40.
In Figure 06-02 the line on the graph labeled B represents the:
a.
activation energy with an enzyme.
b.
activation energy without an enzyme.
c.
free energy of the reactants.
d.
change in entropy.
e.
change in enthalpy.
 41.
In Figure 06-02 the line on the graph labeled C represents the:
a.
activation energy with an enzyme.
b.
activation energy without an enzyme.
c.
change in free energy.
d.
change in entropy.
e.
change in enthalpy.
 42.
Parts of the enzyme molecule that interact with a substrate are called:
a.
cofactors.
b.
active sites.
c.
induced-fit models.
d.
orientation sites.
e.
reaction sites.
 43.
Hydrolases are one important class of enzyme that function to catalyze:
a.
splitting a molecule using water.
b.
conversions between isomers.
c.
reactions in which double bonds are formed.
d.
oxidation-reduction reactions.
e.
None of the above.
 44.
Which of the following does not represent a method by which cells regulate enzyme activity?
a.
controlling the intracellular concentration of the enzyme
b.
feedback inhibition of enzymes
c.
the binding of allosteric regulators to allosteric sites on the enzyme
d.
differential gene expression of the genes that produce enzymes
e.
heat denaturation of the enzyme
 45.
Competitive inhibitors inhibit biochemical reactions in such a way as to seemingly:
a.
increase the concentration of substrate.
b.
reduce the concentration of enzyme.
c.
increase the concentration of enzyme.
d.
reduce the concentration of substrate.
e.
denature the enzyme.
 46.
Penicillin is a drug that acts by:
a.
irreversibly inhibiting transpeptidase.
b.
reversibly inhibiting transpeptidase.
c.
competitively inhibiting transpeptidase.
d.
noncompetitively inhibiting transpeptidase.
e.
None of the above.
 47.
An allosteric enzyme:
a.
has an active site that binds to the substrate and an allosteric site that binds to the product.
b.
allows the movement of molecules and ions from one part of the cell to another.
c.
catalyzes both oxidation and reduction reactions.
d.
raises a reaction’s activation energy so that the rate of the reaction declines.
e.
allows a substance other than the substrate to bind to the enzyme, thereby activating or inactivating it.
 48.
If one continues to increase the temperature in an enzyme-catalyzed reaction, the rate of the reaction:
a.
does not change.
b.
increases and then levels off.
c.
decreases and then levels off.
d.
increases and then decreases rapidly.
e.
decreases and then increases rapidly.
 49.
Select the false statement regarding activation energy:
a.
Exergonic reactions have an energy of activation.
b.
Endergonic reactions have an energy of activation.
c.
Enzymes lower a reaction’s activation energy.
d.
Catalysts raise a reaction’s activation energy.
e.
All of the statements are true.
 50.
The substance on which an enzyme acts:
a.
substrate
b.
product
c.
ATP
d.
free energy
e.
None of the above.
 51.
Select the name of the concept of the binding of a substrate to the enzyme causing a change in the enzyme’s shape, facilitating an enzymes function.
a.
active site
b.
cofactor
c.
activation energy
d.
induced fit
e.
None of the above.
 52.
Select the enzyme that does not match the substrate or reaction:
a.
sucrase: splits sucrose into glucose and fructose.
b.
lysozyme: breaks down bacterial cell walls.
c.
pepsin: breaks peptide bonds.
d.
trypsin: breaks peptide bonds.
e.
All of the enzymes match the substrates or reactions.
 53.
The reaction rate an enzyme catalyzed chemical reaction would not likely be affected by:
a.
pH
b.
substrate concentration
c.
temperature
d.
Both A and B.
e.
A, B, and C.
 54.
An organic, nonpolypeptide compound that binds to the apoenzyme and serves as a cofactor:
a.
coenzyme
b.
catalyst
c.
substrate
d.
mineral
e.
pH
 55.
Cell respiration is most accurately described as a ______________ process.
a.
anabolic
b.
catabolic
c.
metabolic
d.
endergonic
e.
fermentative
 56.
Select the anaerobic pathway:
a.
aerobic respiration
b.
citric acid cycle
c.
electron transport chain
d.
fermentation
e.
None of the choices are anaerobic.
 57.
The transfer of electrons from glucose to oxygen during aerobic respiration takes place in a stepwise fashion through a number of intermediates rather than by direct transfer. This is because:
a.
it is chemically impossible to transfer electrons directly from glucose to oxygen.
b.
the chemical intermediates donate some of their electrons in order to increase the electron pool.
c.
the energy of the electrons can be used to make ADP.
d.
the energy of the electrons can be used to make ATP.
e.
None of the above.
 58.
The splitting of molecules into smaller components is referred to as:
a.
anabolism.
b.
metabolism.
c.
catabolism.
d.
redox.
e.
photosynthesis.
 59.
Anabolic reactions:
a.
are generally endergonic.
b.
usually require ATP.
c.
are part of metabolism.
d.
may produce polysaccarides from monosaccharides.
e.
All of the above.
 60.
Aerobic respiration is classified as:
a.
a synthesis reaction.
b.
a hydrolysis reaction.
c.
a redox process.
d.
a polymerization reaction.
e.
an anabolic process.
 61.
Aerobic respiration, anaerobic respiration, and fermentation:
a.
are endergonic pathways.
b.
release free energy.
c.
require oxygen.
d.
are also known as organismic respiration.
e.
are anabolic pathways.
 62.
During chemiosmosis, ____________ are transferred from NADH and FADH2 to electron acceptor molecules, and the energy released is used to create a(an) ____________ gradient across the inner mitochondrial membrane.
a.
protons; electron
b.
electrons; proton
c.
ATP molecules; ADP molecule
d.
ADP molecules; ATP molecule
e.
water molecules; oxygen
 63.
The overall reaction for the aerobic respiration of glucose is summarized as:
a.
C6H12O6 + 6 O2 + 6 H2O ® 6 CO2 + 12 H2O + Energy.
b.
C4H12O4 + 12 H2O + 6 CO2 ® 6 O2 + ATP + Energy.
c.
C4H12O4 + 6 O2 + 6 H2O ® 6 CO2 + ATP + Energy.
d.
C4H12O2 + 6 O2 + ATP ® 6 CO2 + 12 H2O + Energy.
e.
C6H12O6 + 6 H2O ® 6 CO2 + 12 H2 + Energy.
 64.
In aerobic respiration, glucose is completely:
a.
reduced to ATP.
b.
reduced to energy.
c.
oxidized to water.
d.
oxidized to carbon dioxide.
e.
oxidized and reduced simultaneously.
 65.
Which of the following is not one of the stages of the aerobic respiration of glucose?
a.
glycolysis
b.
formation of acetyl CoA
c.
hydrolysis
d.
citric acid cycle
e.
electron transport
 66.
Which process does not match the products?
a.
electron transport and chemiosmosis—ATP, H2O, NAD+, FAD
b.
citric acid cycle—CO2, NADH, FADH2, ATP
c.
formation of acetyl CoA—Acetyl CoA, CO2, NADH
d.
glycolysis—pyruvate, ATP, NADH
e.
All of the processes match the products.
 67.
Which process does not match the starting materials?
a.
electron transport and chemiosmosis—NADH, FADH2, O2, ADP, Pi
b.
glycolysis—glucose, ATP, NAD+, ADP, Pi
c.
citric acid cycle—acetyl CoA, H2O, NAD+, FAD, ADP, Pi
d.
formation of acetyl CoA—citric acid, CO2, NADH
e.
All of the processes match the starting materials.
 68.
Which process does not match the location in skeletal muscle?
a.
glycolysis—mitochondrian
b.
formation of acetyl coenzyme A—mitochondrian
c.
citric acid cycle—mitochondrian
d.
electron transport and chemiosmosis—mitochondrian
e.
All of the processes are matched to the correct location.
 69.
Decarboxylations:
a.
occur as part of the citric acid cycle.
b.
produce CO2 that is then exhaled via breathing.
c.
involve the removal of a carboxyl group (-COOH) from a substrate.
d.
are one type of general reaction that occurs during aerobic respiration.
e.
All of the above.
 70.
In aerobic respiration, the electrons associated with the hydrogen atoms in glucose are transferred to:
a.
carbon in a series of steps.
b.
oxygen in a series of steps.
c.
NADH in a series of steps.
d.
the mitochondrial membranes.
e.
hydrogen ions.
 71.
In eukaryotes, glycolysis occurs in the:
a.
mitochondrial inner membrane.
b.
lysosomes.
c.
Golgi complex.
d.
cytosol.
e.
mitochondrial matrix.
 72.
In glycolysis, a six-carbon glucose molecule is converted to two three-carbon molecules of:
a.
pyruvate.
b.
acetate.
c.
coenzyme A.
d.
oxaloacetate.
e.
citrate.
 73.
Substrate-level phosphorylation involves the transfer of a phosphate group from:
a.
ATP.
b.
ADP.
c.
NADH.
d.
1,3-bisphosphoglycerate.
e.
glucose.
 74.
In glycolysis, fructose-1, 6-bisphosphate splits, forming two molecules of:
a.
ADP.
b.
citric acid.
c.
G3P.
d.
glucose.
e.
acetyl CoA.
 75.
Glycolysis yields a net energy profit of _______ ATP molecules per molecule of glucose.
a.
0
b.
1
c.
2
d.
4
e.
6
 76.
The chemical reaction illustrated in the figure is:

mc076-1.jpg

a.
the first step in the citric acid cycle.
b.
the energy producing step of glycolysis.
c.
fermentation.
d.
part of the electron transport chain.
e.
None of the above.
 77.
In glycolysis, glucose receives two phosphate groups from ____________, thus forming fructose-1, 6-bisphosphate.
a.
ADP
b.
ATP
c.
a bisphosphate group
d.
fructose-1, 6-bisphosphate
e.
G3P
 78.
NADH and FADH2 are the products of:
a.
decarboxylation reactions.
b.
reduction reactions.
c.
glycolysis.
d.
formation of acetyl coenzyme A.
e.
chemiosmosis.
 79.
NADH is formed when NAD+ accepts:
a.
a proton.
b.
a hydrogen atom.
c.
a pair of protons and an electron.
d.
a proton and a pair of electrons.
e.
two hydrogen atoms.
 80.
In chemiosmosis, ATP is produced as hydrogen ions (protons) pass through:
a.
the outer mitochondrial membrane.
b.
ATP synthase.
c.
ATP dehydrogenase.
d.
ATP decarboxylase.
e.
a series of electron carriers.
 81.
Oxidative decarboxylation of two pyruvates yields:
a.
two glucose molecules.
b.
two ATP + four CO2 + two NADH.
c.
two G3P.
d.
two acetyl CoA + two CO2 + 2 NADH.
e.
one fructose-1, 6-bisphosphate.
 82.
Considering only glycolysis and the conversion of pyruvate molecules to acetyl CoA molecules, how many NADH molecules will be produced from one glucose molecule?
a.
one
b.
two
c.
three
d.
four
e.
five
 83.
During the citric acid cycle, each acetyl group entering the cycle yields:
a.
1 ATP, 2 NADH, and 3 FADH2.
b.
1 ATP, 3 NADH, and 1 FADH2.
c.
3 ATP, 2 NADH, and 1 FADH2.
d.
4 ATP, 2 NADH, and 1 FADH2.
e.
1 ATP, 2 NADH, and 4 FADH2.
 84.
One product of the initial (first) reaction of the citric acid cycle is:
a.
ATP.
b.
NADH.
c.
citrate.
d.
oxaloacetate.
e.
acetyl-CoA.
 85.
In the citric acid cycle, two acetyl CoA molecules are metabolized to:
a.
2 CO2 + 2 ATPs + 2 NADH + 2 FADH.
b.
4 CO2 + 6 NADH + 2 FADH2 + 2 ATP.
c.
fructose-1, 6-bisphosphate.
d.
glucose + 2 CO2 + 2 NADH + 2 FADH2 + 2 ATPs.
e.
2 G3P.
 86.
Which of the following steps in the Kreb’s cycle directly produces a molecule of ATP (or GTP)?
a.
citrate ® isocitrate
b.
isocitrate ®·-ketoglutarate
c.
succinyl CoA ® succinate
d.
succinate ® fumarate
e.
malate ® oxaloacetate
 87.
A glucose molecule that is metabolized via aerobic respiration has been completely broken down and released as CO2 by the end of:
a.
fermentation.
b.
the electron transport chain.
c.
glycolysis.
d.
ATP synthesis in the mitochondria.
e.
the citric acid cycle.
 88.
Which of the following statements about the electron transport chain is true?
a.
Protons are pumped out of the mitochondria by the complexes of the electron transport chain.
b.
The proton gradient established during electron transport is a form of potential energy.
c.
The electron transport chain can be found in the mitochondria of aerobic bacteria and other cells.
d.
The movement of protons down a concentration gradient is an endergonic process.
e.
ATP synthesis associated with the electron transport chain is an example of substrate level phosphorylation.
 89.
When hydrogen ions (protons) are pumped across the inner mitochondrial membrane, they form a proton gradient. ATP is then formed by a process known as:
a.
glycolysis.
b.
the citric acid cycle.
c.
chemiosmosis.
d.
pyruvate synthesis.
e.
substrate-level phosphorylation.
 90.
Chemiosmosis allows exergonic redox processes to drive the endergonic reaction in which:
a.
ADP is produced by dephosphorylation of ATP.
b.
glucose is produced from phosphorylation of ADP.
c.
G3P is produced from phosphorylation of ADP.
d.
ATP is produced by phosphorylation of ADP.
e.
pyruvate is converted to acetyl CoA.
 91.
Coenzyme Q:
a.
transfers electrons.
b.
oxidizes glucose.
c.
is the ultimate source of energy in the citric acid cycle.
d.
transfers phosphate to ATP.
e.
reduces glucose.
 92.
The role of the oxygen molecules required for aerobic respiration is:
a.
to accept the low energy electrons at the end of the electron transport chain.
b.
to form ATP.
c.
to produce CO2.
d.
to store high energy electrons to pass to complex I of the electron transport chain.
e.
to accept electrons directly from either NADH or FAHD2.
 93.
During aerobic respiration, oxygen is:
a.
formed.
b.
reduced.
c.
oxidized.
d.
catabolized.
e.
decarboxylated.
 94.
In the skeletal muscle cells of vertebrates, as many as ____________ molecules of ATP are produced from one molecule of glucose. This is less than might be expected, because electrons from NADH produced during glycolysis must be shuttled through the ____________ mitochondrial membrane at a cost.
a.
2; outer
b.
2; inner
c.
38; inner
d.
6; outer
e.
36; inner
 95.
Organismal body heat is a:
a.
byproduct of endergonic reactions.
b.
product of glucose synthesis.
c.
byproduct of exergonic reactions.
d.
product of anabolism.
e.
product of ATP synthesis.
 96.
Select the processes that are matched with the incorrect amount of ATP produced by that process per glucose molecule.
a.
glycolysis—2 ATP (net)
b.
citric acid cycle—4 ATP
c.
electron transport chain—32 ATP
d.
alcohol fermentation—2 ATP
e.
lactate fermentation—2 ATP
 97.
Select the incorrect match between the molecule and the amount of ATP produced if that particular molecule is completely oxidized in aerobic respiration:
a.
FAD—2 ATP
b.
NAD—2 ATP
c.
glucose—36 to 38 ATP
d.
pyruvic acid—34 to 36 ATP
e.
All of the answer choices are correctly matched.
 98.
A drowning death would be most directly due to:
a.
The unavailability of glucose to feed into glycolysis.
b.
The accumulation of lactate in the muscle tissue due to anaerobic respiration.
c.
The breakdown of pyruvate into ethyl alcohol.
d.
The lack of oxygen to accept hydrogen.
e.
There is not sufficient information to determine which answer is correct.
 99.
Select the statement that does not support the endosymbiosis theory:
a.
Bacteria, mitochondria, and chloroplasts have circular DNA.
b.
To produce ATP bacteria, cell membranes utilize an electron transport chain similar to mitochondrial membranes.
c.
Mitochondria and chloroplasts reproduce independently of the eukaryotic cells that house them.
d.
Bacteria, mitochondria, and chloroplasts all use glucose for fuel.
e.
All of the statements support endosymbiosis.
 100.
Peter Mitchell demonstrated ATP production by aerobic bacteria by placing the bacteria in:
a.
an acidic environment.
b.
a basic environment.
c.
an aqueous environment.
d.
a buffered environment.
e.
None of the answer choices are correct.
 101.
One gram of ____________ contains more than twice the amount of energy of a gram of glucose.
a.
amino acids
b.
lipids
c.
ATP
d.
protein
e.
starch
 102.
Which of the following molecules can be used as a substrate for cellular respiration?
a.
glucose
b.
fats
c.
proteins
d.
polysaccharides
e.
All of the above.
 103.
Deamination of amino acids in mammals yields amino groups that are converted to ____________, which is(are) excreted, and ____________, which is(are) converted to one of the reactants of glycolysis or the citric acid cycle.
a.
urea; carbon chains
b.
amino acids; ATP
c.
amino groups; ADP
d.
carbon chains; amino acids
e.
amines; ATP
 104.
Saturated fatty acids store more energy than unsaturated fatty acids because saturated fatty acids:
a.
are more highly reduced.
b.
are deaminated.
c.
lack phosphate.
d.
contain more ester linkages.
e.
contain more ATP.
 105.
Select the molecule that contains the most stored chemical energy:
a.
ethyl alcohol.
b.
water.
c.
carbon dioxide.
d.
lactate.
e.
oxygen.
 106.
Which of the following processes or molecules concerning anaerobic respiration is not correctly matched?
a.
terminal electron acceptor-inorganic substances such as O2.
b.
immediate fate of electrons in NADH-transferred to electron transport chain.
c.
reduced product(s) formed-relatively reduced inorganic substances.
d.
mechanism of ATP synthesis-oxidative phosphorylation/chemiosmosis and substrate level phosphorylation.
e.
All of the choices are correct.
 107.
Select the molecule that contains the least stored chemical energy:
a.
ethyl alcohol.
b.
pyruvate.
c.
glucose.
d.
lactate.
e.
oxygen.
 108.
One important regulation point in the aerobic respiration of mammals occurs in glycolysis at the site of the enzyme phosphofructokinase, which is:
a.
inhibited by high levels of ATP.
b.
inhibited by low levels of ATP.
c.
inhibited by high levels of AMP.
d.
activated by the presence of O2.
e.
activated by the introduction of glucose.
 109.
The production of alcohol or lactate from pyruvate during ____________ occurs as a means of regenerating ____________ from ____________.
a.
aerobic respiration; NAD+; NADH
b.
fermentation; NAD+; NADH
c.
fermentation; NADH; NAD+
d.
fermentation; ADP; ATP
e.
aerobic respiration; ATP; ADP
 110.
The ability of some bacteria to produce lactate is exploited by humans to make:
a.
cheese and ethyl alcohol.
b.
insulin and antibodies.
c.
yogurt and sauerkraut.
d.
ethyl alcohol and carbonic acid.
e.
carbon dioxide and water.
 111.
Which of the following statements is not correct about lactic acid fermentation?
a.
It is inefficient compared to aerobic respiration.
b.
It uses glucose as a substrate.
c.
It produces two ATP molecules for every glucose molecule.
d.
Oxygen is the final electron acceptor of this pathway.
e.
Glycolysis is the only energy-yielding step of this pathway.
 112.
During fermentation, the immediate fate of the electrons in NADH is that they:
a.
are transferred to the electron transport chain.
b.
are transferred to an organic molecule.
c.
are transferred to O2.
d.
are used to make CO2.
e.
are used to form H2O.
 113.
Which of the following metabolic pathways is common to all cells?
a.
photosynthesis
b.
electron transport chain
c.
citric acid cycle
d.
glycolysis
e.
None of the above.
 114.
The process by which light energy is converted into the stored chemical energy of organic molecules is:
a.
photosynthesis.
b.
respiration.
c.
diffusion.
d.
fermentation.
e.
None of the above.
 115.
Which term is not correctly matched with the appropriate energy source or carbon source?
a.
heterotroph—organic energy sources
b.
chemotroph—chemical energy sources
c.
phototroph—light energy sources
d.
autotroph—carbon fixation.
e.
All of the choices are correct.
 116.
All organisms are classified into two general trophic groups. These two groups are:
a.
organic and inorganic.
b.
consumers and decomposers.
c.
autotrophs and producers.
d.
autotrophs and heterotrophs.
e.
anaerobic autotrophs and aerobic autotrophs.
 117.
Animals, fungi, and many bacteria that use organic molecules as a source of both energy and carbon are:
a.
photoautotrophs.
b.
catabolic autotrophs.
c.
chemoheterotrophs.
d.
photoheterotrophs.
e.
chemoautotrophs.
 118.
Plants, algae, and certain bacteria are:
a.
inorganic synthesizers.
b.
consumers.
c.
chemosynthetic.
d.
independent trophs.
e.
producers.
 119.
What is the correct sequence of wavelengths (beginning with the shortest)?
a.
gamma rays, UV, x-rays, infrared, visible light, TV and radio waves, and microwaves
b.
TV and radio waves, microwaves, visible light, UV, infrared, x-rays, and gamma rays
c.
microwaves, gamma rays, UV, visible light, infrared, TV, radio waves, and x-rays
d.
gamma rays, x-rays, UV, visible light, infrared, microwaves, TV and radio waves
e.
gamma rays, x-rays, UV, infrared, visible light, microwaves, and TV and radio waves
 120.
Light behaves not only as waves, but also as particles, which are referred to as:
a.
electrons.
b.
protons.
c.
photons.
d.
radiation.
e.
neutrons.
 121.
An electron absorbs a photon of light energy and becomes energized; the electron shifts from a ____________ atomic orbital to a _____________ atomic orbital.
a.
high energy; low energy
b.
fluorescing; ground state
c.
ground state; low energy
d.
low energy; high energy
e.
None of the answer choices are correct.
Figure 08-01
Use the figure below to answer the corresponding questions.

nar003-1.jpg

 122.
Chloroplasts will be found in the greatest density in the area of Figure 08-01 labeled:
a.
1.
b.
3.
c.
4.
d.
6.
e.
7.
 123.
The primary function of the leaf structure labeled 5 in Figure 08-01 is:
a.
food storage.
b.
photosynthesis.
c.
water transportation.
d.
gas exchange.
e.
nutrient absorption.
 124.
The overall reactions of photosynthesis are best summarized as:
a.
12 CO2 + 6 H2O ® C6H12O6 + 12 O2 + 6 H2O.
b.
C6H12O6 + 6 O2 + 6 H2O ® 6 CO2 + 12 H2O.
c.
6 CO2 + 12 H2O ® C6H12O6 + 6 O2 + 6 H2O.
d.
6 CO2 + 12 H2O ® C6H12O6 + 12 O2.
e.
6 H2CO3 + 6 H2O ® C6H12O6 + C6H12O6 + 6 H2O + 6 O2.
 125.
The ____________________ of a chlorophyll molecule is (are) responsible for absorbing light.
a.
carbon atoms
b.
porphyrin ring
c.
methyl group
d.
magnesium ion
e.
long hydrophobic tail
 126.
Chlorophyll consists of a porphyrin ring that contains a single atom of:
a.
manganese.
b.
magnesium.
c.
phosphorus.
d.
nitrogen.
e.
iron.
 127.
Chlorophyll molecules are attached to thylakoid membranes by:
a.
a long hydrophobic tail.
b.
the porphyrin ring.
c.
the methyl group.
d.
a magnesium ion.
e.
a hydroxide group.
 128.
Chlorophyll and accessory photosynthetic pigments are associated with the:
a.
stroma.
b.
thylakoid membranes.
c.
mesophyll membranes.
d.
light reaction centers of the stroma lamellae.
e.
stroma grana.
 129.
The action spectrum of photosynthesis best matches the absorption spectrum of:
a.
NADPH.
b.
carotenoids.
c.
chlorophyll.
d.
xanthophylls.
e.
anthocyanin.
 130.
Red and blue light support the highest rates of photosynthesis because:
a.
these are the only wavelengths reaching Earth from the sun.
b.
these are the only wavelengths that carotenoids cannot absorb.
c.
these wavelengths have the highest energy in the visible spectrum.
d.
chlorophyll absorbs these wavelengths more than other wavelengths.
e.
these wavelengths activate the ATP sythetase enzyme.
 131.
Substances that absorb visible light:
a.
ATP.
b.
NADP.
c.
RuBP.
d.
pigment.
e.
photon.
 132.
Chlorophyll absorbs primarily _____ and _____ regions of the visible spectrum.
a.
blue; red
b.
green; yellow
c.
red; green
d.
red; yellow
e.
blue; yellow
 133.
The most important photosynthetic pigment(s) is(are):
a.
carotenoids.
b.
xanthophylls.
c.
chlorophyll a.
d.
chlorophyll b.
e.
All are equally important for photosynthesis.
 134.
Accessory photosynthetic pigment that expands the spectrum of light that provides energy for photosynthesis:
a.
carotenoids.
b.
chlorophyll a.
c.
chlorophyll b.
d.
Both A and B.
e.
Both A and C.
 135.
Engelmann concluded that chlorophyll in the chloroplasts is responsible for photosynthesis based on the following results:
a.
Spirogyra cells each contain a long, spiral-shaped, emerald-green chloroplast embedded in the cytoplasm.
b.
The action spectrum of photosynthesis matched the maximum production of oxygen by Spirogyra, observed by the greatest accumulation of bacteria in the blue and red regions of the spectrum.
c.
Bacteria exposed to the action spectrum for photosynthesis showed no preference to any particular color of light.
d.
Accessory pigments transfer some of the energy of excitation produced by green light to chlorophyll molecules.
e.
None of the answer choices are correct.
Figure 08-02
Use the figure below to answer the corresponding questions.

nar004-1.jpg

 136.
According to the graph in Figure 08-02, chlorophyll absorbs light most strongly in the:
a.
red and blue wavelengths.
b.
blue and green wavelengths.
c.
green and yellow wavelengths.
d.
UV and red wavelengths.
e.
UV and infrared wavelengths.
 137.
The graph in Figure 08-02 represents the:
a.
electromagnetic spectrum.
b.
action spectrum of photosynthesis.
c.
absorption spectra for chlorophylls a and b.
d.
Z scheme for photosynthesis.
e.
None of the above.
 138.
During the reactions of photosynthesis, ____________ is reduced and ____________ is oxidized.
a.
O2; C6H12O6
b.
CO2; C6H12O6
c.
H2O; C6H12O6
d.
O2; H2O
e.
CO2; H2O
 139.
In the overall reactions of photosynthesis, it appears that hydrogen atoms are transferred from water to carbon dioxide to form a carbohydrate. This type of reaction is classified as:
a.
a redox reaction.
b.
an anaerobic reaction.
c.
a catabolic reaction.
d.
an oxidation reaction.
e.
a hydrolytic reaction.
 140.
A group of thylakoid discs make up:
a.
the stroma.
b.
a granum.
c.
a chloroplast.
d.
a vacuole.
e.
the mesophyll layer.
 141.
In a chloroplast, there is an outer and an inner membrane. The inner membrane encloses a fluid filled region called the;
a.
grana.
b.
stroma.
c.
thylakoid.
d.
pigment.
e.
electron acceptor.
 142.
Thylakoid sacs are sometimes arranged in stacks called:
a.
grana.
b.
stroma.
c.
lumen.
d.
pigment.
e.
electron acceptor.
 143.
Thylakoid membranes are involved in __________ synthesis.
a.
glucose
b.
NADP
c.
ATP
d.
RuBP
e.
PEP
 144.
Which of the following is not associated with the thylakoid membranes?
a.
photosystems I and II
b.
the Calvin-Bensen cycle
c.
electron transport systems
d.
ATP synthetase
e.
antenna complex
 145.
The reactions of photosynthesis are divided into two categories:
a.
light-independent reactions and carbon fixation reactions.
b.
carbon fixation reactions and oxygen fixation reactions.
c.
light-dependent reactions and carbon fixation reactions.
d.
light-dependent reactions and citric acid cycle.
e.
chemiosmosis and photochemical reactions.
 146.
During the light-dependent reactions of photosynthesis, a constant supply of electrons is provided by:
a.
water.
b.
oxygen.
c.
the sun.
d.
chlorophyll.
e.
carotenoids.
 147.
ATP is formed when __________________ the thylakoid lumen.
a.
hydrogen ions enter
b.
hydrogen ions leave
c.
electrons enter
d.
electrons leave
e.
water is split in
 148.
The reactions that occur in the thylakoid membranes are:
a.
the energy-releasing reactions.
b.
the photorespiration reactions.
c.
the sugar-producing reactions.
d.
the carbon fixation reactions.
e.
the light-dependent reactions.
 149.
The electron transport chain of photosynthesis is located in:
a.
the cristae.
b.
the mitochondria.
c.
the outer chloroplast membrane.
d.
the chloroplast stroma.
e.
the thylakoid membrane.
Figure 08-03
Use the figure below to answer the corresponding questions.

nar005-1.jpg

 150.
Carbon is fixed in which part of the diagram in Figure 08-03?
a.
A
b.
G
c.
4
d.
2
e.
1
 151.
Where in Figure 08-03 is NADPH formed?
a.
F
b.
4
c.
3
d.
2
e.
B
 152.
In photosynthesis, ATP and NADPH are produced during:
a.
the carbon fixation reactions.
b.
the light-dependent phase.
c.
the light-independent phase.
d.
glycolysis.
e.
photolysis.
 153.
12 H2O + 12 NADP+ + 18 ADP + Pi ® 6 O2 + 12 NADPH + 18 ATP summarizes the ____________ reactions of photosynthesis.
a.
carbon fixation
b.
light-dependent
c.
light-independent
d.
CAM
e.
electron transport
 154.
Reaction center complexes of the light-dependent reactions contain ____________ and ____________, which receive energy from ____________.
a.
accessory pigments; chlorophyll; antenna complexes
b.
carotenoids; proteins; chlorophyll
c.
chlorophyll; antenna complexes; carotenoid
d.
proteins; antenna complexes; carotenoid
e.
chlorophyll; proteins; antenna complexes
 155.
How many electrons are needed to reduce one molecule of NADP+ to NADPH?
a.
1
b.
2
c.
3
d.
4
e.
5
 156.
Electrons that are excited to a higher energy level may be transferred to an electron acceptor or may return to a ground state. If the latter occurs, energy will be released in a process known as:
a.
photoelectron degradation.
b.
fluorescence.
c.
photoelectron hydrolysis.
d.
porphyrin.
e.
photoelectron deconfiguration.
 157.
The electrons lost by the P680 reactive center are replaced from:
a.
a water molecule.
b.
solar energy.
c.
ATP.
d.
NADP+.
e.
Photosystem II.
 158.
Chlorophyll:
a.
reflects red and blue light, and absorbs green light.
b.
transmits red and blue light, and absorbs green light.
c.
transmits red and blue light, and reflects green light.
d.
absorbs red and blue light, and reflects green light.
e.
absorbs red, blue, and green light.
 159.
The synthesis of ATP as a result of the light-dependent reactions of photosynthesis is an ____________ reaction that is coupled to the diffusion of ____________ down their concentration gradient.
a.
endergonic; protons
b.
energy-releasing; hydrogen ions
c.
exergonic; electrons
d.
energy-acquiring; electrons
e.
oxidation; water
 160.
The synthesis of ATP during photosynthesis or respiration occurs as a result of:
a.
phosphorylation of AMP.
b.
phosphorylation of ATP.
c.
phosphorylation of ADP.
d.
phosphorylation of G3P.
e.
oxidation of NADPH.
 161.
Ribulose phosphate is synthesized from:
a.
NADP+.
b.
pyruvate.
c.
G3P.
d.
RuBP.
e.
CO2.
 162.
The first step in the Calvin-Bensen cycle is the attachment of carbon dioxide to:
a.
Rubisco.
b.
glyceraldehyde 3-phosphate (G3P).
c.
phosphoglycerate
d.
RuBP (ribulose bisphosphate).
e.
None of the above.
 163.
Which of the following is not one of the intermediates or products of the carbon fixation reactions?
a.
NADPH
b.
phosphogylcerate (PGA)
c.
glyceraldehyde 3-phosphate
d.
glucose
e.
ribulose bisphosphate
 164.
The reactants of the light-dependent reactions are:
a.
H2O, ADP, and NADP+.
b.
CO2, ADP, and NADP+.
c.
H2O, ATP, and NADPH.
d.
CO2, ADP, and NADPH.
e.
H2O, CO2, and NADP+.
 165.
The reactants of the Calvin-Benson cycle are:
a.
H2O, ATP, and NADPH.
b.
CO2, ADP, and NADP+.
c.
CO2, ATP, and NADPH.
d.
H2O, ATP, and NADPH.
e.
CO2, H2O, and ATP.
 166.
Noncyclic electron transport needs a constant supply of electrons. These are obtained from:
a.
light.
b.
CO2.
c.
glucose.
d.
H2O.
e.
ATP.
 167.
Oxygen produced by photosynthesis comes directly from:
a.
light.
b.
CO2.
c.
glucose.
d.
H2O.
e.
ATP.
 168.
Which of the following is not common to both photosynthesis and aerobic respiration?
a.
ATP synthesis
b.
electron transport chain
c.
oxidation
d.
terminal electron acceptor
e.
None of the above, all are shared by both processes.
 169.
Which of the following is common to both photosynthesis and aerobic respiration?
a.
NADP+ and NADPH
b.
glycolysis
c.
chemiosmosis
d.
CO2 and O2 as end products
e.
thylakoids
 170.
In C4 plants, reactions that fix CO2 into four-carbon compounds occur in:
a.
guard cells.
b.
epidermal cells.
c.
bundle sheath cells.
d.
mesophyll cells.
e.
xylem cells.
 171.
The ______________ in leaves are typically closed at night and open during the daytime to allow for gas exchange.
a.
stomata
b.
epidermis
c.
spongy mesophyll
d.
grana
e.
cuticles
 172.
At night, CAM plants incorporate CO2 into ____________, which is stored in the ____________ of their cells.
a.
fructose; vacuoles
b.
acetyl CoA; mitochondria
c.
glucose; starch granules
d.
pyruvate; starch granules
e.
malate; vacuoles


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Annelids and Mollusks Study Guide

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Annelids and Mollusks Quiz

 

  

Multiple Choice
Identify the choice that best completes the statement or answers the question.
 
 1.
Which of the following is not a characteristic of at least some mollusks?
a.
a pseudocoelomate body plan
b.
bilateral symmetry
c.
a mantle
d.
an open circulatory system
 
 2.
Which of the following has a true coelom?
a.
flatworm
c.
rotifer
b.
roundworm
d.
mollusk
 
 3.
The evolution of a coelom was significant because
a.
more food could be stored within it.
b.
more wastes could be stored before excretion.
c.
it enabled development of more complex organ systems.
d.
it eliminated the need for a circulatory system.
 
 4.
mollusks : a mantle ::
a.
pseudocoelomate animals : true body cavities
b.
roundworms : single-opening digestive tract
c.
roundworms : coelom
d.
mollusks : a coelom
 
 5.
The cilia of a trochophore
a.
allow attachment to the ocean bottom.
b.
create currents for drawing in food.
c.
cover the entire larval body.
d.
are necessary for reproduction.
 
 6.
Trochophores
a.
occur in some mollusks’ life cycles.
b.
possess a belt of cilia around their bodies.
c.
occur in some annelids’ life cycles.
d.
All of the above
 
 7.
A characteristic structure found in many mollusks is the radula, which is involved in
a.
jet propulsion.
c.
eating.
b.
opening and closing of the shell.
d.
reproduction.
 
 8.
Which of the following is a correct pairing?
a.
phylum Platyhelminthes—hydra
b.
phylum Nematoda—planaria
c.
phylum Mollusca—octopus
d.
phylum Annelida—roundworm
 
 9.
All of the animal phyla that evolved after the mollusks
a.
are vertebrates.
c.
have a coelom.
b.
are prokaryotes.
d.
lack mesoderm.
 
 10.
All of the following are classes of the phylum Mollusca except
a.
bivalves.
c.
gastropods.
b.
cephalopods.
d.
pseudopods.
 
 11.
Which of the following mollusks have a closed circulatory system?
a.
snails
c.
slugs
b.
cephalopods
d.
gastropods
 
 12.

mc012-1.jpg

Refer to the illustration above. Which two organisms have mantles?

a.
1 and 3
c.
1 and 4
b.
2 and 3
d.
2 and 4
 
 13.
Jet propulsion is the usual means of locomotion in water for
a.
octopuses.
c.
squids.
b.
gastropods.
d.
bivalves.
 
   
 
nar001-1.jpg
 
 14.
Refer to the illustration above. This organism is a
a.
bivalve.
c.
trochophore.
b.
cephalopod.
d.
gastropod.
 
 15.
Refer to the illustration above. Movement of this organism is dependent upon structure
a.
1.
c.
3.
b.
2.
d.
None of the above
 
 16.
Shells of mollusks
a.
may consist of one or more pieces.
b.
provide protection.
c.
allow for the attachment of muscles.
d.
All of the above
 
 17.
Adductor muscles are responsible for
a.
moving the valves of bivalves.
b.
extending the feet of mollusks.
c.
pumping the hearts of mollusks.
d.
fanning the gills of aquatic mollusks.
 
 18.
In an open circulatory system,
a.
water is drawn into the mantle cavity to provide oxygen to body tissues.
b.
lungs branch into small tubules to provide oxygen to tissues.
c.
wastes are eliminated directly to the environment from the tissues.
d.
blood is released directly into spaces in the body tissues.
 
 19.
Twisting of the visceral mass of gastropods is called
a.
extension.
c.
torsion.
b.
inversion.
d.
conversion.
 
 20.
Among the various species of gastropods, respiration may take place
a.
with gills.
b.
through the skin.
c.
within the mantle cavity.
d.
All of the above
 
 21.
All of the cephalopods
a.
have eight tentacles.
b.
are predators.
c.
possess protective shells.
d.
are filter feeders.
 
 22.
Jet propulsion in a squid is the result of
a.
rapid closing of the organism’s shell.
b.
strong contractions of the tentacles.
c.
high-pressure discharge of fluid from the organism’s mouth.
d.
the pumping of water through the siphon.
 
 23.
The only cephalopod that has retained its external shell is the
a.
cuttlefish.
c.
octopus.
b.
chambered nautilus.
d.
squid.
 
 24.
Segmented worms are known as
a.
nematodes.
c.
planarians.
b.
annelids.
d.
arthropods.
 
 25.
Each segment of an annelid
a.
is capable of reproduction.
b.
has a well-developed brain that allows the annelid to learn simple tasks.
c.
has a pseudocoelom.
d.
may contain some organ systems that duplicate systems in other segments.
 
 26.
An example of segmentation in humans is the
a.
digestive system.
c.
vertebral column.
b.
skin.
d.
brain.
 
 27.
The most significant evolutionary advancement of annelids over mollusks is believed to be
a.
the ability to burrow.
c.
segmentation.
b.
the existence of a true coelom.
d.
cephalization.
 
 28.

mc028-1.jpg

Refer to the illustration above. Which two organisms have segmented body plans?

a.
3 and 4
c.
1 and 4
b.
2 and 4
d.
2 and 3
 
 29.
true coelom : mollusks and annelids ::
a.
tentacle : annelids
c.
valve : annelids
b.
siphon : annelids
d.
segmentation : annelids
 
 30.
Coordinated movements of an earthworm’s body segments are possible because of the
a.
development of an advanced brain.
b.
ventral nerve cord and ganglia that carry impulses to the muscles.
c.
presence of a true coelom in the earthworm’s body.
d.
existence of a complete digestive system.
 
 31.
earthworm movement : circular muscles and setae ::
a.
earthworm digestion : circular muscles and setae
b.
earthworm digestion : seminal receptacles
c.
earthworm reproduction : pharynx
d.
earthworm respiration : skin
 
 32.
Small tubules that collect wastes from the coelom of annelids and discharge the wastes from the body are called
a.
nephridia.
c.
bivalves.
b.
radulae.
d.
spicules.
 
 33.
The digestive tube of the earthworm is divided into three regions. Which of the following is not among these regions?
a.
crop
c.
radula
b.
intestine
d.
gizzard
 
 34.
Which of the following is (are) not part of an earthworm’s body?
a.
a heart
c.
nephridia
b.
gills
d.
a typhlosole
 
 35.
The clitellum of an earthworm
a.
contains the heart.
b.
is associated with reproduction.
c.
acts as a primitive respiratory system.
d.
is necessary for movement.
 
 36.
Earthworms are considered to be beneficial to the environment because
a.
they help release nutrients into the soil.
b.
they aerate the soil as they move through it.
c.
they break up the soil in which they live.
d.
All of the above
 
 37.
squid motion : siphon ::
a.
annelid motion : siphon
b.
annelid breathing : nephridia
c.
earthworm circulation : closed circulatory system
d.
annelid motion : tentacles
 
 38.
The body of the water leech
a.
has suckers on the front and back.
c.
is segmented.
b.
has no parapodia.
d.
All of the above
 
 39.
Leeches
a.
use suckers to aid in movement.
c.
are segmented.
b.
may be parasitic.
d.
All of the above
 
 40.
leeches : blood ::
a.
earthworms : small animals
b.
earthworms : blood
c.
marine polychaetes : small animals
d.
marine polychaetes : blood
 
  

Completion
Complete each statement.
 
   41.
The ____________________ larva is a characteristic of some mollusks and annelids.
 
 

 
   42.
Constant beating of ____________________ in the mantle cavity of a clam causes a continuous stream of water to pass over the gills.
 
 

 
   43.
A tonguelike scraping organ used by some mollusks in feeding is called the ____________________.
 
 

 
   44.
An organ known as the ____________________ is an abrasive, tonguelike structure found in some mollusks.
 
 

 
   45.
A snail can pull its head into its mantle cavity because the cavity has moved to the anterior of the animal during a twisting process called ____________________ that occurs during development.
 
 

 
   46.
Water is drawn into the body of a clam through tubes called ____________________.
 
 

 
   47.
A bivalve’s shells close when the pair of ____________________ contract.
 
 

 
   48.
Structures in earthworms that function as simple kidneys are called ____________________.
 
 

 
   49.
The only living cephalopod that has retained its external shell is the _________________________.
 
 

 
   50.
Snails and slugs belong to the class of mollusks called ____________________.
 
 

 
   51.
Earthworms belong to the phylum ____________________.
 
 

 
   52.

co052-1.jpg

Refer to the illustration above. Structure X is the ventral ____________________ cord.

 
 

 
   53.
In anterior segments of annelids, several ganglia are fused to form the ____________________, which is the brain of these organisms.
 
 

 
   54.
An earthworm’s ____________________ produces a tube made of mucus and chitin that contains the eggs and sperm and allows development of an earthworm’s offspring.
 
 

 
   55.
Bristles that exist along the sides of an annelid are called ____________________.
 
 

 
   56.
Some leeches are ____________________; they feed on the blood of other animals.
 
 

 
   57.
The ____________________ are annelids that have many setae and parapodia, generally live in marine environments, and have antennae.
 
 

 

 

 
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Introduction, Chemistry, Water

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Introduction, Chemistry, Water
 

Multiple Choice
Identify the choice that best completes the statement or answers the question.
 1.
What is a localized group of organisms that belong to the same species?
a.
biosystem
b.
community
c.
population
d.
ecosystem
e.
organ system
 2.
Plants convert the energy of sunlight into
a.
the energy of motion.
b.
carbon dioxide and water.
c.
the potential energy of chemical bonds.
d.
minerals.
e.
kinetic energy.
 3.
As a result of photosynthesis, plants release ____ into the atmosphere.
a.
methane
b.
carbon dioxide
c.
water
d.
minerals
e.
oxygen
 4.
Which of the following is the main source of energy for producers such as plants and other photosynthetic organisms?
a.
sunlight or solar energy
b.
carbon dioxide or kinetic energy
c.
heat or thermal energy
d.
chemicals or chemical energy
e.
both B and D
 5.
The dynamics of any ecosystem include the following major processes:
a.
the flow of energy from sunlight to producers
b.
the flow of energy from sunlight to producers and then to consumers
c.
the recycling of chemical nutrients
d.
the flow of energy to producers and the recycling of nutrients
e.
the flow of energy from sunlight to producers and then to consumers, and the recycling of chemical nutrients
 6.
What are the basic “building blocks” of deoxyribonucleic acid (DNA)?
a.
100,000 different kinds of proteins
b.
26 different kinds of chromosomes
c.
20 different kinds of amino acids
d.
4 different kinds of nucleotides
e.
3 different kinds of genomes
 7.
Which of the following is reflective of the phrase “the whole is greater than the sum of its parts”?
a.
high-throughput technology
b.
emergent properties
c.
natural selection
d.
reductionism
e.
feedback regulations
 8.
Prokaryotic and eukaryotic cells generally have which of the following features in common?
a.
a membrane-bounded nucleus
b.
a cell wall made of cellulose
c.
ribosomes
d.
flagella or cilia that contain microtubules
e.
linear chromosomes made of DNA and protein
 9.
Which of the following are characteristics shared by members of both domain Bacteria and domain Archaea?
a.
cytosol
b.
nucleus
c.
DNA
d.
A and C only
e.
A, B, and C
 10.
A water sample from a hot thermal vent contained a single-celled organism that lacked a nucleus. What is its most likely classification?
a.
domain Eukarya
b.
domain Archaea
c.
kingdom Animalia
d.
kingdom Protista
e.
kingdom Fungi
 11.
In a hypothetical world, every 50 years people over 6 feet tall are eliminated from the population. Based on your knowledge of natural selection, you would predict that the average height of the human population will
a.
remain unchanged.
b.
gradually decline.
c.
rapidly decline.
d.
gradually increase.
e.
rapidly increase.
 12.
The method of scientific inquiry that describes natural structures and processes as accurately as possible through careful observation and the analysis of data is known as
a.
hypothesis-based science.
b.
discovery science.
c.
experimental science.
d.
quantitative science.
e.
qualitative science.
 13.
What is a hypothesis?
a.
the same thing as an unproven theory
b.
a tentative explanation that can be tested and is falsifiable
c.
a verifiable observation sensed directly, or sensed indirectly with the aid of scientific instrumentation
d.
a fact based on qualitative data that is testable
e.
a fact based on quantitative data that is falsifiable
 14.
The statement “If you show your dog affection, then your dog will seek your company” is an example of
a.
a statement that can be tested.
b.
a statement derived from a hypothesis.
c.
a prediction.
d.
deductive reasoning.
e.
all of the above
 15.
Trace elements are those required by an organism in only minute quantities. Which of the following is a trace element that is required by humans and other vertebrates?
a.
nitrogen
b.
calcium
c.
iodine
d.
sodium
e.
phosphorus
 16.
Which of the following statements is false?
a.
Atoms of the various elements differ in their number of subatomic particles.
b.
All atoms of a particular element have the same number of protons in their nuclei.
c.
The neutrons and protons present in the nucleus of an atom are almost identical in mass; each has a mass of about 1 dalton.
d.
An atom is the smallest unit of an element that still retains the properties of the element.
e.
Protons and electrons are electrically charged particles. Protons have one unit of negative charge, and electrons have one unit of positive charge.
 17.
Each element is unique and different from other elements because of the number of protons in the nuclei of its atoms. Which of the following indicates the number of protons in an atom’s nucleus?
a.
atomic mass
b.
atomic weight
c.
atomic number
d.
mass weight
e.
mass number
 18.
The mass number of an element can be easily approximated by adding together the number of ____ in an atom of that element.
a.
protons and neutrons
b.
energy levels
c.
protons and electrons
d.
neutrons and electrons
e.
isotopes
 19.
The nucleus of a nitrogen atom contains 7 neutrons and 7 protons. Which of the following is a correct statement concerning nitrogen?
a.
The nitrogen atom has a mass number of approximately 7 daltons and an atomic mass of 14.
b.
The nitrogen atom has a mass number of approximately 14 daltons and an atomic mass of 7.
c.
The nitrogen atom has a mass number of 14 and an atomic mass of 7 grams.
d.
The nitrogen atom has a mass number of 7 grams and an atomic number of 14.
e.
The nitrogen atom has a mass number of 14 and an atomic mass of approximately 14 daltons.
 20.
An atom with an atomic number of 9 and a mass number of 19 would have an atomic mass of approximately
a.
9 daltons.
b.
9 grams.
c.
10 daltons.
d.
20 grams.
e.
19 daltons.
 21.
Two isotopes of the same element will have different numbers of
a.
protons.
b.
neutrons.
c.
electrons.
d.
protons and neutrons.
e.
neutrons and electrons.
 22.
Electrons exist only at fixed levels of potential energy. However, if an atom absorbs sufficient energy, a possible result is that
a.
an electron may move to an electron shell farther out from the nucleus.
b.
an electron may move to an electron shell closer to the nucleus.
c.
the atom may become a radioactive isotope.
d.
the atom would become a positively charged ion, or cation.
e.
the atom would become a negatively charged ion, or anion.
 23.
The atomic number of neon is 10. Therefore, which of the following is correct about an atom of neon?
a.
It has 8 electrons in its outer electron shell.
b.
It is inert.
c.
It has an atomic mass of 10 daltons.
d.
A and B only
e.
A, B, and C are correct.
 24.
From its atomic number of 15, it is possible to predict that the phosphorus atom has
a.
15 neutrons.
b.
15 protons.
c.
15 electrons.
d.
8 electrons in its outermost electron shell.
e.
B and C only
Use the figure below to answer the following questions.

nar001-1.jpg

 25.
Which drawing depicts the electron configuration of oxygen (O)?
a.
Drawing A
b.
Drawing B
c.
Drawing C
d.
Drawing D
e.
Drawing E
 26.
Which drawing depicts an atom that is inert or chemically unreactive?
a.
Drawing A
b.
Drawing B
c.
Drawing C
d.
Drawing D
e.
Drawing E
 27.
Which drawing depicts an atom with a valence of 2?
a.
Drawing A
b.
Drawing B
c.
Drawing C
d.
Drawing D
e.
Drawing E
Use the information extracted from the periodic table in the figure below to answer the following questions.

nar002-1.jpg

 28.
How many electrons does nitrogen have in its valence shell?
a.
2
b.
5
c.
7
d.
8
e.
14
 29.
How many neutrons are present in the nucleus of a phosphorus atom?
a.
8
b.
15
c.
16
d.
31
e.
46
 30.
How many electrons would be expected in the outermost electron shell of an atom with atomic number 12?
a.
1
b.
2
c.
4
d.
6
e.
8
 31.
What results from an unequal sharing of electrons between atoms?
a.
a nonpolar covalent bond
b.
a polar covalent bond
c.
an ionic bond
d.
a hydrogen bond
e.
a hydrophobic interaction
 32.
A covalent bond is likely to be polar when
a.
one of the atoms sharing electrons is much more electronegative than the other atom.
b.
the two atoms sharing electrons are equally electronegative.
c.
the two atoms sharing electrons are of the same element.
d.
it is between two atoms that are both very strong electron acceptors.
e.
the two atoms sharing electrons are different elements.
Use the figure below to answer the following questions. .

nar003-1.jpg

 33.
What results from the chemical reaction?
a.
a cation with a net charge of +1
b.
a cation with a net charge of -1
c.
an anion with a net charge of +1
d.
an anion with a net charge of -1
e.
A and D
 34.
What is the atomic number of the cation formed in the reaction?
a.
1
b.
8
c.
10
d.
11
e.
16
 35.
In ammonium chloride salt (NH4Cl) the anion is a single chloride ion, . What is the cation of NH4Cl?
a.
N, with a charge of +3
b.
H, with a charge of +1
c.
H2 with a charge of +4
d.
NH4 with a charge of +1
e.
NH4 with a charge of +4
 36.
Van der Waals interactions result when
a.
hybrid orbitals overlap.
b.
electrons are not symmetrically distributed in a molecule.
c.
molecules held by ionic bonds react with water.
d.
two polar covalent bonds react.
e.
a hydrogen atom loses an electron.
 37.
A van der Waals interaction is the weak attraction between
a.
the electrons of one molecule and the electrons of a nearby molecule.
b.
the nucleus of one molecule and the electrons of a nearby molecule.
c.
a polar molecule and a nearby nonpolar molecule.
d.
a polar molecule and a nearby molecule that is also polar.
e.
a nonpolar molecule and a nearby molecule that is also nonpolar.
 38.
Which of the following is not considered to be a weak molecular interaction?
a.
a covalent bond
b.
a van der Waals interaction
c.
an ionic bond in the presence of water
d.
a hydrogen bond
e.
A and B only
 39.
An example of a hydrogen bond is the bond between
a.
C and H in methane (CH4).
b.
the H of one water molecule and the O of another water molecule.
c.
Na+and Cl- in salt.
d.
the two hydrogen atoms in a molecule of hydrogen gas (H2).
e.
Mg+and Cl- in MgCl2.
 40.
Which of the following is a correct definition of a kilocalorie?
a.
the amount of heat required to raise the temperature of 1 g of water by 1°F
b.
the amount of heat required to raise the temperature of 1 g of water by 1°C
c.
the amount of heat required to raise the temperature of 1 kg of water by 1°F
d.
the amount of heat required to raise the temperature of 1 kg of water by 1°C
e.
the amount of heat required to raise the temperature of 1,000 g of water by 1°F
 41.
Desert rabbits are adapted to the warm climate because their large ears aid in the removal of heat due to the
a.
high surface tension of water.
b.
high heat of vaporization of water.
c.
high specific heat of water.
d.
buffering capacity of water.
e.
dissociation of water molecules.
 42.
Temperature usually increases when water condenses. Which behavior of water is most directly responsible for this phenomenon?
a.
the change in density when it condenses to form a liquid or solid
b.
reactions with other atmospheric compounds
c.
the release of heat by the formation of hydrogen bonds
d.
the release of heat by the breaking of hydrogen bonds
e.
the high surface tension of water
 43.
How many molecules of glucose (C6H2O6 molecular mass =180 daltons) would be present in one mole of glucose?
a.
24
b.
342
c.
23 1014
d.
180 1014
e.
6.02 1023

Use the figure below to answer the following questions:

nar004-1.jpg

 44.
How many grams of the molecule in the figure above would be required to make 2.5 L of a 1 M solution of the molecule?
(Carbon = 12, Oxygen = 16, Hydrogen = 1)
a.
29
b.
30
c.
60
d.
150
e.
342
 45.
Which of the following ionizes completely in solution and is considered to be a strong base?
a.
NaCl
b.
HCl
c.
NH3
d.
H2CO3
e.
NaOH
 46.
A given solution contains 0.0001(10-4) moles of hydrogen ions [H+] per liter. Which of the following best describes this solution?
a.
acidic: H+ acceptor
b.
basic: H+ acceptor
c.
acidic: H+ donor
d.
basic: H+ donor
e.
neutral
 47.
A solution contains 0.0000001(10-7) moles of hydroxide ions [OH-] per liter. Which of the following best describes this solution?
a.
acidic: H+ acceptor
b.
basic: H+ acceptor
c.
acidic: H+ donor
d.
basic: H+ donor
e.
neutral
 48.
Which of the following solutions has the greatest concentration of hydroxide ions [OH-]?
a.
lemon juice at pH 2
b.
vinegar at pH 3
c.
tomato juice at pH 4
d.
urine at pH 6
e.
seawater at pH 8
 49.
Which of the following statements is true about buffer solutions?
a.
They maintain a constant pH when bases are added to them but not when acids are added to them.
b.
They maintain a constant pH when acids are added to them but not when bases are added to them.
c.
They maintain a constant pH of exactly 7 in all living cells and biological fluids.
d.
They maintain a relatively constant pH.
e.
They are found only in living systems and biological fluids.
 50.

One of the buffers that contribute to pH stability in human blood is carbonic acid H2CO3. Carbonic acid is a weak acid that when placed in an aqueous solution dissociates into a bicarbonate ion (HCO3-) and a hydrogen ion (H+) Thus,

H2CO3 HCO3- + H+

If the pH of the blood increases, one would expect

a.
a decrease in the concentration of H2CO3 and an increase in the concentration of H2O.
b.
an increase in the concentration of H2CO3 and a decrease in the concentration of H2O.
c.
a decrease in the concentration of HCO3- and an increase in the concentration of H2O.
d.
an increase in the concentration of HCO3- and a decrease in the concentration of H2O.
e.
a decrease in the concentration of HCO3- and an increase in the concentration of both H2CO3and H2O.


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Introduction to Plants Study Guide

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Introduction to Plants Quiz

 

 

Modified True/False
Indicate whether the statement is true or false.  If false, change the identified word or phrase to make the statement true.
 1.
Plants are multicellular prokaryotes. _________________________


 2.
The plant life cycle includes a diploid gamete and a haploid spore. _________________________


 3.
Mosses are most often found in dry environments. _________________________


 4.
Mosses and liverworts lack a vascular system for transporting water and nutrients. _________________________


 5.
Water must be present for fertilization to take place in mosses. _________________________


 6.
In mosses and liverworts, eggs are formed through mitosis in the antheridia. _________________________


 7.
Gametophytes of conifers are physically much larger than their sporophytes. _________________________


 8.
One important difference between mosses and ferns is that mosses have a vascular system. _________________________


 9.
Shoots, stems, and roots characterize the bodies of vascular plant sporophytes. _________________________


 10.
Ferns are characterized by fronds and fiddleheads. _________________________


 11.
Haploid fern spores are produced by gametophytes. _________________________


 12.
In ferns, a large sporophyte with leaves called fronds alternates with a heart-shaped gametophyte. _________________________


 13.
Ferns need water to reproduce because their sperm must swim to eggs. _________________________


 14.
Both mosses and ferns require a thin film of water for gametes to meet. _________________________


 15.
In both mosses and ferns, eggs are formed through mitosis in the antheridia. _________________________


 16.
Gymnosperm seeds are enclosed in a fruit. _________________________


 17.
Gametophytes of seed plants are large and easily viewed with the unaided eye. _________________________


 18.
Sexual reproduction in seed plants involves the transfer of pollen from the male reproductive structures of a plant to the female reproductive structures. _________________________


 19.
Seed plants cannot reproduce without a film of water for transferring of gametes. _________________________


 20.
A seed is a structure that contains a plant embryo. _________________________


 21.
A plant embryo is a new sporophyte. _________________________


 22.
In flowering plants, the embryos of monocots have two cotyledons. _________________________


 23.
Pollen is produced in the tip of the stamen, a structure called the sepal. _________________________


 24.
The lower portion of the pistil produces pollen. _________________________


 25.
Gametophytes develop within flowers. _________________________


 26.
Pollen tubes grow through the style toward the ovule. _________________________


 27.
Many seeds have appendages that aid in dispersal. _________________________


 28.
Asexual reproduction produces new plants that are genetically different from the parent plant. _________________________


 29.
Vegetative reproduction does require a plant to have flowers. _________________________


 30.
In vegetative reproduction, new plants may be generated from stems or roots. _________________________


 

Multiple Choice
Identify the choice that best completes the statement or answers the question.
 31.
The ancestors of today’s land plants were probably
a.
brown algae.
c.
green algae.
b.
red algae.
d.
lichens.
 32.
Among the challenges that faced early land plants were
a.
eliminating excess water.
b.
obtaining sunlight for photosynthesis.
c.
absorbing minerals from the rocky surface.
d.
avoiding being eaten by grazing mammals.
 33.
The waxy protective covering of a land plant is called a
a.
cuticle.
c.
rhizome.
b.
capsule.
d.
stoma.
 34.
Some land plants developed an internal system of interconnected tubes and vessels called
a.
cuticles.
c.
a circulatory system.
b.
nonvascular canals.
d.
vascular tissue.
 35.
sporophytes : spores ::
a.
sporophytes : gametophytes
c.
gametes : gametophytes
b.
gametophytes : gametes
d.
sporophytes : gametes
 36.
The diploid form in a plant’s life cycle is called the
a.
sporophyte.
c.
parental generation.
b.
gametophyte.
d.
alternate generation.
 37.
The haploid form in a plant’s life cycle is called the
a.
sporophyte.
c.
parental generation.
b.
gametophyte.
d.
alternate generation.
 38.
A haploid stage following a diploid stage in a plant’s life cycle is called
a.
generational recycling.
c.
alternating forms.
b.
periodic gametogenesis.
d.
alternation of generations.
 39.
In plants, haploid gametes are produced as a result of
a.
fertilization.
c.
encapsulation.
b.
meiosis.
d.
mitosis.
 40.
sporophytes : meiosis ::
a.
sporophytes : spores
c.
gametophytes : gametes
b.
gametophytes : mitosis
d.
sporophytes : gametes
 41.
Mosses, hornworts, and liverworts all possess
a.
fibrous roots.
c.
tap roots.
b.
spore capsules.
d.
green leaves.
 42.
In nonvascular plants, structures in which spores are produced are known as
a.
meristems.
c.
cones.
b.
pollen grains.
d.
sporangia.
 43.
Which of the following statements about moss spores is not true?
a.
They are produced by the sporophyte.
b.
They are dispersed and then germinate.
c.
They are produced in a capsule-like top.
d.
They are diploid.
 44.
The sporophyte generation in mosses produces spores by
a.
meiosis.
c.
sexual reproduction.
b.
mitosis.
d.
asexual reproduction.
 45.
The most noticeable form of a moss life cycle is the
a.
sporophyte.
c.
rhizoid.
b.
gametophyte.
d.
zygote.
 46.
In which of the following structures do seedless plants produce eggs?
a.
antheridia
c.
archegonia
b.
capsules
d.
cones
 47.
antheridia : sperm ::
a.
rhizoids : gametes
c.
archegonia : eggs
b.
seeds : gametophytes
d.
sperm : megaspores
 48.
Both mosses and ferns produce
a.
seeds.
c.
flowers.
b.
fruit.
d.
spores.
 49.
Fern sporophytes consist of rhizomes,
a.
large leaves, and flowers.
c.
pollen grains, and ovules.
b.
cones, and stems.
d.
roots, and fronds.
 50.
Unlike mosses, ferns possess
a.
spore capsules.
c.
antheridia.
b.
archegonia.
d.
vascular tissue.
 51.
Fiddleheads are produced by
a.
whisk ferns.
c.
ferns.
b.
club mosses.
d.
horsetails.
 52.
Both mosses and ferns produce gametes through
a.
mitosis.
c.
osmosis.
b.
meiosis.
d.
diffusion.
 53.
vascular plants : sporophytes ::
a.
sporophytic plants : gametophytes
c.
spores : gametes
b.
gametes : sporophytes
d.
nonvascular plants : gametophytes
The diagram below shows the plant life cycle.

nar001-1.jpg

 54.
Refer to the diagram above. At which point in the life cycle does fertilization take place?
a.
1
c.
3
b.
2
d.
4
 55.
Refer to the diagram above. The structures produced at 3 are called
a.
sporangia.
c.
spores.
b.
archegonia.
d.
antheridia.
 56.
Which of the following were the first land plants to evolve seeds?
a.
angiosperms
c.
mosses
b.
gymnosperms
d.
horsetails
 57.
liverworts, hornworts, and mosses : nonvascular plants ::
a.
gymnosperms and angiosperms : bryophytes
b.
ferns : mosses
c.
gymnosperms and angiosperms : seed plants
d.
bryophytes and liverworts : vascular plants
 58.
gymnosperms : naked seeds ::
a.
pollen : mosses
c.
liverwort : vascular tissue
b.
liverwort : pollen
d.
angiosperms : enclosed seeds
 59.
In seed plants, female gametophytes produce
a.
sperm.
c.
cells.
b.
eggs.
d.
spores.
 60.
A male gametophyte of a seed plant develops into a
a.
pollen grain.
c.
pollen tube.
b.
spore capsule.
d.
seed coat.
 61.
The partially developed plant found in seeds is known as a(n)
a.
gametophyte.
c.
embryo.
b.
spore capsule.
d.
sporophyte.
 62.
A typical seed contains all of the following except a(n)
a.
seed coat.
c.
embryo.
b.
nutritious tissue.
d.
spore case.
 63.
The tallest trees in the world are a species of
a.
conifers.
c.
liverworts.
b.
dicots.
d.
angiosperms.
 64.
The process of transferring pollen from a male cone to a female cone in gymnosperms is called
a.
fertilization.
c.
pollination.
b.
seed formation.
d.
asexual reproduction.
 65.
In conifers, the diploid condition is resumed following
a.
pollination.
c.
respiration.
b.
fertilization.
d.
sporulation.
 66.
The seeds of monocots have
a.
one embryo and two cotyledons.
c.
one embryo and one cotyledon.
b.
two embryos and two cotyledons.
d.
two embryos and one cotyledon.
 67.
Flowering plants are classified as monocots or dicots according to the number of their
a.
leaves.
c.
meristems.
b.
flowers.
d.
cotyledons.
 68.
Monocots and dicots are subdivisions of
a.
angiosperms.
c.
ferns.
b.
gymnosperms.
d.
mosses.
nar002-1.jpg
 69.
Refer to the diagram above. The structure labeled f
a.
supports the anther.
c.
supports the pistil.
b.
produces pollen.
d.
develops into a fruit.
 70.
Refer to the diagram above. The structure labeled c
a.
produces pollen.
b.
contains sperm cells.
c.
is the area where pollen lands and sticks.
d.
contains meristematic tissue.
 71.
Removing a flower’s stigma would initially affect
a.
fertilization.
c.
pollination.
b.
seed production.
d.
seed dispersal.
 72.
Pollen is produced in a structure called the
a.
anther.
c.
ovary.
b.
stigma.
d.
pistil.
 73.
In angiosperms, immediately following pollination,
a.
the seed develops.
c.
fertilization occurs.
b.
an egg cell is formed.
d.
the pollen tube begins to form.
 74.
During fertilization in flowering plants, one sperm fuses with an egg to form an embryo, and another fuses with two nuclei to form nutritive tissue. This event is called
a.
self-pollination.
c.
maximization.
b.
adaptation.
d.
double fertilization.
 75.
fruit : mature ovary
a.
gametophyte : sporophyte
c.
cotyledon : food reserve
b.
gymnosperm : angiosperm
d.
vascular plant : nonvascular plant
 76.
If a plant’s flowers are very colorful and produce nectar, the plant is probably pollinated by
a.
water.
c.
insects.
b.
wind.
d.
self-pollination.
 77.
One way that flowers produced by angiosperms help ensure the transfer of gametes is by
a.
traveling in the air currents.
b.
bursting open and projecting gametes onto the landscape.
c.
attracting animals that carry pollen from one flower to another.
d.
producing tasty fruits that animals depend on for food.
 78.
What function do all fruits produced by angiosperms perform?
a.
produce nutrients for the plant
b.
nourish the embryos
c.
disperse the seeds
d.
ensure pollination
 79.
Which structure allows plants to reproduce asexually?
a.
tuber
c.
archegonium
b.
flower
d.
antheridium
 80.
The production of offspring genetically identical to the parent plant is the result of
a.
sexual reproduction.
c.
alternation of generations.
b.
asexual reproduction.
d.
double fertilization.
 

Completion
Complete each statement.
 81.
The surface of a vascular plant is covered by a waxy, waterproof layer called a(n) ____________________.

 82.
One of the first environmental challenges that early land plants had to overcome was developing a way to conserve ____________________.

 83.
The sporophyte generation produces spores by the process of ____________________.

 84.
The haploid form of a plant is known as the ____________________ generation.

 85.
Nonvascular plants transport materials within their bodies through the process of ____________________.

 86.
A green, hornlike sporophyte growing upward from the gametophyte is typical of plants known as ____________________.

 87.
In mosses and liverworts, the ____________________ generation is the dominant generation.

 88.
The very tiny liverwort ____________________ grow from the archegonia under the caps of female stalks.

 89.
The gametophytes of ____________________ plants are larger and more noticeable than the sporophytes.

 90.
The seedless plants produce sperm within the ____________________.

 91.
True roots, stems, and leaves are associated with ____________________ plants.

 92.
A fern is an example of a(n) ____________________ vascular plant.

 93.
Both mosses and ferns produce eggs within structures called ____________________.

 94.
Like the nonvascular plants, the seedless vascular plants can reproduce sexually only when a film of ____________________ covers the gametophyte.

 95.
Unlike mosses, ferns have sporophytes that are much ____________________ than their gametophytes.

 96.
Seed plants whose seeds do not develop within a sealed container (fruit) are called ____________________.

 97.
Fruit is a characteristic associated only with the flowering plants, or ____________________.

 98.
A male gametophyte of a seed plant develops into a(n) ____________________.

 99.
The ____________________ is the protective cover that surrounds a seed.

 100.
The seed coat prevents the embryo from drying out, from mechanical injury, and from ____________________.

 101.
A(n) ____________________ is a specialized structure that develops from an ovule and serves to protect a plant embryo from harsh conditions.

 102.
The four major groups of gymnosperms are gnetophytes, cycads, ginkgoes, and ____________________.

 103.
A mature pine tree produces both male and female ____________________.

 104.
Gymnosperms are pollinated by ____________________, which makes sexual reproduction possible even during dry conditions.

 105.
The life cycle of a conifer is characterized by a large ____________________ generation.

 106.
In conifers, seeds form on the ____________________ of cones.

 107.
A plant that has flower parts that occur in fours or fives or multiples of four or five is a member of a subgroup called a(n) ____________________.

nar002-1.jpg
 108.
Refer to the diagram above. The structure labeled f is called the ____________________.

 109.
Refer to the diagram above. The structure labeled b is called the ____________________.

 110.
Refer to the diagram above. A flower like this one has all four basic flower parts and thus is an example of a(n) ____________________ flower.

 111.
The transfer of pollen grains from an anther to a stigma is known as ____________________.

 112.
In angiosperms, seeds develop from the ____________________ inside a(n) ____________________ after an egg has been fertilized.

 113.
The event in which one sperm fertilizes an egg and a second sperm fuses with two nuclei is called _________________________.

 114.
A flower is a(n) ____________________ structure that produces pollen and seeds.

 115.
Flowers are a source of ____________________ for pollinators.

 116.
The seeds of angiosperms are enclosed in ____________________.

 117.
Because flowering plants are rooted in the ground and cannot move from place to place, they must disperse their ____________________ so that their offspring can grow in new environments.

 118.
Many fruits are spread by ____________________ that are attracted to sweet, fleshy fruits, which they use for food.

 119.
Many of the structures by which plants reproduce vegetatively are modified ____________________.

 120.
Bulbs, stolons, and tubers are examples of modified stems that allow plants to reproduce ____________________.

 

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