Author: Biology Junction Team

Plant Evolution, Structure, and Function

%CODE1%

Javascript not enabled

Name: 

 

Plant Evolution, Structure, and Function

 

 

Multiple Choice
Identify the choice that best completes the statement or answers the question.
 1.
The ancestors of today’s land plants were probably
a.
 brown algae.
c.
 green algae.
b.
 red algae.
d.
 lichens.
 2.
The challenges faced by early land plants included
a.
 conserving water.
b.
 reproducing on land.
c.
 absorbing minerals from the rocky surface.
d.
 All of the above
 3.
The waxy protective covering of a land plant is called a
a.
 cuticle.
c.
 rhizome.
b.
 capsule.
d.
 stoma.
 4.
The cuticle
a.
 helps reduce the evaporation of fluids from a plant.
b.
 is a plant adaptation to an aquatic environment.
c.
 is a reproductive structure in some plants.
d.
 is crucial to plant cell nourishment.
 5.
Some land plants developed an internal system of interconnected tubes and vessels called
a.
 cuticles.
b.
 nonvascular canals.
c.
 the circulatory system.
d.
 vascular tissues.
 6.
The xylem in a plant
a.
 transports food from the leaves.
b.
 transports water and minerals to the stems and leaves.
c.
 exchanges carbon dioxide with the atmosphere.
d.
 All of the above
 7.
liverworts, hornworts, mosses : nonvascular plants ::
a.
 gymnosperms, angiosperms : bryophytes
b.
 ferns : mosses
c.
 gymnosperms, angiosperms : vascular plants
d.
 bryophytes, liverworts : vascular plants
 8.
gymnosperms : naked seeds ::
a.
 pollen : mosses
b.
 ferns : seeds
c.
 liverwort : vascular tissue
d.
 angiosperms : enclosed seeds
 9.
The diploid form in a plant’s life cycle is called the
a.
 sporophyte.
b.
 gametophyte.
c.
 parental generation.
d.
 alternate generation.
 10.
The haploid form in a plant’s life cycle is called the
a.
 sporophyte.
b.
 gametophyte.
c.
 parental generation.
d.
 alternate generation.
 11.
Alternation between a haploid stage and a diploid stage in a plant’s life cycle is called
a.
 generational recycling.
b.
 periodic gametogenesis.
c.
 alternating forms.
d.
 alternation of generations.
 12.
In plants, haploid gametes are produced as a result of
a.
 fertilization.
c.
 encapsulation.
b.
 meiosis.
d.
 mitosis.
 13.
The dominant generation in vascular plants is the
a.
 gametophyte.
c.
 angiosperm.
b.
 gymnosperm.
d.
 sporophyte.
 14.
vascular plants : sporophytes ::
a.
 sporophytic plants : gametophytes
b.
 nonvascular plants : gametophytes
c.
 spores : gametes
d.
 plants with seeds : seedless plants
 15.
sporophytes : spores ::
a.
 sporophytes : gametophytes
b.
 gametophytes : gametes
c.
 gametophytes : spores
d.
 sporophytes : gametes
 16.
Which of the following is not a nonvascular plant?
a.
 moss
c.
 hornwort
b.
 liverwort
d.
 fern
 17.
Which of the following is not characteristic of all nonvascular plants?
a.
 They produce seeds.
b.
 They have a life cycle characterized by alternation of generations.
c.
 They produce spores.
d.
 They require water for sexual reproduction.
 18.
Which of the following is a reason why mosses are good pioneer plants?
a.
 They can survive in very wet areas.
b.
 They can survive in areas that receive only low levels of sunlight.
c.
 They can create a layer of soil on bare rock.
d.
 They grow very slowly.
 19.
The water-retaining ability of peat moss makes it ideal for
a.
 use in garden-soil mixes.
b.
 use in packing bulbs and flowers for shipping.
c.
 use in houseplant soils.
d.
 All of the above
 20.
All of the following developed in some vascular plants and are not present in any nonvascular plants except
a.
 pollen.
c.
 chlorophyll.
b.
 deep roots.
d.
 seeds.
 21.
The primary distinguishing characteristics of all vascular plants are
a.
 xylem and phloem; true roots, stems, and leaves; pollen; seeds.
b.
 xylem and phloem; true roots, stems, and leaves; spores.
c.
 true roots, stems, and leaves; spores.
d.
 xylem and phloem; true roots, stems, and leaves.
 22.
Which of the following is not a seed plant?
a.
 a flowering plant
c.
 a fern
b.
 a pine tree
d.
 a ginkgo
 23.
Which of the following is characteristic of all seed plants?
a.
 a seed containing an embryo, a nutrient supply, and a protective coat
b.
 enclosure and protection of seeds within a fruit
c.
 production of flowers
d.
 All of the above
 24.
Pines, spruces, and firs are
a.
 angiosperms.
c.
 flowering plants.
b.
 gymnosperms.
d.
 sometimes nonvascular.
 25.
The tallest trees in the world are species of
a.
 conifers.
c.
 liverworts.
b.
 dicots.
d.
 angiosperms.
 26.
Which of the following were the first land plants to evolve seeds?
a.
 angiosperms
c.
 mosses
b.
 gymnosperms
d.
 ferns
 27.
Seed plants are the dominant land plants because
a.
 they include the largest plants on Earth.
b.
 the seeds they produce enable the plant to survive in a dormant state when conditions are not suitable for growth.
c.
 they are vascular plants with large root systems, so they can obtain water from any kind of environment.
d.
 they produce flowers that are pollinated by insects, enabling them to produce many offspring.
 28.
Monocots have
a.
 leaves with branching veins.
b.
 flower parts in multiples of four or five.
c.
 leaves with parallel veins.
d.
 two cotyledons.
 29.
Flowering plants are classified as monocots or dicots according to their number of
a.
 leaves.
c.
 meristems.
b.
 roots.
d.
 cotyledons.
 30.
Which of the following associations between a plant cell type and its characteristics is incorrect?
a.
 collenchyma cell—thin cell walls; do not occur in groups
b.
 parenchyma cell—cube-shaped or elongated; large vacuole
c.
 sclerenchyma cell—thick, rigid cell walls
d.
 All of the above are correct.
 31.
Which of the following types of plant cells provides structural support and is typically dead at functional maturity?
a.
 collenchyma
c.
 sclerenchyma
b.
 parenchyma
d.
 None of the above
 32.
The conducting cells of phloem are called
a.
 tracheids.
c.
 sieve plates.
b.
 sieve tube members.
d.
 vessel elements.
 33.
In xylem tissue, water moves from tracheid to tracheid through
a.
 pits.
c.
 sieve tubes.
b.
 vessel elements.
d.
 companion cells.
 34.
The outermost layer consisting of ground tissue in a stem is the
a.
 sapwood.
c.
 pith.
b.
 nodes.
d.
 cortex.
 35.
vascular tissue : transport of fluids ::
a.
 epidermis : support
b.
 dermal tissue : storage
c.
 dermal tissue : transport of fluids
d.
 ground tissue : metabolism
 36.
Regions of active cell division in plants are called
a.
 meristems.
c.
 phloem.
b.
 xylem.
d.
 dermal tissue.
 37.
Meristems can be found
a.
 only at the tips of roots.
b.
 only at the tips of stems.
c.
 at the tips of stems and roots.
d.
 None of the above
 38.
Which of the following types of meristems is found in some monocots above the bases of leaves and stems?
a.
 apical meristems
b.
 vascular cambium
c.
 intercalary meristems
d.
 cork cambium
 39.
The lengthening of plant roots and shoots is called
a.
 secondary growth.
c.
 primary growth.
b.
 germination.
d.
 vascular growth.
 40.
During periods of primary growth at apical meristems, stems and roots
a.
 become wider.
b.
 become longer.
c.
 maintain a constant number of cells.
d.
 undergo photoperiodism.
 41.
secondary growth : width ::
a.
 secondary growth : height
b.
 lateral meristem : length
c.
 apical meristem : width
d.
 primary growth : length
 42.
The primary function of root hairs is
a.
 to strengthen roots as they grow downward.
b.
 to transport food up the stem.
c.
 to absorb water and minerals.
d.
 to store water.
 43.
leaves : carbon dioxide from the air ::
a.
 leaves : water from the air
b.
 roots : light from the air
c.
 roots : carbon dioxide from the air
d.
 roots : nutrients from the soil
 44.
Which of the following are taproots?
a.
 underground roots of grass plants
b.
 prop roots of corn plants
c.
 roots of radish plants
d.
 aerial roots of orchids
 45.
Which of the following is not characteristic of fibrous roots?
a.
 many branch roots
b.
 shallow roots
c.
 dominant primary root
d.
 possible development from the base of the stem
 46.
Which of the following is not characteristic of secondary growth of roots?
a.
 Vascular cambium is formed.
b.
 Secondary xylem is produced toward the inside of the root and secondary phloem is produced toward the outside of the root.
c.
 Cork cambium is formed.
d.
 It occurs in monocot, dicot, and gymnosperm roots.
 47.
Which of the following is the function of the endodermis?
a.
 water absorption
b.
 water storage
c.
 regulation of passage of water and minerals into the vascular tissue
d.
 production of new cells for secondary growth
The diagram below shows the stem of a coleus plant.

nar001-1.jpg
 48.
Refer to the illustration above. The tissue labeled “1” in the diagram is called
a.
 meristem.
c.
 phloem.
b.
 xylem.
d.
 ground tissue.
 49.
Refer to the illustration above. In the diagram, the tissue labeled “2,” which conducts water and is made of elongated cells that connect end to end, is called
a.
 meristem.
c.
 phloem.
b.
 xylem.
d.
 ground tissue.
 50.
Refer to the illustration above. In the diagram, the tissue labeled “3,” which transports sugars from regions where they are made to regions where they are used, is called
a.
 meristem.
c.
 phloem.
b.
 xylem.
d.
 ground tissue.
 51.
The ground tissue in the center of roots and stems
a.
 turns into meristem.
b.
 transports food.
c.
 provides support.
d.
 germinates at least once a year.
 52.
Leaves connect to the stems of plants at the
a.
 lateral buds.
c.
 nodes.
b.
 pith.
d.
 internodes.
 53.
Secondary xylem and phloem are produced from the
a.
 cork cambium.
c.
 apical meristems.
b.
 vascular cambium.
d.
 bark.
 54.
xylem : inner side of vascular cambium ::
a.
 vascular cambium : cork cambium
b.
 cork : vascular cambium
c.
 phloem : outer side of vascular cambium
d.
 phloem : inner side of vascular cambium
 55.
Bark contains
a.
 xylem and phloem.
c.
 phloem and cork cells.
b.
 sapwood.
d.
 mesophyll.
 56.
In a woody stem, cork cambium
a.
 forms phloem.
b.
 forms xylem.
c.
 produces the outer bark.
d.
 becomes vascular cambium.
 57.
The movement of water through a plant is caused by
a.
 the attraction of water molecules for each other.
b.
 capillary action.
c.
 transpiration.
d.
 All of the above
 58.
The loss of water by the leaves and stem of a plant is called
a.
 translocation.
c.
 active transport.
b.
 osmosis.
d.
 transpiration.
 59.
The phloem in a plant
a.
 transports sugars.
b.
 transports water and minerals.
c.
 exchanges carbon dioxide and oxygen with the atmosphere.
d.
 None of the above
 60.
The transport of food from the leaf to the rest of the plant is called
a.
 translocation.
c.
 active transport.
b.
 osmosis.
d.
 transpiration.
 61.
A hypothesis that explains the movement of sugar in a plant is the
a.
 transpiration hypothesis.
c.
 pressure-flow hypothesis.
b.
 translocation hypothesis.
d.
 source-sink hypothesis.
 62.
cohesion : adhesion ::
a.
 hydrogen : polar
c.
 hand : people
b.
 book : pages
d.
 night : day
The diagram below shows a portion of a plant’s vascular system.

nar002-1.jpg
 63.
Refer to the illustration above. Structure 2 is a
a.
 tracheid.
c.
 vessel element.
b.
 companion cell.
d.
 sieve tube member.
 64.
Refer to the illustration above. Structure 3 is a
a.
 tracheid.
c.
 vessel element.
b.
 companion cell.
d.
 sieve tube member.
 65.
Refer to the illustration above. Which structure allows the cytoplasm of one cell to connect to the cytoplasm of a neighboring cell?
a.
 1
c.
 4
b.
 3
d.
 5
 66.
The xylem in a plant
a.
 transports sugars.
b.
 transports water and minerals.
c.
 exchanges carbon dioxide and oxygen with the atmosphere.
d.
 None of the above
 67.

Scientists studying the transport of sugars in plants found it difficult to conduct experiments that didn’t damage the plants they were studying. Some of them decided to use some insects they knew fed on plants. The insects they chose were aphids, which have mouthparts that they insert into plants and use to suck out nutrients. Many of these aphids also release excess sugars from the anal end of their digestive tracts. These substances are called honeydew because they are released as sugary droplets. The scientists conducted the following experiments:

(1) They measured the rate at which honeydew was released from aphids feeding on cucumber plants. The average rate was two drops per hour.
(2) They froze some aphids and the plant parts to which the aphids were attached. They then examined cross sections of the plant parts using an electron microscope. They found that the tips of the aphids’ mouthparts were in individual cells in the phloem tissue.
(3) They anesthetized aphids feeding on plants and then cut away the aphids, leaving the mouthparts in place. They noted that the honeydew continued to be released through the mouthparts at a rate of two drops per hour. They also analyzed the honeydew and found that it had the same chemical composition as the sugars transported in the plants.

Which of the following statements is not supported by the data obtained in these experiments?

a.
 The contents of the phloem are under pressure.
b.
 Sugars are transported in the phloem of plants.
c.
 Sugars are actively transported into cells of the phloem.
d.
 Some aphids take up more sugars from plants than they can use.
 68.
mc068-1.jpg

Refer to the illustration above. Which of the leaves is a doubly compound leaf?

a.
 1
c.
 3
b.
 2
d.
 4
 69.
In plants, the ground tissue that is made up of chloroplast-rich cells is the
a.
 vascular bundle.
c.
 pith.
b.
 petiole.
d.
 mesophyll.
 70.
The tissue of the leaf mesophyll that is located directly below the upper epidermis and consists of tightly packed column-shaped cells is the
a.
 palisade layer.
c.
 adventitious layer.
b.
 cortex.
d.
 spongy mesophyll.
The diagram below shows a leaf cross section.

nar003-1.jpg
 71.
Refer to the illustration above. Which label indicates the spongy layer?
a.
 2
c.
 4
b.
 3
d.
 5
 72.
Refer to the illustration above. Structure 1
a.
 is the cuticle.
c.
 covers the epidermis.
b.
 protects the leaf.
d.
 All of the above
 73.
Refer to the illustration above. The vein is made up of
a.
 only xylem vessels.
b.
 only phloem vessels.
c.
 both xylem and phloem vessels.
d.
 neither xylem nor phloem vessels.
 74.
Photosynthesis enables plants to produce most of the organic molecules they need. This process requires the use of all of the following except
a.
 carbon dioxide.
c.
 light.
b.
 water.
d.
 glucose.
 75.
Which of the following is an adaptation found in leaves of shade-grown plants?
a.
 high density of chloroplasts
b.
 small leaf area
c.
 chloroplasts not shading each other
d.
 dense hair coatings
 76.
The stomata are responsible for
a.
 translocation.
b.
 leaf growth.
c.
 regulation of water loss.
d.
 transport of minerals.
 77.
The guard cells that surround a stoma
a.
 have no cell walls.
b.
 swell with water, causing the stoma to open.
c.
 shrivel up when opening the stoma.
d.
 are responsible for translocation.
 78.
guard cells : stomata ::
a.
 can openers : cans
c.
 cushions : rocking chairs
b.
 hammers : nails
d.
 trout : stream
 79.
cuticle : above-ground parts ::
a.
 vascular system : plant
c.
 guard cell : stoma
b.
 sperm : pollen
d.
 root system : wax
 

Completion
Complete each statement.
 80.
In leaves, the openings called ____________________ regulate the exchange of carbon dioxide and oxygen.
 81.
The surface of a vascular plant is covered by a waxy, waterproof layer called a(n) ____________________.
 82.
One of the first environmental challenges that early land plants had to overcome was finding a way to conserve ____________________.
 83.
The tissues that transport water and minerals within a plant make up the ____________________ system.
 84.
____________________ are seed plants with uncovered seeds.
 85.
In alternation of generations, the ____________________ generation alternates with the diploid generation.
 86.
co086-1.jpg

Refer to the illustration above. The cycle shown in the diagram is referred to as _________________________.
 87.
The fusion of two gametes results in the production of a(n) ____________________ sporophyte.
 88.
The haploid form of a plant is the ____________________ generation.
 89.
Conifers produce ____________________ to protect their seeds.
 90.
The sporophyte generation produces haploid spores by the process of ____________________.
 91.
Peat bogs contain organic matter that decomposes very slowly because of a(n) ____________________ produced by peat moss.
 92.
Bryophytes have a dominant ____________________ generation.
 93.
In mosses and liverworts, the ____________________ generation is the dominant generation.
 94.
A rootlike structure that anchors plants in the phylum Bryophyta is called a(n) ____________________.
 95.
The ability of mosses to absorb and retain ____________________ contributes to their ability to help prevent soil erosion.
 96.
Partially decomposed moss plants of the genus Sphagnum are dried and used as a source of ____________________ for heating.
 97.
A plant that has flower parts that occur in multiples of four or five is usually a(n) ____________________.
 98.
Most ____________________ have thin, transparent leaflike structures along a stemlike axis.
 99.
Nonvascular plants known as ____________________ usually have cells with a single large chloroplast, similar to algae.
 100.
Photosynthetic and storage tissues of plants are made up of ____________________ cells.
 101.
____________________ are narrow, elongated, thick-walled sclerenchyma cells that taper at each end.
 102.
The lateral meristem that produces secondary vascular tissue is called the _________________________.
 103.
The lateral meristem that produces the cork cells of the outer bark is called the ____________________.
 104.
Plants grow at the tips of roots and stems in regions of active cell division called ____________________.
 105.
Cell division in the ____________________ adds layers of new cells around the outside of a plant’s body.
 106.
Growth that occurs from the formation of new cells at the tip of a plant is called ____________________.
 107.
Growth that causes a plant to increase in width is called _________________________.
 108.
The thickening of a plant body by the production of new xylem and phloem is called ____________________ growth.
 109.
The ____________________ of plants absorb water and minerals necessary for growth.
 110.
The two main types of root systems are fibrous root systems and ____________________ systems.
 111.
Primary growth in roots occurs in cells of the _________________________, carbohydrate storage occurs in cells of the ____________________, and water absorption occurs through cells of the ____________________.
 112.
Flexible, soft, and usually green stems are called ____________________ stems.
 113.
Edible parts of the potato plant are modified stems called ____________________, which grow underground and store starch.
 114.
The darker wood in the center of a tree trunk is called ____________________.
 115.
Wood consists primarily of _________________________ cells.
 116.
The transport of organic molecules from the leaf to the rest of the plant is called ____________________.
 117.
The broad, flat portion of a typical leaf is called the ____________________.
 118.
When the guard cells that surround a stoma fill with water, the stoma ____________________.
 119.
____________________ ions play an important role in opening and closing stomata.
 

Problem
 120.

pr120-1.jpg

Refer to the illustration above. This cladogram depicts the presumed evolutionary relationships between the major phyla of land plants. The list below consists of paired characteristics found in at least some land plants. For each pair of characteristics, choose the one that is the more evolutionarily advanced. Then complete the cladogram by indicating on it where each of the more advanced characteristics first appeared.

Characteristics:

cones / flowers
sporophyte dominant / gametophyte dominant
waxy cuticle present / waxy cuticle absent
vascular tissue absent / vascular tissue present
gametophyte independent of sporophyte / gametophyte dependent on sporophyte
stomata absent / stomata present
seeds / spores
multicellular reproductive structure / unicellular reproductive structure
 

Essay
 121.
What problems were encountered by the first land plants? What adaptations evolved to solve these problems? Write your answer in the space below.
 122.
How is a seed an adaptation for life on land? Write your answer in the space below.
 123.
Describe three characteristics of angiosperms that have helped to make the group successful. Write your answer in the space below.
 124.
Describe the functions of ground tissue in a plant. Write your answer in the space below.
 125.
What kinds of plants have lateral meristems, and what kind of growth occurs in the lateral meristems? Write your answer in the space below.
 126.
While walking through a forest you notice that someone has carved his or her initials into the bark of a tree. The initials are exactly 1.5 meters from the ground. How far from the ground will the initials be next year and the year after that? Why? Discuss growth tissues in plants in your answer. Write your answer in the space below.
 127.
Secondary growth adds width to a woody stem. Briefly describe the tissues involved and explain how they increase the stem’s diameter. Write your answer in the space below.
 128.
Define the terms source and sink in relation to the transportation of organic molecules in the phloem of plants. Write your answer in the space below.
 129.
Compare the movement of sugar and water in a plant. Write your answer in the space below.
 130.
Why is it advantageous for mesophyll cells to be more densely packed in the upper part of a plant leaf than in the lower part? Write your answer in the space below.
 131.
Describe how stomata open and close. Write your answer in the space below.


Check Your Work     Start Over

Metabolism of Cells

Javascript not enabled

Name: 

 

Metabolism of Cells

 

 

Multiple Choice
Identify the choice that best completes the statement or answers the question.
 1.
The ultimate source of energy for almost all living organisms is:
a.
 heat.
b.
 glucose.
c.
 carbohydrates.
d.
 lipids.
e.
 the sun.
 2.
Energy stored within the molecules of ATP is in the form of ____________ energy.
a.
 kinetic
b.
 heat
c.
 potential
d.
 nuclear
e.
 light
 3.
Most components of energy conversion systems evolved very early; thus, the most fundamental aspects of energy metabolism tend to be:
a.
 quite different among a diverse group of organisms.
b.
 very different among plants and animals.
c.
 the same among the autotrophs but different among heterotrophs.
d.
 the same among prokaryotes but different among eukaryotes.
e.
 very similar in a wide range of different organisms.
 4.
Kilojoules are:
a.
 units of heat energy.
b.
 units of matter.
c.
 units of work.
d.
 units of kinetics.
e.
 units of mechanical change.
 5.
The life and death of cells are governed by:
a.
 the laws of thermodynamics.
b.
 only the first law of thermodynamics.
c.
 only the second law of thermodynamics.
d.
 only the third law of thermodynamics.
e.
 the laws of dynamic equilibrium.
 6.
In order for a cell to maintain a high degree of order it must:
a.
 constantly release energy.
b.
 constantly produce energy.
c.
 constantly destroy energy.
d.
 constantly use energy.
e.
 constantly increase energy.
 7.
Select the false statement:
a.
 Matter is anything that has mass and takes up space.
b.
 Energy is the capacity to do work.
c.
 Work is any change in the state or motion of matter.
d.
 Mass is a form of energy.
e.
 All of the above statements are true.
 8.
Which of the following statements is contrary to the first law of thermodynamics?
a.
 When gasoline is burned, its energy is destroyed.
b.
 Energy can be transferred or converted from one form to another.
c.
 Matter can be converted into energy.
d.
 The amount of energy in the universe is constant.
e.
 All of the above statements are not contrary to the first law of thermodynamics.
 9.
Only 20% to 30% of the energy stored in the chemical bonds of gasoline molecules is transformed into mechanical energy; the other 70% to 80% is dissipated as waste heat. Which statement explains this phenomenon?
a.
 The first law of thermodynamics.
b.
 The second law of thermodynamics.
c.
 When energy is converted from one form to another, some of the energy is converted into heat.
d.
 Both A and B.
e.
 Both B and C.
 10.
An organism can exchange matter and energy with its surroundings. Thus, any change in an organism’s energy content must be balanced by a corresponding change in the energy content of the surroundings. As such, an organism is referred to as:
a.
 a closed system.
b.
 an open system.
c.
 a dynamic system.
d.
 a thermally reactive system.
e.
 a potential system.
 11.
Catabolic reactions involve the:
a.
 breakdown of large organic molecules to simple building blocks.
b.
 breakdown of life sustaining processes within cells.
c.
 building up of complex organic molecules from simple building blocks.
d.
 anabolic production of complex molecules.
e.
 expenditure of energy.
 12.
Pathways that have an overall energy requirement are referred to as:
a.
 catabolic reactions.
b.
 anabolic reactions.
c.
 energy-releasing reactions.
d.
 energetically feasible reactions.
e.
 reactions that will proceed spontaneously.
 13.
Every type of chemical bond contains a certain amount of energy. The total bond energy, which is essentially equivalent to the total potential energy of the system, is a quantity known as:
a.
 entropy.
b.
 kinetic energy.
c.
 thermodynamic energy.
d.
 enthalpy.
e.
 free energy.
 14.
Which of the following accurately represents the relationship between the terms anabolism, catabolism, and metabolism?
a.
 anabolism = catabolism
b.
 metabolism = catabolism
c.
 catabolism = anabolism + metabolism
d.
 anabolism = catabolism + metabolism
e.
 metabolism = catabolism + anabolism
 15.
The sum of all chemical activities taking place in an organism is:
a.
 anabolism.
b.
 catabolism.
c.
 metabolism.
d.
 dehydration synthesis.
e.
 condensation reactions.
 16.
Which word is defined by this statement: a measure of this disorder, or randomness?
a.
 energy
b.
 entropy
c.
 enthalpy
d.
 mass
e.
 catabolism
 17.
The equation, G = H – TS, predicts that:
a.
 as entropy increases, the amount of free energy decreases.
b.
 as enthalpy increases, the amount of free energy increases.
c.
 as enthalpy decreases, the amount of entropy also decreases.
d.
 metabolism decreases proportionately to anabolism.
e.
 metabolism increases proportionately to catabolism.
 18.
A reaction with a negative value of DG is referred to as an _________________ reaction.
a.
 endergonic
b.
 entropy
c.
 exergonic
d.
 enthalpy
e.
 activation
 19.
Which of the following statements is true of spontaneous reactions?
a.
 The amount of free energy after the reaction is less than before the reaction.
b.
 The amount of disorder after the reaction is less than before the reaction.
c.
 The amount of free energy after the reaction is more than before the reaction.
d.
 The amount of disorder is the same before and after the reaction.
e.
 The amount of enthalpy is more after the reaction than before the reaction.
 20.
An exergonic reaction is considered to be:
a.
 spontaneous.
b.
 potentially spontaneous.
c.
 endergonic.
d.
 non-spontaneous.
e.
 energy requiring.
 21.
When the free energy of the reactants is greater than the free energy of the products, such a reaction is referred to as:
a.
 an entropic reaction.
b.
 an endergonic reaction.
c.
 an exergonic reaction.
d.
 an enthalpic reaction.
e.
 an activation reaction.
Figure 06-01
Use the figure below to answer the corresponding questions.

nar001-1.jpg
 22.
Which of the following statements about Figure 06-01 is true?
a.
 The reactants have more free energy than the products.
b.
 The products have more free energy than the reactants.
c.
 The figure represents a spontaneous reaction.
d.
 The figure represents an endergonic reaction.
e.
 B and D
 23.
Which of the following conclusions can be accurately derived from Figure 06-01?
a.
 DS is positive.
b.
 DH equals zero.
c.
 DG is positive.
d.
 DG is negative.
e.
 DT is negative.
 24.
An endergonic reaction can proceed only if it absorbs:
a.
 more free energy than is released by a coupled exergonic reaction.
b.
 less free energy than was released by a coupled endergonic reaction.
c.
 less free energy than is released by a coupled exergonic reaction.
d.
 the same amount of free energy that is absorbed by the enzymatic breakdown of proteins.
e.
 energy from ADP, forming ATP.
 25.
In a reaction in which the rate of the reverse reaction is equal to the rate of the forward reaction, a state of ____________ is attained.
a.
 total entropy
b.
 enthalpy
c.
 thermodynamics
d.
 dynamic equilibrium
e.
 product reversibility
 26.
The ATP molecule is said to have a high group transfer potential because its terminal phosphate group and some of its energy is readily transferred to other:
a.
 organisms.
b.
 cells.
c.
 organelles.
d.
 molecules.
e.
 sources of energy.
 27.
The reaction ATP + H2O ® ADP + Pi is classified as an:
a.
 endergonic reaction.
b.
 enthalpy reaction.
c.
 entropy reaction.
d.
 exergonic reaction.
e.
 intermediate phosphorylation reaction.
 28.
The maintenance of a high ATP to ADP ratio within cells ensures that:
a.
 the hydrolysis of ADP to ATP will be strongly exergonic.
b.
 the hydrolysis of ATP to ADP will be strongly exergonic.
c.
 the hydrolysis of ATP to ADP will be strongly endergonic.
d.
 the hydrolysis of ADP to ATP will be an energy releasing reaction.
e.
 the conversion of ADP to ATP will proceed spontaneously.
 29.

Consider the following two chemical equations:

A) glucose + fructose ® sucrose + H2O, DG = +27kJ/mole (or +6.5 kcal/mole)
B) glucose + fructose + ATP ® sucrose + ADP + Pi, DG = -5kJ/mole (or -1.2 kcal/mole)

The free energy change difference between the chemical equations (A) and (B) above is accomplished by:

a.
 a decrease in activation energy.
b.
 combining two endergonic reactions.
c.
 combining an endergonic and an exergonic reaction.
d.
 combining two exergonic reactions.
e.
 measuring the reaction rate.
 30.
The transfer of electrons from one compound to another is equivalent to _______________ transfer.
a.
 heat
b.
 oxygen
c.
 enzymatic
d.
 phosphorus
e.
 energy
 31.
____________ is a process where energy (as electrons) is released, whereas ____________ is a process where energy (as electrons) is accepted.
a.
 Reduction; oxidation
b.
 Enthalpy; entropy
c.
 Entropy; enthalpy
d.
 Oxidation; reduction
e.
 Anabolism; catabolism
 32.
XH2 + NAD+ ® X + NADH + H+. In the preceding equation, NAD+ is said to be:
a.
 an enzyme.
b.
 storing two hydrogen atoms.
c.
 reduced.
d.
 oxidized.
e.
 a catalyst.
 33.
Select the compound that contains the most energy:
a.
 AMP
b.
 ADP
c.
 ATP
d.
 P
e.
 Cannot determine using the information provided.
 34.
Select the phosphorylation reaction:
a.
 glucose + fructose ® sucrose + H2O
b.
 glucose + ATP ® glucose-P + ADP
c.
 glucose-P + fructose ® sucrose + Pi
d.
 glucose + glucose ® maltose
e.
 None of the reactions are phosphorylation reactions.
 35.
Select the hydrogen acceptor molecule that stores electrons in the process of photosynthesis:
a.
 nicotinamide adenine dinucleotide (NAD+)
b.
 nicotinamide adenine dinucleotide phosphate (NADP+)
c.
 flavin adenine dinucleotide (FAD)
d.
 adenine triphosphate (ATP)
e.
 adenine diphosphate (ADP)
 36.
Select the reduced molecule:
a.
 NAD+
b.
 FAD
c.
 NADH
d.
 H-
e.
 None of the molecules are reduced.
 37.
FAD and cytochromes are classified as:
a.
 hydrogen or electron acceptors.
b.
 phosphate oxidizers.
c.
 phosphate reducers.
d.
 proteins that donate hydrogens or electrons.
e.
 redox intermediate catalysts.
 38.
Enzymes are important biological catalysts because they:
a.
 supply the energy to initiate a biochemical reaction.
b.
 increase the free energy of a biochemical reaction.
c.
 lower the entropy of a biochemical reaction.
d.
 decrease the enthalpy of a biochemical reaction.
e.
 lower the activation energy of a biochemical reaction.
 39.
Because enzymes affect the speed of chemical reactions without being consumed, they are referred to as:
a.
 hydrogen acceptors.
b.
 activation energy.
c.
 catalysts.
d.
 cytochromes.
e.
 transformation proteins.
Figure 06-02
Use the figure below to answer the corresponding questions.

nar002-1.jpg
 40.
In Figure 06-02 the line on the graph labeled B represents the:
a.
 activation energy with an enzyme.
b.
 activation energy without an enzyme.
c.
 free energy of the reactants.
d.
 change in entropy.
e.
 change in enthalpy.
 41.
In Figure 06-02 the line on the graph labeled C represents the:
a.
 activation energy with an enzyme.
b.
 activation energy without an enzyme.
c.
 change in free energy.
d.
 change in entropy.
e.
 change in enthalpy.
 42.
Parts of the enzyme molecule that interact with a substrate are called:
a.
 cofactors.
b.
 active sites.
c.
 induced-fit models.
d.
 orientation sites.
e.
 reaction sites.
 43.
Hydrolases are one important class of enzyme that function to catalyze:
a.
 splitting a molecule using water.
b.
 conversions between isomers.
c.
 reactions in which double bonds are formed.
d.
 oxidation-reduction reactions.
e.
 None of the above.
 44.
Which of the following does not represent a method by which cells regulate enzyme activity?
a.
 controlling the intracellular concentration of the enzyme
b.
 feedback inhibition of enzymes
c.
 the binding of allosteric regulators to allosteric sites on the enzyme
d.
 differential gene expression of the genes that produce enzymes
e.
 heat denaturation of the enzyme
 45.
Competitive inhibitors inhibit biochemical reactions in such a way as to seemingly:
a.
 increase the concentration of substrate.
b.
 reduce the concentration of enzyme.
c.
 increase the concentration of enzyme.
d.
 reduce the concentration of substrate.
e.
 denature the enzyme.
 46.
Penicillin is a drug that acts by:
a.
 irreversibly inhibiting transpeptidase.
b.
 reversibly inhibiting transpeptidase.
c.
 competitively inhibiting transpeptidase.
d.
 noncompetitively inhibiting transpeptidase.
e.
 None of the above.
 47.
An allosteric enzyme:
a.
 has an active site that binds to the substrate and an allosteric site that binds to the product.
b.
 allows the movement of molecules and ions from one part of the cell to another.
c.
 catalyzes both oxidation and reduction reactions.
d.
 raises a reaction’s activation energy so that the rate of the reaction declines.
e.
 allows a substance other than the substrate to bind to the enzyme, thereby activating or inactivating it.
 48.
If one continues to increase the temperature in an enzyme-catalyzed reaction, the rate of the reaction:
a.
 does not change.
b.
 increases and then levels off.
c.
 decreases and then levels off.
d.
 increases and then decreases rapidly.
e.
 decreases and then increases rapidly.
 49.
Select the false statement regarding activation energy:
a.
 Exergonic reactions have an energy of activation.
b.
 Endergonic reactions have an energy of activation.
c.
 Enzymes lower a reaction’s activation energy.
d.
 Catalysts raise a reaction’s activation energy.
e.
 All of the statements are true.
 50.
The substance on which an enzyme acts:
a.
 substrate
b.
 product
c.
 ATP
d.
 free energy
e.
 None of the above.
 51.
Select the name of the concept of the binding of a substrate to the enzyme causing a change in the enzyme’s shape, facilitating an enzymes function.
a.
 active site
b.
 cofactor
c.
 activation energy
d.
 induced fit
e.
 None of the above.
 52.
Select the enzyme that does not match the substrate or reaction:
a.
 sucrase: splits sucrose into glucose and fructose.
b.
 lysozyme: breaks down bacterial cell walls.
c.
 pepsin: breaks peptide bonds.
d.
 trypsin: breaks peptide bonds.
e.
 All of the enzymes match the substrates or reactions.
 53.
The reaction rate an enzyme catalyzed chemical reaction would not likely be affected by:
a.
 pH
b.
 substrate concentration
c.
 temperature
d.
 Both A and B.
e.
 A, B, and C.
 54.
An organic, nonpolypeptide compound that binds to the apoenzyme and serves as a cofactor:
a.
 coenzyme
b.
 catalyst
c.
 substrate
d.
 mineral
e.
 pH
 55.
Cell respiration is most accurately described as a ______________ process.
a.
 anabolic
b.
 catabolic
c.
 metabolic
d.
 endergonic
e.
 fermentative
 56.
Select the anaerobic pathway:
a.
 aerobic respiration
b.
 citric acid cycle
c.
 electron transport chain
d.
 fermentation
e.
 None of the choices are anaerobic.
 57.
The transfer of electrons from glucose to oxygen during aerobic respiration takes place in a stepwise fashion through a number of intermediates rather than by direct transfer. This is because:
a.
 it is chemically impossible to transfer electrons directly from glucose to oxygen.
b.
 the chemical intermediates donate some of their electrons in order to increase the electron pool.
c.
 the energy of the electrons can be used to make ADP.
d.
 the energy of the electrons can be used to make ATP.
e.
 None of the above.
 58.
The splitting of molecules into smaller components is referred to as:
a.
 anabolism.
b.
 metabolism.
c.
 catabolism.
d.
 redox.
e.
 photosynthesis.
 59.
Anabolic reactions:
a.
 are generally endergonic.
b.
 usually require ATP.
c.
 are part of metabolism.
d.
 may produce polysaccarides from monosaccharides.
e.
 All of the above.
 60.
Aerobic respiration is classified as:
a.
 a synthesis reaction.
b.
 a hydrolysis reaction.
c.
 a redox process.
d.
 a polymerization reaction.
e.
 an anabolic process.
 61.
Aerobic respiration, anaerobic respiration, and fermentation:
a.
 are endergonic pathways.
b.
 release free energy.
c.
 require oxygen.
d.
 are also known as organismic respiration.
e.
 are anabolic pathways.
 62.
During chemiosmosis, ____________ are transferred from NADH and FADH2 to electron acceptor molecules, and the energy released is used to create a(an) ____________ gradient across the inner mitochondrial membrane.
a.
 protons; electron
b.
 electrons; proton
c.
 ATP molecules; ADP molecule
d.
 ADP molecules; ATP molecule
e.
 water molecules; oxygen
 63.
The overall reaction for the aerobic respiration of glucose is summarized as:
a.
 C6H12O6 + 6 O2 + 6 H2O ® 6 CO2 + 12 H2O + Energy.
b.
 C4H12O4 + 12 H2O + 6 CO2 ® 6 O2 + ATP + Energy.
c.
 C4H12O4 + 6 O2 + 6 H2O ® 6 CO2 + ATP + Energy.
d.
 C4H12O2 + 6 O2 + ATP ® 6 CO2 + 12 H2O + Energy.
e.
 C6H12O6 + 6 H2O ® 6 CO2 + 12 H2 + Energy.
 64.
In aerobic respiration, glucose is completely:
a.
 reduced to ATP.
b.
 reduced to energy.
c.
 oxidized to water.
d.
 oxidized to carbon dioxide.
e.
 oxidized and reduced simultaneously.
 65.
Which of the following is not one of the stages of the aerobic respiration of glucose?
a.
 glycolysis
b.
 formation of acetyl CoA
c.
 hydrolysis
d.
 citric acid cycle
e.
 electron transport
 66.
Which process does not match the products?
a.
 electron transport and chemiosmosis—ATP, H2O, NAD+, FAD
b.
 citric acid cycle—CO2, NADH, FADH2, ATP
c.
 formation of acetyl CoA—Acetyl CoA, CO2, NADH
d.
 glycolysis—pyruvate, ATP, NADH
e.
 All of the processes match the products.
 67.
Which process does not match the starting materials?
a.
 electron transport and chemiosmosis—NADH, FADH2, O2, ADP, Pi
b.
 glycolysis—glucose, ATP, NAD+, ADP, Pi
c.
 citric acid cycle—acetyl CoA, H2O, NAD+, FAD, ADP, Pi
d.
 formation of acetyl CoA—citric acid, CO2, NADH
e.
 All of the processes match the starting materials.
 68.
Which process does not match the location in skeletal muscle?
a.
 glycolysis—mitochondrian
b.
 formation of acetyl coenzyme A—mitochondrian
c.
 citric acid cycle—mitochondrian
d.
 electron transport and chemiosmosis—mitochondrian
e.
 All of the processes are matched to the correct location.
 69.
Decarboxylations:
a.
 occur as part of the citric acid cycle.
b.
 produce CO2 that is then exhaled via breathing.
c.
 involve the removal of a carboxyl group (-COOH) from a substrate.
d.
 are one type of general reaction that occurs during aerobic respiration.
e.
 All of the above.
 70.
In aerobic respiration, the electrons associated with the hydrogen atoms in glucose are transferred to:
a.
 carbon in a series of steps.
b.
 oxygen in a series of steps.
c.
 NADH in a series of steps.
d.
 the mitochondrial membranes.
e.
 hydrogen ions.
 71.
In eukaryotes, glycolysis occurs in the:
a.
 mitochondrial inner membrane.
b.
 lysosomes.
c.
 Golgi complex.
d.
 cytosol.
e.
 mitochondrial matrix.
 72.
In glycolysis, a six-carbon glucose molecule is converted to two three-carbon molecules of:
a.
 pyruvate.
b.
 acetate.
c.
 coenzyme A.
d.
 oxaloacetate.
e.
 citrate.
 73.
Substrate-level phosphorylation involves the transfer of a phosphate group from:
a.
 ATP.
b.
 ADP.
c.
 NADH.
d.
 1,3-bisphosphoglycerate.
e.
 glucose.
 74.
In glycolysis, fructose-1, 6-bisphosphate splits, forming two molecules of:
a.
 ADP.
b.
 citric acid.
c.
 G3P.
d.
 glucose.
e.
 acetyl CoA.
 75.
Glycolysis yields a net energy profit of _______ ATP molecules per molecule of glucose.
a.
 0
b.
 1
c.
 2
d.
 4
e.
 6
 76.
The chemical reaction illustrated in the figure is:

mc076-1.jpg

a.
 the first step in the citric acid cycle.
b.
 the energy producing step of glycolysis.
c.
 fermentation.
d.
 part of the electron transport chain.
e.
 None of the above.
 77.
In glycolysis, glucose receives two phosphate groups from ____________, thus forming fructose-1, 6-bisphosphate.
a.
 ADP
b.
 ATP
c.
 a bisphosphate group
d.
 fructose-1, 6-bisphosphate
e.
 G3P
 78.
NADH and FADH2 are the products of:
a.
 decarboxylation reactions.
b.
 reduction reactions.
c.
 glycolysis.
d.
 formation of acetyl coenzyme A.
e.
 chemiosmosis.
 79.
NADH is formed when NAD+ accepts:
a.
 a proton.
b.
 a hydrogen atom.
c.
 a pair of protons and an electron.
d.
 a proton and a pair of electrons.
e.
 two hydrogen atoms.
 80.
In chemiosmosis, ATP is produced as hydrogen ions (protons) pass through:
a.
 the outer mitochondrial membrane.
b.
 ATP synthase.
c.
 ATP dehydrogenase.
d.
 ATP decarboxylase.
e.
 a series of electron carriers.
 81.
Oxidative decarboxylation of two pyruvates yields:
a.
 two glucose molecules.
b.
 two ATP + four CO2 + two NADH.
c.
 two G3P.
d.
 two acetyl CoA + two CO2 + 2 NADH.
e.
 one fructose-1, 6-bisphosphate.
 82.
Considering only glycolysis and the conversion of pyruvate molecules to acetyl CoA molecules, how many NADH molecules will be produced from one glucose molecule?
a.
 one
b.
 two
c.
 three
d.
 four
e.
 five
 83.
During the citric acid cycle, each acetyl group entering the cycle yields:
a.
 1 ATP, 2 NADH, and 3 FADH2.
b.
 1 ATP, 3 NADH, and 1 FADH2.
c.
 3 ATP, 2 NADH, and 1 FADH2.
d.
 4 ATP, 2 NADH, and 1 FADH2.
e.
 1 ATP, 2 NADH, and 4 FADH2.
 84.
One product of the initial (first) reaction of the citric acid cycle is:
a.
 ATP.
b.
 NADH.
c.
 citrate.
d.
 oxaloacetate.
e.
 acetyl-CoA.
 85.
In the citric acid cycle, two acetyl CoA molecules are metabolized to:
a.
 2 CO2 + 2 ATPs + 2 NADH + 2 FADH.
b.
 4 CO2 + 6 NADH + 2 FADH2 + 2 ATP.
c.
 fructose-1, 6-bisphosphate.
d.
 glucose + 2 CO2 + 2 NADH + 2 FADH2 + 2 ATPs.
e.
 2 G3P.
 86.
Which of the following steps in the Kreb’s cycle directly produces a molecule of ATP (or GTP)?
a.
 citrate ® isocitrate
b.
 isocitrate ®·-ketoglutarate
c.
 succinyl CoA ® succinate
d.
 succinate ® fumarate
e.
 malate ® oxaloacetate
 87.
A glucose molecule that is metabolized via aerobic respiration has been completely broken down and released as CO2 by the end of:
a.
 fermentation.
b.
 the electron transport chain.
c.
 glycolysis.
d.
 ATP synthesis in the mitochondria.
e.
 the citric acid cycle.
 88.
Which of the following statements about the electron transport chain is true?
a.
 Protons are pumped out of the mitochondria by the complexes of the electron transport chain.
b.
 The proton gradient established during electron transport is a form of potential energy.
c.
 The electron transport chain can be found in the mitochondria of aerobic bacteria and other cells.
d.
 The movement of protons down a concentration gradient is an endergonic process.
e.
 ATP synthesis associated with the electron transport chain is an example of substrate level phosphorylation.
 89.
When hydrogen ions (protons) are pumped across the inner mitochondrial membrane, they form a proton gradient. ATP is then formed by a process known as:
a.
 glycolysis.
b.
 the citric acid cycle.
c.
 chemiosmosis.
d.
 pyruvate synthesis.
e.
 substrate-level phosphorylation.
 90.
Chemiosmosis allows exergonic redox processes to drive the endergonic reaction in which:
a.
 ADP is produced by dephosphorylation of ATP.
b.
 glucose is produced from phosphorylation of ADP.
c.
 G3P is produced from phosphorylation of ADP.
d.
 ATP is produced by phosphorylation of ADP.
e.
 pyruvate is converted to acetyl CoA.
 91.
Coenzyme Q:
a.
 transfers electrons.
b.
 oxidizes glucose.
c.
 is the ultimate source of energy in the citric acid cycle.
d.
 transfers phosphate to ATP.
e.
 reduces glucose.
 92.
The role of the oxygen molecules required for aerobic respiration is:
a.
 to accept the low energy electrons at the end of the electron transport chain.
b.
 to form ATP.
c.
 to produce CO2.
d.
 to store high energy electrons to pass to complex I of the electron transport chain.
e.
 to accept electrons directly from either NADH or FAHD2.
 93.
During aerobic respiration, oxygen is:
a.
 formed.
b.
 reduced.
c.
 oxidized.
d.
 catabolized.
e.
 decarboxylated.
 94.
In the skeletal muscle cells of vertebrates, as many as ____________ molecules of ATP are produced from one molecule of glucose. This is less than might be expected, because electrons from NADH produced during glycolysis must be shuttled through the ____________ mitochondrial membrane at a cost.
a.
 2; outer
b.
 2; inner
c.
 38; inner
d.
 6; outer
e.
 36; inner
 95.
Organismal body heat is a:
a.
 byproduct of endergonic reactions.
b.
 product of glucose synthesis.
c.
 byproduct of exergonic reactions.
d.
 product of anabolism.
e.
 product of ATP synthesis.
 96.
Select the processes that are matched with the incorrect amount of ATP produced by that process per glucose molecule.
a.
 glycolysis—2 ATP (net)
b.
 citric acid cycle—4 ATP
c.
 electron transport chain—32 ATP
d.
 alcohol fermentation—2 ATP
e.
 lactate fermentation—2 ATP
 97.
Select the incorrect match between the molecule and the amount of ATP produced if that particular molecule is completely oxidized in aerobic respiration:
a.
 FAD—2 ATP
b.
 NAD—2 ATP
c.
 glucose—36 to 38 ATP
d.
 pyruvic acid—34 to 36 ATP
e.
 All of the answer choices are correctly matched.
 98.
A drowning death would be most directly due to:
a.
 The unavailability of glucose to feed into glycolysis.
b.
 The accumulation of lactate in the muscle tissue due to anaerobic respiration.
c.
 The breakdown of pyruvate into ethyl alcohol.
d.
 The lack of oxygen to accept hydrogen.
e.
 There is not sufficient information to determine which answer is correct.
 99.
Select the statement that does not support the endosymbiosis theory:
a.
 Bacteria, mitochondria, and chloroplasts have circular DNA.
b.
 To produce ATP bacteria, cell membranes utilize an electron transport chain similar to mitochondrial membranes.
c.
 Mitochondria and chloroplasts reproduce independently of the eukaryotic cells that house them.
d.
 Bacteria, mitochondria, and chloroplasts all use glucose for fuel.
e.
 All of the statements support endosymbiosis.
 100.
Peter Mitchell demonstrated ATP production by aerobic bacteria by placing the bacteria in:
a.
 an acidic environment.
b.
 a basic environment.
c.
 an aqueous environment.
d.
 a buffered environment.
e.
 None of the answer choices are correct.
 101.
One gram of ____________ contains more than twice the amount of energy of a gram of glucose.
a.
 amino acids
b.
 lipids
c.
 ATP
d.
 protein
e.
 starch
 102.
Which of the following molecules can be used as a substrate for cellular respiration?
a.
 glucose
b.
 fats
c.
 proteins
d.
 polysaccharides
e.
 All of the above.
 103.
Deamination of amino acids in mammals yields amino groups that are converted to ____________, which is(are) excreted, and ____________, which is(are) converted to one of the reactants of glycolysis or the citric acid cycle.
a.
 urea; carbon chains
b.
 amino acids; ATP
c.
 amino groups; ADP
d.
 carbon chains; amino acids
e.
 amines; ATP
 104.
Saturated fatty acids store more energy than unsaturated fatty acids because saturated fatty acids:
a.
 are more highly reduced.
b.
 are deaminated.
c.
 lack phosphate.
d.
 contain more ester linkages.
e.
 contain more ATP.
 105.
Select the molecule that contains the most stored chemical energy:
a.
 ethyl alcohol.
b.
 water.
c.
 carbon dioxide.
d.
 lactate.
e.
 oxygen.
 106.
Which of the following processes or molecules concerning anaerobic respiration is not correctly matched?
a.
 terminal electron acceptor-inorganic substances such as O2.
b.
 immediate fate of electrons in NADH-transferred to electron transport chain.
c.
 reduced product(s) formed-relatively reduced inorganic substances.
d.
 mechanism of ATP synthesis-oxidative phosphorylation/chemiosmosis and substrate level phosphorylation.
e.
 All of the choices are correct.
 107.
Select the molecule that contains the least stored chemical energy:
a.
 ethyl alcohol.
b.
 pyruvate.
c.
 glucose.
d.
 lactate.
e.
 oxygen.
 108.
One important regulation point in the aerobic respiration of mammals occurs in glycolysis at the site of the enzyme phosphofructokinase, which is:
a.
 inhibited by high levels of ATP.
b.
 inhibited by low levels of ATP.
c.
 inhibited by high levels of AMP.
d.
 activated by the presence of O2.
e.
 activated by the introduction of glucose.
 109.
The production of alcohol or lactate from pyruvate during ____________ occurs as a means of regenerating ____________ from ____________.
a.
 aerobic respiration; NAD+; NADH
b.
 fermentation; NAD+; NADH
c.
 fermentation; NADH; NAD+
d.
 fermentation; ADP; ATP
e.
 aerobic respiration; ATP; ADP
 110.
The ability of some bacteria to produce lactate is exploited by humans to make:
a.
 cheese and ethyl alcohol.
b.
 insulin and antibodies.
c.
 yogurt and sauerkraut.
d.
 ethyl alcohol and carbonic acid.
e.
 carbon dioxide and water.
 111.
Which of the following statements is not correct about lactic acid fermentation?
a.
 It is inefficient compared to aerobic respiration.
b.
 It uses glucose as a substrate.
c.
 It produces two ATP molecules for every glucose molecule.
d.
 Oxygen is the final electron acceptor of this pathway.
e.
 Glycolysis is the only energy-yielding step of this pathway.
 112.
During fermentation, the immediate fate of the electrons in NADH is that they:
a.
 are transferred to the electron transport chain.
b.
 are transferred to an organic molecule.
c.
 are transferred to O2.
d.
 are used to make CO2.
e.
 are used to form H2O.
 113.
Which of the following metabolic pathways is common to all cells?
a.
 photosynthesis
b.
 electron transport chain
c.
 citric acid cycle
d.
 glycolysis
e.
 None of the above.
 114.
The process by which light energy is converted into the stored chemical energy of organic molecules is:
a.
 photosynthesis.
b.
 respiration.
c.
 diffusion.
d.
 fermentation.
e.
 None of the above.
 115.
Which term is not correctly matched with the appropriate energy source or carbon source?
a.
 heterotroph—organic energy sources
b.
 chemotroph—chemical energy sources
c.
 phototroph—light energy sources
d.
 autotroph—carbon fixation.
e.
 All of the choices are correct.
 116.
All organisms are classified into two general trophic groups. These two groups are:
a.
 organic and inorganic.
b.
 consumers and decomposers.
c.
 autotrophs and producers.
d.
 autotrophs and heterotrophs.
e.
 anaerobic autotrophs and aerobic autotrophs.
 117.
Animals, fungi, and many bacteria that use organic molecules as a source of both energy and carbon are:
a.
 photoautotrophs.
b.
 catabolic autotrophs.
c.
 chemoheterotrophs.
d.
 photoheterotrophs.
e.
 chemoautotrophs.
 118.
Plants, algae, and certain bacteria are:
a.
 inorganic synthesizers.
b.
 consumers.
c.
 chemosynthetic.
d.
 independent trophs.
e.
 producers.
 119.
What is the correct sequence of wavelengths (beginning with the shortest)?
a.
 gamma rays, UV, x-rays, infrared, visible light, TV and radio waves, and microwaves
b.
 TV and radio waves, microwaves, visible light, UV, infrared, x-rays, and gamma rays
c.
 microwaves, gamma rays, UV, visible light, infrared, TV, radio waves, and x-rays
d.
 gamma rays, x-rays, UV, visible light, infrared, microwaves, TV and radio waves
e.
 gamma rays, x-rays, UV, infrared, visible light, microwaves, and TV and radio waves
 120.
Light behaves not only as waves, but also as particles, which are referred to as:
a.
 electrons.
b.
 protons.
c.
 photons.
d.
 radiation.
e.
 neutrons.
 121.
An electron absorbs a photon of light energy and becomes energized; the electron shifts from a ____________ atomic orbital to a _____________ atomic orbital.
a.
 high energy; low energy
b.
 fluorescing; ground state
c.
 ground state; low energy
d.
 low energy; high energy
e.
 None of the answer choices are correct.
Figure 08-01
Use the figure below to answer the corresponding questions.

nar003-1.jpg
 122.
Chloroplasts will be found in the greatest density in the area of Figure 08-01 labeled:
a.
 1.
b.
 3.
c.
 4.
d.
 6.
e.
 7.
 123.
The primary function of the leaf structure labeled 5 in Figure 08-01 is:
a.
 food storage.
b.
 photosynthesis.
c.
 water transportation.
d.
 gas exchange.
e.
 nutrient absorption.
 124.
The overall reactions of photosynthesis are best summarized as:
a.
 12 CO2 + 6 H2O ® C6H12O6 + 12 O2 + 6 H2O.
b.
 C6H12O6 + 6 O2 + 6 H2O ® 6 CO2 + 12 H2O.
c.
 6 CO2 + 12 H2O ® C6H12O6 + 6 O2 + 6 H2O.
d.
 6 CO2 + 12 H2O ® C6H12O6 + 12 O2.
e.
 6 H2CO3 + 6 H2O ® C6H12O6 + C6H12O6 + 6 H2O + 6 O2.
 125.
The ____________________ of a chlorophyll molecule is (are) responsible for absorbing light.
a.
 carbon atoms
b.
 porphyrin ring
c.
 methyl group
d.
 magnesium ion
e.
 long hydrophobic tail
 126.
Chlorophyll consists of a porphyrin ring that contains a single atom of:
a.
 manganese.
b.
 magnesium.
c.
 phosphorus.
d.
 nitrogen.
e.
 iron.
 127.
Chlorophyll molecules are attached to thylakoid membranes by:
a.
 a long hydrophobic tail.
b.
 the porphyrin ring.
c.
 the methyl group.
d.
 a magnesium ion.
e.
 a hydroxide group.
 128.
Chlorophyll and accessory photosynthetic pigments are associated with the:
a.
 stroma.
b.
 thylakoid membranes.
c.
 mesophyll membranes.
d.
 light reaction centers of the stroma lamellae.
e.
 stroma grana.
 129.
The action spectrum of photosynthesis best matches the absorption spectrum of:
a.
 NADPH.
b.
 carotenoids.
c.
 chlorophyll.
d.
 xanthophylls.
e.
 anthocyanin.
 130.
Red and blue light support the highest rates of photosynthesis because:
a.
 these are the only wavelengths reaching Earth from the sun.
b.
 these are the only wavelengths that carotenoids cannot absorb.
c.
 these wavelengths have the highest energy in the visible spectrum.
d.
 chlorophyll absorbs these wavelengths more than other wavelengths.
e.
 these wavelengths activate the ATP sythetase enzyme.
 131.
Substances that absorb visible light:
a.
 ATP.
b.
 NADP.
c.
 RuBP.
d.
 pigment.
e.
 photon.
 132.
Chlorophyll absorbs primarily _____ and _____ regions of the visible spectrum.
a.
 blue; red
b.
 green; yellow
c.
 red; green
d.
 red; yellow
e.
 blue; yellow
 133.
The most important photosynthetic pigment(s) is(are):
a.
 carotenoids.
b.
 xanthophylls.
c.
 chlorophyll a.
d.
 chlorophyll b.
e.
 All are equally important for photosynthesis.
 134.
Accessory photosynthetic pigment that expands the spectrum of light that provides energy for photosynthesis:
a.
 carotenoids.
b.
 chlorophyll a.
c.
 chlorophyll b.
d.
 Both A and B.
e.
 Both A and C.
 135.
Engelmann concluded that chlorophyll in the chloroplasts is responsible for photosynthesis based on the following results:
a.
 Spirogyra cells each contain a long, spiral-shaped, emerald-green chloroplast embedded in the cytoplasm.
b.
 The action spectrum of photosynthesis matched the maximum production of oxygen by Spirogyra, observed by the greatest accumulation of bacteria in the blue and red regions of the spectrum.
c.
 Bacteria exposed to the action spectrum for photosynthesis showed no preference to any particular color of light.
d.
 Accessory pigments transfer some of the energy of excitation produced by green light to chlorophyll molecules.
e.
 None of the answer choices are correct.
Figure 08-02
Use the figure below to answer the corresponding questions.

nar004-1.jpg
 136.
According to the graph in Figure 08-02, chlorophyll absorbs light most strongly in the:
a.
 red and blue wavelengths.
b.
 blue and green wavelengths.
c.
 green and yellow wavelengths.
d.
 UV and red wavelengths.
e.
 UV and infrared wavelengths.
 137.
The graph in Figure 08-02 represents the:
a.
 electromagnetic spectrum.
b.
 action spectrum of photosynthesis.
c.
 absorption spectra for chlorophylls a and b.
d.
 Z scheme for photosynthesis.
e.
 None of the above.
 138.
During the reactions of photosynthesis, ____________ is reduced and ____________ is oxidized.
a.
 O2; C6H12O6
b.
 CO2; C6H12O6
c.
 H2O; C6H12O6
d.
 O2; H2O
e.
 CO2; H2O
 139.
In the overall reactions of photosynthesis, it appears that hydrogen atoms are transferred from water to carbon dioxide to form a carbohydrate. This type of reaction is classified as:
a.
 a redox reaction.
b.
 an anaerobic reaction.
c.
 a catabolic reaction.
d.
 an oxidation reaction.
e.
 a hydrolytic reaction.
 140.
A group of thylakoid discs make up:
a.
 the stroma.
b.
 a granum.
c.
 a chloroplast.
d.
 a vacuole.
e.
 the mesophyll layer.
 141.
In a chloroplast, there is an outer and an inner membrane. The inner membrane encloses a fluid filled region called the;
a.
 grana.
b.
 stroma.
c.
 thylakoid.
d.
 pigment.
e.
 electron acceptor.
 142.
Thylakoid sacs are sometimes arranged in stacks called:
a.
 grana.
b.
 stroma.
c.
 lumen.
d.
 pigment.
e.
 electron acceptor.
 143.
Thylakoid membranes are involved in __________ synthesis.
a.
 glucose
b.
 NADP
c.
 ATP
d.
 RuBP
e.
 PEP
 144.
Which of the following is not associated with the thylakoid membranes?
a.
 photosystems I and II
b.
 the Calvin-Bensen cycle
c.
 electron transport systems
d.
 ATP synthetase
e.
 antenna complex
 145.
The reactions of photosynthesis are divided into two categories:
a.
 light-independent reactions and carbon fixation reactions.
b.
 carbon fixation reactions and oxygen fixation reactions.
c.
 light-dependent reactions and carbon fixation reactions.
d.
 light-dependent reactions and citric acid cycle.
e.
 chemiosmosis and photochemical reactions.
 146.
During the light-dependent reactions of photosynthesis, a constant supply of electrons is provided by:
a.
 water.
b.
 oxygen.
c.
 the sun.
d.
 chlorophyll.
e.
 carotenoids.
 147.
ATP is formed when __________________ the thylakoid lumen.
a.
 hydrogen ions enter
b.
 hydrogen ions leave
c.
 electrons enter
d.
 electrons leave
e.
 water is split in
 148.
The reactions that occur in the thylakoid membranes are:
a.
 the energy-releasing reactions.
b.
 the photorespiration reactions.
c.
 the sugar-producing reactions.
d.
 the carbon fixation reactions.
e.
 the light-dependent reactions.
 149.
The electron transport chain of photosynthesis is located in:
a.
 the cristae.
b.
 the mitochondria.
c.
 the outer chloroplast membrane.
d.
 the chloroplast stroma.
e.
 the thylakoid membrane.
Figure 08-03
Use the figure below to answer the corresponding questions.

nar005-1.jpg
 150.
Carbon is fixed in which part of the diagram in Figure 08-03?
a.
 A
b.
 G
c.
 4
d.
 2
e.
 1
 151.
Where in Figure 08-03 is NADPH formed?
a.
 F
b.
 4
c.
 3
d.
 2
e.
 B
 152.
In photosynthesis, ATP and NADPH are produced during:
a.
 the carbon fixation reactions.
b.
 the light-dependent phase.
c.
 the light-independent phase.
d.
 glycolysis.
e.
 photolysis.
 153.
12 H2O + 12 NADP+ + 18 ADP + Pi ® 6 O2 + 12 NADPH + 18 ATP summarizes the ____________ reactions of photosynthesis.
a.
 carbon fixation
b.
 light-dependent
c.
 light-independent
d.
 CAM
e.
 electron transport
 154.
Reaction center complexes of the light-dependent reactions contain ____________ and ____________, which receive energy from ____________.
a.
 accessory pigments; chlorophyll; antenna complexes
b.
 carotenoids; proteins; chlorophyll
c.
 chlorophyll; antenna complexes; carotenoid
d.
 proteins; antenna complexes; carotenoid
e.
 chlorophyll; proteins; antenna complexes
 155.
How many electrons are needed to reduce one molecule of NADP+ to NADPH?
a.
 1
b.
 2
c.
 3
d.
 4
e.
 5
 156.
Electrons that are excited to a higher energy level may be transferred to an electron acceptor or may return to a ground state. If the latter occurs, energy will be released in a process known as:
a.
 photoelectron degradation.
b.
 fluorescence.
c.
 photoelectron hydrolysis.
d.
 porphyrin.
e.
 photoelectron deconfiguration.
 157.
The electrons lost by the P680 reactive center are replaced from:
a.
 a water molecule.
b.
 solar energy.
c.
 ATP.
d.
 NADP+.
e.
 Photosystem II.
 158.
Chlorophyll:
a.
 reflects red and blue light, and absorbs green light.
b.
 transmits red and blue light, and absorbs green light.
c.
 transmits red and blue light, and reflects green light.
d.
 absorbs red and blue light, and reflects green light.
e.
 absorbs red, blue, and green light.
 159.
The synthesis of ATP as a result of the light-dependent reactions of photosynthesis is an ____________ reaction that is coupled to the diffusion of ____________ down their concentration gradient.
a.
 endergonic; protons
b.
 energy-releasing; hydrogen ions
c.
 exergonic; electrons
d.
 energy-acquiring; electrons
e.
 oxidation; water
 160.
The synthesis of ATP during photosynthesis or respiration occurs as a result of:
a.
 phosphorylation of AMP.
b.
 phosphorylation of ATP.
c.
 phosphorylation of ADP.
d.
 phosphorylation of G3P.
e.
 oxidation of NADPH.
 161.
Ribulose phosphate is synthesized from:
a.
 NADP+.
b.
 pyruvate.
c.
 G3P.
d.
 RuBP.
e.
 CO2.
 162.
The first step in the Calvin-Bensen cycle is the attachment of carbon dioxide to:
a.
 Rubisco.
b.
 glyceraldehyde 3-phosphate (G3P).
c.
 phosphoglycerate
d.
 RuBP (ribulose bisphosphate).
e.
 None of the above.
 163.
Which of the following is not one of the intermediates or products of the carbon fixation reactions?
a.
 NADPH
b.
 phosphogylcerate (PGA)
c.
 glyceraldehyde 3-phosphate
d.
 glucose
e.
 ribulose bisphosphate
 164.
The reactants of the light-dependent reactions are:
a.
 H2O, ADP, and NADP+.
b.
 CO2, ADP, and NADP+.
c.
 H2O, ATP, and NADPH.
d.
 CO2, ADP, and NADPH.
e.
 H2O, CO2, and NADP+.
 165.
The reactants of the Calvin-Benson cycle are:
a.
 H2O, ATP, and NADPH.
b.
 CO2, ADP, and NADP+.
c.
 CO2, ATP, and NADPH.
d.
 H2O, ATP, and NADPH.
e.
 CO2, H2O, and ATP.
 166.
Noncyclic electron transport needs a constant supply of electrons. These are obtained from:
a.
 light.
b.
 CO2.
c.
 glucose.
d.
 H2O.
e.
 ATP.
 167.
Oxygen produced by photosynthesis comes directly from:
a.
 light.
b.
 CO2.
c.
 glucose.
d.
 H2O.
e.
 ATP.
 168.
Which of the following is not common to both photosynthesis and aerobic respiration?
a.
 ATP synthesis
b.
 electron transport chain
c.
 oxidation
d.
 terminal electron acceptor
e.
 None of the above, all are shared by both processes.
 169.
Which of the following is common to both photosynthesis and aerobic respiration?
a.
 NADP+ and NADPH
b.
 glycolysis
c.
 chemiosmosis
d.
 CO2 and O2 as end products
e.
 thylakoids
 170.
In C4 plants, reactions that fix CO2 into four-carbon compounds occur in:
a.
 guard cells.
b.
 epidermal cells.
c.
 bundle sheath cells.
d.
 mesophyll cells.
e.
 xylem cells.
 171.
The ______________ in leaves are typically closed at night and open during the daytime to allow for gas exchange.
a.
 stomata
b.
 epidermis
c.
 spongy mesophyll
d.
 grana
e.
 cuticles
 172.
At night, CAM plants incorporate CO2 into ____________, which is stored in the ____________ of their cells.
a.
 fructose; vacuoles
b.
 acetyl CoA; mitochondria
c.
 glucose; starch granules
d.
 pyruvate; starch granules
e.
 malate; vacuoles


Check Your Work     Start Over

Nucleic Acids

%CODE1%

Javascript not enabled

Name: 

Nucleic Acids

 

 

Modified True/False
Indicate whether the statement is true or false.  If false, change the identified word or phrase to make the statement true.
 1.
It has been discovered that the genetic material is protein. _________________________
 2.
Hershey and Chase were the first two scientists to prove that genetic material is composed of proteins. _________________________
 3.
The five-carbon sugar in DNA nucleotides is called ribose. _________________________
 4.
After years of research, the structure of the DNA molecule is now known to be a double helix. _________________________
 5.
Franklin’s X-ray diffraction images suggested that the DNA molecule resembled a tightly coiled spring, a shape called a helix. _________________________
 6.
In all living things, DNA replication must occur after cell division. _________________________
 7.
Before a DNA molecule can replicate itself, it must coil up. _________________________
 8.
Helicases unwind the double helix of DNA by breaking the nitrogen bonds that link the base pairs. _________________________
 9.
Errors in nucleotide sequence that occur during replication cannot be corrected. _________________________
 10.
RNA molecules contain the five-carbon sugar ribose. _________________________
 11.
During transcription, the information on a DNA molecule is “rewritten” into an mRNA molecule. _________________________
 12.
When a tRNA anticodon binds to an mRNA codon, the amino acid detaches from the tRNA molecule and bonds to the end of a growing protein chain. _________________________
 

Multiple Choice
Identify the choice that best completes the statement or answers the question.
 13.
Griffith’s transformation experiments
a.
 changed proteins into DNA.
b.
 caused harmless bacteria to become deadly.
c.
 resulted in DNA molecules becoming proteins.
d.
 were designed to show the effect of heat on bacteria.
 14.
Griffith’s experiments showed that
a.
 dead bacteria could be brought back to life.
b.
 harmful bacteria were hardier than harmless bacteria.
c.
 heat caused the harmful and harmless varieties of bacteria to fuse.
d.
 genetic material could be transferred between dead bacteria and living bacteria.
 15.
Avery’s experiments showed that transformation
a.
 is prevented by protein-destroying enzymes.
b.
 is prevented by DNA-destroying enzymes.
c.
 causes protein to become DNA.
d.
 is caused by a protein.
 16.
Avery and his research team concluded that
a.
 RNA was the genetic material.
b.
 protein bases were the genetic material.
c.
 DNA and RNA were found in the human nucleus.
d.
 DNA was responsible for transformation.
 17.
Using radioactive tracers to determine the interactions of bacteriophages and their host bacteria, Hershey and Chase demonstrated without question that
a.
 genes are composed of protein molecules.
b.
 DNA and proteins are actually the same molecules located in different parts of cells.
c.
 bacteria inject their DNA into the cytoplasm of bacteriophages.
d.
 DNA is the molecule that stores genetic information in cells.
 18.
All of the following are true of the viruses Hershey and Chase used in their study except
a.
 they consisted of DNA surrounded by a protein coat.
b.
 they injected their DNA into cells.
c.
 they destroyed the DNA of the infected bacteria.
d.
 they caused infected bacteria to make many new viruses.
 19.
The scientist who worked with Martha Chase to prove that genetic material is composed of DNA was
a.
 Alfred Hershey.
c.
 Francis Crick.
b.
 Oswald Avery.
d.
 Rosalind Franklin.
 20.
Molecules of DNA are composed of long chains of
a.
 amino acids.
c.
 monosaccharides.
b.
 fatty acids.
d.
 nucleotides.
 21.
Which of the following is not part of a molecule of DNA?
a.
 deoxyribose
c.
 phosphate
b.
 nitrogen base
d.
 ribose
 22.
A nucleotide consists of
a.
 a sugar, a protein, and adenine.
b.
 a sugar, an amino acid, and starch.
c.
 a sugar, a phosphate group, and a nitrogen base.
d.
 a starch, a phosphate group, and a nitrogen base.
 23.
The part of the molecule for which DNA is named is the
a.
 phosphate group.
c.
 nitrogen base.
b.
 sugar.
d.
 hydrogen bonds.
 24.
Purines and pyrimidines are
a.
 nitrogen bases found in amino acids.
b.
 able to replace phosphate groups from defective DNA.
c.
 names of specific types of DNA molecules.
d.
 classification groups of nitrogen bases.
 25.
Of the four nitrogen bases in DNA, which two are purines and which two are pyrimidines?
a.
 purines: adenine, thymine; pyrimidines: uracil, cytosine
b.
 purines: adenine, thymine; pyrimidines: guanine, cytosine
c.
 purines: adenine, guanine; pyrimidines: thymine, cytosine
d.
 purines: uracil, thymine; pyrimidines: guanine, cytosine
 26.
The amount of guanine in an organism always equals the amount of
a.
 protein.
c.
 adenine.
b.
 thymine.
d.
 cytosine.
 27.
adenine : thymine ::
a.
 protein : DNA
c.
 guanine : cytosine
b.
 Watson : Crick
d.
 guanine : thymine
 28.
Watson and Crick built models that demonstrated that
a.
 DNA and RNA have the same structure.
b.
 DNA is made of two strands that twist into a double helix.
c.
 guanine forms hydrogen bonds with adenine.
d.
 thymine forms hydrogen bonds with cytosine.
 29.
The scientists credited with establishing the structure of DNA are
a.
 Avery and Chargaff.
c.
 Mendel and Griffith.
b.
 Hershey and Chase.
d.
 Watson and Crick.
 30.
X-ray diffraction photographs by Wilkins and Franklin suggested that
a.
 DNA and RNA are the same molecules.
b.
 DNA is composed of either purines or pyrimidines, but not both.
c.
 DNA molecules are arranged as a tightly coiled helix.
d.
 DNA and proteins have the same basic structure.
 31.
During DNA replication, a complementary strand of DNA is made from each original DNA strand. Thus, if a portion of the original strand is CCTAGCT, then the new strand will be
a.
 TTGCATG.
c.
 CCTAGCT.
b.
 AAGTATC.
d.
 GGATCGA.
 32.
Which of the following is not true about DNA replication?
a.
 It must occur before a cell can divide.
b.
 Two complementary strands are duplicated.
c.
 The double strand unwinds and unzips while it is being duplicated.
d.
 The new DNA molecule has two newly-made strands.
 33.
The attachment of nucleotides to form a complementary strand of DNA during replication
a.
 is accomplished by DNA polymerase.
b.
 is accomplished only in the presence of tRNA.
c.
 prevents separation of complementary strands of RNA.
d.
 is the responsibility of the proofreading enzymes.
 34.
The enzymes responsible for adding nucleotides to the exposed DNA bases during replication are
a.
 replicases.
c.
 helicases.
b.
 DNA polymerases.
d.
 template enzymes.
 35.
The enzymes that unwind DNA during replication are called
a.
 double helixes.
c.
 forks.
b.
 DNA helicases.
d.
 phages.
 36.
All of the following are true about DNA replication in prokaryotic cells except
a.
 replication begins at many sites along the DNA.
b.
 replication begins at one site along the DNA loop.
c.
 replication occurs in two opposite directions.
d.
 there are two replication forks.
 37.
Transcription, which is a stage of gene expression, is the process by which genetic information encoded in DNA is transferred to a(n)
a.
 RNA molecule.
c.
 uracil molecule.
b.
 DNA molecule.
d.
 tRNA molecule.
 38.
RNA differs from DNA in that RNA
a.
 is double-stranded.
c.
 contains the nitrogen base uracil.
b.
 contains deoxyribose.
d.
 does not contain adenine.
 39.
RNA is chemically similar to DNA except that the sugar in RNA has an additional
a.
 oxygen atom.
c.
 nitrogen base.
b.
 phosphate group.
d.
 carbon atom.
 40.
In RNA molecules, adenine is complementary to
a.
 cytosine.
c.
 thymine.
b.
 guanine.
d.
 uracil.
 41.
Each of the following is a type of RNA except
a.
 carrier RNA.
c.
 ribosomal RNA.
b.
 messenger RNA.
d.
 transfer RNA.
 42.
During transcription,
a.
 proteins are synthesized.
c.
 RNA is produced.
b.
 DNA is replicated.
d.
 translation occurs.
 43.
During transcription, the genetic information for making a protein is “rewritten” as a molecule of
a.
 messenger RNA.
c.
 transfer RNA.
b.
 ribosomal RNA.
d.
 translation RNA.
 44.
Transcription begins when RNA polymerase
a.
 attaches to a ribosome.
b.
 unwinds a strand of DNA.
c.
 binds to a strand of RNA.
d.
 attaches to the promoter sequence of a gene.
mRNA: CUCAAGUGCUUC

nar001-1.jpg
 45.
Refer to the illustration above. What is the portion of the protein molecule coded for by a piece of mRNA with the sequence CUCAAGUGCUUC?
a.
 Ser—Tyr—Arg—Gly
c.
 Leu—Lys—Cys—Phe
b.
 Val—Asp—Pro—His
d.
 Pro—Glu—Leu—Val
 46.
Refer to the illustration above. The anticodons for the codons in the mRNA with the sequence CUCAAGUGCUUC are
a.
 GAG—UUC—ACG—AAG.
c.
 CUC—GAA—CGU—CUU.
b.
 GAG—TTC—ACG—AAG.
d.
 CUU—CGU—GAA—CUC.
 47.
Refer to the illustration above. Which of the following would represent the strand of DNA from which the mRNA strand CUCAAGUGCUUC was made?
a.
 CUCAAGUGCUUC
c.
 GAGTTCACGAAG
b.
 GAGUUCACGAAG
d.
 AGACCTGTAGGA
mRNA codons amino acid
UAU, UAC tyrosine
CCU, CCC, CCA, CCG proline
GAU, GAC aspartic acid
AUU, AUC, AUA isoleucine
UGU, UGC cysteine
 48.
Refer to the illustration above. Suppose that you are given a protein containing the following sequence of amino acids: tyrosine, proline, aspartic acid, isoleucine, and cysteine. Use the portion of the genetic code given to determine which of the following contains a DNA sequence that codes for this amino acid sequence.
a.
 AUGGGUCUAUAUACG
c.
 GCAAACTCGCGCGTA
b.
 ATGGGTCTATATACG
d.
 ATAGGGCTTTAAACA
 49.
The function of rRNA is to
a.
 synthesize DNA.
c.
 form ribosomes.
b.
 synthesize mRNA.
d.
 transfer amino acids to ribosomes.
 50.
At the very beginning of translation, the first tRNA molecule
a.
 binds to the mRNA’s anticodon.
b.
 attaches directly to the DNA codon.
c.
 connects an amino acid to its anticodon.
d.
 binds to the mRNA’s start codon.
 51.
Transfer RNA
a.
 carries an amino acid to its correct codon.
b.
 synthesizes amino acids as they are needed.
c.
 produces codons to match the correct anticodons.
d.
 converts DNA into mRNA.
 52.
Which of the following does not affect the final outcome of gene expression?
a.
 the environment of the cells
b.
 the number of amino acids in the protein being produced
c.
 the presence of other cells
d.
 the timing of gene expression
 

Completion
Complete each statement.
 53.
Griffith’s experiment showed that live bacteria without capsules acquired the ability to make capsules from dead bacteria with capsules in a process Griffith called ____________________.
 54.
Avery’s prevention of transformation using DNA-destroying enzymes provided evidence that ____________________ molecules function as the hereditary material.
 55.
A DNA subunit composed of a phosphate group, a five-carbon sugar, and a nitrogen-containing base is called a(n) ____________________.
 56.
The name of the five-carbon sugar that makes up a part of the backbone of molecules of DNA is ____________________.
 57.
Due to the strict pairing of nitrogen bases in DNA molecules, the two strands are said to be ____________________ to each other.
 58.
Watson and Crick determined that DNA molecules have the shape of a(n) ____________________ ____________________.
 59.
Chargaff’s observations established the ____________________ rules, which describe the specific pairing between bases on DNA strands.
 60.
Watson and Crick used the X-ray diffraction photographs of ____________________ and ____________________ to build their model of DNA.
 61.
The process by which DNA copies itself is called ____________________.
 62.
Enzymes called ____________________ are responsible for unwinding the DNA double helix by breaking the hydrogen bonds that hold the complementary strands together.
 63.
Errors in nucleotide sequencing are corrected by enzymes called ____________________.
 64.
Transcription and translation are stages in the process of ____________________.
 65.
The second stage of gene expression is called ____________________.
 66.
The nitrogen-containing base that is found only in RNA is ____________________.
 67.
The enzyme responsible for making mRNA is called ____________________.
 68.
Messenger RNA is produced during the process of ____________________.
 69.
The sequence of three nucleotides that code for specific amino acids or stop signals in the synthesis of protein is called a(n) ____________________.
 70.
During translation, amino acids are brought to the ribosomes by molecules of ____________________.
 71.
Nucleotide sequences of tRNA that are complementary to codons on mRNA are called ____________________.
 72.
The information contained in a molecule of messenger RNA is used to make protein during the process of ____________________.

 
Check Your Work     Start Over

Moss & Fern Quiz

%CODE1%

Name: 

Moss and Fern

 

 

True/False
Indicate whether the sentence or statement is true or false.
1.
Land plants have a complex life cycle that involves an alternation of generations between a haploid gametophyte and a diploid sporophyte.
2.
The sporophyte of a nonvascular plant is larger and lives longer than the gametophyte.
3.
The life cycle of nonvascular plants involves alternation of generations.
4.
Mosses, liverworts, and hornworts all are generally found in moist habitats.
5.
Nonvascular plants have true leaves but lack true stems and roots.
6.
Mosses and ferns no longer require the presence of a film of water for reproduction.
7.
Ferns need water to reproduce because their sperm must swim to eggs.
8.
Mosses are called pioneer plants because they can promote the development of new communities in barren areas that have been burned or destroyed by humans.
9.
Sphagnum moss is used in potting and gardening soils because of its ability to encourage water drainage.
 

Multiple Choice
Identify the letter of the choice that best completes the statement or answers the question.
10.
The ancestors of today’s land plants were probably
a.
brown algae.
c.
green algae.
b.
red algae.
d.
lichens.
11.
The challenges faced by early land plants included
a.
conserving water.
b.
reproducing on land.
c.
absorbing minerals from the rocky surface.
d.
All of the above
12.
The diploid form in a plant’s life cycle is called the
a.
sporophyte.
c.
parental generation.
b.
gametophyte.
d.
alternate generation.
13.
The haploid form in a plant’s life cycle is called the
a.
sporophyte.
c.
parental generation.
b.
gametophyte.
d.
alternate generation.
14.
Which of the following is not a bryophyte?
a.
moss
c.
hornwort
b.
liverwort
d.
fern
15.
Which of the following is not characteristic of all nonvascular plants?
a.
They produce seeds.
b.
They have an alternation of generations lifestyle.
c.
They produce spores.
d.
They require water for sexual reproduction.
16.
The water-retaining ability of sphagnum moss makes it ideal for
a.
using in garden-soil mixes.
b.
use in packing bulbs and flowers for shipping.
c.
use in houseplant soils.
d.
All of the above
17.
Similarities shared by monocots and primitive dicots suggest that
a.
monocots and dicots evolved independently.
b.
monocots were on Earth long before dicots.
c.
monocots evolved from dicots.
d.
dicots evolved from monocots.

 
Check Your Work     Reset