Author: Biology Junction Team

PCC Fungi Study Guide

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PCC Fungi Study Guide

 

 

Multiple Choice
Identify the choice that best completes the statement or answers the question.
 1.
All fungi are
a.
 heterotrophic prokaryotes.
c.
 autotrophic prokaryotes.
b.
 heterotrophic eukaryotes.
d.
 autotrophic eukaryotes.
 2.
Fungi do NOT
a.
 carry out photosynthesis.
c.
 digest food outside their bodies.
b.
 grow on their food source.
d.
 absorb food through their cell walls.
 3.
Fungi resemble plants in that they both always
a.
 have stems.
c.
 act as parasites.
b.
 grow from the ground.
d.
 have cell walls.
 4.
A mushroom is a fungal
a.
 fruiting body.
c.
 mycorrhiza.
b.
 lichen.
d.
 yeast.
 5.
The tangled mass that makes up the body of a fungus is the
a.
 hypha.
c.
 mycelium.
b.
 rhizoid.
d.
 stolon.

nar001-1.jpg

Figure 21–1
 6.
Fungal hyphae, shown in Figure 21–1, differ in that some lack
a.
 cell walls.
c.
 nuclei.
b.
 cross walls.
d.
 cytoplasm.
 7.
A circular arrangement of mushrooms sprouting from the same mycelium is known as a(an)
a.
 hypha.
c.
 imperfect fungus.
b.
 fairy ring.
d.
 sporangiophore.
 8.
Most fungi reproduce
a.
 asexually only.
c.
 both sexually and asexually.
b.
 sexually only.
d.
 by budding.
 9.
Stinkhorns, which mimic the odor of rotting meat, have spores that are dispersed by
a.
 wind.
c.
 snow.
b.
 birds.
d.
 flies.
 10.
When hyphae of opposite mating types meet, they first
a.
 enter mitosis
c.
 enter meiosis.
b.
 grow and develop.
d.
 fuse.
 11.
Sporangia are found at the tops of specialized hyphae called
a.
 sporangiophores.
c.
 gametangia.
b.
 mycelia.
d.
 stolons.
 12.
Which of the following processes is first to occur after the nuclei of opposite mating types fuse?
a.
 Spores are produced.
c.
 Mitosis occurs.
b.
 Gametes are produced.
d.
 Meiosis occurs.
 13.
Dark fuzz that grows on bread is an example of
a.
 toadstool.
c.
 yeast.
b.
 spore.
d.
 mold.
 14.
Rhizoids in molds are analagous to which structures on plants?
a.
 flowers
c.
 stems
b.
 roots
d.
 leaves
 15.
In bread mold, haploid gametes are produced by the
a.
 gametangia.
c.
 zygospores.
b.
 rhizoids.
d.
 sporangiophores.
 16.
Which of the following ingredients is NOT added to bread dough in order to make it rise?
a.
 sugar
c.
 water
b.
 yeast
d.
 oxygen
 17.
The dry, powdered yeast used to bake bread actually contains
a.
 zygospores.
c.
 conidia.
b.
 ascospores.
d.
 sporangia.
 18.
Yeasts obtain energy by alcoholic fermentation in the absence of
a.
 moisture.
c.
 oxygen.
b.
 carbon dioxide.
d.
 sugar.
 19.
Mushrooms are classified as
a.
 common molds.
c.
 club fungi.
b.
 sac fungi.
d.
 imperfect fungi.
 20.
Which is responsible for the enlargement of fruiting bodies?
a.
 water uptake by cells in hyphae
c.
 production of haploid spores
b.
 rapid cell division
d.
 expansion of air spaces between the gills
 21.
The common name for members of the phylum Basidiomycota is derived from the shape of their
a.
 spores.
c.
 basidia.
b.
 hyphae.
d.
 stalks.
 22.
Over time, nutrients at the center of a large underground mycelium become depleted, causing new mushrooms to sprout only
a.
 in a cluster at the center.
c.
 when the nutrients are replaced.
b.
 in a ring at the outer edges.
d.
 after budding takes place.
 23.
Each of the following is a basidiomycete EXCEPT
a.
 shelf fungi.
c.
 puffballs.
b.
 mushrooms.
d.
 cup fungi.
 24.
In basidiomycetes, the primary mycelia of different mating types fuse to form
a.
 a secondary mycelium.
b.
 haploid zygotes.
c.
 gills.
d.
 haploid nuclei of the same mating type.
 25.
Which statement about Penicillium is correct?
a.
 It produces mushrooms.
c.
 It is the source of an antibiotic.
b.
 It causes bread to rise.
d.
 It causes athlete’s foot.
 26.
Penicillium is classified in phylum Deuteromycota because Penicillium has
a.
 fruiting bodies.
c.
 no observed sexual phase.
b.
 gills.
d.
 basidiospores.
 27.
Penicillium may have evolved from an ascomycete that lost its ability to carry out
a.
 asexual reproduction.
c.
 spore formation.
b.
 sexual reproduction.
d.
 conidia formation.
 28.
An important role of fungi in an ecosystem is
a.
 photosynthesis.
c.
 making alcohol.
b.
 breaking down dead organisms.
d.
 killing bacteria.
 29.
The oldest fossil fungi on record belong to the phylum
a.
 Ascomycota.
c.
 Basidiomycota.
b.
 Deuteromycota.
d.
 Zygomycota.
 30.
Fungi that absorb food from decaying organic matter are
a.
 parasites.
c.
 mutualists.
b.
 saprobes.
d.
 autotrophs.
 31.
Fungi feed on
a.
 only living organisms.
c.
 both living and dead organisms.
b.
 only dead organisms.
d.
 only other fungi.
 32.
The breakdown of dead organisms is accelerated by the fungal production of
a.
 alcohols.
c.
 digestive enzymes.
b.
 acids.
d.
 recycled nutrients.
 33.
Which of the following statements about fungi is true?
a.
 They bind trace elements and hold them.
b.
 They return trace elements to the soil.
c.
 They do not affect trace elements.
d.
 They deplete the soil of trace elements.
 34.
Athlete’s foot is caused by the same fungus that causes
a.
 wheat rust.
c.
 ringworm.
b.
 moldy bread.
d.
 thrush.
 35.
The growth of yeasts in moist regions of the body is kept in check by competition from
a.
 antibiotics.
c.
 rusts.
b.
 bacteria.
d.
 mildews.
 36.
Crop damage by fungal diseases is
a.
 greatest in tropical areas.
c.
 greatest in temperate areas.
b.
 least in tropical areas.
d.
 not affected by climate.
 37.
Which structures of the fungus Cordyceps digest tropical grasshoppers from the inside out?
a.
 spores
c.
 fruiting bodies
b.
 hyphae
d.
 mycelia
 38.
Each of the following is true of wheat rust EXCEPT that it
a.
 is caused by a basidiomycete.
b.
 is carried by insects into wheat fields.
c.
 is controlled by destroying barberry plants.
d.
 produces two kinds of spores.
 39.
The normal balance between bacteria and yeasts in the body can be upset by
a.
 eating yeast-leavened bread.
c.
 using antibiotics.
b.
 eating edible mushrooms.
d.
 being exposed to mushroom spores.

nar002-1.jpg

Figure 21–2
 40.
Figure 21–2 illustrates an association of a(an)
a.
 cyanobacterium and a plant.
c.
 plant and a fungus.
b.
 alga or cyanobacterium and a fungus.
d.
 alga and a plant.
 41.
Which of the following is NOT a single organism?
a.
 mushroom
c.
 yeast
b.
 smut
d.
 lichen
 42.
Which statement about lichens is correct?
a.
 They are not tolerant of harsh conditions.
b.
 They cannot make their own food.
c.
 They grow only in soil.
d.
 They can serve as an air quality indicator.
 43.
The association of plants and fungi in mycorrhizae illustrates a type of relationship called
a.
 parasitism.
c.
 competition.
b.
 mutualism.
d.
 parallelism.
 44.
In a mycorrhizal relationship, what benefit does the plant get from the fungus?
a.
 protection from harsh conditions
c.
 products of photosynthesis
b.
 aid in seed dispersal
d.
 aid in the absorption of water and minerals
 45.
Beneath the forest floor, carbon atoms can be moved from one tree to the next by
a.
 orchids.
c.
 mycorrhizae.
b.
 fungal spores.
d.
 lichens.
 46.
Which of the following is not a characteristic of fungi?
a.
 membrane-bounded nuclei
b.
 mitochondria
c.
 cell wall of lipopolysaccharides
d.
 primarily terrestrial in habitat
e.
 reproduction via spores
 47.
The cell walls of fungi are composed of:
a.
 cellulose.
b.
 lipids.
c.
 glycogen.
d.
 chitin.
e.
 chlorophyll.
 48.
Fungi can grow under all of the following conditions except:
a.
 concentrated salt solutions.
b.
 an environment with a very low pH of 3.
c.
 a dry environment.
d.
 jelly or other sugar solutions.
e.
 a cold, refrigerated environment.
Figure 25-01
Use the figure below to answer the corresponding questions.nar003-1.jpg
 49.
In Figure 25-01, the structure labeled 1 is:
a.
 a conidium.
b.
 a perforated septum.
c.
 a hypha.
d.
 a basidium.
e.
 a spore.
 50.
In Figure 25-01, the fungus illustrated in Figure A is:
a.
 multicellular.
b.
 coenocytic.
c.
 septate.
d.
 dikaryotic.
e.
 None of the above.
 51.
An example of a unicellular fungus is:
a.
 a mold.
b.
 a mushroom.
c.
 a yeast.
d.
 a rust.
e.
 a smut.
 52.
A ____________ is a filament that makes up the vegetative body of most fungi.
a.
 thallus
b.
 protonema
c.
 fruiting body
d.
 hypha
e.
 septa
 53.
Which group of fungi have hyphae that are multinucleate and not divided by septa?
a.
 monokaryotic
b.
 unicellular
c.
 ascomycete
d.
 coenocytic
e.
 sporophyllous
 54.
A ____________ is a tangled mat of hyphae.
a.
 sporocarp
b.
 sporangia
c.
 zygospore
d.
 mycelium
e.
 coenocyte
 55.
The club fungi typically reproduce by producing:
a.
 zygospores.
b.
 ascospores.
c.
 asci.
d.
 basidia.
e.
 mycorrhizae.
 56.
Most fungal spores are ____________ reproductive cells that are produced ________________________.
a.
 motile; sexually only
b.
 motile; asexually only
c.
 nonmotile; sexually only
d.
 nonmotile; asexually only
e.
 nonmotile; sexually or asexually
 57.
In a fungus, a complex multicellular reproductive structure is called:
a.
 a hypha.
b.
 a gametangium.
c.
 a fruiting body.
d.
 an oogonium.
e.
 an antheridium.
 58.
What makes up most of the mass of an individual mushroom?
a.
 underground mycelium
b.
 above ground mycelium
c.
 underground fruiting body
d.
 above ground ascocarp
e.
 underground ascocarp
 59.
Dikaryotic cells are denoted as:
a.
 n + n.
b.
 n – n.
c.
 n.
d.
 2n.
e.
 2n – n.
 60.
Members of phylum ____________ are the most primitive of the fungi and were previously classified as protists.
a.
 Chytridiomycota
b.
 Zygomycota
c.
 Oomycota
d.
 Ascomycota
e.
 Deuteromycota
 61.
One ancestral characteristic remaining in representatives of the Chytridiomycetes is:
a.
 gametes formed by mitosis.
b.
 alternation of generations.
c.
 cell walls.
d.
 flagellated cells.
e.
 both sexual and asexual reproduction.
 62.
An example of a member of phylum Zygomycota is:
a.
 the common edible mushroom.
b.
 yeast.
c.
 the black bread mold.
d.
 the truffle.
e.
 More than one of the above.
 63.
When bread gets moldy with visible black or blue spots, you are looking at masses of the colored:
a.
 spores.
b.
 hyphae.
c.
 mycelia.
d.
 ascocarps.
e.
 thalli.
 64.
Black bread mold is ___________________, which means that it is self-sterile.
a.
 heterozygous
b.
 heterothallic
c.
 hetertrophic
d.
 mycotoxic
e.
 coenocytic
 65.
Reproduction in the black bread mold occurs between ___________________ hyphae.
a.
 male and female
b.
 + and –
c.
 dikaryotic and monokaryotic
d.
 heterothallic and homothallic
e.
 sterile and self-sterile
 66.
An example of a member of phylum Ascomycota is:
a.
 the common edible mushroom.
b.
 yeast.
c.
 the black bread mold.
d.
 the truffle.
e.
 More than one of the above.
 67.
The sac fungi are characterized by sexual reproductive structures called:
a.
 asci.
b.
 basidia.
c.
 gemmae.
d.
 conidiophores.
e.
 conidia.
 68.
Asexual reproduction in sac fungi involves production of spores called:
a.
 asci.
b.
 basidia.
c.
 gemmae.
d.
 conidiophores.
e.
 conidia.
Figure 25-02
Use the figure below to answer the corresponding questions.nar004-1.jpg
 69.
In Figure 25-02, the structure labeled 11 is:
a.
 a zygote.
b.
 a female gametangium.
c.
 a male gemetangium.
d.
 a zoosporangium.
e.
 a zoospore.
 70.
The process occurring at point 3 in Figure 25-02 is:
a.
 asexual reproduction.
b.
 fertilization.
c.
 meiosis.
d.
 mitosis.
e.
 zygote germination.
 71.
The structure labeled 9 in Figure 25-02 was produced by:
a.
 fertilization of two zygotes.
b.
 meiosis in the resting sporangium.
c.
 meiosis in the zoosporangium.
d.
 mitosis in the resting sporangium.
e.
 mitosis in the zoosporangium.
 72.
An example of a plant disease caused by a basiodiomycete is:
a.
 chestnut blight.
b.
 Dutch elm disease.
c.
 verticillium wilt on potatoes.
d.
 stem rust of wheat.
e.
 All of the above.
 73.
In a mushroom, the primary mycelium is composed of ______________ cells.
a.
 monokaryotic
b.
 dikaryotic
c.
 homothallic
d.
 coenocytic
e.
 prokaryotic
 74.
Puffballs and bracket fungi are most closely related to:
a.
 molds.
b.
 truffles.
c.
 the common edible mushroom.
d.
 yeast.
e.
 the black bread mold.
 75.
Lichens are most typically formed by the symbiotic association of an alga or cyanobacterium and:
a.
 an ascomycete.
b.
 a deuteromycete.
c.
 a basidiomycete.
d.
 a zygomycete.
e.
 All of the above.
 76.
Lichens reproduce primarily asexually by ____________, which are fragments of the body of the lichen.
a.
 conidia
b.
 soredia
c.
 asci
d.
 basidia
e.
 thalli
 77.
Which of the following organisms typically grows most slowly?
a.
 bread molds
b.
 lichens
c.
 yeasts
d.
 mushrooms
e.
 sac fungi
 78.
Which of the following is not produced utilizing fungi?
a.
 beer
b.
 bread
c.
 blue cheese
d.
 yogurt
e.
 wine
 79.
Claviceps purpurea produces _______________, which infests grain and has been important in many historical events, as ingestion of infested grain milled into flour can cause hallucinations and even death.
a.
 an ergot
b.
 a smut
c.
 a rust
d.
 a brown rot
e.
 a mildew
 80.
Fungi parasitic on plants produce specialized hyphae, called ____________, that penetrate the host.
a.
 soredia
b.
 secondary mycelia
c.
 basidia
d.
 asci
e.
 haustoria
 81.
A basidiomycete that infests wheat is the wheat:
a.
 rust.
b.
 wilt.
c.
 strobilus.
d.
 scab.
e.
 rot.
 82.
Which is not a fungal infection in humans?
a.
 ringworm
b.
 athlete’s foot
c.
 yeast infections
d.
 histoplasmosis
e.
 None of the above, all are fungal infections in humans.
 83.
Examples of plant disease caused by an ascomycete are:
a.
 chestnut blight.
b.
 Dutch elm disease.
c.
 stem rust of wheat.
d.
 abnormal leaf fall of rubber.
e.
 Both A and B.
 84.
______________________ is a common chytridiomycete, which exhibits alternation of generation.
a.
 phytophthora
b.
 Allomyces
c.
 Ascomycetes
d.
 chytrids
e.
 None of the above.
 85.
Which one of the following is mismatched?
a.
 Bread mold – zygomycetes
b.
 Sac fungi – Ascomycota
c.
 Yeast – Ascomycota
d.
 Truffles – Ascomycota
e.
 Ascomycota – ascospores
 86.
The characteristic brown, blue-green, pink, or other tints of ascomycetes are due to the color of their__________.
a.
 Mycelia
b.
 Hyphae
c.
 Conidia
d.
 Sporangia
e.
 None of the above.
 87.
Yeasts reproduce asexually by:
a.
 division.
b.
 budding.
c.
 ascospores.
d.
 Binary fission.
e.
 Both B and D.
 88.
Which one of the following statements is true?
a.
 Basidiospores are formed within the basidia.
b.
 Ascospores are formed outside the ascus.
c.
 Both Basidiospores and ascospores are formed within their respective structures.
d.
 Both Basidiospores and ascospores are formed outside their respective structures.
e.
 Basidiospores are formed outside, and ascospores are formed within, their respective structures.
 89.
Which one of the following is mismatched?
a.
 Mushroom – Basidiomycetes
b.
 Sac fungi – Ascomycetes
c.
 Club fungi – Basidiomycetes
d.
 Puff balls – Basidiomycetes
e.
 Corn smut disease – Ascomycetes
 90.
Mushrooms that we eat are technically referred to as:
a.
 Basidiospores.
b.
 Basidiocarp.
c.
 Mycelium.
d.
 Hyphae.
e.
 Gills.
 91.
Color pigments produced by __________________ are used to dye woolens and litmus.
a.
 club fungi
b.
 mushroom
c.
 algae
d.
 lichens
e.
 puff balls
 92.
Reduction in ____________________ growth is used as a sensitive indicator of air pollution.
a.
 fungus
b.
 mushroom
c.
 algae
d.
 lichen
e.
 puff balls
 93.
Mycorrhiza is an example of ________________.
a.
 Commensalism
b.
 Parasitism
c.
 Mutualism
d.
 All of the above.
e.
 None of the above.
 94.
Mycorrhizae benefits plants by:
a.
 increasing photosynthetic area.
b.
 increasing absorptive surface area of roots.
c.
 increasing chlorophyll content.
d.
 increasing leaf area.
e.
 None of the above.
 95.
____________________ cause enormous economic losses by decaying wood, both living trees and stored lumber.
a.
 Sac fungi
b.
 Mushrooms
c.
 Bracket fungi
d.
 Aspergillus
e.
 Rhizopus
 96.
Consuming even a single mushroom of the genus _______________ can be fatal.
a.
 Agaricus
b.
 Shottake
c.
 Portobello
d.
 Amanita
e.
 Oyster
 97.
_________________ is a fungal chemical that shows promise as an anticancer agent.
a.
 Pencillin
b.
 Fumigallin
c.
 Ergot compounds
d.
 Psilocybin
e.
 None of the above.
 98.
Ergot compounds, produced by _____________________, are used as drugs to induce labor and to stop uterine bleeding.
a.
 Aspergillus tamari
b.
 Claviceps purpurea
c.
 Penicillium notatum
d.
 Erwinia carotovora
e.
 None of the above.

 
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Plant Evolution, Structure, and Function

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Plant Evolution, Structure, and Function

 

 

Multiple Choice
Identify the choice that best completes the statement or answers the question.
 1.
The ancestors of today’s land plants were probably
a.
 brown algae.
c.
 green algae.
b.
 red algae.
d.
 lichens.
 2.
The challenges faced by early land plants included
a.
 conserving water.
b.
 reproducing on land.
c.
 absorbing minerals from the rocky surface.
d.
 All of the above
 3.
The waxy protective covering of a land plant is called a
a.
 cuticle.
c.
 rhizome.
b.
 capsule.
d.
 stoma.
 4.
The cuticle
a.
 helps reduce the evaporation of fluids from a plant.
b.
 is a plant adaptation to an aquatic environment.
c.
 is a reproductive structure in some plants.
d.
 is crucial to plant cell nourishment.
 5.
Some land plants developed an internal system of interconnected tubes and vessels called
a.
 cuticles.
b.
 nonvascular canals.
c.
 the circulatory system.
d.
 vascular tissues.
 6.
The xylem in a plant
a.
 transports food from the leaves.
b.
 transports water and minerals to the stems and leaves.
c.
 exchanges carbon dioxide with the atmosphere.
d.
 All of the above
 7.
liverworts, hornworts, mosses : nonvascular plants ::
a.
 gymnosperms, angiosperms : bryophytes
b.
 ferns : mosses
c.
 gymnosperms, angiosperms : vascular plants
d.
 bryophytes, liverworts : vascular plants
 8.
gymnosperms : naked seeds ::
a.
 pollen : mosses
b.
 ferns : seeds
c.
 liverwort : vascular tissue
d.
 angiosperms : enclosed seeds
 9.
The diploid form in a plant’s life cycle is called the
a.
 sporophyte.
b.
 gametophyte.
c.
 parental generation.
d.
 alternate generation.
 10.
The haploid form in a plant’s life cycle is called the
a.
 sporophyte.
b.
 gametophyte.
c.
 parental generation.
d.
 alternate generation.
 11.
Alternation between a haploid stage and a diploid stage in a plant’s life cycle is called
a.
 generational recycling.
b.
 periodic gametogenesis.
c.
 alternating forms.
d.
 alternation of generations.
 12.
In plants, haploid gametes are produced as a result of
a.
 fertilization.
c.
 encapsulation.
b.
 meiosis.
d.
 mitosis.
 13.
The dominant generation in vascular plants is the
a.
 gametophyte.
c.
 angiosperm.
b.
 gymnosperm.
d.
 sporophyte.
 14.
vascular plants : sporophytes ::
a.
 sporophytic plants : gametophytes
b.
 nonvascular plants : gametophytes
c.
 spores : gametes
d.
 plants with seeds : seedless plants
 15.
sporophytes : spores ::
a.
 sporophytes : gametophytes
b.
 gametophytes : gametes
c.
 gametophytes : spores
d.
 sporophytes : gametes
 16.
Which of the following is not a nonvascular plant?
a.
 moss
c.
 hornwort
b.
 liverwort
d.
 fern
 17.
Which of the following is not characteristic of all nonvascular plants?
a.
 They produce seeds.
b.
 They have a life cycle characterized by alternation of generations.
c.
 They produce spores.
d.
 They require water for sexual reproduction.
 18.
Which of the following is a reason why mosses are good pioneer plants?
a.
 They can survive in very wet areas.
b.
 They can survive in areas that receive only low levels of sunlight.
c.
 They can create a layer of soil on bare rock.
d.
 They grow very slowly.
 19.
The water-retaining ability of peat moss makes it ideal for
a.
 use in garden-soil mixes.
b.
 use in packing bulbs and flowers for shipping.
c.
 use in houseplant soils.
d.
 All of the above
 20.
All of the following developed in some vascular plants and are not present in any nonvascular plants except
a.
 pollen.
c.
 chlorophyll.
b.
 deep roots.
d.
 seeds.
 21.
The primary distinguishing characteristics of all vascular plants are
a.
 xylem and phloem; true roots, stems, and leaves; pollen; seeds.
b.
 xylem and phloem; true roots, stems, and leaves; spores.
c.
 true roots, stems, and leaves; spores.
d.
 xylem and phloem; true roots, stems, and leaves.
 22.
Which of the following is not a seed plant?
a.
 a flowering plant
c.
 a fern
b.
 a pine tree
d.
 a ginkgo
 23.
Which of the following is characteristic of all seed plants?
a.
 a seed containing an embryo, a nutrient supply, and a protective coat
b.
 enclosure and protection of seeds within a fruit
c.
 production of flowers
d.
 All of the above
 24.
Pines, spruces, and firs are
a.
 angiosperms.
c.
 flowering plants.
b.
 gymnosperms.
d.
 sometimes nonvascular.
 25.
The tallest trees in the world are species of
a.
 conifers.
c.
 liverworts.
b.
 dicots.
d.
 angiosperms.
 26.
Which of the following were the first land plants to evolve seeds?
a.
 angiosperms
c.
 mosses
b.
 gymnosperms
d.
 ferns
 27.
Seed plants are the dominant land plants because
a.
 they include the largest plants on Earth.
b.
 the seeds they produce enable the plant to survive in a dormant state when conditions are not suitable for growth.
c.
 they are vascular plants with large root systems, so they can obtain water from any kind of environment.
d.
 they produce flowers that are pollinated by insects, enabling them to produce many offspring.
 28.
Monocots have
a.
 leaves with branching veins.
b.
 flower parts in multiples of four or five.
c.
 leaves with parallel veins.
d.
 two cotyledons.
 29.
Flowering plants are classified as monocots or dicots according to their number of
a.
 leaves.
c.
 meristems.
b.
 roots.
d.
 cotyledons.
 30.
Which of the following associations between a plant cell type and its characteristics is incorrect?
a.
 collenchyma cell—thin cell walls; do not occur in groups
b.
 parenchyma cell—cube-shaped or elongated; large vacuole
c.
 sclerenchyma cell—thick, rigid cell walls
d.
 All of the above are correct.
 31.
Which of the following types of plant cells provides structural support and is typically dead at functional maturity?
a.
 collenchyma
c.
 sclerenchyma
b.
 parenchyma
d.
 None of the above
 32.
The conducting cells of phloem are called
a.
 tracheids.
c.
 sieve plates.
b.
 sieve tube members.
d.
 vessel elements.
 33.
In xylem tissue, water moves from tracheid to tracheid through
a.
 pits.
c.
 sieve tubes.
b.
 vessel elements.
d.
 companion cells.
 34.
The outermost layer consisting of ground tissue in a stem is the
a.
 sapwood.
c.
 pith.
b.
 nodes.
d.
 cortex.
 35.
vascular tissue : transport of fluids ::
a.
 epidermis : support
b.
 dermal tissue : storage
c.
 dermal tissue : transport of fluids
d.
 ground tissue : metabolism
 36.
Regions of active cell division in plants are called
a.
 meristems.
c.
 phloem.
b.
 xylem.
d.
 dermal tissue.
 37.
Meristems can be found
a.
 only at the tips of roots.
b.
 only at the tips of stems.
c.
 at the tips of stems and roots.
d.
 None of the above
 38.
Which of the following types of meristems is found in some monocots above the bases of leaves and stems?
a.
 apical meristems
b.
 vascular cambium
c.
 intercalary meristems
d.
 cork cambium
 39.
The lengthening of plant roots and shoots is called
a.
 secondary growth.
c.
 primary growth.
b.
 germination.
d.
 vascular growth.
 40.
During periods of primary growth at apical meristems, stems and roots
a.
 become wider.
b.
 become longer.
c.
 maintain a constant number of cells.
d.
 undergo photoperiodism.
 41.
secondary growth : width ::
a.
 secondary growth : height
b.
 lateral meristem : length
c.
 apical meristem : width
d.
 primary growth : length
 42.
The primary function of root hairs is
a.
 to strengthen roots as they grow downward.
b.
 to transport food up the stem.
c.
 to absorb water and minerals.
d.
 to store water.
 43.
leaves : carbon dioxide from the air ::
a.
 leaves : water from the air
b.
 roots : light from the air
c.
 roots : carbon dioxide from the air
d.
 roots : nutrients from the soil
 44.
Which of the following are taproots?
a.
 underground roots of grass plants
b.
 prop roots of corn plants
c.
 roots of radish plants
d.
 aerial roots of orchids
 45.
Which of the following is not characteristic of fibrous roots?
a.
 many branch roots
b.
 shallow roots
c.
 dominant primary root
d.
 possible development from the base of the stem
 46.
Which of the following is not characteristic of secondary growth of roots?
a.
 Vascular cambium is formed.
b.
 Secondary xylem is produced toward the inside of the root and secondary phloem is produced toward the outside of the root.
c.
 Cork cambium is formed.
d.
 It occurs in monocot, dicot, and gymnosperm roots.
 47.
Which of the following is the function of the endodermis?
a.
 water absorption
b.
 water storage
c.
 regulation of passage of water and minerals into the vascular tissue
d.
 production of new cells for secondary growth
The diagram below shows the stem of a coleus plant.

nar001-1.jpg
 48.
Refer to the illustration above. The tissue labeled “1” in the diagram is called
a.
 meristem.
c.
 phloem.
b.
 xylem.
d.
 ground tissue.
 49.
Refer to the illustration above. In the diagram, the tissue labeled “2,” which conducts water and is made of elongated cells that connect end to end, is called
a.
 meristem.
c.
 phloem.
b.
 xylem.
d.
 ground tissue.
 50.
Refer to the illustration above. In the diagram, the tissue labeled “3,” which transports sugars from regions where they are made to regions where they are used, is called
a.
 meristem.
c.
 phloem.
b.
 xylem.
d.
 ground tissue.
 51.
The ground tissue in the center of roots and stems
a.
 turns into meristem.
b.
 transports food.
c.
 provides support.
d.
 germinates at least once a year.
 52.
Leaves connect to the stems of plants at the
a.
 lateral buds.
c.
 nodes.
b.
 pith.
d.
 internodes.
 53.
Secondary xylem and phloem are produced from the
a.
 cork cambium.
c.
 apical meristems.
b.
 vascular cambium.
d.
 bark.
 54.
xylem : inner side of vascular cambium ::
a.
 vascular cambium : cork cambium
b.
 cork : vascular cambium
c.
 phloem : outer side of vascular cambium
d.
 phloem : inner side of vascular cambium
 55.
Bark contains
a.
 xylem and phloem.
c.
 phloem and cork cells.
b.
 sapwood.
d.
 mesophyll.
 56.
In a woody stem, cork cambium
a.
 forms phloem.
b.
 forms xylem.
c.
 produces the outer bark.
d.
 becomes vascular cambium.
 57.
The movement of water through a plant is caused by
a.
 the attraction of water molecules for each other.
b.
 capillary action.
c.
 transpiration.
d.
 All of the above
 58.
The loss of water by the leaves and stem of a plant is called
a.
 translocation.
c.
 active transport.
b.
 osmosis.
d.
 transpiration.
 59.
The phloem in a plant
a.
 transports sugars.
b.
 transports water and minerals.
c.
 exchanges carbon dioxide and oxygen with the atmosphere.
d.
 None of the above
 60.
The transport of food from the leaf to the rest of the plant is called
a.
 translocation.
c.
 active transport.
b.
 osmosis.
d.
 transpiration.
 61.
A hypothesis that explains the movement of sugar in a plant is the
a.
 transpiration hypothesis.
c.
 pressure-flow hypothesis.
b.
 translocation hypothesis.
d.
 source-sink hypothesis.
 62.
cohesion : adhesion ::
a.
 hydrogen : polar
c.
 hand : people
b.
 book : pages
d.
 night : day
The diagram below shows a portion of a plant’s vascular system.

nar002-1.jpg
 63.
Refer to the illustration above. Structure 2 is a
a.
 tracheid.
c.
 vessel element.
b.
 companion cell.
d.
 sieve tube member.
 64.
Refer to the illustration above. Structure 3 is a
a.
 tracheid.
c.
 vessel element.
b.
 companion cell.
d.
 sieve tube member.
 65.
Refer to the illustration above. Which structure allows the cytoplasm of one cell to connect to the cytoplasm of a neighboring cell?
a.
 1
c.
 4
b.
 3
d.
 5
 66.
The xylem in a plant
a.
 transports sugars.
b.
 transports water and minerals.
c.
 exchanges carbon dioxide and oxygen with the atmosphere.
d.
 None of the above
 67.

Scientists studying the transport of sugars in plants found it difficult to conduct experiments that didn’t damage the plants they were studying. Some of them decided to use some insects they knew fed on plants. The insects they chose were aphids, which have mouthparts that they insert into plants and use to suck out nutrients. Many of these aphids also release excess sugars from the anal end of their digestive tracts. These substances are called honeydew because they are released as sugary droplets. The scientists conducted the following experiments:

(1) They measured the rate at which honeydew was released from aphids feeding on cucumber plants. The average rate was two drops per hour.
(2) They froze some aphids and the plant parts to which the aphids were attached. They then examined cross sections of the plant parts using an electron microscope. They found that the tips of the aphids’ mouthparts were in individual cells in the phloem tissue.
(3) They anesthetized aphids feeding on plants and then cut away the aphids, leaving the mouthparts in place. They noted that the honeydew continued to be released through the mouthparts at a rate of two drops per hour. They also analyzed the honeydew and found that it had the same chemical composition as the sugars transported in the plants.

Which of the following statements is not supported by the data obtained in these experiments?

a.
 The contents of the phloem are under pressure.
b.
 Sugars are transported in the phloem of plants.
c.
 Sugars are actively transported into cells of the phloem.
d.
 Some aphids take up more sugars from plants than they can use.
 68.
mc068-1.jpg

Refer to the illustration above. Which of the leaves is a doubly compound leaf?

a.
 1
c.
 3
b.
 2
d.
 4
 69.
In plants, the ground tissue that is made up of chloroplast-rich cells is the
a.
 vascular bundle.
c.
 pith.
b.
 petiole.
d.
 mesophyll.
 70.
The tissue of the leaf mesophyll that is located directly below the upper epidermis and consists of tightly packed column-shaped cells is the
a.
 palisade layer.
c.
 adventitious layer.
b.
 cortex.
d.
 spongy mesophyll.
The diagram below shows a leaf cross section.

nar003-1.jpg
 71.
Refer to the illustration above. Which label indicates the spongy layer?
a.
 2
c.
 4
b.
 3
d.
 5
 72.
Refer to the illustration above. Structure 1
a.
 is the cuticle.
c.
 covers the epidermis.
b.
 protects the leaf.
d.
 All of the above
 73.
Refer to the illustration above. The vein is made up of
a.
 only xylem vessels.
b.
 only phloem vessels.
c.
 both xylem and phloem vessels.
d.
 neither xylem nor phloem vessels.
 74.
Photosynthesis enables plants to produce most of the organic molecules they need. This process requires the use of all of the following except
a.
 carbon dioxide.
c.
 light.
b.
 water.
d.
 glucose.
 75.
Which of the following is an adaptation found in leaves of shade-grown plants?
a.
 high density of chloroplasts
b.
 small leaf area
c.
 chloroplasts not shading each other
d.
 dense hair coatings
 76.
The stomata are responsible for
a.
 translocation.
b.
 leaf growth.
c.
 regulation of water loss.
d.
 transport of minerals.
 77.
The guard cells that surround a stoma
a.
 have no cell walls.
b.
 swell with water, causing the stoma to open.
c.
 shrivel up when opening the stoma.
d.
 are responsible for translocation.
 78.
guard cells : stomata ::
a.
 can openers : cans
c.
 cushions : rocking chairs
b.
 hammers : nails
d.
 trout : stream
 79.
cuticle : above-ground parts ::
a.
 vascular system : plant
c.
 guard cell : stoma
b.
 sperm : pollen
d.
 root system : wax
 

Completion
Complete each statement.
 80.
In leaves, the openings called ____________________ regulate the exchange of carbon dioxide and oxygen.
 81.
The surface of a vascular plant is covered by a waxy, waterproof layer called a(n) ____________________.
 82.
One of the first environmental challenges that early land plants had to overcome was finding a way to conserve ____________________.
 83.
The tissues that transport water and minerals within a plant make up the ____________________ system.
 84.
____________________ are seed plants with uncovered seeds.
 85.
In alternation of generations, the ____________________ generation alternates with the diploid generation.
 86.
co086-1.jpg

Refer to the illustration above. The cycle shown in the diagram is referred to as _________________________.
 87.
The fusion of two gametes results in the production of a(n) ____________________ sporophyte.
 88.
The haploid form of a plant is the ____________________ generation.
 89.
Conifers produce ____________________ to protect their seeds.
 90.
The sporophyte generation produces haploid spores by the process of ____________________.
 91.
Peat bogs contain organic matter that decomposes very slowly because of a(n) ____________________ produced by peat moss.
 92.
Bryophytes have a dominant ____________________ generation.
 93.
In mosses and liverworts, the ____________________ generation is the dominant generation.
 94.
A rootlike structure that anchors plants in the phylum Bryophyta is called a(n) ____________________.
 95.
The ability of mosses to absorb and retain ____________________ contributes to their ability to help prevent soil erosion.
 96.
Partially decomposed moss plants of the genus Sphagnum are dried and used as a source of ____________________ for heating.
 97.
A plant that has flower parts that occur in multiples of four or five is usually a(n) ____________________.
 98.
Most ____________________ have thin, transparent leaflike structures along a stemlike axis.
 99.
Nonvascular plants known as ____________________ usually have cells with a single large chloroplast, similar to algae.
 100.
Photosynthetic and storage tissues of plants are made up of ____________________ cells.
 101.
____________________ are narrow, elongated, thick-walled sclerenchyma cells that taper at each end.
 102.
The lateral meristem that produces secondary vascular tissue is called the _________________________.
 103.
The lateral meristem that produces the cork cells of the outer bark is called the ____________________.
 104.
Plants grow at the tips of roots and stems in regions of active cell division called ____________________.
 105.
Cell division in the ____________________ adds layers of new cells around the outside of a plant’s body.
 106.
Growth that occurs from the formation of new cells at the tip of a plant is called ____________________.
 107.
Growth that causes a plant to increase in width is called _________________________.
 108.
The thickening of a plant body by the production of new xylem and phloem is called ____________________ growth.
 109.
The ____________________ of plants absorb water and minerals necessary for growth.
 110.
The two main types of root systems are fibrous root systems and ____________________ systems.
 111.
Primary growth in roots occurs in cells of the _________________________, carbohydrate storage occurs in cells of the ____________________, and water absorption occurs through cells of the ____________________.
 112.
Flexible, soft, and usually green stems are called ____________________ stems.
 113.
Edible parts of the potato plant are modified stems called ____________________, which grow underground and store starch.
 114.
The darker wood in the center of a tree trunk is called ____________________.
 115.
Wood consists primarily of _________________________ cells.
 116.
The transport of organic molecules from the leaf to the rest of the plant is called ____________________.
 117.
The broad, flat portion of a typical leaf is called the ____________________.
 118.
When the guard cells that surround a stoma fill with water, the stoma ____________________.
 119.
____________________ ions play an important role in opening and closing stomata.
 

Problem
 120.

pr120-1.jpg

Refer to the illustration above. This cladogram depicts the presumed evolutionary relationships between the major phyla of land plants. The list below consists of paired characteristics found in at least some land plants. For each pair of characteristics, choose the one that is the more evolutionarily advanced. Then complete the cladogram by indicating on it where each of the more advanced characteristics first appeared.

Characteristics:

cones / flowers
sporophyte dominant / gametophyte dominant
waxy cuticle present / waxy cuticle absent
vascular tissue absent / vascular tissue present
gametophyte independent of sporophyte / gametophyte dependent on sporophyte
stomata absent / stomata present
seeds / spores
multicellular reproductive structure / unicellular reproductive structure
 

Essay
 121.
What problems were encountered by the first land plants? What adaptations evolved to solve these problems? Write your answer in the space below.
 122.
How is a seed an adaptation for life on land? Write your answer in the space below.
 123.
Describe three characteristics of angiosperms that have helped to make the group successful. Write your answer in the space below.
 124.
Describe the functions of ground tissue in a plant. Write your answer in the space below.
 125.
What kinds of plants have lateral meristems, and what kind of growth occurs in the lateral meristems? Write your answer in the space below.
 126.
While walking through a forest you notice that someone has carved his or her initials into the bark of a tree. The initials are exactly 1.5 meters from the ground. How far from the ground will the initials be next year and the year after that? Why? Discuss growth tissues in plants in your answer. Write your answer in the space below.
 127.
Secondary growth adds width to a woody stem. Briefly describe the tissues involved and explain how they increase the stem’s diameter. Write your answer in the space below.
 128.
Define the terms source and sink in relation to the transportation of organic molecules in the phloem of plants. Write your answer in the space below.
 129.
Compare the movement of sugar and water in a plant. Write your answer in the space below.
 130.
Why is it advantageous for mesophyll cells to be more densely packed in the upper part of a plant leaf than in the lower part? Write your answer in the space below.
 131.
Describe how stomata open and close. Write your answer in the space below.


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PCC Phylogeny Study Guide

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PCC Phylogeny Study Guide

 

 

Multiple Choice
Identify the choice that best completes the statement or answers the question.
 1.
Biologists use a classification system to group organisms in part because organisms
a.
 are going extinct.
c.
 are too much alike.
b.
 are very numerous and diverse.
d.
 share too many derived characters.
 2.
The study of organisms requires the use of
a.
 only large, general categories of organisms.
b.
 only small, specific categories of organisms.
c.
 both large and small categories of organisms.
d.
 no categories of organisms.
 3.
Scientists assign each type of organism a universally accepted name in the system known as
a.
 traditional classification.
c.
 binomial nomenclature.
b.
 the three domains.
d.
 cladistics.
 4.
For many species, there are often regional differences in their
a.
 common names.
c.
 taxa.
b.
 scientific names.
d.
 binomial nomenclature.
 5.
In taxonomy, a group at any level of organization is referred to as a
a.
 cladogram.
c.
 taxon.
b.
 binomial.
d.
 system.
 6.
Scientists have identified and named
a.
 all living species.
c.
 all extinct species.
b.
 all living and extinct species.
d.
 a fraction of all species.
 7.
In the scientific version of a species name, which of the terms is capitalized?
a.
 the first term only
c.
 both the first and second terms
b.
 the second term only
d.
 neither the first nor the second term
 8.
Based on their names, you know that the baboons Papio annubis and Papio cynocephalus do NOT belong to the same
a.
 class.
c.
 genus.
b.
 family.
d.
 species.
 9.
How do binomial, or two-part, names compare with early versions of scientific names?
a.
 They are longer.
c.
 They are completely descriptive.
b.
 They are shorter.
d.
 They are in English.
 10.
The second part of a scientific name is unique to each
a.
 order in its class.
c.
 genus in its family.
b.
 family in its order.
d.
 species in its genus.
 11.
Often, the second part of a scientific name is
a.
 a Latinized description of a particular trait.
b.
 the same as for other members of the same genus.
c.
 capitalized if it derives from a proper name.
d.
 different in different locations.
 12.
Before Linnaeus, scientific names were problematic because they were
a.
 too brief to be descriptive.
c.
 written only in Greek.
b.
 very long and difficult to standardize.
d.
 written only in Latin.
 13.
In Linnaeus’s system of classification, how many taxonomic categories were there?
a.
 one
c.
 five
b.
 three
d.
 seven
 14.
A genus is composed of a number of related
a.
 kingdoms.
c.
 orders.
b.
 phyla.
d.
 species.
 15.
Several different classes make up a
a.
 kingdom.
c.
 family.
b.
 phylum.
d.
 genus.
 16.
Which two kingdoms did Linnaeus recognize?
a.
 bacteria and animals
c.
 plants and animals
b.
 plants and fungi
d.
 protists and animals
 17.
Animals that are warm-blooded, have body hair, and produce milk for their young are grouped in the class
a.
 Amphibia.
c.
 Aves.
b.
 Mammalia.
d.
 Reptilia.
 18.
The most general and largest category in Linnaeus’s system is
a.
 the phylum.
c.
 the genus.
b.
 the kingdom.
d.
 the domain.
 19.
Traditional classifications tended to take into account primarily
a.
 extinct organisms.
c.
 DNA similarities.
b.
 RNA similarities.
d.
 general similarities in appearance.
 20.
Sometimes, organisms that are not closely related look similar because of
a.
 convergent evolution.
c.
 mutations.
b.
 molecular clocks.
d.
 reclassification.
 21.
The procedure of grouping organisms based on their evolutionary history is called
a.
 traditional classification.
c.
 derived characters.
b.
 binomial nomenclature.
d.
 evolutionary classification.
 22.
In an evolutionary classification scheme, species within one genus should
a.
 be more similar to one another than they are to species in other genera.
b.
 not be similar in appearance.
c.
 be limited to species that can interbreed.
d.
 have identical genes.
 23.
What kind of analysis focuses on the order in which derived characters appeared in organisms?
a.
 cladistic analysis
c.
 taxonomy
b.
 traditional classification
d.
 anatomy
 24.
In biology, an evolutionary innovation is also referred to as a
a.
 derived character.
c.
 molecular clock.
b.
 taxonomic group.
d.
 physical similarity.
 25.
What do scientists consider when they perform a cladistic analysis?
a.
 only the RNA of organisms
c.
 derived characters
b.
 all traits of organisms
d.
 only physical similarities
 26.
An analysis of derived characters is used to generate a
a.
 family tree based on external appearance.
b.
 family tree based on DNA structure.
c.
 cladogram.
d.
 traditional classification system.
 27.
What does a cladistic analysis show about organisms?
a.
 the relative importance of each derived character
b.
 the order in which derived characters evolved
c.
 the general fitness of the organisms analyzed
d.
 all traits of each organism analyzed
 28.
Similar genes are evidence of
a.
 binomial nomenclature.
c.
 common ancestry.
b.
 mutations.
d.
 different anatomy.
 29.
What do all organisms have in common?
a.
 They use DNA and RNA to pass on information.
b.
 They are all prokaryotes.
c.
 They are all eukaryotes.
d.
 They are genetically identical.
 30.
What is true about dissimilar organisms such as a cow and a yeast?
a.
 They are not related at all.
b.
 Their degree of relatedness cannot be evaluated.
c.
 Their degree of relatedness can be determined from their genes.
d.
 They can interbreed and thus are the same species.
 31.
Scientists have found that humans and yeasts
a.
 have similar genes for the assembly of certain proteins.
b.
 share all aspects of cellular structure.
c.
 have nothing in common.
d.
 cannot be evaluated for degree of relatedness.
 32.
What does the presence of similar genes in very dissimilar organisms imply?
a.
 The genes were produced by different selection pressures.
b.
 The organisms share a common ancestor.
c.
 The organisms do not share a common ancestor.
d.
 The genes became identical through mutation.
 33.
What is the main idea behind the model of a molecular clock?
a.
 that neutral mutations accumulate at a steady rate
b.
 that certain traits are under the pressure of natural selection
c.
 that segments of DNA can be compared with segments of RNA
d.
 that phenotypes, not genotypes, are affected by natural selection
 34.
All organisms in the kingdoms Protista, Plantae, Fungi, and Animalia are
a.
 multicellular organisms.
c.
 eukaryotes.
b.
 photosynthetic organisms.
d.
 prokaryotes.
 35.
Which kingdom contains heterotrophs with cell walls of chitin?
a.
 Protista
c.
 Plantae
b.
 Fungi
d.
 Animalia
 36.
What kingdoms composed the three-kingdom classification system used by scientists in the late 1800s?
a.
 animals, plants, fungi
c.
 animals, fungi, protists
b.
 animals, plants, bacteria
d.
 animals, plants, protists
 37.
Which of the kingdoms in the six-kingdom system of classification was once grouped with plants?
a.
 Animalia
c.
 Fungi
b.
 Carnivores
d.
 Protista
 38.
Some scientists propose that the kingdom Protista should be broken up into several kingdoms. Which of these statements accurately supports this idea?
a.
 Protists are all very similar and easy to confuse.
b.
 Protista contains very diverse organisms that do not fit into the other kingdoms.
c.
 Protists are the most numerous organisms on Earth.
d.
 Protista evolved before any other kingdom.
 39.
The domain that corresponds to the kingdom Eubacteria is
a.
 Archaea.
c.
 Eukarya.
b.
 Bacteria.
d.
 Fungi.
 40.
The domain that contains unicellular organisms that live in extreme environments is
a.
 Eubacteria.
c.
 Archaea.
b.
 Eukarya.
d.
 Bacteria.
 41.
The two domains composed of only unicellular organisms are
a.
 Eubacteria and Archaea.
c.
 Archaea and Bacteria.
b.
 Eukarya and Bacteria.
d.
 Archaea and Eukarya.
 42.
The three-domain system arose when scientists grouped organisms according to how long they have been
a.
 alive in their present forms.
c.
 evolving independently.
b.
 going extinct.
d.
 using DNA to store information.
 43.
The three-domain system recognizes fundamental differences between two groups of
a.
 prokaryotes.
c.
 protists.
b.
 eukaryotes.
d.
 multicellular organisms.
 44.
Organisms in the kingdoms Eubacteria and Archaebacteria were previously grouped in a kingdom called
a.
 Animalia.
c.
 Monera.
b.
 Fungi.
d.
 Eukarya.
 45.
What is thought to be true about the three domains of living things?
a.
 They diverged from a common ancestor fairly recently.
b.
 They diverged from a common ancestor before the evolution of the main groups of eukaryotes.
c.
 They did not have a common ancestor.
d.
 Domains Bacteria and Archaea evolved after the main groups of eukaryotes.
 46.
Taxonomy is the science of:
a.
 making new biological species.
b.
 generating cladograms that represent evolutionary relationships between organisms.
c.
 naming, describing, and classifying organisms.
d.
 conserving biodiversity.
e.
 comparing macromolecules to assess evolutionary relationships.
 47.
About __________ different species have been described and named to date.
a.
 160,000
b.
 265,000
c.
 750,000
d.
 1.75 million
e.
 6.25 million
 48.
The scientific study of the diversity of organisms and the evolutionary relationships between them is:
a.
 taxonomy.
b.
 ecology.
c.
 biological classification.
d.
 evolutionary biology.
e.
 systematics.
 49.
What is the correct format for the scientific name of an extinct carnivorous dinosaur?
a.
 tyrannosaurus Rex
b.
 Tyrannosaurus Rex
c.
 Tyrannosaurus rex
d.
 Tyrannosaurusrex
e.
 tyrannosaurus rex
 50.
The binomial system of nomenclature is a product of the work of:
a.
 Charles Darwin.
b.
 Carolus Linnaeus.
c.
 Gregor Mendel.
d.
 Paul Hebert.
e.
 Ernst Haeckel.
 51.
Which classification level would contain the greatest number of species?
a.
 class
b.
 division or phylum
c.
 domain
d.
 family
e.
 order
 52.
Which classification level would be the least inclusive?
a.
 genus
b.
 family
c.
 phylum
d.
 order
e.
 class
 53.
Zea mays is the scientific name of the corn plant. Zea is the ____________ name.
a.
 class
b.
 division
c.
 genus
d.
 ordinal
e.
 species
 54.
Closely related or similar genera are grouped into a single:
a.
 class.
b.
 phylum.
c.
 order.
d.
 species.
e.
 family.
 55.
How would the scientific name of the yellow perch, Perca flavescens, be abbreviated?
a.
 Perca f.
b.
 Perca Fl.
c.
 P. flavescens
d.
 Perc. fl.
e.
 P. flav.
 56.
The classification scheme of Linnaeus was originally based on ________, but has now been altered to reflect ___________.
a.
 similarities; structural differences
b.
 biodiversity; structural similarity
c.
 evolutionary history; structural similarity
d.
 similarities; evolutionary history
e.
 differences; similarities
 57.
Which of the following is a taxon?
a.
 class
b.
 family
c.
 phylum
d.
 species
e.
 All of the above.
 58.
Some biologists are considering adopting a different classification scheme based on common ancestors, called:
a.
 BioDiversity.
b.
 the biological BarCode.
c.
 the phylogical guide.
d.
 the molecular blueprint.
e.
 PhyloCode.
 59.
Which of the following is the taxon that can be most clearly defined in biological terms?
a.
 class
b.
 species
c.
 strain
d.
 subspecies
e.
 variety
 60.
Most biologists recognize ___________ domains.
a.
 3
b.
 4
c.
 5
d.
 6
e.
 12
 61.
The classification level of domain is immediately “above” (more inclusive than) the level of:
a.
 a class.
b.
 a genus.
c.
 a kingdom.
d.
 a phylum.
e.
 a species.
 62.
The first kingdom recognized beyond Plantae and Animalia was:
a.
 Archae.
b.
 Protista.
c.
 Eubacteria.
d.
 Archaebacteria.
e.
 Fungi.
Figure 22-02
Use the figure below to answer the corresponding questions.nar001-1.jpg
 63.
The animals in Figure 22-02 are all representative of the:
a.
 Class Carnivora.
b.
 Order Carnivora.
c.
 Phylum Animalia.
d.
 Class Chordata.
e.
 Order Mammalia.
 64.
The taxonomic grouping that would represent the next highest (more inclusive) level above that represented in Figure 22-02 is:
a.
 Family.
b.
 Order.
c.
 Class.
d.
 Phylum.
e.
 None of the above.
 65.
The original two Kingdoms that were established to organize living organisms were:
a.
 Protista and Animalia.
b.
 Eukaryotae and Prokaryotae.
c.
 Plantae and Animalia.
d.
 Plantae and Eukarya.
e.
 Eubacteria and Eukarya.
 66.
Early biologists classified living things into two kingdoms. Many biologists today recognize ____________ kingdom(s).
a.
 one
b.
 two
c.
 three
d.
 six
e.
 twelve
 67.
Bacteria are found in the Kingdom:
a.
 Eubacteria.
b.
 Fungi.
c.
 Protista.
d.
 Animalia.
e.
 Plantae.
 68.
Which Kingdom contains the protozoa, water and slime molds, and algae?
a.
 Prokaryotae
b.
 Fungi
c.
 Protista
d.
 Animalia
e.
 Plantae
 69.
Which of the following does not describe members of the Kingdom Fungi?
a.
 absorb nutrients produced by other organisms
b.
 possess cell walls
c.
 not photosynthetic
d.
 cells lack a nucleus
e.
 yeasts and mushrooms
 70.
Fungi may be differentiated from plants, because fungi are:
a.
 photosynthetic.
b.
 all macroscopic.
c.
 all multicellular.
d.
 heterotrophic.
e.
 all prokaryotic.
 71.
The evolutionary history of a group of organisms from a common ancestor is termed:
a.
 biohistory.
b.
 phylogeny.
c.
 phrenology.
d.
 phenetics.
e.
 species origenetics.
 72.
An example of homologous structures is the wing of a bat and:
a.
 the arm of a human.
b.
 the wing of a beetle.
c.
 the tail of a whale.
d.
 the leg of a chimpanzee.
e.
 the dorsal fin of a shark.
 73.
An example of homoplastic structures is the wing of a butterfly and:
a.
 the wing of a moth.
b.
 the wing of a bird.
c.
 the antenna of the butterfly.
d.
 the legs of the butterfly.
e.
 the antenna of a moth.
 74.
Humans, as well as other mammals ranging from mice to elephants, have hair. Hair, then, would be considered to be:
a.
 a derived character.
b.
 an ancestral character.
c.
 a cladistic character.
d.
 an analogous character.
e.
 a polyphyletic character.
 75.
Sea snakes, which are reptiles, are similar in body form to eels, which are fish. Sea snakes and eels therefore share ________________ body form.
a.
 ancestral
b.
 homoplastic
c.
 homologous
d.
 monophyletic
e.
 cladistic
 76.
A(an) __________________ character is a trait that has evolved relatively recently.
a.
 derived
b.
 ancestral
c.
 cladistic
d.
 homologous
e.
 polyphyletic
 77.
Phylogenetic systematics produces branching diagrams called:
a.
 phylogenic trees.
b.
 cladistic trees.
c.
 phenograms.
d.
 molecular clocks.
e.
 cladograms.
 78.
A cladogram is based on:
a.
 homologous characteristics.
b.
 homoplastic characteristics.
c.
 polyphyletic taxa.
d.
 fossil evidence only.
e.
 derived characters only.
Figure 22-03
Use the figure below to answer the corresponding questions.nar002-1.jpg
 79.
The organism labeled B in Figure 22-03 is a common ancestor to:
a.
 organism 2.
b.
 organism 3.
c.
 organism 5.
d.
 organism 6.
e.
 All of the above.
 80.
In Figure 22-03, the pair of organisms that have the most recent ancestor is:
a.
 2 and 4.
b.
 6 and 4.
c.
 4 and 5.
d.
 2 and 3.
e.
 1 and 2.
 81.
In Figure 22-03, the taxon labeled II is:
a.
 monophyletic.
b.
 paraphyletic.
c.
 polyphyletic.
d.
 a clade.
e.
 an outgroup.

 
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Image:Cnemidophorus-ThreeSpecies.jpg – Wikipedia, the free encyclopedia

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Photograph by Alistair J. Cullum, the person uploading the file. Email: acullum@creighton.edu

Shows three species of the lizard genus Cnemidophorus, commonly known as whiptails: C. inornatus, C. neomexicanus, C. tigris.

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PCC Cell Structure and Function 2011

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PCC Cell Structure and Function 2011
 

Multiple Choice
Identify the choice that best completes the statement or answers the question.
 1.
The smallest units of life in all living things are
a.
 cells.
c.
 cytoplasm.
b.
 mitochondria.
d.
 Golgi apparatus.
 2.
When the volume of a cell increases, its surface area
a.
 increases at the same rate.
b.
 remains the same.
c.
 increases at a faster rate.
d.
 increases at a slower rate.
 3.
Surface area is an important factor in limiting cell growth because
a.
 the cell can burst if the membrane becomes too large.
b.
 materials cannot enter the cell if the surface is too large.
c.
 the cell may become too large to take in enough food and to remove enough wastes.
d.
 waste products cannot leave the cell if the cell is too small.
 4.
The size to which a cell can grow is limited by its
a.
 location.
c.
 function.
b.
 structure.
d.
 surface area.
 5.
A cell that can change its shape would be well suited for
a.
 receiving and transmitting nerve impulses.
b.
 covering the body surface.
c.
 moving to different tissues through narrow openings.
d.
 All of the above
 6.
One difference between prokaryotes and eukaryotes is that
a.
 nucleic acids are found only in prokaryotes.
b.
 mitochondria are found in larger quantities in eukaryotes.
c.
 the Golgi apparatus is found only in prokaryotes.
d.
 prokaryotes have no nuclear membrane.
 7.
Which of the following is characteristic of prokaryotes?
a.
 They have a nucleus.
b.
 They existed on Earth before eukaryotes.
c.
 The organelles in their cytoplasm are surrounded by membranes.
d.
 None of the above
 8.
Which of the following is an example of a prokaryotic cell?
a.
 an amoeba
c.
 a bacterium
b.
 a virus
d.
 a liver cell
 9.
Only eukaryotic cells have
a.
 DNA.
c.
 ribosomes.
b.
 membrane-bound organelles.
d.
 cytoplasm.
 10.
Studying a picture of a cell taken with an electron microscope, you find that the cell has no nucleus and no mitochondria, but it does have a plasma membrane and a cell wall. You conclude that the cell is probably from a(n)
a.
 animal.
c.
 prokaryote.
b.
 plant.
d.
 extinct organism.
 11.
Plasma membranes
a.
 are part of only a small number of cells.
b.
 contain genes.
c.
 are made of DNA.
d.
 are thin coverings that surround cells.
 12.
The structure that regulates what enters and leaves the cell is called the
a.
 nucleus.
c.
 nuclear membrane.
b.
 cell wall.
d.
 plasma membrane.
 13.
The plasma membrane
a.
 encloses the contents of a cell.
b.
 allows material to enter and leave the cell.
c.
 is selectively permeable.
d.
 All of the above
 14.
A structure within a cell that performs a specific function is called a(n)
a.
 organelle.
c.
 tissue.
b.
 organ tissue.
d.
 biocenter.
 15.
A particularly active cell might contain large numbers of
a.
 chromosomes.
c.
 mitochondria.
b.
 vacuoles.
d.
 walls.
 16.
The Golgi apparatus is an organelle that
a.
 receives proteins and lipids from the endoplasmic reticulum.
b.
 labels the molecules made in the endoplasmic reticulum with tags that specify their destination.
c.
 releases molecules in vesicles.
d.
 All of the above
 17.
One important organelle that helps maintain homeostasis by moving supplies from one part of the cell to the other is the
a.
 endoplasmic reticulum.
c.
 nucleus.
b.
 mitochondrion.
d.
 cytoplasm.
 18.
In which of the following organelles is a cell’s ATP produced?
a.
 mitochondrion
c.
 Golgi apparatus
b.
 endoplasmic reticulum
d.
 lysosome
 19.
Numerous hairlike organelles that protrude from the surface of a cell and are packed in tight rows are called
a.
 flagella.
c.
 actin filaments.
b.
 microtubules.
d.
 cilia.
 20.
Proteins are made on the
a.
 mitochondria.
c.
 nucleus.
b.
 ribosomes.
d.
 plasma membrane.
 21.
The packaging and distribution center of the cell is the
a.
 nucleus.
c.
 central vacuole.
b.
 Golgi apparatus.
d.
 nuclear envelope.
 22.
The double membrane surrounding the nucleus is called the
a.
 nucleolus.
c.
 nucleoplasm.
b.
 nuclear wall.
d.
 nuclear envelope.
 23.
All cells have
a.
 a covering called a plasma membrane that surrounds the cell and controls what information and materials enter and leave it.
b.
 an internal fluid that gives shape to the cell and supports the other things within it.
c.
 either a central zone or a nucleus that contains the cell’s genes.
d.
 All of the above
 24.
cell : plasma membrane ::
a.
 nucleus : chromosome
b.
 nucleus : nuclear envelope
c.
 chromosome : DNA
d.
 cell : DNA
nar001-1.jpg
 25.
Refer to the illustration above. Which structure immediately identifies this cell as a eukaryote?
a.
 structure 1
c.
 structure 3
b.
 structure 2
d.
 structure 4
 26.
Refer to the illustration above. The cell uses structure 3
a.
 to transport material from one part of the cell to another.
b.
 to package proteins so they can be stored by the cell.
c.
 as a receptor.
d.
 to transfer energy from organic molecules to ATP.
 27.
Refer to the illustration above. Structure 1 is
a.
 the endoplasmic reticulum.
b.
 a Golgi apparatus.
c.
 a mitochondrion.
d.
 the nucleus.
 28.
Refer to the illustration above. This cell’s chromosomes are found in
a.
 structure 1.
c.
 structure 3.
b.
 structure 2.
d.
 structure 5.
 29.
Refer to the illustration above. The cell shown is probably an animal cell because
a.
 it has mitochondria.
b.
 it does not have a cell wall.
c.
 it has a plasma membrane.
d.
 it does not have a nucleus.
 30.
All of the following are found in both plant and animal cells, except
a.
 a cell wall.
c.
 mitochondria.
b.
 a plasma membrane.
d.
 the endoplasmic reticulum.
 31.
How are chloroplasts like mitochondria?
a.
 They can both use energy from sunlight.
b.
 They look alike.
c.
 They both contain DNA.
d.
 They are both found in animal cells.
 32.
The organelles associated with photosynthesis are the
a.
 mitochondria.
c.
 Golgi apparatus.
b.
 chloroplasts.
d.
 vacuoles.
 33.
The organelles in plant cells that contain a green pigment are the
a.
 mitochondria.
c.
 chloroplasts.
b.
 bilayer lipids.
d.
 Golgi apparatus.
 34.
Plant cells have a large membrane-bound space in which water, waste products, and nutrients are stored. This place is known as a
a.
 mitochondrion.
c.
 Golgi apparatus.
b.
 chloroplast.
d.
 central vacuole.
 35.
Which of the following pairs contains unrelated items?
a.
 eukaryote–amoeba
c.
 cell wall–animal cell
b.
 ribosomes–protein
d.
 mitochondria–energy
 36.
Plant cells
a.
 do not contain mitochondria.
b.
 have a cell wall instead of a plasma membrane.
c.
 have a large central vacuole instead of a Golgi apparatus.
d.
 have chloroplasts and a cell wall.
 37.
Which of the following is the correct order of organization of structures in living things, from simplest to most complex?
a.
 organ systems, organs, tissues, cells
b.
 tissues, cells, organs, organ systems
c.
 cells, tissues, organ systems, organs
d.
 cells, tissues, organs, organ systems
 38.
As a result of diffusion, the concentration of many types of substances
a.
 always remains greater inside a membrane.
b.
 eventually becomes balanced on both sides of a membrane.
c.
 always remains greater on the outside of a membrane.
d.
 becomes imbalanced on both sides of a membrane.
nar002-1.jpg
 39.
Refer to the illustration above. In which direction are water molecules in this system most likely to diffuse?
a.
 from 1 to 2
c.
 from 4 to 3
b.
 from 2 to 4
d.
 from 3 to 1
 40.
The dispersal of ink in a beaker of water is an example of
a.
 diffusion.
c.
 active transport.
b.
 osmosis.
d.
 endocytosis.
 41.
Sugar molecules can enter cells through the process of
a.
 exocytosis.
c.
 osmosis.
b.
 facilitated diffusion.
d.
 ion pumps.
 42.
Channels utilizing facilitated diffusion
a.
 work in two directions.
b.
 require an electrical signal to function.
c.
 Both a and b
d.
 None of the above
 43.
Which of the following is not characteristic of facilitated diffusion?
a.
 It requires a carrier protein.
b.
 It moves substances against a concentration gradient.
c.
 It requires no energy input.
d.
 It involves a change in the shape of its carrier.
 44.
Which of the following does not expend energy?
a.
 diffusion
c.
 active transport
b.
 endocytosis
d.
 a sodium-potassium pump
 45.
Which of the following enters a cell by active transport?
a.
 glucose
c.
 lactose
b.
 water
d.
 potassium ion
 46.
The process by which water passes into or out of a cell is called
a.
 solubility.
c.
 selective transport.
b.
 osmosis.
d.
 endocytosis.
 47.
The sodium-potassium pump usually pumps
a.
 potassium out of the cell.
b.
 sodium into the cell.
c.
 potassium into the cell.
d.
 only a potassium and sugar molecule together.
 48.
Ridding the cell of material by discharging it from sacs at the cell surface is called
a.
 pinocytosis.
c.
 exocytosis.
b.
 phagocytosis.
d.
 endocytosis.
 49.
Molecules that are too large to be moved across a cell membrane can be removed from the cell by
a.
 diffusion.
c.
 lipid carriers.
b.
 exocytosis.
d.
 osmosis.
 50.
Placing a plant into a hypertonic environment will
a.
 cause turgor pressure to increase.
b.
 cause the plant to take in water.
c.
 have no effect.
d.
 cause turgor pressure to decrease.

 
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