Author: Biology Junction Team

Mendel Quiz

%CODE1% Mendel Quiz

 

 

 

1. If a heterozygous yellow pea is crossed with a green pea, what proportion of the offspring will be green?

a. none
b. 1/4
c. 1/2
d. 3/4

 

2. If you cross two plants with blue flowers and get both blue and white-flowered plants in the next generation, you can conclude that

a. both parents are heterozygotes
b. blue is the dominant trait (B)
c. white should be symbolized b
d. all of the above

 

3. Albinism is a recessive trait. If a brown mouse whose father was albino is mated with an albino mouse, what proportion of the offspring would be expected to be brown?

a. none
b. 1/4
c. 1/2
d. 3/4

 

4. A monohybrid cross is carried out between parents of genotype Aa. What proportion of the offspring will look like their parents?

a. none
b. 1/4
c. 1/2
d. 3/4

 

5. The genotype of a homozygote would be

a. aa
b. Aa
c. AB
d. bB

 

6. Alternative forms of a gene that influence a given trait are

a. chromosomes
b. gametes
c. alleles
d. cistrons

 

7. A red flower (RR) and a red flower (Rr) have the same

a. alleles
b. genotype
c. haplotype
d. phenotype

 

8. If plants with orange berries (OO) are crossed with plants with yellow berries (oo), what kinds of offspring will result?

a. homozygous orange-fruited plants
b. homozygous yellow-fruited plants
c. heterozygous yellow-fruited plants
d. heterozygous orange-fruited plants

 

9. In an organism of genotype Aa, half the reproductive cells carry ‘A’ and half carry ‘a’. Mendel called this phenomenon

a. segregation
b. dominance
c. recessiveness
d. independent assortment

 

10. A homozygous brown rabbit is crossed to a homozygous white rabbit. If brown is the dominant trait, they should produce

a. all white rabbits
b. all brown rabbits
c. brown and white spotted rabbits
d. a litter of brown and white rabbits in a 1:1 ratio

 

 

Introduction to Animals

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Introduction to Animals

 

 

Multiple Choice
Identify the choice that best completes the statement or answers the question.
 1.
Which of the following attributes is not used to characterize animals?
a.
 locomotion at some time during the life cycle
b.
 multicellular eukaryotes
c.
 heterotrophic
d.
 sexual reproduction involving motile sperm
e.
 None of the above, all of the attributes are typical of animals.
 2.
The kingdom Animalia is divided into about:
a.
 325 phyla.
b.
 16 classes.
c.
 32 classes.
d.
 35 phyla.
e.
 6 phyla.
 3.
The diverse body plans seen in Animalia apparently developed during the:
a.
 Precambrian
b.
 Cambrian.
c.
 Mesozoic.
d.
 Silurian.
e.
 Devonian.
 4.
Traditional phylogenies of Animalia are being reconsidered and changed due to:
a.
 newly discovered prokaryotes in soil.
b.
 extensive fossil finds in China.
c.
 new phyla of Protista.
d.
 better pictures from scanning electron microscopes.
e.
 recent molecular data.
 5.
Which of the following group of animals is sessile?
a.
 sponge
b.
 jellyfish
c.
 ctenophore
d.
 planarian
e.
 fluke
 6.
Animals apparently evolved:
a.
 in freshwater.
b.
 in the ocean.
c.
 during the Cambrian explosion.
d.
 in swamps.
e.
 during the Devonian.
 7.
Fewer animals live in freshwater than in the ocean, because:
a.
 freshwater is hypotonic and animals must spend energy to remove water from their bodies.
b.
 freshwater is a less constant temperature environment.
c.
 freshwater contains less food.
d.
 freshwater is a much more variable environment.
e.
 All of the above.
 8.
All of the following are characteristic of life in marine environments except:
a.
 many nutrients and gases are dissolved in the water and are readily available.
b.
 buoyancy helps to support the organisms.
c.
 currents may wash organisms away from suitable habitats.
d.
 osmotic balance is very difficult for invertebrates to maintain.
e.
 temperatures are relatively stable.
 9.
The first air-breathing land animals were:
a.
 vertebrates.
b.
 amphibians.
c.
 snails.
d.
 reptiles.
e.
 arthropods.
 10.
The first land animals, arthropods, moved onto land about:
a.
 650 million years ago.
b.
 450 million years ago.
c.
 250 million years ago.
d.
 230 million years ago.
e.
 65 million years ago.
 11.
Amphibians appeared on land about:
a.
 543 million years ago.
b.
 450 million years ago.
c.
 420 million years ago.
d.
 250 million years ago.
e.
 65 million years ago.
 12.
To adapt to land the primary problem was:
a.
 mating.
b.
 locomotion.
c.
 predation.
d.
 desiccation.
e.
 acquiring enough nitrogen.
 13.
Adaptations of animals to land include:
a.
 internal fertilization.
b.
 egg shell.
c.
 embryo development within the female.
d.
 internal respiratory surfaces.
e.
 All of the above.
 14.
The only extant Parazoa are the:
a.
 jellyfish.
b.
 sponges.
c.
 flatworms.
d.
 roundworms.
e.
 ribbon worms.
 15.
A true body cavity completely surrounded by __________ is called a coelom.
a.
 ectoderm
b.
 mesoderm
c.
 endoderm
d.
 exoderm
e.
 mesoglea
 16.
Because sponges function in ways similar to colonial unicellular protozoans, they are classified among the ____________. All other animals are considered ____________, which are distinct from sponges.
a.
 protozoa; metazoa
b.
 parazoa; metazoa
c.
 parazoa; eumetazoa
d.
 metazoa; protozoa
e.
 protozoa; parazoa
 17.
Bilateral symmetry:
a.
 evolved along with a corresponding trend toward cephalization.
b.
 is characteristic of Cnidarians.
c.
 characterizes the surfaces of an animal as dorsal and ventral.
d.
 results from schizocoelous development.
e.
 describes ectoderm and endoderm, the first two germ layers that developed.
 18.
The major phylum of animals that has an asymmetrical body plan is:
a.
 Cnidaria.
b.
 Ctenophora.
c.
 Echinodermata.
d.
 Porifera.
e.
 All of the above.
 19.
Ctenophores exhibit:
a.
 bilateral symmetry.
b.
 spherical symmetry.
c.
 linear symmetry.
d.
 radial symmetry.
e.
 circular symmetry.
 20.
The head end of an animal is termed its:
a.
 posterior end.
b.
 ventral end.
c.
 inferior end.
d.
 lateral end.
e.
 anterior end.
 21.
A ___________ plane divides the animal body into dorsal and ventral parts:
a.
 median.
b.
 frontal.
c.
 sagittal.
d.
 cross.
e.
 transverse.
 22.
Cnidarians and flatworms:
a.
 are coelomate.
b.
 are pseudocoelomate.
c.
 are acoelomate.
d.
 have two germ layers.
e.
 have three germ layers.
 23.
The __________ gives rise to muscles, bones, and the circulatory system.
a.
 endoderm
b.
 ectoderm
c.
 mesoderm
d.
 blastopore
e.
 mesoglea
 24.
The lining of the digestive tube is formed from:
a.
 endoderm.
b.
 ectoderm.
c.
 germ cells.
d.
 mesoderm.
e.
 pseudoderm.
 25.
Diploblastic animals, such as cnidarians and ____________, have only two germ layers, ectoderm and ____________.
a.
 sponges; ectoderm
b.
 sponges; mesoderm
c.
 ctenophores; mesoderm
d.
 ctenophores; endoderm
e.
 ctenophores; metaderm
Figure 28-01
Use the figure below to answer the corresponding questions.nar001-1.jpg
 26.
In Figure 28-01, the tissue layer labeled 5 will give rise to the:
a.
 skeletal system.
b.
 muscles.
c.
 circulatory system.
d.
 lining of the digestive system.
e.
 All of the above.
 27.
In Figure 28-01, the development pattern labeled Type A is characteristic of:
a.
 Ctenophores.
b.
 Chordates.
c.
 Cnidarians.
d.
 Annelids.
e.
 Echinoderms.
 28.
The first opening which develops in deuterostomes develops into the:
a.
 coelom.
b.
 gut.
c.
 anus.
d.
 mouth.
e.
 nostril.
 29.
Radial cleavage is found in the:
a.
 arthropods.
b.
 mollusks.
c.
 echinoderms.
d.
 annelids.
e.
 cnidarians.
 30.
Pseudocoelomates have a body cavity that is not completely lined with ____________. These animals include ____________ and the roundworms.
a.
 endoderm; nemerteans
b.
 endoderm; flatworms
c.
 mesoderm; rotifers
d.
 mesoderm; flatworms
e.
 mesoderm; nemerteans
 31.
In most deuterostomes, the mesoderm forms by:
a.
 duplication of the ectoderm.
b.
 schizocoely.
c.
 migration.
d.
 enterocoely.
e.
 blastocoely.
 32.
Determinate cleavage takes place in ____________ and is characterized by a pattern of development where the ultimate fate of each cell is ____________.
a.
 protostomes; not fixed until late in the developmental process
b.
 protostomes; fixed early in the developmental process
c.
 deuterostomes; not fixed until late in the developmental process
d.
 deuterostomes; fixed early in the developmental process
e.
 coelomates; fixed early in the developmental process
 33.
All of the following are protostomes except:
a.
 Porifera.
b.
 Mollusca.
c.
 Annelida.
d.
 Arthropoda.
e.
 Echinodermata.
Figure 28-02
Use the figure below to answer the corresponding questions.nar002-1.jpg
 34.
Radial symmetry developed at the point on Figure 28-02 labeled _________.
a.
 2
b.
 3
c.
 4
d.
 5
e.
 6
 35.
In Figure 28-02, three germ layers arose in a common ancestor at the point labeled:
a.
 1.
b.
 4.
c.
 5.
d.
 6.
e.
 None of the above.
 36.
The placozoans are the simplest animals, and appear to have evolved:
a.
 from poriferans.
b.
 from more complex invertebrates.
c.
 independently from the remainder of the kingdom Animalia.
d.
 from fungi.
e.
 None of the above.
 37.
Sponges are believed to have arisen from the choanoflagellates because they possess:
a.
 amebocytes.
b.
 spicules.
c.
 spongin.
d.
 collar cells.
e.
 oscula.
 38.
Sponge larvae:
a.
 are miniature sponges that float about in the plankton.
b.
 crawl along the bottom like an amoeba.
c.
 are flagellated and able to swim.
d.
 bud off the adult sponge.
e.
 float out of the adult, fall to the bottom, and attach to form a new sponge.
 39.
Most sponges are ______________, meaning that one individual can produce both male and female gametes.
a.
 asexual
b.
 hermaphroditic
c.
 indeterminate
d.
 heterozygous
e.
 enterocoelous
 40.
Digestion in a sponge takes place in:
a.
 the osculum.
b.
 individual cells.
c.
 the spongocoel.
d.
 the spicule.
e.
 the mesohyl.
 41.
Most representatives of the phylum Porifera gain nutrition as:
a.
 parasites.
b.
 predators.
c.
 autotrophs.
d.
 herbivores.
e.
 None of the above.
 42.
Within the phylum Cnidaria, corals are most closely related to:
a.
 Hydra.
b.
 jellyfish.
c.
 sea anemones.
d.
 Portuguese man-of-war.
e.
 hydrozoans.
 43.
From an evolutionary perspective, true nerve cells are first seen in the phylum:
a.
 Porifera.
b.
 Cnidaria.
c.
 Ctenophora.
d.
 Mollusca.
e.
 Arthropoda.
 44.
In the class Anthozoa are found:
a.
 Hydra.
b.
 Obelia.
c.
 Cyanea.
d.
 corals.
e.
 jellyfish.
 45.
Cnidarians are _______________, meaning they have two tissue layers.
a.
 diploid
b.
 protostomes
c.
 diploblastic
d.
 bilateral
e.
 hermaphroditic
 46.
The Portuguese man-of-war belongs to the class:
a.
 Cnidozoa.
b.
 Scyphozoa.
c.
 Hydrozoa.
d.
 Anthozoa.
e.
 Cubezoa.
 47.
In cnidarians, nematocysts are housed in specialized cells, the ___________, located primarily on the tentacles.
a.
 choanocytes
b.
 cnidocils
c.
 pseudopodia
d.
 nerve nets
e.
 cnidocytes
 48.
Hundreds or thousands of individuals of certain _________ form colonies in which each polyp has a special function such as feeding, reproduction, or defense.
a.
 sea anemones
b.
 hydrozoans
c.
 jellyfish
d.
 ctenophores
e.
 sponges
 49.
The larvae of some cnidarians are known as ____________ larvae.
a.
 veliger
b.
 trochophore
c.
 planula
d.
 nauplius
e.
 zoea
 50.
Corals can capture prey, but also depend for nutrition on:
a.
 symbiotic photosynthetic zooxanthellae.
b.
 symbiotic lichens.
c.
 dead animals they colonize on the bottom.
d.
 photosynthesis in the shallow water since they are part animal and plant.
e.
 suspended materials captured by filter feeding.
 51.
Among the scyphozoans, the ____________ stage is reduced or absent.
a.
 polyp
b.
 hydra
c.
 medusa
d.
 larval
e.
 juvenile
 52.
Sea anemones, unlike scyphozoans, have a partitioned gastrovascular cavity. This serves as a means of:
a.
 harboring enteric bacteria.
b.
 digesting very large food items.
c.
 harboring photosynthetic zooxanthellae.
d.
 digesting different categories of organic molecules in different areas.
e.
 decreasing the surface area of the gastrovascular cavity.
Figure 28-03
Use the figure below to answer the corresponding questions.nar003-1.jpg
 53.
The type of larva pictured at # 4 in Figure 28-03 is a:
a.
 planula.
b.
 miracidium.
c.
 cercaria.
d.
 polyp.
e.
 medusa.
 54.
In Figure 28-03, asexual reproduction is occurring at point:
a.
 1.
b.
 2.
c.
 4.
d.
 7.
e.
 9.
 55.
In Figure 28-03, which of the following structures was produced by meiosis?
a.
 1
b.
 3
c.
 4
d.
 5
e.
 6
 56.
Members of the phylum _______________ are the simplest organisms that have a separate mouth and anus.
a.
 Platyhelminthe
b.
 Ctenophora
c.
 Cnidaria
d.
 Porifera
e.
 Placozoa
 57.
Ctenophores capture food by:
a.
 sticky mucus on their tentacles that capture small invertebrates.
b.
 adhesive glue cells that trap prey.
c.
 stinging hair cells that immobilize small invertebrates.
d.
 digging through the bottom muds for small invertebrates.
e.
 filter feeding.
 58.
Comb jellies move by:
a.
 floating in the water, since they are so small.
b.
 flagella.
c.
 ameboid movements in the water.
d.
 rows of cilia.
e.
 jet propulsion of water from the gastrovascular cavity.
 59.
The body wall of cnidarians and ctenophores consist of:
a.
 three tissue layers.
b.
 a single epidermal layer.
c.
 loosely organized cells.
d.
 two epidermal layers with scattered mesophyll cells in between.
e.
 inner and outer cell layers separated by a jelly-like mesoglea.
 60.
Deuterostomes are characterized by ____________ and ____________ cleavage.
a.
 radial; determinate
b.
 radial; indeterminate
c.
 spiral; determinate
d.
 spiral; indeterminate
e.
 None of the above.
 61.
Deuterostomes evolved during the:
a.
 Cambrian.
b.
 Precambrian.
c.
 Paleozoic.
d.
 Cenozoic.
e.
 Devonian.
 62.
Molecular data suggests that hemichordates are most closely related to:
a.
 tunicates
b.
 lancelets.
c.
 echinoderms.
d.
 vertebrates.
e.
 annelids
 63.
Echinoderms are unusual invertebrates as they have:
a.
 an endoskeleton.
b.
 pentaradial symmetry.
c.
 a water vascular system.
d.
 pedicellariae present in some classes.
e.
 All of the above.
 64.
All Echinodermata are found:
a.
 in marine habitats.
b.
 in freshwater.
c.
 on land.
d.
 on the bottom of the ocean or lakes.
e.
 in shallow ocean waters.
 65.
Class ___________ includes mostly extinct species and a few extant species such as feather stars and sea lilies.
a.
 Asteroidea
b.
 Holothuroidea
c.
 Ophiuroidea
d.
 Echinoidea
e.
 Crinoidea
 66.
Echinoderms are unique because:
a.
 the larvae are radially symmetrical and the adult is bilaterally symmetrical.
b.
 the adults and larva are both pentaradially symmetrical.
c.
 the adult and larva are both radially symmetrical.
d.
 the adult and larva are both biradially symmetrical.
e.
 their larvae are bilaterally symmetrical while the adult is pentaradially symmetrical.
 67.
Which class within the echinoderms has the greatest species diversity?
a.
 Asteroidea
b.
 Holothuroidea
c.
 Ophiuroidea
d.
 Echinoidea
e.
 Crinoidea
 68.
The most unique feature of the echinoderms is their:
a.
 digestive system.
b.
 nervous system.
c.
 closed circulatory system.
d.
 water vascular system.
e.
 mantle.
 69.
Prominent spines are found on __________ of the phylum Echinodermata.
a.
 Ophiuroidea
b.
 Echinoidea
c.
 Asteroidea
d.
 Concentricycloidea
e.
 Holothuroidea
 70.
One characteristic of the class Holothuroidea is:
a.
 that most are predators that consume partially digested prey.
b.
 that most of the species are extinct.
c.
 that they have a reduced endoskeleton consisting of microscopic plates embedded in the body wall.
d.
 that moveable spines are used to facilitate locomotion.
e.
 that they have a distinct central disk with very long, slender arms.
 71.
Sea stars eat:
a.
 large fish.
b.
 mostly algae.
c.
 sea weed.
d.
 mostly bivalves.
e.
 debris on the bottom.
 72.
Sea cucumbers will __________ when environmental conditions deteriorate.
a.
 eject their digestive tract, respiratory structures, and gonads.
b.
 crawl to an area with more favorable conditions.
c.
 form a resistant spore.
d.
 float to the surface and then later drop to a more favorable location.
e.
 crawl deep into the ocean muds on the bottom.
 73.
Which of the following is not a characteristic shared by all chordates at some point in their life cycle?
a.
 possession of a coelom
b.
 three primary cell layers
c.
 dorsal tubular nerve cord
d.
 pharyngeal gill slits
e.
 vertebrae
 74.
Urochordates are odd chordates, as typically only the ____________ shows the basic chordate characteristics.
a.
 head end
b.
 tail end
c.
 adult
d.
 larva
e.
 egg
 75.
Adult tunicates resemble ______________ and are _________________.
a.
 eels; carnivorous.
b.
 corals; photosynthetic
c.
 starfish; carnivorous
d.
 sponges; filter feeders
e.
 earthworms; detritivores
 76.
The neural crest cells of vertebrates influence the development of all of the following except the:
a.
 lungs.
b.
 nerves.
c.
 cranium.
d.
 jaws.
e.
 head muscles.
 77.
The most closely related animal to vertebrates are the:
a.
 Hemichordata.
b.
 Urodela.
c.
 Cephalochordata.
d.
 Ophiuroidea.
e.
 Urochordates.
Figure 30-01
Use the figure below to answer the corresponding questions.nar004-1.jpg
 78.
The organism in Figure 30-01 is a representative of:
a.
 the phylum Hemichordata.
b.
 the phylum Echinodermata.
c.
 the phylum Chordata.
d.
 the subphylum Urochordata.
e.
 the subphylum Cephalochordata.
 79.
The structure in Figure 30-01 labeled ___________ is characteristic of the phylum to which this organism belongs.
a.
 9
b.
 6
c.
 5
d.
 4
e.
 10
 80.
Lancelets are:
a.
 carnivores.
b.
 filter feeders.
c.
 parasites.
d.
 herbivores.
e.
 algae feeders.
 81.
There are about _______________ identified species of vertebrates.
a.
 2,000
b.
 6,000
c.
 32,000
d.
 48,000
e.
 124,000
 82.
The coelacanth is found in the class:
a.
 Dipnoi.
b.
 Actinistia.
c.
 Placoderms.
d.
 Cephalochordata.
e.
 Urochordata.
 83.
The two groups representing the “jawless” fishes are:
a.
 Cephalochordata and Placoderms.
b.
 Chondrichthyes and Actinistia.
c.
 Myxiniformes and Cephalaspidormorphi.
d.
 Dipnoi and Actinistia.
e.
 Placoderms and Petromyzontiformes.
 84.
Which of the following characteristics is used to characterize vertebrates?
a.
 a bony endoskeleton
b.
 blood containing hemoglobin
c.
 a four-chambered heart
d.
 lungs
e.
 live birth
 85.
The superclass Tetrapods includes:
a.
 fish, amphibians, reptiles, and mammals.
b.
 lancelets, cartilage, and bony fish.
c.
 amphibians and reptiles.
d.
 amphibians, reptiles, birds, and mammals.
e.
 echinoderms and chordates.
 86.
Hagfishes are differentiated from lampreys and all other fishes in that:
a.
 hagfishes do not have gills.
b.
 hagfishes lack a jaw.
c.
 hagfishes are parasitic.
d.
 hagfishes lack vertebrae.
e.
 All of the above.
 87.
Extinct jawless fish include the:
a.
 lungfish.
b.
 lancelets.
c.
 placoderms.
d.
 acanthodians.
e.
 ostracoderms.
 88.
A fish with a cartilaginous skeleton and paired fins would be:
a.
 an Agnathan.
b.
 a Crinoid.
c.
 a Cephalochordate.
d.
 a Urochordate.
e.
 a Chondrichthyean.
 89.
Scales of enamel are found on:
a.
 lungfish.
b.
 sharks.
c.
 ray-finned fish.
d.
 lob-finned.
e.
 snakes.
 90.
Sharks may detect their prey using all of the following except:
a.
 olfaction.
b.
 their lateral lines.
c.
 electroreceptors.
d.
 sight.
e.
 None of the above, all are used by sharks to detect their prey.
 91.
Sharks detect motion in the water or waves by their:
a.
 lateral lines.
b.
 electroreceptors.
c.
 keen olfaction.
d.
 sight.
e.
 dorsal fin.
 92.
Sharks that are __________________ incubate their eggs in the uterus.
a.
 oviparous
b.
 viviparous
c.
 ovoviviparous
d.
 placental
e.
 eutherial
 93.
The chordate class with the most species is the:
a.
 Osteichythyes.
b.
 Reptilia.
c.
 Amphibia.
d.
 Mammalia.
e.
 Chondrichthyes.
 94.
The first members of classes Osteichythyes and Chondrichthyes appeared in the ____________ period.
a.
 Permian
b.
 Paleozoic
c.
 Devonian
d.
 Jurassic
e.
 Cretaceous
Figure 30-02
Use the figure below to answer the corresponding questions.nar005-1.jpg
 95.
The structure labeled 18 in Figure 30-02 is the:
a.
 brain.
b.
 gills.
c.
 heart.
d.
 stomach.
e.
 swim bladder.
 96.
The function of the structure labeled ________ in Figure 30-02 is to aid buoyancy regulation of the fish.
a.
 4
b.
 16
c.
 14
d.
 5
e.
 None of the above.
 97.
Based on Figure 30-02, which of the following structures places this fish in the class Actinopterygii?
a.
 5
b.
 19
c.
 6
d.
 13
e.
 7
 98.
The amphibians are believed to have arisen from ancestral:
a.
 chondrichthyean fish.
b.
 actinopterygian fish.
c.
 reptiles.
d.
 dipnoi.
e.
 actinistia.
 99.
The first amphibians were the ____________.
a.
 squamata
b.
 anurans
c.
 lungfish
d.
 labyrinthodonts
e.
 coelacanths
 100.
Which taxon is not part of the class Amphibia?
a.
 Squamata
b.
 Anura
c.
 Apoda
d.
 Urodela
e.
 None of the above, all belong to the class Amphibia.
 101.
Salamanders are members of the order:
a.
 Apoda.
b.
 Urodela.
c.
 Anuran.
d.
 Tetrapoda.
e.
 Squamata.
 102.
Metamorphosis occurs in which of the following vertebrate classes?
a.
 Chondrichthyes
b.
 Reptilia
c.
 Myxiniformes
d.
 Amphibia
e.
 All of the above.
 103.
At some point in their life cycle, amphibians may respire via all of the following except:
a.
 gills.
b.
 lungs.
c.
 swim bladder.
d.
 skin.
e.
 book lungs.
 104.
The heart of amphibians has ________ chambers. The hearts of birds and mammals have _______ chambers.
a.
 two; three
b.
 three; four
c.
 two; four
d.
 three; five
e.
 three; two
 105.
Which of the following is not an adaptation of reptiles for life in a terrestrial habitat?
a.
 internal fertilization
b.
 an amniotic egg
c.
 excretion of uric acid
d.
 dry, scaly skin
e.
 None of the above, all are adaptations of reptiles for life in a terrestrial habitat.
 106.
Because most reptiles are terrestrial, fertilization is ____________ and they are ____________.
a.
 external; ovoviviparous
b.
 external; oviparous
c.
 internal; ovoviviparous
d.
 internal; oviparous
e.
 external; viviparous
 107.
Which of these pairings is correct?
a.
 diapsids: lizards
b.
 diapsids: turtles
c.
 synapsids: dinosaurs
d.
 anapsids: mammals
e.
 synapsids: crocodiles
 108.
Fish excrete nitrogenous wastes in the form of ____________; reptiles and birds excrete it as __________.
a.
 uric acid; ammonia
b.
 ammonia; uric acid
c.
 urea; ammonia
d.
 urea; uric acid
e.
 ammonia; urea
 109.
Order ____________ includes the snakes.
a.
 Apoda
b.
 Chelonia
c.
 Aves
d.
 Squamata
e.
 Reptilia
 110.
Order ____________ includes the turtles and tortoises.
a.
 Crocodilia
b.
 Squamata
c.
 Chelonia
d.
 Apoda
e.
 Anapsida
 111.
Snakes are most closely related to:
a.
 lizards.
b.
 turtles.
c.
 eels.
d.
 caecilians.
e.
 synapsids.
 112.
Birds are most closely related to:
a.
 lizards.
b.
 turtles.
c.
 mammals.
d.
 labyrinthodonts.
e.
 terrapins.
 113.
Within the chordate classes, the unique characteristic of the class Aves is:
a.
 flight.
b.
 production of uric acid.
c.
 feathers.
d.
 endothermy.
e.
 All of the above.
 114.
The only living descendant of the dinosaurs are the:
a.
 marsupials
b.
 monotremes.
c.
 birds.
d.
 mammals.
e.
 amphibians.
 115.
Which of the following functions is not associated with the presence of feathers in birds?
a.
 temperature regulation
b.
 minimization of water loss
c.
 respiration
d.
 flight
e.
 protection
 116.
Feathers probably first provided primarily _________ before they aided flight.
a.
 protection from predators
b.
 insulation
c.
 camouflage
d.
 bright colors
e.
 protection from parasites
 117.
Which of the following adaptations is associated with the ability of birds to fly?
a.
 high metabolic rate
b.
 broad, keeled breast bone
c.
 “one-way” air flow through the respiratory system
d.
 hollow bones
e.
 All of the above.
 118.
About ____________ species of birds have been described.
a.
 1,000
b.
 2,000
c.
 4,500
d.
 9,000
e.
 20,000
 119.
A characteristic seen only in mammals is:
a.
 hair.
b.
 mammary glands.
c.
 three middle ear bones.
d.
 incisors, canines, premolars, and molars.
e.
 All of the above.
 120.
Mammals descended from a group of reptiles known as:
a.
 euthurians.
b.
 lancelets.
c.
 therapsids.
d.
 holothurians.
e.
 labyrnthodonts.
 121.
The earliest mammals resembled small:
a.
 dogs.
b.
 koalas.
c.
 kangaroos.
d.
 monkeys.
e.
 shrews.
 122.
The wide adaptive radiation of mammals occurred during the early:
a.
 Cenozoic.
b.
 Paleozoic.
c.
 Tertiary.
d.
 Devonian.
e.
 Jurassic.
 123.
Marsupials include the:
a.
 cat.
b.
 armadillo.
c.
 opossum.
d.
 crocodile.
e.
 spiny anteater.
 124.
The monotremes are unusual as they:
a.
 lack mammary glands.
b.
 lack hair.
c.
 lay eggs.
d.
 have pouches.
e.
 exhibit parthenogenesis.
 125.
Horses and cattle are in different mammalian orders based on differences in their:
a.
 diet.
b.
 foot structure.
c.
 locomotion.
d.
 teeth.
e.
 reproductive mechanisms.
Figure 30-03
Use the figure below to answer the corresponding questions.nar006-1.jpg
 126.
The animals pictured in Figure 30-03 belong to the order:
a.
 Xenarthra.
b.
 Rodentia.
c.
 Lagomorpha.
d.
 Perissodactyla.
e.
 Insectivora.
 127.
Which of the following characteristics does not apply to members of the order in Figure 30-03?
a.
 nocturnal
b.
 insectivores
c.
 aquatic
d.
 placental mammals
e.
 some weigh less than 5 g
Figure 30-04
Use the figure below to answer the corresponding questions.nar007-1.jpg
 128.
The animal pictured in Figure 30-04 belongs to the order:
a.
 Xenarthra.
b.
 Rodentia.
c.
 Lagomorpha.
d.
 Perissodactyla.
e.
 Insectivora.
 129.
Which of the following characteristics does not apply to members of the order in Figure 30-04?
a.
 teeth reduced or absent
b.
 insectivores
c.
 some are arboreal
d.
 complex social interactions
e.
 All of the above, none of these characteristics apply to this order.
 130.
All of the following are linked to the development of the coelom except:
a.
 a hydrostatic skeleton.
b.
 protection of internal organs.
c.
 transport of food and wastes.
d.
 the pumping action of the heart.
e.
 None of the above, all are linked to the development of the coelom.
 131.
The protostome coelomates are divided into 2 major groups, the:
a.
 flatworms and roundworms.
b.
 Lophotrochozoa and Ecdysozoa.
c.
 Mollusca and Arthropoda.
d.
 invertebrates and vertebrates
e.
 Chelicerata and Mandibulata.
 132.
A coelom provides several benefits, including:
a.
 a hydrostatic skeleton.
b.
 transport of materials.
c.
 independent movement of the digestive system and the body wall.
d.
 a space for internal organs.
e.
 All of the above.
 133.
A lophophore is:
a.
 a ciliated ring of tentacles surrounding the mouth.
b.
 Lophotrochozoa and Ecdysozoa.
c.
 a muscular foot for locomotion.
d.
 invertebrates and vertebrates.
e.
 Chelicerata and Mandibulata.
 134.
The trend toward cephalization is first seen in the:
a.
 scyphozoans.
b.
 poriferans.
c.
 platyhelminths.
d.
 nematodes.
e.
 nemerteans.
 135.
The type of excretory structures characteristic of platyhelminths are:
a.
 protonemas.
b.
 protonephridia.
c.
 nephridia.
d.
 Malpighian tubules.
e.
 antennal organs.
 136.
Like the cnidarians, flatworms depend on ____________ for achieving circulation and gas exchange.
a.
 blood
b.
 hemolymph
c.
 diffusion
d.
 hearts
e.
 lungs
 137.
The intermediate host for many flukes is a:
a.
 human.
b.
 cow.
c.
 dog.
d.
 cat.
e.
 snail
Figure 29-01
Use the figure below to answer the corresponding questions.nar008-1.jpg
 138.
In Figure 29-01, which structure is responsible for circulation in this animal?
a.
 1
b.
 4
c.
 5
d.
 6
e.
 None of the above.
 139.
In Figure 29-01, the structure labeled 5 is used for:
a.
 food intake.
b.
 digestion.
c.
 locating food.
d.
 coordination of movement.
e.
 locomotion.
 140.
The anterior end of a tapeworm is known as the:
a.
 proglottid.
b.
 cnidocyte.
c.
 auricle.
d.
 protonephridia.
e.
 scolex.
 141.
The nervous system of flatworms:
a.
 consists of a single, large ganglia in the head region.
b.
 is sometimes referred to as tube like.
c.
 includes two dorsal nerve cords.
d.
 is diffuse and net like.
e.
 None of the above.
 142.
Free-living flatworms belong to the class:
a.
 Monogena.
b.
 Lophotrochozoa.
c.
 Turbellaria.
d.
 Cestoda.
e.
 Chelicerata.
 143.
Planaria are:
a.
 detritivores.
b.
 omnivores.
c.
 herbivores.
d.
 carnivores.
e.
 parasites.
 144.
Tapeworm(s):
a.
 have a tube like digestive system.
b.
 have a closed circulatory system.
c.
 bodies consist of hundreds of reproductive segments.
d.
 have a well developed sensory system to find vertebrate hosts.
e.
 life cycles are simple and completed in their vertebrate hosts.
 145.
Which of the following characteristics is not associated with nemerteans?
a.
 presence of a true coelomic space, the rhynchocoel
b.
 blood vessels
c.
 a heart
d.
 a proboscis
e.
 None of the above, all are characteristic of nemerteans.
 146.
Ribbons worms have a unique ___________ that is used to capture prey.
a.
 proboscis
b.
 tentacle
c.
 set of jaws
d.
 claw
e.
 forked leg
 147.
Which of the following terms can be associated with many molluscan species?
a.
 chelicerae
b.
 pupa
c.
 radula
d.
 pen
e.
 internal shell
 148.
Most molluscs are:
a.
 found in freshwater.
b.
 marine.
c.
 terrestrial.
d.
 arboreal.
e.
 None of the above.
 149.
The veliger larval form is unique to:
a.
 insects.
b.
 annelids.
c.
 molluscs.
d.
 arthropods.
e.
 crustaceans.
 150.
Closed circulatory systems are found in the:
a.
 Cephalopoda.
b.
 Mollusca.
c.
 Bivalvia.
d.
 Gastropoda.
e.
 Polyplacophora.
 151.
An animal found in the rocky intertidal zone has eight overlapping plates and is tightly adhering to the rock with a muscular foot. This animal is most likely a member of the class:
a.
 Polyplacophora.
b.
 Polychaeta.
c.
 Bivalvia.
d.
 Gastropoda.
e.
 Cephalopoda.
 152.
Members of the class Bivalvia:
a.
 have gills that secrete the shell.
b.
 have a mantle that may form pearls.
c.
 are all sessile.
d.
 all have a radula.
e.
 have a broad foot used for locomotion.
 153.
Bivalves are:
a.
 detritivores.
b.
 herbivores
c.
 omnivores.
d.
 carnivores.
e.
 filter feeders.
 154.
Torsion may be an adaptation in __________ that allows the ___________ to be withdrawn first into the shell.
a.
 bivalves; foot
b.
 bivalves; head
c.
 gastropods; foot
d.
 gastropods; head
e.
 cephalopods; head
 155.
Which of the following are shell-less molluscs?
a.
 nudibranchs
b.
 scallops
c.
 pulmonate gastropods
d.
 chitons
e.
 squids
 156.
Which of the following is an adaptation that enables cephalopods to escape from their predators?
a.
 torsion
b.
 poisonous salivary secretions
c.
 a hard shell
d.
 rapidly changing colors
e.
 a modified radula
 157.
Which of the following terms is associated with polychaetes?
a.
 radula
b.
 metamorphosis
c.
 parapodia
d.
 mantle
e.
 visceral mass
 158.
Annelids:
a.
 have a visceral mass.
b.
 have a segmented body.
c.
 surround their body with a mantle.
d.
 move with a muscular foot.
e.
 have an open circulatory system.
 159.
In both mollusks and annelids, the first larval stage is known as:
a.
 a veliger.
b.
 a glochidium.
c.
 a zoea.
d.
 a protostome.
e.
 a trochophore.
 160.
Critical to polychaete and oligochaete locomotion are:
a.
 jointed appendages.
b.
 parapodia.
c.
 setae.
d.
 fins.
e.
 tentacles.
Figure 29-02
Use the figure below to answer the corresponding questions.nar009-1.jpg
 161.
The larva in Figure 29-02 is:
a.
 a veliger.
b.
 a glochidium.
c.
 a trochophore.
d.
 a nauplius.
e.
 a pupa.
 162.
The larva in Figure 29-02 is representative of the phyla:
a.
 Annelida and Arthropoda.
b.
 Mollusca and Annelida.
c.
 Nemertea and Rotifera.
d.
 Nemertea and Nematoda.
e.
 Rotifera and Arthropoda.
 163.
Members of the class ________________ include blood-sucking parasites.
a.
 Oligochaeta
b.
 Polychaeta
c.
 Polyplacophora
d.
 Hirudinea
e.
 Cephalopoda
 164.
The class __________ includes Lumbricus terrestris, the common earthworm.
a.
 Oligochaeta
b.
 Polychaeta
c.
 Polyplacophora
d.
 Hirudinea
e.
 Malacostraca
 165.
Some spawning marine polychaetes ensure fertilization by:
a.
 synchronizing release of sperm and eggs.
b.
 using internal fertilization.
c.
 being hermaphroditic.
d.
 living in close colonies.
e.
 None of the above.
 166.
Hermaphroditic earthworms reproduce sexually by connecting their bodies by their ____________. This allows transfer of ____________ from one worm to the other.
a.
 setae; zygotes
b.
 setae; eggs
c.
 setae; sperm
d.
 clitellum; eggs
e.
 clitellum; sperm
 167.
Segmentation is important in annelids as an aid in:
a.
 respiration.
b.
 reproduction.
c.
 movement.
d.
 sensation.
e.
 eating.
Figure 29-03
Use the figure below to answer the corresponding questions.nar010-1.jpg
 168.
The dorsal blood vessel is the structure labeled ____ in Figure 29-03.
a.
 1
b.
 2
c.
 3
d.
 5
e.
 6
 169.
The cross section in Figure 29-03 is representative of the architecture found in:
a.
 phoronids.
b.
 nemerteans.
c.
 Diplopoda.
d.
 Polyplacophora.
e.
 oligochaetes.
 170.
_________________ is an anticoagulant used by leeches.
a.
 Chitin
b.
 Calcium carbonate
c.
 Hirudin
d.
 Pheromone
e.
 Saxitoxin
 171.
________________ superficially resemble bivalves.
a.
 Brachiopods
b.
 Rotifera
c.
 Mollusca
d.
 Bryozoa
e.
 Chelicerata
 172.
After embryonic development, members of the phylum Rotifera are incapable of:
a.
 locomotion.
b.
 cell division.
c.
 ingestion.
d.
 reproduction.
e.
 None of the above, all are functions of post-embryonic rotifers.
 173.
Animals with a crown of cilia that look like a spinning wheel are the:
a.
 bryozoans.
b.
 phoronids.
c.
 ctenophores.
d.
 rotifers.
e.
 platyhelminths.
 174.
You have a sample of cat emesis (vomit) and find worms in the sample. The cylindrical worms are long and slender, pointed at each end, with no other distinguishing characteristics. They are members of the phylum:
a.
 Platyhelminthes.
b.
 Nematoda.
c.
 Cnidaria.
d.
 Annelida.
e.
 Nemertea.
 175.
The ____________ of roundworms allows them to resist desiccation in terrestrial environments.
a.
 epidermis
b.
 endodermis
c.
 shell
d.
 cuticle
e.
 mesoglea
 176.
________________ are parasites that infect humans, and, as adults, reside in the small intestines of the host.
a.
 Pinworms
b.
 Ascarid worms
c.
 Trichina worms
d.
 Rotifers
e.
 Caenorhabditis elegans
 177.
A Trichinella infection is most common in persons who:
a.
 eat undercooked beef.
b.
 eat undercooked pork.
c.
 eat undercooked fish.
d.
 walk barefoot in a cow pasture.
e.
 walk barefoot in a rice field.
 178.
The phylum name Arthropoda refers to:
a.
 a hard exoskeleton.
b.
 the ability to fly.
c.
 jointed appendages.
d.
 respiratory capabilities.
e.
 a segmented coelom.
 179.
Which of the following does not characterize arthropods?
a.
 presence of a coelom
b.
 segmentation
c.
 an open circulatory system
d.
 an exoskeleton
e.
 an incomplete digestive tract
 180.
One of the disadvantages of exoskeletons in arthropods is that:
a.
 they severely limit locomotion.
b.
 they interfere with ingestion.
c.
 they must be shed when the animal grows.
d.
 they do not provide adequate protection from predators.
e.
 they do not prevent desiccation.
 181.
Velvet worms belong to the phylum:
a.
 Nematoda.
b.
 Annelida.
c.
 Mollusca.
d.
 Onychophora.
e.
 Arthropoda.
 182.
The ___________ are very common arthropod Paleozoic fossils, and are extinct today.
a.
 moss animals
b.
 trilobites
c.
 lophophorate animals
d.
 tardigrades
e.
 phoronids
 183.
Members of the subphylum ________ lack antenna but possess unique mouthparts, which are not mandibles.
a.
 Crustacea
b.
 Uniramia
c.
 Chelicerata
d.
 Chilopoda
e.
 Arachnida
 184.
Segmentation in arthropods differs from that of annelids because arthropod segments are:
a.
 smaller.
b.
 less specialized.
c.
 only present in adults.
d.
 more specialized.
e.
 only present in larvae.
 185.
Biramous appendages in arthropods are only present in:
a.
 crustaceans.
b.
 horseshoe crabs.
c.
 insects.
d.
 arachnids.
e.
 centipedes.
 186.
The dragline that is laid by many spiders serves as a means of:
a.
 capturing prey.
b.
 capturing a mate.
c.
 detecting the pull of gravity.
d.
 communicating with other spiders of the same species.
e.
 holding the eggs of spiders.
 187.
An arthropod with chelicerae, pedipalps, and silk glands would be:
a.
 a scorpion.
b.
 a tick.
c.
 a mite.
d.
 a spider.
e.
 a barnacle.
 188.
Scorpion pincers are enlarged:
a.
 chelicerae.
b.
 maxillae.
c.
 mandibles.
d.
 pedipalps.
e.
 legs.
 189.
_________________ are the most economically important chelicerate pests.
a.
 Spiders
b.
 Scorpions
c.
 Mites and ticks
d.
 Horseshoe crabs
e.
 Trilobites and eurypterids
 190.
Arthropods with mandibles, gills, antennal glands, and statocysts are the:
a.
 insects.
b.
 spiders.
c.
 scorpions.
d.
 crustaceans.
e.
 mites.
 191.
Arthropods with mandibles, a single pair of antennae, and two legs on most body segments are:
a.
 ribbon worms.
b.
 centipedes.
c.
 millipedes.
d.
 trilobites.
e.
 mites.
 192.
As adults, ______________ are sessile crustaceans.
a.
 ticks
b.
 the decapods
c.
 shrimp
d.
 the uniramids
e.
 barnacles
 193.
A nauplius larva is characteristic of:
a.
 echinoderms.
b.
 gastropods.
c.
 molluscs.
d.
 crustaceans.
e.
 ctenophores.
 194.
__________________ are used by crustaceans for detecting the pull of gravity.
a.
 Antennal glands
b.
 Maxillae
c.
 Draglines
d.
 Statocysts
e.
 Swimmerets
 195.
Insects are most closely related to:
a.
 mites.
b.
 ticks.
c.
 millipedes.
d.
 lobsters.
e.
 crustaceans.
 196.
Gas exchange in terrestrial insects is accomplished through:
a.
 the use of gills.
b.
 the use of book lungs.
c.
 the use of tracheae.
d.
 diffusion across the epidermal layer.
e.
 a closed circulatory system.
 197.
The largest class of animals in terms of the number of different species is the class:
a.
 Arachnida.
b.
 Insecta.
c.
 Gastropoda.
d.
 Bivalvia.
e.
 Arthropoda.
 198.
Horseshoe crabs belong to:
a.
 the subphylum Uniramia.
b.
 the subphylum Crustacea.
c.
 the class Chilopoda.
d.
 the class Merostomata.
e.
 the class Malacostraca.
 199.
One adaptation of insects that is specific to this group among all arthropods is:
a.
 cephalization.
b.
 hard exoskeletons.
c.
 segmentation.
d.
 specialized mouthparts.
e.
 wings.
 200.
An elongate uniramid with many legs as well as poison claws is called:
a.
 a mite.
b.
 a tick.
c.
 an insect.
d.
 a centipede.
e.
 a millipede.
 201.
Which of the following arthropod groups is almost exclusively aquatic in habitat?
a.
 Arachnida
b.
 Crustacea
c.
 Insecta
d.
 Chilopoda
e.
 Diplopoda
 202.
Which of the following animals has an open circulatory system?
a.
 clams
b.
 crabs
c.
 insects
d.
 snails
e.
 All of the above.
Figure 29-04
Use the figure below to answer the corresponding questions.nar011-1.jpg
 203.
Which of the insects in Figure 29-04 represents orders that have incomplete metamorphosis?
a.
 2 and 3
b.
 1 and 4
c.
 3 and 5
d.
 1 and 6
e.
 5 and 6
 204.
Which insect in Figure 29-04 represents a group that parasitizes plants?
a.
 1
b.
 2
c.
 3
d.
 4
e.
 5

 

Introduction and Chemistry

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Introduction and Chemistry
 

True/False
Indicate whether the statement is true or false.
 1.
The study of biology can help you better understand human reproduction.
 2.
Almost all organisms ultimately get their energy for survival from the sun.
 3.
All living things are composed of chemicals.
      nar001-1.jpg      nar001-2.jpg
 4.
Refer to the illustration above. Both species are multicellular.
 5.
Refer to the illustration above. Both species have DNA in their cells.
 6.
Refer to the illustration above. Reproduction ensures the ongoing success of both species.
 7.
Refer to the illustration above. The sand dollar and paramecium both show organization.
 8.
Refer to the illustration above. Unlike the sand dollar, the paramecium does not have to maintain a stable internal environment.
 9.
Scientists have not discovered any new species on Earth in more than 20 years.
 10.
A scientist who performs an experiment has no idea what the outcome of the experiment is going to be.
 11.
A theory is a hypothesis that has been proven true.
 12.
A theory is an assumption made by scientists and implies a lack of certainty.
 13.
Publication of the results of scientific investigations enables other scientists to verify these results.
 14.
Scientific investigations always follow a series of rigidly defined steps.
 15.
Resolution is a microscope’s power to increase an object’s apparent size.
 16.
The resolution power of an electron microscope is limited by the physical characteristics of light.
 17.
Units of time are not measured in metric units, so time measurements are not accepted for use with SI units.
 18.
The types of particles that are located in the nucleus of an atom are protons and neutrons, and the types of particles that are located in the energy levels surrounding the nucleus are electrons.
 19.
The atomic number of carbon is 6, so it must contain 12 electrons.
 20.
Most elements are stable if their outermost energy level contains an even number of electrons.
 21.
Atoms in a gas move more rapidly than atoms in a liquid or a solid do.
 22.
The products of an endergonic chemical reaction possess more energy than the reactants from which they are produced.
 23.
The amount of energy needed to cause a chemical reaction to start is called activation energy.
 24.
When an enzyme binds with its substrate, the activation energy needed for the chemical reaction to occur is raised.
 25.
Enzymes speed up a chemical reaction by increasing the activation energy of the reaction.
 26.
Without enzymes, chemical reactions necessary for life would not occur at a rate sufficient to sustain life.
 27.
Free hydrogen ions can react with water molecules and form a positively charged ion, the hydronium ion.
 28.
Bases tend to have a sour taste, while acids tend to have a bitter taste.
 29.
Buffers can neutralize acids, but they do not affect bases.
 

Multiple Choice
Identify the choice that best completes the statement or answers the question.
 30.
Biology is the study of
a.
 minerals.
c.
 the weather.
b.
 life.
d.
 energy.
 31.
Instructions for development that are passed from parents to offspring are known as
a.
 a species plan.
c.
 genes.
b.
 organ codes.
d.
 natural selections.
 32.
Homeostasis means
a.
 a change over long periods of time.
c.
 rapid change.
b.
 keeping things the same.
d.
 the same thing as evolution.
 33.
Which of the following is a means by which heterotrophs can obtain energy?
a.
 using water, carbon dioxide, and energy from the sun to produce sugars
b.
 using water and carbon dioxide to produce energy-rich compounds
c.
 consuming autotrophs
d.
 consuming simple chemicals from the environment and using them to assemble complex chemicals and structures needed by the organism
 34.
Which of the following is not necessarily a distinct property of living things?
a.
 homeostasis
c.
 complexity
b.
 metabolism
d.
 reproduction
 35.
All organisms are composed of
a.
 diatoms.
c.
 cells.
b.
 cellulose.
d.
 None of the above
 36.
Scientific hypotheses are most often tested by the process of
a.
 communicating.
c.
 experimenting.
b.
 inferring.
d.
 analyzing data.
 37.
A unifying explanation for a broad range of observations is a
a.
 hypothesis.
c.
 prediction.
b.
 theory.
d.
 controlled experiment.
 38.
Most typically, the order in which the steps of the scientific method are applied is
a.
 observations, predictions, hypothesis, controlled testing, theory, verification.
b.
 predictions, observations, hypothesis, theory, controlled testing, verification.
c.
 observations, hypothesis, predictions, controlled testing, theory, verification.
d.
 observations, hypothesis, predictions, controlled testing, verification, theory.
 39.
Atoms are composed of
a.
 protons with a positive charge.
c.
 electrons with a negative charge.
b.
 neutrons with no charge.
d.
 All of the above
 40.
Which of the following states of matter contain(s) particles that are tightly linked together in a definite shape?
a.
 solid
c.
 gas
b.
 liquid
d.
 solid and liquid
 41.
The bond formed when two atoms share a pair of electrons is called a
a.
 hydrogen bond.
c.
 covalent bond.
b.
 nonpolar bond.
d.
 water bond.
 42.
An atom that has gained or lost electrons is called a(n)
a.
 molecule.
c.
 ion.
b.
 nucleon.
d.
 element.
 43.
Which of the following statements most accurately describes the difference between an ionic bond and a covalent bond?
a.
 Atoms held together by ionic bonds separate when placed in water while atoms held together by covalent bonds do not separate in water.
b.
 Ionic bonds hold together atoms of two different types, while covalent bonds hold together atoms of the same type.
c.
 Electrons are exchanged between atoms held together by an ionic bond, but they are shared between atoms held together by a covalent bond.
d.
 Ionic bonds form between atoms that carry opposite charges, while covalent bonds form between uncharged atoms.
 44.
A reaction in which the products have less energy than the reactants is
a.
 an endergonic reaction.
c.
 a filamentous reaction.
b.
 an exergonic reaction.
d.
 impossible.
nar002-1.jpg
 45.
Refer to the graph above. Which of these statements is true regarding the graph?
a.
 Reaction “2” occurs faster than Reaction “3” because Reaction “2” requires more energy than Reaction “3.”
b.
 The difference in the graphs shown for Reaction “2” and Reaction “3” is due to a difference in the activation energy needed for these reactions.
c.
 Reactant “A” contains more energy at the beginning of the reaction than Product “C” has after the reaction.
d.
 All of the above
nar003-1.jpg
 46.
Refer to the graphs above. Which graph illustrates what happens during an exergonic reaction?
a.
 Graph “A”
b.
 Graph “B”
c.
 Both graphs; they each show a different stage of an exergonic reaction.
d.
 Neither graph shows an exergonic reaction.
 47.
Refer to the graphs above. Which graph illustrates a reaction during which reaction energy is released into the environment?
a.
 Graph “A”
b.
 Graph “B”
c.
 Both graphs, since all chemical reactions release energy into the environment
d.
 Neither graph, since chemical reactions do not involve energy
 48.
Enzymes
a.
 are able to heat up molecules so that they can react.
b.
 provide CO2 for chemical reactions.
c.
 are biological catalysts.
d.
 absorb excess heat so that reactions occur at low temperatures.
 49.
A neutral solution has an equal number of
a.
 hydrogen and hydronium ions.
c.
 hydrogen and hydroxide ions.
b.
 hydroxide and hydronium ions.
d.
 oxygen and hydrogen ions.
 50.
Buffers
a.
 are of relatively little importance in living things.
b.
 are formed when a large number of hydroxide ions are released in a solution.
c.
 are formed when a large number of hydronium ions are released in a solution.
d.
 tend to prevent great fluctuations in pH.

 
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Introduction to Biology

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Introduction to Biology

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  1. Biology is the study of Minerals Organisms Weather Energy
  2. All organisms possess DNA because DNA creates energy for cells DNA allows sensitivity to environmental stimuli

    DNA contains information for growth & development

    DNA helps capture energy from the sun

  3. Hoeostasis means a slow change over a long period of time Keeping things the same or in balance

    Producing enzymes for metabolism

    Responding to environmental stimuli

Introduction, Chemistry, Water

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Introduction, Chemistry, Water
 

Multiple Choice
Identify the choice that best completes the statement or answers the question.
 1.
What is a localized group of organisms that belong to the same species?
a.
 biosystem
b.
 community
c.
 population
d.
 ecosystem
e.
 organ system
 2.
Plants convert the energy of sunlight into
a.
 the energy of motion.
b.
 carbon dioxide and water.
c.
 the potential energy of chemical bonds.
d.
 minerals.
e.
 kinetic energy.
 3.
As a result of photosynthesis, plants release ____ into the atmosphere.
a.
 methane
b.
 carbon dioxide
c.
 water
d.
 minerals
e.
 oxygen
 4.
Which of the following is the main source of energy for producers such as plants and other photosynthetic organisms?
a.
 sunlight or solar energy
b.
 carbon dioxide or kinetic energy
c.
 heat or thermal energy
d.
 chemicals or chemical energy
e.
 both B and D
 5.
The dynamics of any ecosystem include the following major processes:
a.
 the flow of energy from sunlight to producers
b.
 the flow of energy from sunlight to producers and then to consumers
c.
 the recycling of chemical nutrients
d.
 the flow of energy to producers and the recycling of nutrients
e.
 the flow of energy from sunlight to producers and then to consumers, and the recycling of chemical nutrients
 6.
What are the basic “building blocks” of deoxyribonucleic acid (DNA)?
a.
 100,000 different kinds of proteins
b.
 26 different kinds of chromosomes
c.
 20 different kinds of amino acids
d.
 4 different kinds of nucleotides
e.
 3 different kinds of genomes
 7.
Which of the following is reflective of the phrase “the whole is greater than the sum of its parts”?
a.
 high-throughput technology
b.
 emergent properties
c.
 natural selection
d.
 reductionism
e.
 feedback regulations
 8.
Prokaryotic and eukaryotic cells generally have which of the following features in common?
a.
 a membrane-bounded nucleus
b.
 a cell wall made of cellulose
c.
 ribosomes
d.
 flagella or cilia that contain microtubules
e.
 linear chromosomes made of DNA and protein
 9.
Which of the following are characteristics shared by members of both domain Bacteria and domain Archaea?
a.
 cytosol
b.
 nucleus
c.
 DNA
d.
 A and C only
e.
 A, B, and C
 10.
A water sample from a hot thermal vent contained a single-celled organism that lacked a nucleus. What is its most likely classification?
a.
 domain Eukarya
b.
 domain Archaea
c.
 kingdom Animalia
d.
 kingdom Protista
e.
 kingdom Fungi
 11.
In a hypothetical world, every 50 years people over 6 feet tall are eliminated from the population. Based on your knowledge of natural selection, you would predict that the average height of the human population will
a.
 remain unchanged.
b.
 gradually decline.
c.
 rapidly decline.
d.
 gradually increase.
e.
 rapidly increase.
 12.
The method of scientific inquiry that describes natural structures and processes as accurately as possible through careful observation and the analysis of data is known as
a.
 hypothesis-based science.
b.
 discovery science.
c.
 experimental science.
d.
 quantitative science.
e.
 qualitative science.
 13.
What is a hypothesis?
a.
 the same thing as an unproven theory
b.
 a tentative explanation that can be tested and is falsifiable
c.
 a verifiable observation sensed directly, or sensed indirectly with the aid of scientific instrumentation
d.
 a fact based on qualitative data that is testable
e.
 a fact based on quantitative data that is falsifiable
 14.
The statement “If you show your dog affection, then your dog will seek your company” is an example of
a.
 a statement that can be tested.
b.
 a statement derived from a hypothesis.
c.
 a prediction.
d.
 deductive reasoning.
e.
 all of the above
 15.
Trace elements are those required by an organism in only minute quantities. Which of the following is a trace element that is required by humans and other vertebrates?
a.
 nitrogen
b.
 calcium
c.
 iodine
d.
 sodium
e.
 phosphorus
 16.
Which of the following statements is false?
a.
 Atoms of the various elements differ in their number of subatomic particles.
b.
 All atoms of a particular element have the same number of protons in their nuclei.
c.
 The neutrons and protons present in the nucleus of an atom are almost identical in mass; each has a mass of about 1 dalton.
d.
 An atom is the smallest unit of an element that still retains the properties of the element.
e.
 Protons and electrons are electrically charged particles. Protons have one unit of negative charge, and electrons have one unit of positive charge.
 17.
Each element is unique and different from other elements because of the number of protons in the nuclei of its atoms. Which of the following indicates the number of protons in an atom’s nucleus?
a.
 atomic mass
b.
 atomic weight
c.
 atomic number
d.
 mass weight
e.
 mass number
 18.
The mass number of an element can be easily approximated by adding together the number of ____ in an atom of that element.
a.
 protons and neutrons
b.
 energy levels
c.
 protons and electrons
d.
 neutrons and electrons
e.
 isotopes
 19.
The nucleus of a nitrogen atom contains 7 neutrons and 7 protons. Which of the following is a correct statement concerning nitrogen?
a.
 The nitrogen atom has a mass number of approximately 7 daltons and an atomic mass of 14.
b.
 The nitrogen atom has a mass number of approximately 14 daltons and an atomic mass of 7.
c.
 The nitrogen atom has a mass number of 14 and an atomic mass of 7 grams.
d.
 The nitrogen atom has a mass number of 7 grams and an atomic number of 14.
e.
 The nitrogen atom has a mass number of 14 and an atomic mass of approximately 14 daltons.
 20.
An atom with an atomic number of 9 and a mass number of 19 would have an atomic mass of approximately
a.
 9 daltons.
b.
 9 grams.
c.
 10 daltons.
d.
 20 grams.
e.
 19 daltons.
 21.
Two isotopes of the same element will have different numbers of
a.
 protons.
b.
 neutrons.
c.
 electrons.
d.
 protons and neutrons.
e.
 neutrons and electrons.
 22.
Electrons exist only at fixed levels of potential energy. However, if an atom absorbs sufficient energy, a possible result is that
a.
 an electron may move to an electron shell farther out from the nucleus.
b.
 an electron may move to an electron shell closer to the nucleus.
c.
 the atom may become a radioactive isotope.
d.
 the atom would become a positively charged ion, or cation.
e.
 the atom would become a negatively charged ion, or anion.
 23.
The atomic number of neon is 10. Therefore, which of the following is correct about an atom of neon?
a.
 It has 8 electrons in its outer electron shell.
b.
 It is inert.
c.
 It has an atomic mass of 10 daltons.
d.
 A and B only
e.
 A, B, and C are correct.
 24.
From its atomic number of 15, it is possible to predict that the phosphorus atom has
a.
 15 neutrons.
b.
 15 protons.
c.
 15 electrons.
d.
 8 electrons in its outermost electron shell.
e.
 B and C only
Use the figure below to answer the following questions.

nar001-1.jpg
 25.
Which drawing depicts the electron configuration of oxygen (O)?
a.
 Drawing A
b.
 Drawing B
c.
 Drawing C
d.
 Drawing D
e.
 Drawing E
 26.
Which drawing depicts an atom that is inert or chemically unreactive?
a.
 Drawing A
b.
 Drawing B
c.
 Drawing C
d.
 Drawing D
e.
 Drawing E
 27.
Which drawing depicts an atom with a valence of 2?
a.
 Drawing A
b.
 Drawing B
c.
 Drawing C
d.
 Drawing D
e.
 Drawing E
Use the information extracted from the periodic table in the figure below to answer the following questions.

nar002-1.jpg
 28.
How many electrons does nitrogen have in its valence shell?
a.
 2
b.
 5
c.
 7
d.
 8
e.
 14
 29.
How many neutrons are present in the nucleus of a phosphorus atom?
a.
 8
b.
 15
c.
 16
d.
 31
e.
 46
 30.
How many electrons would be expected in the outermost electron shell of an atom with atomic number 12?
a.
 1
b.
 2
c.
 4
d.
 6
e.
 8
 31.
What results from an unequal sharing of electrons between atoms?
a.
 a nonpolar covalent bond
b.
 a polar covalent bond
c.
 an ionic bond
d.
 a hydrogen bond
e.
 a hydrophobic interaction
 32.
A covalent bond is likely to be polar when
a.
 one of the atoms sharing electrons is much more electronegative than the other atom.
b.
 the two atoms sharing electrons are equally electronegative.
c.
 the two atoms sharing electrons are of the same element.
d.
 it is between two atoms that are both very strong electron acceptors.
e.
 the two atoms sharing electrons are different elements.
Use the figure below to answer the following questions. .

nar003-1.jpg
 33.
What results from the chemical reaction?
a.
 a cation with a net charge of +1
b.
 a cation with a net charge of -1
c.
 an anion with a net charge of +1
d.
 an anion with a net charge of -1
e.
 A and D
 34.
What is the atomic number of the cation formed in the reaction?
a.
 1
b.
 8
c.
 10
d.
 11
e.
 16
 35.
In ammonium chloride salt (NH4Cl) the anion is a single chloride ion, . What is the cation of NH4Cl?
a.
 N, with a charge of +3
b.
 H, with a charge of +1
c.
 H2 with a charge of +4
d.
 NH4 with a charge of +1
e.
 NH4 with a charge of +4
 36.
Van der Waals interactions result when
a.
 hybrid orbitals overlap.
b.
 electrons are not symmetrically distributed in a molecule.
c.
 molecules held by ionic bonds react with water.
d.
 two polar covalent bonds react.
e.
 a hydrogen atom loses an electron.
 37.
A van der Waals interaction is the weak attraction between
a.
 the electrons of one molecule and the electrons of a nearby molecule.
b.
 the nucleus of one molecule and the electrons of a nearby molecule.
c.
 a polar molecule and a nearby nonpolar molecule.
d.
 a polar molecule and a nearby molecule that is also polar.
e.
 a nonpolar molecule and a nearby molecule that is also nonpolar.
 38.
Which of the following is not considered to be a weak molecular interaction?
a.
 a covalent bond
b.
 a van der Waals interaction
c.
 an ionic bond in the presence of water
d.
 a hydrogen bond
e.
 A and B only
 39.
An example of a hydrogen bond is the bond between
a.
 C and H in methane (CH4).
b.
 the H of one water molecule and the O of another water molecule.
c.
 Na+and Cl- in salt.
d.
 the two hydrogen atoms in a molecule of hydrogen gas (H2).
e.
 Mg+and Cl- in MgCl2.
 40.
Which of the following is a correct definition of a kilocalorie?
a.
 the amount of heat required to raise the temperature of 1 g of water by 1°F
b.
 the amount of heat required to raise the temperature of 1 g of water by 1°C
c.
 the amount of heat required to raise the temperature of 1 kg of water by 1°F
d.
 the amount of heat required to raise the temperature of 1 kg of water by 1°C
e.
 the amount of heat required to raise the temperature of 1,000 g of water by 1°F
 41.
Desert rabbits are adapted to the warm climate because their large ears aid in the removal of heat due to the
a.
 high surface tension of water.
b.
 high heat of vaporization of water.
c.
 high specific heat of water.
d.
 buffering capacity of water.
e.
 dissociation of water molecules.
 42.
Temperature usually increases when water condenses. Which behavior of water is most directly responsible for this phenomenon?
a.
 the change in density when it condenses to form a liquid or solid
b.
 reactions with other atmospheric compounds
c.
 the release of heat by the formation of hydrogen bonds
d.
 the release of heat by the breaking of hydrogen bonds
e.
 the high surface tension of water
 43.
How many molecules of glucose (C6H2O6 molecular mass =180 daltons) would be present in one mole of glucose?
a.
 24
b.
 342
c.
 23 1014
d.
 180 1014
e.
 6.02 1023

Use the figure below to answer the following questions:

nar004-1.jpg
 44.
How many grams of the molecule in the figure above would be required to make 2.5 L of a 1 M solution of the molecule?
(Carbon = 12, Oxygen = 16, Hydrogen = 1)
a.
 29
b.
 30
c.
 60
d.
 150
e.
 342
 45.
Which of the following ionizes completely in solution and is considered to be a strong base?
a.
 NaCl
b.
 HCl
c.
 NH3
d.
 H2CO3
e.
 NaOH
 46.
A given solution contains 0.0001(10-4) moles of hydrogen ions [H+] per liter. Which of the following best describes this solution?
a.
 acidic: H+ acceptor
b.
 basic: H+ acceptor
c.
 acidic: H+ donor
d.
 basic: H+ donor
e.
 neutral
 47.
A solution contains 0.0000001(10-7) moles of hydroxide ions [OH-] per liter. Which of the following best describes this solution?
a.
 acidic: H+ acceptor
b.
 basic: H+ acceptor
c.
 acidic: H+ donor
d.
 basic: H+ donor
e.
 neutral
 48.
Which of the following solutions has the greatest concentration of hydroxide ions [OH-]?
a.
 lemon juice at pH 2
b.
 vinegar at pH 3
c.
 tomato juice at pH 4
d.
 urine at pH 6
e.
 seawater at pH 8
 49.
Which of the following statements is true about buffer solutions?
a.
 They maintain a constant pH when bases are added to them but not when acids are added to them.
b.
 They maintain a constant pH when acids are added to them but not when bases are added to them.
c.
 They maintain a constant pH of exactly 7 in all living cells and biological fluids.
d.
 They maintain a relatively constant pH.
e.
 They are found only in living systems and biological fluids.
 50.

One of the buffers that contribute to pH stability in human blood is carbonic acid H2CO3. Carbonic acid is a weak acid that when placed in an aqueous solution dissociates into a bicarbonate ion (HCO3-) and a hydrogen ion (H+) Thus,

H2CO3 HCO3- + H+

If the pH of the blood increases, one would expect

a.
 a decrease in the concentration of H2CO3 and an increase in the concentration of H2O.
b.
 an increase in the concentration of H2CO3 and a decrease in the concentration of H2O.
c.
 a decrease in the concentration of HCO3- and an increase in the concentration of H2O.
d.
 an increase in the concentration of HCO3- and a decrease in the concentration of H2O.
e.
 a decrease in the concentration of HCO3- and an increase in the concentration of both H2CO3and H2O.


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