Author: Biology Junction Team

Cell Membrane & Transport Study Guide

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Cell membrane & Transport Quiz

 

 

True/False
Indicate whether the statement is true or false.
 1.
During diffusion, molecules diffuse from a region where their concentration is low to a region where their concentration is higher, until the particles are evenly dispersed.
 2.
When the concentration of dissolved particles outside a cell is equal to the concentration of dissolved particles inside the cell, the cell solution is isotonic.
 3.
Membranes are selectively permeable if they allow only certain substances to move across them.
 4.
A cell placed in a strong salt solution would probably burst because of osmosis.
 5.
Water will diffuse out of a cell when the cell is placed in a hypertonic solution.
 6.
Osmosis is the diffusion of starch molecules through a selectively permeable membrane.
 7.
The binding of specific molecules to ion channels controls the ability of particular ions to cross the cell membrane.
 8.
To pass through a cell membrane, water requires carrier proteins.
 9.
In facilitated diffusion, carrier proteins require energy to transport substances across the cell membrane.
 10.
The transport of specific particles down their concentration gradient through a membrane by carrier proteins is known as facilitated diffusion.
 11.
Diffusion is an active process that requires a cell to expend a great deal of energy.
 12.
Diffusion through ion channels is a form of active transport.
 13.
Facilitated diffusion moves molecules and ions against their concentration gradient, while active transport moves molecules and ions down their concentration gradient.
 14.
Passive transport uses ATP to move molecules against their concentration gradient.
 15.
In active transport, energy is required to move a substance across a cell membrane.
 16.
The sodium-potassium pump requires energy to move ions across the cell membrane.
 17.
The sodium-potassium pump moves sodium ions and potassium ions against their concentration gradient.
 18.
The sodium-potassium pump transports sodium ions out of a cell while causing potassium ions to move into the cell.
 19.
The sodium-potassium pump uses ATP.
 20.
Exocytosis is a process that uses vesicles to capture substances and bring them into a cell.
 21.
Exocytosis helps the cell rid itself of wastes.
 22.
During the process of exocytosis, the cell membrane extends to engulf substances that are too big to pass through the cell membrane.
 23.
Exocytosis does not use energy to expel proteins from the cell.
 24.
Receptor proteins pump sodium ions into a cell.
 25.
Receptor proteins may cause the formation of a second messenger molecule inside a cell.
 26.
A receptor protein sends signals into a cell by transporting a specific molecule through the cell membrane.
 

Modified True/False
Indicate whether the statement is true or false.  If false, change the identified word or phrase to make the statement true.
 27.
One way that cells maintain homeostasis is by controlling the movement of substances across the cell membrane. _________________________
 28.
The cell membrane is made up of a double layer called the DNA bilayer. _________________________
 29.
A phospholipid is made up of a lipid “head” and two fatty acid “tails.” _________________________
 30.
The nonpolar tails of a phospholipid are attracted to water. _________________________
 31.
Cell-surface markers face the inside of the cell. _________________________
 32.
A concentration gradient exists when one area has a higher concentration of a substance than another area does. _________________________
 33.
The movement down a concentration gradient is called diffusion. _________________________
 34.
When the solute concentration outside a cell is equal to the solute concentration inside the cell, the cell’s environment is hypotonic. _________________________
 35.
A cell placed in a high salt solution would swell because of osmosis. _________________________
 36.
Osmosis is the diffusion of starch molecules through a selectively permeable membrane. _________________________
 37.
To pass through a cell membrane, water requires carrier proteins. _________________________
 38.
Facilitated diffusion is an active process that requires a cell to expend a great deal of energy. _________________________
 39.
Passive transport uses ATP to move molecules against their concentration gradient. _________________________
 40.
Exocytosis is a process that uses vesicles to capture substances and bring them into a cell. _________________________
 41.
Cells use exocytosis to export proteins modified by the Golgi apparatus. _________________________
 42.
Cells communicate by sending chemical signals that carry information to other cells. _________________________
 43.
Receptor proteins bind only to signals that match the specific color of the binding site. _________________________
 44.
Receptor proteins may cause the formation of a second messenger molecule inside the cell. _________________________
 

Multiple Choice
Identify the choice that best completes the statement or answers the question.
 45.
As a result of diffusion, the concentration of many types of substances
a.
 always remains greater inside a membrane.
b.
 eventually becomes balanced on both sides of a membrane.
c.
 always remains greater outside of a membrane.
d.
 becomes imbalanced on both sides of a membrane.
nar001-1.jpg
 46.
Refer to the illustration above. The process shown is called
a.
 osmosis.
c.
 active transport.
b.
 facilitated diffusion.
d.
 diffusion.
 47.
Refer to the illustration above. The process shown is called
a.
 osmosis.
c.
 active transport.
b.
 facilitated diffusion.
d.
 diffusion.
 48.
Diffusion is the movement of a substance
a.
 only through a lipid bilayer membrane.
b.
 from an area of low concentration to an area of higher concentration.
c.
 only in liquids.
d.
 from an area of high concentration to an area of lower concentration.
 49.
The dispersal of ink in a beaker of water is an example of
a.
 diffusion.
c.
 active transport.
b.
 osmosis.
d.
 endocytosis.
 50.
The diffusion of water into or out of a cell is called
a.
 solubility.
c.
 selective transport.
b.
 osmosis.
d.
 endocytosis.
 51.
Osmosis is a type of
a.
 active transport.
c.
 facilitated diffusion.
b.
 passive transport.
d.
 endocytosis.
 52.
A cell will swell when it is placed in a(n)
a.
 hypotonic solution.
c.
 isotonic solution.
b.
 hypertonic solution.
d.
 None of the above
 53.
The interior portion of a cell membrane forms a nonpolar zone that
a.
 allows polar molecules to pass through the membrane.
b.
 allows food to pass through the membrane.
c.
 prevents ions and most large molecules from passing through the membrane.
d.
 None of the above
 54.
Ions move through ion channels by
a.
 endocytosis.
c.
 passive transport.
b.
 diffusion.
d.
 active transport.
 55.
Ion channel gates close the pores of some ion channels in response to
a.
 stretching of the cell membrane.
b.
 a change in electrical charge.
c.
 the binding of specific molecules to the channel.
d.
 All of the above
 56.
Proteins that act like selective passageways in the cell membrane are known as
a.
 marker proteins.
c.
 receptor proteins.
b.
 channel proteins.
d.
 None of the above
 57.
Transport proteins that allow ions to pass through the cell membrane are called
a.
 receptor proteins.
c.
 ion channels.
b.
 marker proteins.
d.
 None of the above
 58.
Sugar molecules cross the cell membrane by
a.
 active transport.
c.
 osmosis.
b.
 facilitated diffusion.
d.
 gated channels.
 59.
Proteins involved in facilitated diffusion are
a.
 carrier proteins.
c.
 Both (a) and (b)
b.
 receptor proteins.
d.
 None of the above
 60.
Sugar molecules can enter cells through the process of
a.
 exocytosis.
c.
 osmosis.
b.
 facilitated diffusion.
d.
 ion pumps.
 61.
Which of the following does not require energy?
a.
 diffusion
c.
 active transport
b.
 endocytosis
d.
 sodium-potassium pump
 62.
Unlike passive transport, active transport
a.
 requires energy.
b.
 moves substances down their concentration gradient.
c.
 does not involve carrier proteins.
d.
 All of the above
 63.
Both active transport and facilitated diffusion involve
a.
 ATP.
b.
 movement against a concentration gradient.
c.
 carrier proteins.
d.
 All of the above
 64.
Which of the following is a form of active transport?
a.
 osmosis
c.
 facilitated diffusion
b.
 diffusion
d.
 sodium-potassium pump
 65.
The sodium-potassium pump
a.
 is a carrier protein
c.
 is located in the cytoplasm of a cell.
b.
 uses passive transport.
d.
 transports sugar molecules.
 66.
The sodium-potassium pump usually pumps
a.
 potassium ions out of the cell.
b.
 sodium ions into the cell.
c.
 potassium ions into the cell.
d.
 only potassium ions and sugar molecules.
 67.
The sodium-potassium pump
a.
 increases the concentration of sodium ions inside a cell.
b.
 decreases the concentration of sodium ions inside a cell.
c.
 increases the concentration of potassium ions inside a cell.
d.
 Both (b) and (c)
 68.
Proteins and polysaccharides that are too large to move into a cell through diffusion or active transport move in by
a.
 exocytosis.
c.
 the sodium-potassium pump.
b.
 endocytosis.
d.
 None of the above
 69.
Molecules that are too large to be moved through the membrane can be transported into the cell by
a.
 osmosis.
c.
 exocytosis.
b.
 endocytosis.
d.
 diffusion.
 70.
Molecules that are too large to be moved across a cell membrane can be removed from the cell by
a.
 diffusion.
c.
 endocytosis.
b.
 exocytosis.
d.
 osmosis.
 71.
Ridding the cell of materials by discharging the materials in vesicles is called
a.
 osmosis.
c.
 exocytosis.
b.
 diffusion.
d.
 endocytosis.
nar002-1.jpg
 72.
Refer to the illustration above. What happens when the structure labeled A binds to the structure labeled B?
a.
 Information is sent into the cell.
c.
 The cell begins to undergo mitosis.
b.
 Proteins enter the cell.
d.
 None of the above
 73.
Refer to the illustration above. What happens when the structure labeled A binds to the structure labeled B?
a.
 Information is sent into the cell.
c.
 The cell begins to swell.
b.
 Proteins enter the cell.
d.
 Ions enter the cell.
 74.
Refer to the illustration above. The structure labeled B in the diagram is an example of a(n)
a.
 channel protein.
c.
 receptor protein.
b.
 signal molecule.
d.
 ion pump.
 75.
Signal molecules bind to
a.
 carbohydrates.
c.
 receptor proteins.
b.
 marker proteins.
d.
 transport proteins.
 76.
When a signal molecule binds to a receptor protein, the receptor protein may
a.
 change the permeability of the membrane.
b.
 cause the formation of a second messenger molecule.
c.
 catalyze certain chemical reactions in the cell.
d.
 All of the above
 77.
Which of the following transmit information into a cell by binding to signal molecules?
a.
 channel proteins
c.
 marker proteins
b.
 receptor proteins
d.
 end proteins
 78.
cell membrane : cell ::
a.
 window : house
c.
 door : house
b.
 roof : house
d.
 wall : house
 79.
Which type of molecule forms the cell membrane?
a.
 protein
c.
 nucleic acid
b.
 phospholipid
d.
 carbohydrate
 80.
Phospholipids are molecules that have
a.
 one polar phosphate head and two polar fatty acid tails.
b.
 one polar phosphate head and two nonpolar fatty acid tails.
c.
 one polar phosphate head and one polar fatty acid tail.
d.
 one nonpolar phosphate head and two polar fatty acid tails.
 81.
The interior of the lipid bilayer of a cell membrane forms a nonpolar zone that
a.
 allows most polar molecules to pass through the membrane.
b.
 allows food to pass through the membrane.
c.
 repels ions and most polar molecules.
d.
 makes the membrane permeable to most molecules.
nar004-1.jpg
 82.
Refer to the illustration above. The structure labeled A is composed of
a.
 lipids.
c.
 proteins.
b.
 carbohydrates.
d.
 DNA.
 83.
Refer to the illustration above. The structure labeled D is a(n)
a.
 cell-surface marker.
c.
 enzyme.
b.
 receptor protein.
d.
 transport protein.
 84.
Refer to the illustration above. The structure labeled C is a(n)
a.
 cell-surface marker.
c.
 enzyme.
b.
 receptor protein.
d.
 transport protein.
 85.
Proteins in the cell membrane that identify the cell are called
a.
 cell-surface markers.
c.
 enzymes.
b.
 receptor proteins.
d.
 transport proteins.
 86.
As a result of diffusion, the concentration of many types of substances
a.
 always remains greater inside a membrane.
b.
 eventually becomes balanced on both sides of a membrane.
c.
 always remains greater outside of a membrane.
d.
 becomes imbalanced on both sides of a membrane.
 87.
Diffusion is the movement of a substance
a.
 only through a lipid bilayer membrane.
b.
 from an area of low concentration to an area of higher concentration.
c.
 only in liquids.
d.
 from an area of high concentration to an area of lower concentration.
 88.
The dispersal of ink in a beaker of water is an example of
a.
 diffusion.
c.
 active transport.
b.
 osmosis.
d.
 endocytosis.
 89.
Proteins that serve as tunnels for specific substances through the lipid bilayer are
a.
 cell-surface markers.
c.
 receptor proteins.
b.
 channel proteins.
d.
 enzymes.
 90.
Sugar molecules cross the cell membrane by
a.
 active transport.
c.
 osmosis.
b.
 facilitated diffusion.
d.
 simple diffusion.
 91.
Which of the following does not require energy?
a.
 diffusion
c.
 active transport
b.
 endocytosis
d.
 sodium-potassium pump
 92.
Ions move through ion channels by
a.
 endocytosis.
c.
 passive transport.
b.
 simple diffusion.
d.
 active transport.
 93.
The diffusion of water into or out of a cell is called
a.
 solubility.
c.
 selective transport.
b.
 osmosis.
d.
 endocytosis.
 94.
Osmosis is a type of
a.
 active transport.
c.
 simple diffusion.
b.
 passive transport.
d.
 endocytosis.
 95.
How does water pass through the cell membrane?
a.
 directly through the lipid bilayer
b.
 through a water ion pump
c.
 through water carrier proteins
d.
 through channel proteins just for water
 96.
Which of the following statements about an isotonic solution and a cell is correct?
a.
 The solution has the same solute concentration that the cytoplasm does.
b.
 The solution has a higher solute concentration than the cytoplasm does.
c.
 A cell in the solution will lose water.
d.
 A cell in the solution will gain water.
 97.
Unlike passive transport, active transport
a.
 requires energy.
b.
 moves substances down their concentration gradient.
c.
 does not involve carrier proteins.
d.
 moves water across the cell membrane.
 98.
Both active transport and facilitated diffusion involve
a.
 ATP.
b.
 movement against a concentration gradient.
c.
 carrier proteins.
d.
 channel proteins.
 99.
Which of the following is a form of active transport?
a.
 osmosis
c.
 facilitated diffusion
b.
 simple diffusion
d.
 sodium-potassium pump
 100.
The sodium-potassium pump
a.
 is a carrier protein.
c.
 is located in the cytoplasm of a cell.
b.
 uses passive transport.
d.
 transports sugar molecules.
 101.
The sodium-potassium pump usually pumps
a.
 potassium ions out of the cell.
b.
 sodium ions into the cell.
c.
 potassium ions into the cell.
d.
 only potassium ions and sugar molecules.
 102.
How many potassium ions does the sodium-potassium pump move into a cell if it moves six sodium ions out of the cell?
a.
 two
c.
 six
b.
 four
d.
 eight
 103.
Proteins and polysaccharides that are too large to move into a cell through diffusion or active transport move in by
a.
 exocytosis.
c.
 the sodium-potassium pump.
b.
 endocytosis.
d.
 channel proteins.
 104.
Molecules that are too large to be moved across a cell membrane can be removed from the cell by
a.
 diffusion.
c.
 endocytosis.
b.
 exocytosis.
d.
 osmosis.
 105.
Removing materials from a cell in vesicles is called
a.
 osmosis.
c.
 exocytosis.
b.
 diffusion.
d.
 endocytosis.
 106.
Which of the following descriptions of hormones is correct?
a.
 signal molecules distributed throughout the body
b.
 signal molecules that affect all cells in the body
c.
 target molecules that communicate through direct contact
d.
 target molecules that originate outside the body
 107.
Signal molecules bind to
a.
 carbohydrates.
c.
 receptor proteins.
b.
 marker proteins.
d.
 transport proteins.
 108.
Which of the following transmit information into a cell by binding to signal molecules?
a.
 channel proteins
c.
 marker proteins
b.
 receptor proteins
d.
 signal proteins
 109.
What change takes place in the cell membrane if a signal molecule causes a transport protein to open?
a.
 permeability change
c.
 formation of a second messenger
b.
 activation of an enzyme
d.
 change in chemical reactions
 

Completion
Complete each statement.
 110.
The random motion of particles of a substance that causes the substance to move from an area of high concentration to an area of lower concentration is called ____________________.
 111.
The diffusion of ____________________ through cell membranes is called osmosis.
 112.
Substances always flow from an area of high concentration to an area of ____________________ concentration.
 113.
When the concentration of free water molecules is higher outside a cell than inside the cell, water will diffuse ____________________ the cell.
 114.
If a cell is placed in a(n) ____________________ solution, water will flow out of the cell.
 115.
If a cell is placed in a(n) ____________________ solution, water will flow into the cell.
 116.
If a cell is placed in a(n) ____________________ solution, water flows into the cell at a rate that is equal to the rate at which water flows out of the cell.
 117.
Diffusion of ions through ion channels is a form of ____________________ transport.
 118.
If the interior of a typical cell is negatively charged, ____________________ charged ions will not require energy to diffuse into the cell using an ion channel.
 119.
In facilitated diffusion, ____________________ proteins are used to transport substances down their concentration gradient.
 120.
In ____________________ ____________________, carrier proteins do not require energy to transport amino acids into a cell.
 121.
Carrier proteins ____________________ shape to transport sugars to the interior of cells.
 122.
A cell does not expend ____________________ when diffusion takes place.
 123.
Active transport requires the use of ____________________ by a cell.
 124.
The ____________________-____________________ pump transports ions against their concentration gradients.
 125.
The sodium-potassium pump uses energy supplied by ____________________.
 126.
The sodium-potassium pump prevents the accumulation of ____________________ ions inside the cell.
 127.
The movement of a substance into a cell by a vesicle is called ____________________.
nar003-1.jpg
A
B
 128.
Refer to the illustration above. The process shown in figure B is called ____________________.
 129.
Refer to the illustration above. Cells often engulf extracellular particles and fluid, as shown in figure A. This is called ____________________.
 130.
Refer to the illustration above. The process shown in figure B is called ____________________.
 131.
Refer to the illustration above. The process shown in figure A is called ____________________.
 132.
Receptor proteins can change the ____________________ of the cell membrane.
 133.
Receptor proteins may act as ____________________, catalyzing certain chemical reactions inside the cell.
 134.
In the cell membrane, proteins that transmit information into the cell by responding to signal molecules are called ____________________.
 135.
One way cells maintain homeostasis is by controlling the movement of substances across the cell ____________________.
 136.
A(n) ____________________ is a specialized lipid made of a phosphate head and two fatty acid tails.
 137.
The phosphate head of a phospholipid is attracted to water because it is ____________________.
 138.
The fatty acid tails of a phospholipid are repelled by water because they are ____________________.
 139.
The phospholipids form a barrier through which only small, ____________________ substances can pass.
 140.
Ions and most polar molecules are repelled by the ____________________ interior of the lipid bilayer.
 141.
____________________ – ____________________ markers are attached to the cell surface and have sugars attached to their protein.
 142.
Proteins that aid in moving substances into and out of cells are called ____________________ proteins.
 143.
____________________ are proteins in the cell membrane that help with important biochemical reactions inside the cell.
 144.
____________________ proteins enable a cell to sense its surroundings by binding to certain substances outside the cell.
 145.
To reach equilibrium, substances always flow from an area of high concentration to an area of ____________________ concentration.
 146.
When one area has a higher concentration than another area does, a concentration ____________________ exists.
 147.
Substances diffuse through a cell membrane either through the lipid bilayer or through ____________________ proteins.
 148.
Oxygen and carbon dioxide pass through the lipid bilayer by ____________________ diffusion.
 149.
Diffusion of ions through ion channels is a form of ____________________ transport.
 150.
Carrier proteins change ____________________ to transport substances to the interior of cells.
 151.
A cell does not expend ____________________ when diffusion takes place.
 152.
The diffusion of ____________________ through cell membranes is called osmosis.
 153.
When the concentration of free water molecules is higher outside a cell than inside the cell, water will diffuse ____________________ the cell.
 154.
If a cell is placed in a(n) ____________________ solution, water will flow out of the cell.
 155.
If a cell is placed in a(n) ____________________ solution, water will flow into the cell.
 156.
If a cell is placed in a(n) ____________________ solution, water flows into the cell at a rate that is equal to the rate at which water flows out of the cell.
 157.
Active transport requires the use of ____________________ by a cell.
 158.
The ____________________ – ____________________ pump transports ions against their concentration gradients.
 159.
The sodium-potassium pump uses energy supplied by ____________________.
 160.
The sodium-potassium pump prevents the accumulation of ____________________ ions inside the cell.
 161.
The movement of a substance into a cell by a vesicle is called ____________________.
 162.
A signaling cell produces a signal that is detected by a ____________________ cell.
 163.
Light is an environmental ____________________ for the flowering of some plants.
 164.
In the cell membrane, proteins that bind to specific signal molecules and respond are called ____________________ proteins.
 165.
Receptor proteins can change the ____________________ of the cell membrane.
 166.
Receptor proteins may act as ____________________, triggering certain chemical reactions inside the cell.
 

Short Answer
 167.
In addition to its function as a gatekeeper, what are three other functions of the cell membrane?
 168.
What makes up the lipid bilayer?
 169.
In the lipid bilayer, what causes one layer of polar heads to face the cell’s cytoplasm and the other layer of heads to face the cell’s surroundings?
 170.
What characteristic of membrane proteins causes them to be held in the cell membrane?
 171.
What are four types of proteins in cell membranes?
 172.
What exists across a cell membrane if equilibrium is not reached?
 173.
What is the difference between how a molecule crosses the cell membrane in simple diffusion and in facilitated diffusion?
 174.
What are two types of transport proteins?
 175.
Why are some water molecules not free to move across the cell membrane?
 176.
Explain why osmosis is a form of facilitated diffusion.
 177.
What specific carrier protein moves sodium ions out of a cell and potassium ions into a cell?
 178.
What is the function of the cell membrane during endocytosis?
 179.
What are hormones, how are they distributed, and what cells do they affect?
 180.
What happens to a receptor protein once it binds to a signal molecule?
 181.
How can the cell’s response to a signal cause a permeability change?

 
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Bacteria and Viruses

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bacteria and Viruses

 

 

Multiple Choice
Identify the choice that best completes the statement or answers the question.
 1.
Many microscopic organisms or entities have been identified as pathogens, including all of the following except:
a.
 protozoa.
b.
 viruses.
c.
 fungi.
d.
 bacteria.
e.
 None of the above, all may be pathogenic.
 2.
Which of the following statements about bacteria is false?
a.
 A small percentage of bacteria are pathogenic.
b.
 Some bacteria can photosynthesize.
c.
 Bacteria are important decomposers.
d.
 Bacteria are not cellular and are sometimes not classified as life forms.
e.
 Bacteria convert atmospheric nitrogen into ammonia and then nitrates that can be used by plants.
 3.
Viruses were first identified:
a.
 because they caused an infection and formed colonies on nutrient agar plates.
b.
 because they were seen in the light microscope.
c.
 because they caused an infection and were small enough to pass through filters that trapped bacteria.
d.
 because they were smaller than bacteria and had all the properties of living organisms.
e.
 because they caused an infection and were seen in the electron microscope.
 4.
The protein coat of a virus is called the:
a.
 capsule.
b.
 capsid.
c.
 exospore.
d.
 phage.
e.
 pilus.
 5.
Viruses that attack bacteria are called:
a.
 phages.
b.
 bacteriods
c.
 prions.
d.
 virons.
e.
 viroids.
Figure 23-01
Use the figure below to answer the corresponding questions.nar001-1.jpg
 6.
The structure of the virus in Figure 23-01 that is common to all viruses is:
a.
 2.
b.
 3.
c.
 4.
d.
 5.
e.
 All of the above.
 7.
In Figure 23-01, the function of the structure labeled 3 is:
a.
 attachment to a host cell.
b.
 locomotion.
c.
 mate recognition.
d.
 replication.
e.
 to take over host cell mechanisms.
 8.
Viruses are classified by:
a.
 the sequence of their DNA.
b.
 structural similarities.
c.
 the sequence of their rRNA genes.
d.
 the traditional Linnaean binomial nomenclature system.
e.
 an international committee.
 9.
Viruses:
a.
 are very tiny cells on the order of 500 nm.
b.
 contain both RNA and DNA.
c.
 cannot independently perform metabolic activities.
d.
 have a standard morphology that includes a capsid, tail, and tail fibers.
e.
 All of the above.
 10.
Viruses:
a.
 are usually species-specific.
b.
 may have multiple origins.
c.
 are probably related to mobile genetic elements.
d.
 may have escaped from cells.
e.
 All of the above.
 11.
Phages are being considered for:
a.
 vectors in gene therapy experiments.
b.
 antibiotics in bacterial infections.
c.
 gene transfer vectors in animal cells.
d.
 being equivalent to the first living organisms.
e.
 All of the above.
 12.
Temperate viruses:
a.
 always destroy their host immediately.
b.
 are considered virulent.
c.
 do not always destroy their host.
d.
 do not undergo a lysogenic cycle.
e.
 undergo a lytic cycle.
 13.
Virulent (lytic) phages:
a.
 infect viruses.
b.
 destroy bacteria.
c.
 infect, but do not destroy bacteria.
d.
 infect virions.
e.
 infect prions.
 14.
The five stages of a lytic infection are attachment, penetration, _____________, assembly, and release.
a.
 lysis
b.
 prophage
c.
 lysogenesis
d.
 transduction
e.
 replication
 15.
A prophage:
a.
 is phage DNA that is integrated into viral DNA.
b.
 is phage DNA that is integrated into bacterial DNA.
c.
 replicates only when the eukaryotic cell it infects replicates.
d.
 is an underdeveloped lytic virus.
e.
 is a bacterial cell about to lyse.
 16.
The bacterium that causes botulism disease is harmless until it:
a.
 is infected by lytic bacteria.
b.
 is infected by certain retroviruses.
c.
 contains a certain prophage DNA.
d.
 is irradiated by UV radiation.
e.
 is infected by prions.
 17.
____________ conversion occurs when a bacterium carrying viral genes takes on new, atypical characteristics.
a.
 Transducing
b.
 Lysogenic
c.
 Prophage
d.
 Lytic
e.
 Reverse
 18.
The specificity of viruses to different types of cells is due to _____________ sites on the host cell.
a.
 prophage
b.
 receptor
c.
 transduction
d.
 penetration
e.
 transcription
 19.
Retroviruses differ from other RNA viruses by:
a.
 having reverse transcriptase instead of RNA-dependent RNA polymerase.
b.
 the shape of their capsid.
c.
 the way they infect their host cells.
d.
 the sugar coating on their capsids.
e.
 lytically destroying their hosts.
 20.
Which of the following diseases is not caused by a virus?
a.
 rabies
b.
 polio
c.
 warts in humans
d.
 chickenpox
e.
 Lyme disease
 21.
Which of the following identifies a group of DNA viruses?
a.
 retroviruses
b.
 herpesviruses
c.
 paramyxoviruses
d.
 filovirus
e.
 picornaviruses
 22.
Viral proteins can damage host cells by:
a.
 increasing the rate of fermentation within the host.
b.
 producing endotoxins.
c.
 causing a decline in coordination and increased irritability.
d.
 preventing transcription of viral nucleic acids.
e.
 overwhelming the host cell with a large number of viruses.
 23.
Viral infections in humans spread via the circulatory system. Viral infections in plants spread from cell to cell via:
a.
 endocytosis.
b.
 plasmodesmata.
c.
 infected seeds.
d.
 pili.
e.
 transformation.
 24.
Human viruses can enter human cells by fusion with the cell membrane or by:
a.
 diffusion into the cell.
b.
 passage through specific protein channels.
c.
 coating themselves with lipids that cloak their entrance into the cell.
d.
 endocytosis.
e.
 hitchhiking onto protein signals entering the cell.
 25.
Viroids cause a variety of plant diseases and are composed only of:
a.
 strands of RNA.
b.
 strands of DNA.
c.
 protein coats.
d.
 peptidoglycan.
e.
 a capsid.
 26.
Mad cow disease is an example of an infection caused by a:
a.
 bacterium.
b.
 bacteriophage.
c.
 retrovirus.
d.
 viroid.
e.
 prion.
 27.
_____________ is credited with the discovery of prions as a new biological principle of infection.
a.
 Stanley Prusiner
b.
 Anton van Leeuwenhoek
c.
 Dmitrii Ivanowsky
d.
 Stanley Brenner
e.
 Carl Woese
 28.
A symptom of a transmissible spongiform encephalopathy (TSE) is:
a.
 degeneration of the digestive tract.
b.
 progressive immune deficiency.
c.
 degeneration of the brain and central nervous system.
d.
 inflammation of the reproductive organs.
e.
 influenza-like symptoms.
 29.
The volume of a typical bacterium is about ____________ the volume of a typical eukaryotic cell.
a.
 equal to
b.
 a half
c.
 a tenth
d.
 a hundredth
e.
 a thousandth
 30.
A chain of round bacteria would be called:
a.
 spirilla.
b.
 diplococci.
c.
 bacilli.
d.
 streptococci.
e.
 streptobacilli.
 31.
Rod-shaped bacteria are called:
a.
 streptococci.
b.
 bacilli.
c.
 diplococci.
d.
 vibrio.
e.
 spirochete.
Figure 23-02
Use the figure below to answer the corresponding questions.nar002-1.jpg
 32.
The structure in Figure 23-02 labeled C is:
a.
 a ribosome.
b.
 the plasma membrane.
c.
 the capsule.
d.
 the cell wall.
e.
 the flagellum.
 33.
What is the function of the structure labeled A in Figure 23-02?
a.
 to adhere to surfaces or other bacteria
b.
 to prevent phagocytosis
c.
 support and protection in hypotonic conditions
d.
 transmission of DNA between bacteria
e.
 locomotion
 34.
Even though bacteria lack membrane-bound organelles, such as chloroplasts and mitochondria, they can still perform the functions of these organelles by localizing certain metabolic enzymes on:
a.
 the nuclear membranes.
b.
 the endoplasmic reticulum.
c.
 the plasma membrane.
d.
 ribosomes.
e.
 the cell wall.
 35.
Most bacterial cells keep from bursting in a hypotonic environment by:
a.
 an efficient water pump.
b.
 a tough cell membrane.
c.
 pumping large quantities of salts into the cell.
d.
 a rigid cell wall.
e.
 a stiff capsule.
 36.
Gram-positive bacteria would stain __________ in a gram stain because of a thick layer of __________ in their cell walls.
a.
 green; peptidoglycan
b.
 purple; peptidoglycan
c.
 green; cellulose
d.
 purple; polysaccharides
e.
 red; polysaccharides
 37.
The walls of Eubacteria contain peptidoglycan, which is:
a.
 lipids crosslinked with sugars.
b.
 sugars crosslinked with proteins.
c.
 a protein.
d.
 a lipid.
e.
 a polysaccharide.
 38.
Penicillin works most effectively against gram-positive bacteria because:
a.
 penicillin affects cell membranes.
b.
 they have a thick peptidoglycan cell wall and penicillin affects the synthesis of peptidoglycans.
c.
 they have special protein channels that allow penicillin to enter the cell and halt the cell cycle.
d.
 they are smaller than gram-negative bacteria and, thus, easily take up penicillin by diffusion.
e.
 they contain prophages that negatively interact with penicillin.
 39.
Some bacteria avoid a host’s immune system by means of:
a.
 efficient use of their flagella.
b.
 ameboid motion.
c.
 their capsule.
d.
 changing their cell wall structure.
e.
 eliminating the use of a membrane.
 40.
Bacteria:
a.
 are incapable of locomotion.
b.
 move by means of pili
c.
 move by means of cilia.
d.
 move by means of a rotating flagella.
e.
 move by means of a whiplike flagella.
 41.
Small circles of DNA called ______________ exist in addition to the bacterial chromosome.
a.
 capsids
b.
 plasmids
c.
 chromatids
d.
 pili
e.
 centromeres
 42.
Small hairlike structures on the surface of bacteria are called:
a.
 capsids.
b.
 pili.
c.
 chromatids.
d.
 plasmids.
e.
 virons.
 43.
Plasmids of bacteria often have genes involved in:
a.
 reproduction.
b.
 motility.
c.
 viral resistance.
d.
 antibiotic resistance.
e.
 photosynthesis.
 44.
Pili are involved in adhesion of bacterial cells to a substrate or host, or in transmission of __________ between bacteria.
a.
 ribosomes
b.
 cytoplasm
c.
 vectors
d.
 RNA
e.
 DNA
 45.
Prokaryotes have their genetic information stored in:
a.
 several small, circular pieces of DNA.
b.
 a single, small, circular piece of DNA.
c.
 a large, linear piece of DNA.
d.
 several small, linear pieces of DNA.
e.
 a large, circular piece of DNA.
 46.
_______________ is a form of genetic exchange in bacteria that involves contact between two cells.
a.
 Transformation
b.
 Transduction
c.
 Conjugation
d.
 Binary fission
e.
 Budding
 47.
_____________ are dormant structures formed by bacteria in response to adverse environmental conditions.
a.
 Capsids
b.
 Endospores
c.
 Exotoxins
d.
 Endotoxins
e.
 Heterocysts
 48.
Most bacteria are:
a.
 photoheterotrophs.
b.
 chemoheterotrophs.
c.
 autotrophs.
d.
 heterotrophs.
e.
 chemoautotrophs.
 49.
A bacterium that gains nourishment from dead organisms is referred to as:
a.
 an autotroph.
b.
 a parasite.
c.
 a saprotroph.
d.
 a chemoautotroph.
e.
 a pathogen.
 50.
A(an) ___________________ bacterium would not be able to survive in the presence of oxygen.
a.
 facultative aerobic
b.
 facultative anaerobic
c.
 facultative autotrophic
d.
 obligate aerobic
e.
 obligate anaerobic
 51.
The most common mode of reproduction in bacteria is:
a.
 binary fission.
b.
 transformation.
c.
 transduction.
d.
 conjugation.
e.
 mitosis.
 52.
The first indication that Archae were different from the Eubacteria came from differences noted in their:
a.
 cell wall.
b.
 preferred habitats.
c.
 16 S rRNA sequence.
d.
 protein synthesis machinery.
e.
 resistance to antibiotics.
 53.
The Archaea differ from the Eubacteria and eukaryotes by having different ____________ in their cell membranes, but they are similar to eukaryotes in their ____________ process.
a.
 sugars; replication
b.
 sugars; transcription
c.
 lipids; replication
d.
 lipids; transcription
e.
 proteins; transcription
Figure 23-03
Use the figure below to answer the corresponding questions.nar003-1.jpg
 54.
Which of the following groups from Figure 23-03 represents gram-negative bacteria?
a.
 Spirochetes
b.
 Protists
c.
 Methanogens
d.
 Halophiles
e.
 None of the above.
 55.
Which of the following groups from Figure 23-03 is a member of the Eubacteria domain?
a.
 Fungi
b.
 Halophiles
c.
 Chlamydias
d.
 Protists
e.
 More than one of the above.
 56.
About how many different species of bacteria have been classified?
a.
 200
b.
 2,000
c.
 4,000
d.
 20,000
e.
 40,000
 57.
The most significant difference between the Archaea and the Eubacteria is:
a.
 lack of a nuclear envelope in the Archaea.
b.
 the absence of the 70S ribosomes in the Eubacteria.
c.
 the presence of a single filament flagellum in the Eubacteria.
d.
 the absence of peptidoglycans in the cell walls of the Archaea.
e.
 All of the above.
 58.
One difference between the Archaea and the Eukarya is:
a.
 the lack of a nuclear envelope in the Archaea.
b.
 the absence of the 70S ribosomes in the Archaea.
c.
 the presence of membrane-bound organelles in the Archaea.
d.
 the presence of peptidoglycans in the cell walls of the Archaea.
e.
 the presence of simple RNA polymerase in the Archaea.
 59.
One unique characteristic associated with some of the extreme halophilic Archaea is:
a.
 that they are found at deep-sea vents on the sea floor.
b.
 that they are a source of most known antibiotics.
c.
 that they have photosynthetic ability involving a purple bacteriorhodopsin pigment.
d.
 that they fix atmospheric nitrogen that is then used by plants.
e.
 that most form symbiotic associations.
 60.
_____________ Archae are typically found in abnormally hot environments.
a.
 Extreme halophile
b.
 Extreme thermophile
c.
 Pyrrhanogen
d.
 Metanogen
e.
 Any of the above.
 61.
Most prokaryotes belong to the:
a.
 Fungi.
b.
 Archaea.
c.
 Protista.
d.
 Eubacteria.
e.
 Viroids.
 62.
Bacterial ____________ cause systemic symptoms such as fever, whereas bacterial ____________ cause more specific maladies.
a.
 phages; prophages
b.
 prophages; phages
c.
 endotoxins; exotoxins
d.
 exotoxins; endotoxins
e.
 exotoxins; phages
 63.
The bacterial reproductive parasite Wolbachia is known to:
a.
 eradicate males from a population.
b.
 convert males into females.
c.
 cause infected females to lay eggs that develop without fertilization.
d.
 reduce the number of males in a population.
e.
 All the above.
 64.
The symbiotic bacteria found in the root nodules of legumes:
a.
 supply the plant with the nitrogen it needs in the form of nitrates.
b.
 are motile, soil-dwelling bacteria.
c.
 belong to the genus Rhizobium.
d.
 are gram-negative Eubacteria.
e.
 All of the above.
 65.
Koch’s postulates include all the following except:
a.
 when a sample of a pure culture is injected into a healthy host causes the same disease.
b.
 a sample of the microorganism from a diseased host can be grown in pure culture.
c.
 the microorganism can be recovered from an experimentally infected host.
d.
 the microorganism must be visible in the electron microscope.
e.
 the pathogen must be present in every individual with the disease.
 66.
The first bacteria that was clearly identified as the cause of an infectious disease was:
a.
 Legionella pneumophila, which causes Legionnaires’ disease.
b.
 Chamydia sp., which causes pelvic inflammatory disease in women.
c.
 Clostridium botulinum, which causes botulism.
d.
 Vibrio cholerae, which causes cholera.
e.
 Bacillus anthracis, which causes anthrax.
 

Short Answer
 67.
Compare and contrast a virus and a bacterium.
 68.
List the characteristics of the following groups and identify examples for each: Archaea, Eubacteria, and Eukarya.
 69.

Compare and contrast the metabolic diversity of bacteria in one of the two groups below.

A. Obligate anaerobes, facultative anaerobes, and aerobes
B. Autotrophic and heterotrophic bacteria

 70.
Identify and briefly discuss two ecological roles filled by bacteria.
 

Essay
 71.
Describe the theory that attempts to explain the species specificity of viruses to their hosts.
 72.
Discuss the distinction between gram-negative and gram-positive bacteria. In the laboratory, how is this determined? What are differences between these two groups of bacteria?
 73.
Describe endotoxins and exotoxins. What effects do they each have on infected persons?

 
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Bacteria Quiz

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True/False
Indicate whether the sentence or statement is true or false.
1.
Gram-negative bacteria have a thick layer of peptidoglycan that stains purple.
2.
Bacteria lack nuclei and therefore also lack genetic material.
3.
Bacterial cells have membrane-bound organelles and chromosomes.
4.
Bacterial cells are usually much larger than eukaryotic cells.
5.
Bacteria are incapable of movement themselves; they can only get to new locations by growing toward them or by forming endospores and being carried in air or water.
6.
Some bacteria cannot survive in the presence of oxygen.
7.
When bacteria undergo nonreproductive genetic recombination, their bacterial chromosome is altered.
8.
Certain antibiotics have become ineffective against certain strains of bacteria. These bacteria have developed a resistance, which may be passed on from one generation of bacteria to the next.
 

Multiple Choice
Identify the letter of the choice that best completes the statement or answers the question.
9.
The earliest known group of living organisms on Earth was
a.
viruses.
c.
bacteria.
b.
fungi.
d.
protists.
10.
Bacteria are the only organisms characterized as
a.
unicellular.
c.
eukaryotic.
b.
prokaryotic.
d.
photosynthetic.
11.
Bacteria can be classified according to their
a.
type of cell walls.
c.
Gram-staining characteristics.
b.
methods of obtaining energy.
d.
All of the above
bacteria1_files/i0140000.jpg
12.
Refer to the illustration above. Which of the diagrams has a shape like the Bacillus bacterial genus?
a.
Organism “A”
c.
Organism “C”
b.
Organism “B”
d.
None of the above
13.
When tested with a Gram stain, gram-positive bacteria are stained
a.
green.
c.
pink.
b.
yellow.
d.
purple.
14.
It is important to distinguish between Gram-positive and Gram-negative bacteria in diagnosing a bacterial infection because
a.
Gram-negative bacteria do not respond to many antibiotics.
b.
Gram-positive bacteria never cause fatal diseases.
c.
Gram-positive bacteria destroy antibiotics, preventing them from working.
d.
Gram-positive bacteria respond to many antibiotics.
      bacteria1_files/i0180000.jpg
15.
Refer to the illustration above. If the bacterium in the diagram is Gram-negative, what two types of molecules would be found in the structure labeled “B”?
a.
protein and lipids
c.
polysaccharides and lipids
b.
protein and polysaccharides
d.
nucleic acid and lipids
16.
Which of the following comparisons is incorrect?
      PROKARYOTES      EUKARYOTES
a.
smaller      larger
b.
circular chromosomes      linear chromosomes
c.
binary fission      mitosis
d.
chloroplasts      mitochondria
17.
Structures found in a eukaryotic cell but not in a bacterial cell are
a.
cell nuclei.
c.
membrane-bound organelles.
b.
chromosomes.
d.
All of the above
18.
Cell organelles that E. coli and other bacteria have in common with eukaryotes are
a.
chloroplasts.
c.
nuclei.
b.
mitochondria.
d.
ribosomes.
19.
Which of the following conditions would be unsuitable for any kind of bacteria to grow?
a.
temperature of 110ºC (230ºF)
c.
pH of 5
b.
absence of water
d.
absence of oxygen
20.
Which of the following is a fermentation product of bacteria?
a.
ricotta cheese
c.
yogurt
b.
ice cream
d.
cottage cheese

 
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Bacteria Study Guide

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Multiple Choice
Identify the choice that best completes the statement or answers the question.
 1.
The earliest known group of living organisms on Earth was
a.
 viruses.
c.
 bacteria.
b.
 fungi.
d.
 protists.
 2.
Bacteria and archaea are the only organisms characterized as
a.
 unicellular.
c.
 eukaryotic.
b.
 prokaryotic.
d.
 photosynthetic.
 3.
Bacteria can be classified according to their
a.
 type of cell walls.
b.
 methods of obtaining energy.
c.
 Gram-staining characteristics.
d.
 All of the above
nar001-1.jpg
 4.
Refer to the illustration above. Which of the organisms shown has the shape called bacillus?
a.
 organism 1
c.
 organism 3
b.
 organism 2
d.
 None of the above
 5.
Refer to the illustration above. The shape represented by organism 3 is called
a.
 coccus.
c.
 bacillus.
b.
 spirillum.
d.
 filamentous.
 6.
When tested with a Gram stain, Gram-positive bacteria are stained
a.
 green.
c.
 pink.
b.
 yellow.
d.
 purple.
 7.
Bacteria lack a true nucleus and membrane-bound organelles; therefore, they are classified as
a.
 prokaryotes.
c.
 anaerobes.
b.
 aerobes.
d.
 eukaryotes.
 8.
The cytoplasm of bacteria
a.
 contains numerous types of organelles.
b.
 is divided into compartments.
c.
 has varying numbers of chromosomes, depending on the species of bacteria.
d.
 contains a single chromosome.
 9.

Which of the following comparisons is incorrect?

PROKARYOTES      EUKARYOTES
a.
 smaller      larger
b.
 circular chromosomes      linear chromosomes
c.
 binary fission      mitosis
d.
 chloroplasts      mitochondria
 10.
One difference between human body cells and bacterial cells is that bacterial cells have
a.
 an outer cell wall made up of phosphates.
b.
 a cell wall made up of peptidoglycan.
c.
 no DNA.
d.
 no ribosomes.
 11.
Structures found in a eukaryotic cell but not in a bacterial cell are
a.
 cell nuclei.
b.
 multiple chromosomes.
c.
 membrane-bound organelles.
d.
 All of the above
 12.
Which of the following might be found in the cytoplasm of a bacterial cell?
a.
 chloroplasts
c.
 mitochondria
b.
 Golgi apparatus
d.
 None of the above
 13.
Bacterial cells
a.
 have a cell wall only.
b.
 have a cell membrane only.
c.
 have both a cell membrane and cell wall.
d.
 have a cell wall inside their cell membrane.
 14.
One thing that E. coli and other bacteria have in common with eukaryotes is the presence of
a.
 chloroplasts.
c.
 nuclei.
b.
 mitochondria.
d.
 DNA.
 15.
Bacterial endospores
a.
 occur where there is plenty of available food.
b.
 allow certain species to survive harsh environmental conditions.
c.
 are similar to human tumors.
d.
 can cause growth abnormalities in plants.
 16.
Which of the following are used by at least some bacteria for movement?
a.
 pili
b.
 flagella
c.
 cytoplasmic projections
d.
 All of the above
 17.
phototrophic bacteria : sunlight ::
a.
 chemotrophic bacteria : dead organisms
b.
 chemoautotrophic bacteria : inorganic molecules
c.
 photosynthesis : nitrification
d.
 heterotrophic bacteria : inorganic molecules
 18.
Which of the following conditions would be unsuitable for any kind of bacteria to grow?
a.
 temperature of 110ºC (230ºF)
b.
 absence of oxygen
c.
 pH of 5
d.
 None of the above
 19.
Prokaryotes can transfer pieces of genetic material in a process called
a.
 binary fission.
c.
 conjugation.
b.
 mitosis.
d.
 sexual reproduction.
 20.
During the process of transduction
a.
 a virus obtains DNA from a host bacterium.
b.
 a bacterial cell takes in DNA from the external environment.
c.
 one bacterium transfers DNA to another.
d.
 two bacteria exchange DNA.
 21.
A pathogen is an agent that is
a.
 beneficial to humans.
b.
 harmful only to plants.
c.
 harmful to living organisms.
d.
 nearly extinct.
 22.
Which of the following foods is not a fermentation product of bacteria?
a.
 sour cream
c.
 milk
b.
 a pickle
d.
 yogurt
 23.
Antibiotics
a.
 include penicillin and tetracycline.
b.
 may prevent bacteria from making new cell walls.
c.
 can be effective treatments for bacterial diseases.
d.
 All of the above
 24.
All of the following are habitats of archaea except
a.
 volcanic vents.
b.
 intestinal tract of cows.
c.
 salt lakes.
d.
 human skin.
 25.
Which of the following is not a way of preventing a foodborne illness at home?
a.
 washing kitchen utensils thoroughly in cold water
b.
 keeping cooked and raw foods separate during storage
c.
 washing fresh fruits and vegetables before eating them
d.
 refrigerating leftovers promptly
 

Completion
Complete each statement.
 26.
A spiral bacterium is called a(n) ____________________.
 27.
Spherical bacteria are called ____________________.
 28.
Rod-shaped bacteria are called ____________________.
 29.
The procedure used to distinguish between two types of bacterial cell wall composition is called ____________________.
 30.
Protective structures that some bacteria may form under harsh conditions are ____________________.
 31.
The cell walls of bacteria are composed of a combination of polysaccharide and polypeptide called ____________________.
 32.
Bacteria that obtain their energy from inorganic molecules, rather than from the sun, are called ____________________ bacteria.
 33.
In general, organisms that obtain their energy from sunlight are called ____________________.
 34.
Bacteria that get carbon from other organisms are called ____________________.
 35.
A(n) ____________________ is a substance that can be obtained from bacteria or fungi and can be used as a drug to fight pathogenic bacteria.
 36.
Many bacteria are ____________________ and must have oxygen to live, whereas other bacteria are ____________________ and cannot live where oxygen is present.
 37.
Bacteria that can survive either with or without oxygen are called _________________________.
 38.
Archaea are more closely related to ____________________ than they are to ____________________.
 39.
____________________ are poisons that can cause disease when bacteria secrete them into their environment.
 40.
The evolution of populations of pathogenic bacteria that antibiotics cannot kill is called _________________________.

 
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AP Introduction, Chemistry, and Water

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AP Introduction, Chemistry, and Water
  

Multiple Choice
Identify the choice that best completes the statement or answers the question.
 
   
 
Self-Quiz Questions
 
 1.
All organisms on your campus make up
a.
 an ecosystem.
b.
 a community.
c.
 a population.
d.
 an experimental group.
e.
 a taxonomic domain.
 
 2.
Which of the following is a correct sequence of levels in life’s hierarchy, proceeding downward from an individual animal?
a.
 brain, organ system, nerve cell, nervous tissue
b.
 organ system, population of cells, nervous tissue, brain
c.
 organism, organ system, tissue, cell, organ
d.
 nervous system, brain, nervous tissue, nerve cell
e.
 organ system, tissue, molecule, cell
 
 3.
Which of the following is not an observation or inference on which Darwin’s theory of natural selection is based?
a.
 Poorly adapted individuals never produce offspring.
b.
 There is heritable variation among individuals.
c.
 Because of overproduction of offspring, there is competition for limited resources.
d.
 Individuals whose inherited characteristics best fit them to the environment will generally produce more offspring.
e.
 A population can become adapted to its environment.
 
 4.
Systems biology is mainly an attempt to
a.
 understand the integration of all levels of biological organization from molecules to the biosphere.
b.
 simplify complex problems by reducing the system into smaller, less complex units.
c.
 model one level of biological organization based on an understanding of the lower levels of organization.
d.
 provide a systematic method for interpretation of large amounts of biological data.
e.
 speed up the technological application of scientific knowledge.
 
 5.
Protists and bacteria are grouped into different domains because
a.
 protists eat bacteria.
b.
 bacteria are not made of cells.
c.
 bacterial cells lack a nucleus.
d.
 bacteria decompose protists.
e.
 protists are photosynthetic.
 
 6.
Which of the following best demonstrates the unity among all organisms?
a.
 matching DNA nucleotide sequences
b.
 descent with modification
c.
 the structure and function of DNA
d.
 natural selection
e.
 emergent properties
 
 7.
Which of the following is an example of qualitative data?
a.
 The temperature decreased from 20°C to 15°C.
b.
 The plant’s height is 25 centimeters.
c.
 The fish swam in a zig-zag motion.
d.
 The six pairs of robins hatched an average of three chicks.
e.
 The contents of the human stomach are mixed about every 20 seconds.
 
 8.
Which of the following best describes the logic of hypothesis-based science?
a.
 If I generate a testable hypothesis, tests and observations will support it.
b.
 If my prediction is correct, it will lead to a testable hypothesis.
c.
 If my observations are accurate, they will support my hypothesis.
d.
 If my hypothesis is correct, I can expect certain test results.
e.
 If my experiments are set up right, they will lead to a testable hypothesis.
 
 9.
A controlled experiment is one that
a.
 proceeds slowly enough that a scientist can make careful records of the results.
b.
 may include experimental groups and control groups tested in parallel.
c.
 is repeated many times to make sure the results are accurate.
d.
 keeps all environmental variables constant.
e.
 is supervised by an experienced scientist.
 
 10.
Which of the following statements best distinguishes hypotheses from theories in science?
a.
 Theories are hypotheses that have been proved.
b.
 Hypotheses are guesses; theories are correct answers.
c.
 Hypotheses usually are relatively narrow in scope; theories have broad explanatory power.
d.
 Hypotheses and theories are essentially the same thing.
e.
 Theories are proved true in all cases; hypotheses are usually falsified by tests.
 
 11.
An element is to a (an) ____ as an organ is to a (an) ____.
a.
 atom; organism
b.
 compound; organism
c.
 molecule; cell
d.
 atom; cell
e.
 compound; organelle
 
 12.
In the term trace element, the modifier trace means
a.
 the element is required in very small amounts.
b.
 the element can be used as a label to trace atoms through an organism’s metabolism.
c.
 the element is very rare on Earth.
d.
 the element enhances health but is not essential for the organism’s long-term survival.
e.
 the element passes rapidly through the organism.
 
 13.
Compared to 31P, the radioactive isotope 32P has
a.
 a different atomic number.
b.
 one more neutron.
c.
 one more proton.
d.
 one more electron.
e.
 a different charge.
 
 14.
Atoms can be represented by simply listing the number of protons, neutrons, and electrons-for example, 2p+; 2n0; 2e- for helium. Which atom represents the 18O isotope of oxygen?
a.
 6p+; 8n0; 6e-
b.
 8p+; 10n0; 8e-
c.
 9p+; 9n0; 9e-
d.
 7p+; 2n0; 9e-
e.
 10p+; 8n0; 9e-
 
 15.
The atomic number of sulfur is 16. Sulfur combines with hydrogen by covalent bonding to form a compound, hydrogen sulfide. Based on the electron configuration of sulfur, we can predict that the molecular formula of the compound will be ____.
a.
 HS
b.
 HS2
c.
 H2S
d.
 H3S2
e.
 H4S
 
 16.
Review the valences of carbon, oxygen, hydrogen, and nitrogen, and then determine which of the following molecules is most likely to exist.
a.
 O = C-H
b.
 H   H
|     |
H – O – C – C = O
|
H
c.
 H      H
|      |
H- C- H – C = O
|
H
d.
 O
|
H – N = H
 
 17.
The reactivity of an atom arises from
a.
 the average distance of the outermost electron shell from the nucleus.
b.
 the existence of unpaired electrons in the valence shell.
c.
 the sum of the potential energies of all the electron shells.
d.
 the potential energy of the valence shell.
e.
 the energy difference between the s and p orbitals.
 
 18.
Which of these statements is true of all anionic atoms?
a.
 The atom has more electrons than protons.
b.
 The atom has more protons than electrons.
c.
 The atom has fewer protons than does a neutral atom of the same element.
d.
 The atom has more neutrons than protons.
e.
 The net charge is 1-.
 
 19.
What coefficients must be placed in the blanks so that all atoms are accounted for in the products? 

C6H12O6 ____C2H6O + ____CO2

a.
 1; 2
b.
 2; 2
c.
 1; 3
d.
 1; 1
e.
 3; 1
 
 20.
Which of the following statements correctly describes any chemical reaction that has reached equilibrium?
a.
 The concentration of products equals the concentration of reactants.
b.
 The rate of the forward reaction equals the rate of the reverse reaction.
c.
 Both forward and reverse reactions have halted.
d.
 The reaction is now irreversible.
e.
 No reactants remain.
 
 21.
What is the best explanation of the phrase “fitness of the environment” as used in this chapter?
a.
 Earth’s environment is constant.
b.
 It is the physical environment, not life, that has changed.
c.
 The environment of Earth has adapted to life.
d.
 Life as we know it depends on certain environmental qualities on Earth.
e.
 Water and other aspects of Earth’s environment exist because they make the planet more suitable for life.
 
 22.
Many mammals control their body temperature by sweating. Which property of water is most directly responsible for the ability of sweat to lower body temperature?
a.
 water’s change in density when it condenses
b.
 water’s ability to dissolve molecules in the air
c.
 the release of heat by the formation of hydrogen bonds
d.
 the absorption of heat by the breaking of hydrogen bonds
e.
 water’s high surface tension
 
 23.
For two bodies of matter in contact, heat always flows from
a.
 the body with greater heat to the one with less heat.
b.
 the body of higher temperature to the one of lower temperature.
c.
 the denser body to the less dense body.
d.
 the body with more water to the one with less water.
e.
 the larger body to the smaller body.
 
 24.
A slice of pizza has 500 kcal. If we could burn the pizza and use all the heat to warm a 50-L container of cold water, what would be the approximate increase in the temperature of the water? (Note: A liter of cold water weighs about 1 kg).
a.
 50°C
b.
 5°C
c.
 10°C
d.
 100°C
e.
 1°C
 
 25.
The bonds that are broken when water vaporizes are
a.
 ionic bonds.
b.
 bonds between water molecules.
c.
 bonds between atoms within individual water molecules.
d.
 polar covalent bonds.
e.
 nonpolar covalent bonds.
 
 26.
Which of the following is an example of a hydrophobic material?
a.
 paper
b.
 table salt
c.
 wax
d.
 sugar
e.
 pasta
 
 27.
We can be sure that a mole of table sugar and a mole of vitamin C are equal in their
a.
 mass in daltons.
b.
 mass in grams.
c.
 number of molecules.
d.
 number of atoms.
e.
 volume.
 
 28.
How many grams of acetic acid (C2H4O2)would you use to make 10 L of a 0.1 M aqueous solution of acetic acid? (Note: The atomic masses, in daltons, are approximately 12 for carbon, 1 for hydrogen, and 16 for oxygen.)
a.
 10.0 g
b.
 0.1 g
c.
 6.0 g
d.
 60.0 g
e.
 0.6 g
 
 29.
Acid precipitation has lowered the pH of a particular lake to 4.0. What is the hydrogen ion concentration of the lake?
a.
  
b.
  
c.
  
d.
  
e.
 4%
 
 30.
What is the hydroxide ion concentration of the lake described in question 9?
a.
  
b.
  
c.
  
d.
  
e.
 10 M
 

 

 
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