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Bacteria Quiz

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Bacteria

 

 

True/False
Indicate whether the sentence or statement is true or false.
1.
Gram-negative bacteria have a thick layer of peptidoglycan that stains purple.
2.
Bacteria lack nuclei and therefore also lack genetic material.
3.
Bacterial cells have membrane-bound organelles and chromosomes.
4.
Bacterial cells are usually much larger than eukaryotic cells.
5.
Bacteria are incapable of movement themselves; they can only get to new locations by growing toward them or by forming endospores and being carried in air or water.
6.
Some bacteria cannot survive in the presence of oxygen.
7.
When bacteria undergo nonreproductive genetic recombination, their bacterial chromosome is altered.
8.
Certain antibiotics have become ineffective against certain strains of bacteria. These bacteria have developed a resistance, which may be passed on from one generation of bacteria to the next.
 

Multiple Choice
Identify the letter of the choice that best completes the statement or answers the question.
9.
The earliest known group of living organisms on Earth was
a.
viruses.
c.
bacteria.
b.
fungi.
d.
protists.
10.
Bacteria are the only organisms characterized as
a.
unicellular.
c.
eukaryotic.
b.
prokaryotic.
d.
photosynthetic.
11.
Bacteria can be classified according to their
a.
type of cell walls.
c.
Gram-staining characteristics.
b.
methods of obtaining energy.
d.
All of the above
bacteria1_files/i0140000.jpg
12.
Refer to the illustration above. Which of the diagrams has a shape like the Bacillus bacterial genus?
a.
Organism “A”
c.
Organism “C”
b.
Organism “B”
d.
None of the above
13.
When tested with a Gram stain, gram-positive bacteria are stained
a.
green.
c.
pink.
b.
yellow.
d.
purple.
14.
It is important to distinguish between Gram-positive and Gram-negative bacteria in diagnosing a bacterial infection because
a.
Gram-negative bacteria do not respond to many antibiotics.
b.
Gram-positive bacteria never cause fatal diseases.
c.
Gram-positive bacteria destroy antibiotics, preventing them from working.
d.
Gram-positive bacteria respond to many antibiotics.
      bacteria1_files/i0180000.jpg
15.
Refer to the illustration above. If the bacterium in the diagram is Gram-negative, what two types of molecules would be found in the structure labeled “B”?
a.
protein and lipids
c.
polysaccharides and lipids
b.
protein and polysaccharides
d.
nucleic acid and lipids
16.
Which of the following comparisons is incorrect?
      PROKARYOTES      EUKARYOTES
a.
smaller      larger
b.
circular chromosomes      linear chromosomes
c.
binary fission      mitosis
d.
chloroplasts      mitochondria
17.
Structures found in a eukaryotic cell but not in a bacterial cell are
a.
cell nuclei.
c.
membrane-bound organelles.
b.
chromosomes.
d.
All of the above
18.
Cell organelles that E. coli and other bacteria have in common with eukaryotes are
a.
chloroplasts.
c.
nuclei.
b.
mitochondria.
d.
ribosomes.
19.
Which of the following conditions would be unsuitable for any kind of bacteria to grow?
a.
temperature of 110ºC (230ºF)
c.
pH of 5
b.
absence of water
d.
absence of oxygen
20.
Which of the following is a fermentation product of bacteria?
a.
ricotta cheese
c.
yogurt
b.
ice cream
d.
cottage cheese

 
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AP Introduction, Chemistry, and Water

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Multiple Choice
Identify the choice that best completes the statement or answers the question.
 
   
 
Self-Quiz Questions
 
 1.
All organisms on your campus make up
a.
 an ecosystem.
b.
 a community.
c.
 a population.
d.
 an experimental group.
e.
 a taxonomic domain.
 
 2.
Which of the following is a correct sequence of levels in life’s hierarchy, proceeding downward from an individual animal?
a.
 brain, organ system, nerve cell, nervous tissue
b.
 organ system, population of cells, nervous tissue, brain
c.
 organism, organ system, tissue, cell, organ
d.
 nervous system, brain, nervous tissue, nerve cell
e.
 organ system, tissue, molecule, cell
 
 3.
Which of the following is not an observation or inference on which Darwin’s theory of natural selection is based?
a.
 Poorly adapted individuals never produce offspring.
b.
 There is heritable variation among individuals.
c.
 Because of overproduction of offspring, there is competition for limited resources.
d.
 Individuals whose inherited characteristics best fit them to the environment will generally produce more offspring.
e.
 A population can become adapted to its environment.
 
 4.
Systems biology is mainly an attempt to
a.
 understand the integration of all levels of biological organization from molecules to the biosphere.
b.
 simplify complex problems by reducing the system into smaller, less complex units.
c.
 model one level of biological organization based on an understanding of the lower levels of organization.
d.
 provide a systematic method for interpretation of large amounts of biological data.
e.
 speed up the technological application of scientific knowledge.
 
 5.
Protists and bacteria are grouped into different domains because
a.
 protists eat bacteria.
b.
 bacteria are not made of cells.
c.
 bacterial cells lack a nucleus.
d.
 bacteria decompose protists.
e.
 protists are photosynthetic.
 
 6.
Which of the following best demonstrates the unity among all organisms?
a.
 matching DNA nucleotide sequences
b.
 descent with modification
c.
 the structure and function of DNA
d.
 natural selection
e.
 emergent properties
 
 7.
Which of the following is an example of qualitative data?
a.
 The temperature decreased from 20°C to 15°C.
b.
 The plant’s height is 25 centimeters.
c.
 The fish swam in a zig-zag motion.
d.
 The six pairs of robins hatched an average of three chicks.
e.
 The contents of the human stomach are mixed about every 20 seconds.
 
 8.
Which of the following best describes the logic of hypothesis-based science?
a.
 If I generate a testable hypothesis, tests and observations will support it.
b.
 If my prediction is correct, it will lead to a testable hypothesis.
c.
 If my observations are accurate, they will support my hypothesis.
d.
 If my hypothesis is correct, I can expect certain test results.
e.
 If my experiments are set up right, they will lead to a testable hypothesis.
 
 9.
A controlled experiment is one that
a.
 proceeds slowly enough that a scientist can make careful records of the results.
b.
 may include experimental groups and control groups tested in parallel.
c.
 is repeated many times to make sure the results are accurate.
d.
 keeps all environmental variables constant.
e.
 is supervised by an experienced scientist.
 
 10.
Which of the following statements best distinguishes hypotheses from theories in science?
a.
 Theories are hypotheses that have been proved.
b.
 Hypotheses are guesses; theories are correct answers.
c.
 Hypotheses usually are relatively narrow in scope; theories have broad explanatory power.
d.
 Hypotheses and theories are essentially the same thing.
e.
 Theories are proved true in all cases; hypotheses are usually falsified by tests.
 
 11.
An element is to a (an) ____ as an organ is to a (an) ____.
a.
 atom; organism
b.
 compound; organism
c.
 molecule; cell
d.
 atom; cell
e.
 compound; organelle
 
 12.
In the term trace element, the modifier trace means
a.
 the element is required in very small amounts.
b.
 the element can be used as a label to trace atoms through an organism’s metabolism.
c.
 the element is very rare on Earth.
d.
 the element enhances health but is not essential for the organism’s long-term survival.
e.
 the element passes rapidly through the organism.
 
 13.
Compared to 31P, the radioactive isotope 32P has
a.
 a different atomic number.
b.
 one more neutron.
c.
 one more proton.
d.
 one more electron.
e.
 a different charge.
 
 14.
Atoms can be represented by simply listing the number of protons, neutrons, and electrons-for example, 2p+; 2n0; 2e- for helium. Which atom represents the 18O isotope of oxygen?
a.
 6p+; 8n0; 6e-
b.
 8p+; 10n0; 8e-
c.
 9p+; 9n0; 9e-
d.
 7p+; 2n0; 9e-
e.
 10p+; 8n0; 9e-
 
 15.
The atomic number of sulfur is 16. Sulfur combines with hydrogen by covalent bonding to form a compound, hydrogen sulfide. Based on the electron configuration of sulfur, we can predict that the molecular formula of the compound will be ____.
a.
 HS
b.
 HS2
c.
 H2S
d.
 H3S2
e.
 H4S
 
 16.
Review the valences of carbon, oxygen, hydrogen, and nitrogen, and then determine which of the following molecules is most likely to exist.
a.
 O = C-H
b.
 H   H
|     |
H – O – C – C = O
|
H
c.
 H      H
|      |
H- C- H – C = O
|
H
d.
 O
|
H – N = H
 
 17.
The reactivity of an atom arises from
a.
 the average distance of the outermost electron shell from the nucleus.
b.
 the existence of unpaired electrons in the valence shell.
c.
 the sum of the potential energies of all the electron shells.
d.
 the potential energy of the valence shell.
e.
 the energy difference between the s and p orbitals.
 
 18.
Which of these statements is true of all anionic atoms?
a.
 The atom has more electrons than protons.
b.
 The atom has more protons than electrons.
c.
 The atom has fewer protons than does a neutral atom of the same element.
d.
 The atom has more neutrons than protons.
e.
 The net charge is 1-.
 
 19.
What coefficients must be placed in the blanks so that all atoms are accounted for in the products? 

C6H12O6 ____C2H6O + ____CO2

a.
 1; 2
b.
 2; 2
c.
 1; 3
d.
 1; 1
e.
 3; 1
 
 20.
Which of the following statements correctly describes any chemical reaction that has reached equilibrium?
a.
 The concentration of products equals the concentration of reactants.
b.
 The rate of the forward reaction equals the rate of the reverse reaction.
c.
 Both forward and reverse reactions have halted.
d.
 The reaction is now irreversible.
e.
 No reactants remain.
 
 21.
What is the best explanation of the phrase “fitness of the environment” as used in this chapter?
a.
 Earth’s environment is constant.
b.
 It is the physical environment, not life, that has changed.
c.
 The environment of Earth has adapted to life.
d.
 Life as we know it depends on certain environmental qualities on Earth.
e.
 Water and other aspects of Earth’s environment exist because they make the planet more suitable for life.
 
 22.
Many mammals control their body temperature by sweating. Which property of water is most directly responsible for the ability of sweat to lower body temperature?
a.
 water’s change in density when it condenses
b.
 water’s ability to dissolve molecules in the air
c.
 the release of heat by the formation of hydrogen bonds
d.
 the absorption of heat by the breaking of hydrogen bonds
e.
 water’s high surface tension
 
 23.
For two bodies of matter in contact, heat always flows from
a.
 the body with greater heat to the one with less heat.
b.
 the body of higher temperature to the one of lower temperature.
c.
 the denser body to the less dense body.
d.
 the body with more water to the one with less water.
e.
 the larger body to the smaller body.
 
 24.
A slice of pizza has 500 kcal. If we could burn the pizza and use all the heat to warm a 50-L container of cold water, what would be the approximate increase in the temperature of the water? (Note: A liter of cold water weighs about 1 kg).
a.
 50°C
b.
 5°C
c.
 10°C
d.
 100°C
e.
 1°C
 
 25.
The bonds that are broken when water vaporizes are
a.
 ionic bonds.
b.
 bonds between water molecules.
c.
 bonds between atoms within individual water molecules.
d.
 polar covalent bonds.
e.
 nonpolar covalent bonds.
 
 26.
Which of the following is an example of a hydrophobic material?
a.
 paper
b.
 table salt
c.
 wax
d.
 sugar
e.
 pasta
 
 27.
We can be sure that a mole of table sugar and a mole of vitamin C are equal in their
a.
 mass in daltons.
b.
 mass in grams.
c.
 number of molecules.
d.
 number of atoms.
e.
 volume.
 
 28.
How many grams of acetic acid (C2H4O2)would you use to make 10 L of a 0.1 M aqueous solution of acetic acid? (Note: The atomic masses, in daltons, are approximately 12 for carbon, 1 for hydrogen, and 16 for oxygen.)
a.
 10.0 g
b.
 0.1 g
c.
 6.0 g
d.
 60.0 g
e.
 0.6 g
 
 29.
Acid precipitation has lowered the pH of a particular lake to 4.0. What is the hydrogen ion concentration of the lake?
a.
  
b.
  
c.
  
d.
  
e.
 4%
 
 30.
What is the hydroxide ion concentration of the lake described in question 9?
a.
  
b.
  
c.
  
d.
  
e.
 10 M
 

 

 
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Arthropods

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Arthropods

 

 

True/False
Indicate whether the sentence or statement is true or false.
1.
Arthropods evolved from insects.
2.
Arthropods may have either an open or a closed circulatory system.
3.
Arthropods have an exoskeleton made of chitin.
4.
The bodies of arthropods are encased in a shell-like exoskeleton.
5.
The outer layer of the arthropod exoskeleton is shed during molting, but products of the breakdown of the exoskeleton inner layer are used to make a new exoskeleton.
6.
Most crustaceans are aquatic.
7.
Crustaceans range in size from microscopic forms to huge lobsters.
8.
Despite the high concentrations often found in the sea, copepods play a very small role in the ocean’s food web.
9.
Female spiders use silk to entrap a prospective mate as part of the mating ritual.
10.
Except for the number of legs, millipedes and centipedes are basically the same in structure and diet.
 

Multiple Choice
Identify the letter of the choice that best completes the statement or answers the question.
11.
Jointed appendages of arthropods may
a.
become specialized for particular functions.
b.
function in locomotion.
c.
function in feeding.
d.
All of the above
12.
All of the following are arthropods except
a.
spiders.
c.
crabs.
b.
clam worms.
d.
centipedes.
13.
evolutionary origin of arthropod circulatory system : mollusks ::
a.
annelid evolution : arthropods
b.
annelid evolution : trilobite
c.
evolution of arthropod segmentation : annelids
d.
evolution of arthropod segmentation : mollusks
14.
If all copepods died,
a.
bubonic plague would cease to be a problem.
b.
predators that depend on them would quickly find substitute food sources in the sea and fresh water.
c.
our sources of food from the ocean would disappear.
d.
nothing would change.
15.
Shrimps, lobsters, and crabs are examples of
a.
uropods.
c.
hemipods.
b.
copepods.
d.
decapods.
16.
crayfish : swimmerets for swimming and reproduction ::
a.
lobsters : uropods for reproduction
c.
crabs : telson for eating
b.
shrimp : telson for chewing
d.
crustaceans : gills for breathing
17.
Spiders, scorpions, and mites belong to the subphylum
a.
Arthropoda.
c.
Chordata.
b.
Crustacea.
d.
Chelicerata.
18.
Spiders, scorpions, and ticks belong to the class
a.
Isoptera.
c.
Chordata.
b.
Crustacea.
d.
Arachnida.
19.
Centipedes
a.
have one pair of legs per segment and eat decaying matter.
b.
have two pairs of legs per segment and are predators.
c.
have two pairs of legs per segment and eat decaying matter.
d.
have one pair of legs per segment and are predators.
20.
The name millipede means
a.
“thousand feet.”
c.
“one foot per millimeter.”
b.
“hundred feet.”
d.
None of the above


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Bacteria and Viruses

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Multiple Choice
Identify the choice that best completes the statement or answers the question.
 1.
Many microscopic organisms or entities have been identified as pathogens, including all of the following except:
a.
 protozoa.
b.
 viruses.
c.
 fungi.
d.
 bacteria.
e.
 None of the above, all may be pathogenic.
 2.
Which of the following statements about bacteria is false?
a.
 A small percentage of bacteria are pathogenic.
b.
 Some bacteria can photosynthesize.
c.
 Bacteria are important decomposers.
d.
 Bacteria are not cellular and are sometimes not classified as life forms.
e.
 Bacteria convert atmospheric nitrogen into ammonia and then nitrates that can be used by plants.
 3.
Viruses were first identified:
a.
 because they caused an infection and formed colonies on nutrient agar plates.
b.
 because they were seen in the light microscope.
c.
 because they caused an infection and were small enough to pass through filters that trapped bacteria.
d.
 because they were smaller than bacteria and had all the properties of living organisms.
e.
 because they caused an infection and were seen in the electron microscope.
 4.
The protein coat of a virus is called the:
a.
 capsule.
b.
 capsid.
c.
 exospore.
d.
 phage.
e.
 pilus.
 5.
Viruses that attack bacteria are called:
a.
 phages.
b.
 bacteriods
c.
 prions.
d.
 virons.
e.
 viroids.
Figure 23-01
Use the figure below to answer the corresponding questions.nar001-1.jpg
 6.
The structure of the virus in Figure 23-01 that is common to all viruses is:
a.
 2.
b.
 3.
c.
 4.
d.
 5.
e.
 All of the above.
 7.
In Figure 23-01, the function of the structure labeled 3 is:
a.
 attachment to a host cell.
b.
 locomotion.
c.
 mate recognition.
d.
 replication.
e.
 to take over host cell mechanisms.
 8.
Viruses are classified by:
a.
 the sequence of their DNA.
b.
 structural similarities.
c.
 the sequence of their rRNA genes.
d.
 the traditional Linnaean binomial nomenclature system.
e.
 an international committee.
 9.
Viruses:
a.
 are very tiny cells on the order of 500 nm.
b.
 contain both RNA and DNA.
c.
 cannot independently perform metabolic activities.
d.
 have a standard morphology that includes a capsid, tail, and tail fibers.
e.
 All of the above.
 10.
Viruses:
a.
 are usually species-specific.
b.
 may have multiple origins.
c.
 are probably related to mobile genetic elements.
d.
 may have escaped from cells.
e.
 All of the above.
 11.
Phages are being considered for:
a.
 vectors in gene therapy experiments.
b.
 antibiotics in bacterial infections.
c.
 gene transfer vectors in animal cells.
d.
 being equivalent to the first living organisms.
e.
 All of the above.
 12.
Temperate viruses:
a.
 always destroy their host immediately.
b.
 are considered virulent.
c.
 do not always destroy their host.
d.
 do not undergo a lysogenic cycle.
e.
 undergo a lytic cycle.
 13.
Virulent (lytic) phages:
a.
 infect viruses.
b.
 destroy bacteria.
c.
 infect, but do not destroy bacteria.
d.
 infect virions.
e.
 infect prions.
 14.
The five stages of a lytic infection are attachment, penetration, _____________, assembly, and release.
a.
 lysis
b.
 prophage
c.
 lysogenesis
d.
 transduction
e.
 replication
 15.
A prophage:
a.
 is phage DNA that is integrated into viral DNA.
b.
 is phage DNA that is integrated into bacterial DNA.
c.
 replicates only when the eukaryotic cell it infects replicates.
d.
 is an underdeveloped lytic virus.
e.
 is a bacterial cell about to lyse.
 16.
The bacterium that causes botulism disease is harmless until it:
a.
 is infected by lytic bacteria.
b.
 is infected by certain retroviruses.
c.
 contains a certain prophage DNA.
d.
 is irradiated by UV radiation.
e.
 is infected by prions.
 17.
____________ conversion occurs when a bacterium carrying viral genes takes on new, atypical characteristics.
a.
 Transducing
b.
 Lysogenic
c.
 Prophage
d.
 Lytic
e.
 Reverse
 18.
The specificity of viruses to different types of cells is due to _____________ sites on the host cell.
a.
 prophage
b.
 receptor
c.
 transduction
d.
 penetration
e.
 transcription
 19.
Retroviruses differ from other RNA viruses by:
a.
 having reverse transcriptase instead of RNA-dependent RNA polymerase.
b.
 the shape of their capsid.
c.
 the way they infect their host cells.
d.
 the sugar coating on their capsids.
e.
 lytically destroying their hosts.
 20.
Which of the following diseases is not caused by a virus?
a.
 rabies
b.
 polio
c.
 warts in humans
d.
 chickenpox
e.
 Lyme disease
 21.
Which of the following identifies a group of DNA viruses?
a.
 retroviruses
b.
 herpesviruses
c.
 paramyxoviruses
d.
 filovirus
e.
 picornaviruses
 22.
Viral proteins can damage host cells by:
a.
 increasing the rate of fermentation within the host.
b.
 producing endotoxins.
c.
 causing a decline in coordination and increased irritability.
d.
 preventing transcription of viral nucleic acids.
e.
 overwhelming the host cell with a large number of viruses.
 23.
Viral infections in humans spread via the circulatory system. Viral infections in plants spread from cell to cell via:
a.
 endocytosis.
b.
 plasmodesmata.
c.
 infected seeds.
d.
 pili.
e.
 transformation.
 24.
Human viruses can enter human cells by fusion with the cell membrane or by:
a.
 diffusion into the cell.
b.
 passage through specific protein channels.
c.
 coating themselves with lipids that cloak their entrance into the cell.
d.
 endocytosis.
e.
 hitchhiking onto protein signals entering the cell.
 25.
Viroids cause a variety of plant diseases and are composed only of:
a.
 strands of RNA.
b.
 strands of DNA.
c.
 protein coats.
d.
 peptidoglycan.
e.
 a capsid.
 26.
Mad cow disease is an example of an infection caused by a:
a.
 bacterium.
b.
 bacteriophage.
c.
 retrovirus.
d.
 viroid.
e.
 prion.
 27.
_____________ is credited with the discovery of prions as a new biological principle of infection.
a.
 Stanley Prusiner
b.
 Anton van Leeuwenhoek
c.
 Dmitrii Ivanowsky
d.
 Stanley Brenner
e.
 Carl Woese
 28.
A symptom of a transmissible spongiform encephalopathy (TSE) is:
a.
 degeneration of the digestive tract.
b.
 progressive immune deficiency.
c.
 degeneration of the brain and central nervous system.
d.
 inflammation of the reproductive organs.
e.
 influenza-like symptoms.
 29.
The volume of a typical bacterium is about ____________ the volume of a typical eukaryotic cell.
a.
 equal to
b.
 a half
c.
 a tenth
d.
 a hundredth
e.
 a thousandth
 30.
A chain of round bacteria would be called:
a.
 spirilla.
b.
 diplococci.
c.
 bacilli.
d.
 streptococci.
e.
 streptobacilli.
 31.
Rod-shaped bacteria are called:
a.
 streptococci.
b.
 bacilli.
c.
 diplococci.
d.
 vibrio.
e.
 spirochete.
Figure 23-02
Use the figure below to answer the corresponding questions.nar002-1.jpg
 32.
The structure in Figure 23-02 labeled C is:
a.
 a ribosome.
b.
 the plasma membrane.
c.
 the capsule.
d.
 the cell wall.
e.
 the flagellum.
 33.
What is the function of the structure labeled A in Figure 23-02?
a.
 to adhere to surfaces or other bacteria
b.
 to prevent phagocytosis
c.
 support and protection in hypotonic conditions
d.
 transmission of DNA between bacteria
e.
 locomotion
 34.
Even though bacteria lack membrane-bound organelles, such as chloroplasts and mitochondria, they can still perform the functions of these organelles by localizing certain metabolic enzymes on:
a.
 the nuclear membranes.
b.
 the endoplasmic reticulum.
c.
 the plasma membrane.
d.
 ribosomes.
e.
 the cell wall.
 35.
Most bacterial cells keep from bursting in a hypotonic environment by:
a.
 an efficient water pump.
b.
 a tough cell membrane.
c.
 pumping large quantities of salts into the cell.
d.
 a rigid cell wall.
e.
 a stiff capsule.
 36.
Gram-positive bacteria would stain __________ in a gram stain because of a thick layer of __________ in their cell walls.
a.
 green; peptidoglycan
b.
 purple; peptidoglycan
c.
 green; cellulose
d.
 purple; polysaccharides
e.
 red; polysaccharides
 37.
The walls of Eubacteria contain peptidoglycan, which is:
a.
 lipids crosslinked with sugars.
b.
 sugars crosslinked with proteins.
c.
 a protein.
d.
 a lipid.
e.
 a polysaccharide.
 38.
Penicillin works most effectively against gram-positive bacteria because:
a.
 penicillin affects cell membranes.
b.
 they have a thick peptidoglycan cell wall and penicillin affects the synthesis of peptidoglycans.
c.
 they have special protein channels that allow penicillin to enter the cell and halt the cell cycle.
d.
 they are smaller than gram-negative bacteria and, thus, easily take up penicillin by diffusion.
e.
 they contain prophages that negatively interact with penicillin.
 39.
Some bacteria avoid a host’s immune system by means of:
a.
 efficient use of their flagella.
b.
 ameboid motion.
c.
 their capsule.
d.
 changing their cell wall structure.
e.
 eliminating the use of a membrane.
 40.
Bacteria:
a.
 are incapable of locomotion.
b.
 move by means of pili
c.
 move by means of cilia.
d.
 move by means of a rotating flagella.
e.
 move by means of a whiplike flagella.
 41.
Small circles of DNA called ______________ exist in addition to the bacterial chromosome.
a.
 capsids
b.
 plasmids
c.
 chromatids
d.
 pili
e.
 centromeres
 42.
Small hairlike structures on the surface of bacteria are called:
a.
 capsids.
b.
 pili.
c.
 chromatids.
d.
 plasmids.
e.
 virons.
 43.
Plasmids of bacteria often have genes involved in:
a.
 reproduction.
b.
 motility.
c.
 viral resistance.
d.
 antibiotic resistance.
e.
 photosynthesis.
 44.
Pili are involved in adhesion of bacterial cells to a substrate or host, or in transmission of __________ between bacteria.
a.
 ribosomes
b.
 cytoplasm
c.
 vectors
d.
 RNA
e.
 DNA
 45.
Prokaryotes have their genetic information stored in:
a.
 several small, circular pieces of DNA.
b.
 a single, small, circular piece of DNA.
c.
 a large, linear piece of DNA.
d.
 several small, linear pieces of DNA.
e.
 a large, circular piece of DNA.
 46.
_______________ is a form of genetic exchange in bacteria that involves contact between two cells.
a.
 Transformation
b.
 Transduction
c.
 Conjugation
d.
 Binary fission
e.
 Budding
 47.
_____________ are dormant structures formed by bacteria in response to adverse environmental conditions.
a.
 Capsids
b.
 Endospores
c.
 Exotoxins
d.
 Endotoxins
e.
 Heterocysts
 48.
Most bacteria are:
a.
 photoheterotrophs.
b.
 chemoheterotrophs.
c.
 autotrophs.
d.
 heterotrophs.
e.
 chemoautotrophs.
 49.
A bacterium that gains nourishment from dead organisms is referred to as:
a.
 an autotroph.
b.
 a parasite.
c.
 a saprotroph.
d.
 a chemoautotroph.
e.
 a pathogen.
 50.
A(an) ___________________ bacterium would not be able to survive in the presence of oxygen.
a.
 facultative aerobic
b.
 facultative anaerobic
c.
 facultative autotrophic
d.
 obligate aerobic
e.
 obligate anaerobic
 51.
The most common mode of reproduction in bacteria is:
a.
 binary fission.
b.
 transformation.
c.
 transduction.
d.
 conjugation.
e.
 mitosis.
 52.
The first indication that Archae were different from the Eubacteria came from differences noted in their:
a.
 cell wall.
b.
 preferred habitats.
c.
 16 S rRNA sequence.
d.
 protein synthesis machinery.
e.
 resistance to antibiotics.
 53.
The Archaea differ from the Eubacteria and eukaryotes by having different ____________ in their cell membranes, but they are similar to eukaryotes in their ____________ process.
a.
 sugars; replication
b.
 sugars; transcription
c.
 lipids; replication
d.
 lipids; transcription
e.
 proteins; transcription
Figure 23-03
Use the figure below to answer the corresponding questions.nar003-1.jpg
 54.
Which of the following groups from Figure 23-03 represents gram-negative bacteria?
a.
 Spirochetes
b.
 Protists
c.
 Methanogens
d.
 Halophiles
e.
 None of the above.
 55.
Which of the following groups from Figure 23-03 is a member of the Eubacteria domain?
a.
 Fungi
b.
 Halophiles
c.
 Chlamydias
d.
 Protists
e.
 More than one of the above.
 56.
About how many different species of bacteria have been classified?
a.
 200
b.
 2,000
c.
 4,000
d.
 20,000
e.
 40,000
 57.
The most significant difference between the Archaea and the Eubacteria is:
a.
 lack of a nuclear envelope in the Archaea.
b.
 the absence of the 70S ribosomes in the Eubacteria.
c.
 the presence of a single filament flagellum in the Eubacteria.
d.
 the absence of peptidoglycans in the cell walls of the Archaea.
e.
 All of the above.
 58.
One difference between the Archaea and the Eukarya is:
a.
 the lack of a nuclear envelope in the Archaea.
b.
 the absence of the 70S ribosomes in the Archaea.
c.
 the presence of membrane-bound organelles in the Archaea.
d.
 the presence of peptidoglycans in the cell walls of the Archaea.
e.
 the presence of simple RNA polymerase in the Archaea.
 59.
One unique characteristic associated with some of the extreme halophilic Archaea is:
a.
 that they are found at deep-sea vents on the sea floor.
b.
 that they are a source of most known antibiotics.
c.
 that they have photosynthetic ability involving a purple bacteriorhodopsin pigment.
d.
 that they fix atmospheric nitrogen that is then used by plants.
e.
 that most form symbiotic associations.
 60.
_____________ Archae are typically found in abnormally hot environments.
a.
 Extreme halophile
b.
 Extreme thermophile
c.
 Pyrrhanogen
d.
 Metanogen
e.
 Any of the above.
 61.
Most prokaryotes belong to the:
a.
 Fungi.
b.
 Archaea.
c.
 Protista.
d.
 Eubacteria.
e.
 Viroids.
 62.
Bacterial ____________ cause systemic symptoms such as fever, whereas bacterial ____________ cause more specific maladies.
a.
 phages; prophages
b.
 prophages; phages
c.
 endotoxins; exotoxins
d.
 exotoxins; endotoxins
e.
 exotoxins; phages
 63.
The bacterial reproductive parasite Wolbachia is known to:
a.
 eradicate males from a population.
b.
 convert males into females.
c.
 cause infected females to lay eggs that develop without fertilization.
d.
 reduce the number of males in a population.
e.
 All the above.
 64.
The symbiotic bacteria found in the root nodules of legumes:
a.
 supply the plant with the nitrogen it needs in the form of nitrates.
b.
 are motile, soil-dwelling bacteria.
c.
 belong to the genus Rhizobium.
d.
 are gram-negative Eubacteria.
e.
 All of the above.
 65.
Koch’s postulates include all the following except:
a.
 when a sample of a pure culture is injected into a healthy host causes the same disease.
b.
 a sample of the microorganism from a diseased host can be grown in pure culture.
c.
 the microorganism can be recovered from an experimentally infected host.
d.
 the microorganism must be visible in the electron microscope.
e.
 the pathogen must be present in every individual with the disease.
 66.
The first bacteria that was clearly identified as the cause of an infectious disease was:
a.
 Legionella pneumophila, which causes Legionnaires’ disease.
b.
 Chamydia sp., which causes pelvic inflammatory disease in women.
c.
 Clostridium botulinum, which causes botulism.
d.
 Vibrio cholerae, which causes cholera.
e.
 Bacillus anthracis, which causes anthrax.
 

Short Answer
 67.
Compare and contrast a virus and a bacterium.
 68.
List the characteristics of the following groups and identify examples for each: Archaea, Eubacteria, and Eukarya.
 69.

Compare and contrast the metabolic diversity of bacteria in one of the two groups below.

A. Obligate anaerobes, facultative anaerobes, and aerobes
B. Autotrophic and heterotrophic bacteria

 70.
Identify and briefly discuss two ecological roles filled by bacteria.
 

Essay
 71.
Describe the theory that attempts to explain the species specificity of viruses to their hosts.
 72.
Discuss the distinction between gram-negative and gram-positive bacteria. In the laboratory, how is this determined? What are differences between these two groups of bacteria?
 73.
Describe endotoxins and exotoxins. What effects do they each have on infected persons?

 
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AP Unit 4 Heredity Study Guide 134

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ap unit 4 heredity study guide 134

 

 

Multiple Choice
Identify the choice that best completes the statement or answers the question.
 1.
Pea plants were particularly well suited for use in Mendel’s breeding experiments for all of the following reasons except that
a.
 peas show easily observed variations in a number of characters, such as pea shape and flower color.
b.
 it is possible to completely control matings between different pea plants.
c.
 it is possible to obtain large numbers of progeny from any given cross.
d.
 peas have an unusually long generation time.
e.
 many of the observable characters that vary in pea plants are controlled by single genes.
 2.
A plant with purple flowers is allowed to self-pollinate. Generation after generation, it produces purple flowers. This is an example of
a.
 hybridization.
b.
 incomplete dominance.
c.
 true-breeding.
d.
 the law of segregation.
e.
 polygenetics.
 3.
Which of the following statements about Mendel’s breeding experiments is correct?
a.
 None of the parental (P) plants were true-breeding.
b.
 All of the F2 progeny showed a phenotype that was intermediate between the two parental (P) phenotypes.
c.
 Half of the F1 progeny had the same phenotype as one of the parental (P) plants, and the other half had the same phenotype as the other parent.
d.
 All of the F1 progeny resembled one of the parental (P) plants, but only some of the F2 progeny did.
e.
 none of the above
 4.
What is the difference between a monohybrid cross and a dihybrid cross?
a.
 A monohybrid cross involves a single parent, whereas a dihybrid cross involves two parents.
b.
 A monohybrid cross produces a single progeny, whereas a dihybrid cross produces two progeny.
c.
 A monohybrid cross involves organisms that are heterozygous for a single character, whereas a dihybrid cross involves organisms that are heterozygous for two characters.
d.
 A monohybrid cross is performed only once, whereas a dihybrid cross is performed twice.
e.
 A monohybrid cross results in a 9:3:3:1 ratio whereas a dihybrid cross gives a 3:1 ratio.
 5.
A cross between homozygous purple-flowered and homozygous white-flowered pea plants results in offspring with purple flowers. This demonstrates
a.
 the blending model of genetics.
b.
 true-breeding.
c.
 dominance.
d.
 a dihybrid cross.
e.
 the mistakes made by Mendel.
 6.
The F1 offspring of Mendel’s classic pea cross always looked like one of the two parental varieties because
a.
 one allele was completely dominant over another.
b.
 each allele affected phenotypic expression.
c.
 the traits blended together during fertilization.
d.
 no genes interacted to produce the parental phenotype.
e.
 different genes interacted to produce the parental phenotype.
 7.
What was the most significant conclusion that Gregor Mendel drew from his experiments with pea plants?
a.
 There is considerable genetic variation in garden peas.
b.
 Traits are inherited in discrete units, and are not the results of “blending.”
c.
 Recessive genes occur more frequently in the F1 than do dominant ones.
d.
 Genes are composed of DNA.
e.
 An organism that is homozygous for many recessive traits is at a disadvantage.
 8.
Which of the following is (are) true for alleles?
a.
 They can be identical or different for any given gene in a somatic cell.
b.
 They can be dominant or recessive.
c.
 They can represent alternative forms of a gene.
d.
 Only A and B are correct.
e.
 A, B, and C are correct.
 9.
What is genetic cross between an individual showing a dominant phenotype (but of unknown genotype) and a homozygous recessive individual called?
a.
 a self-cross
b.
 a testcross
c.
 a hybrid cross
d.
 an F1 cross
e.
 a dihybrid cross
 10.
How many unique gametes could be produced through independent assortment by an individual with the genotype AaBbCCDdEE?
a.
 4
b.
 8
c.
 16
d.
 32
e.
 64
 11.
Two plants are crossed, resulting in offspring with a 3:1 ratio for a particular trait. This suggests
a.
 that the parents were true-breeding for contrasting traits.
b.
 incomplete dominance.
c.
 that a blending of traits has occurred.
d.
 that the parents were both heterozygous.
e.
 that each offspring has the same alleles.
 12.
Two characters that appear in a 9:3:3:1 ratio in the F2 generation should have which of the following properties?
a.
 Each of the characters is controlled by a single gene.
b.
 The genes controlling the characters obey the law of independent assortment.
c.
 Each of the genes controlling the characters has two alleles.
d.
 Only A and C are correct.
e.
 A, B, and C are correct.
 13.
A 9:3:3:1 phenotypic ratio is characteristic of which of the following?
a.
 a monohybrid cross
b.
 a dihybrid cross
c.
 a trihybrid cross
d.
 linked genes
e.
 both A and D
 14.
A sexually reproducing animal has two unlinked genes, one for head shape (H). and one for tail length (T). Its genotype is HhTt. Which of the following genotypes is possible in a gamete from this organism?
a.
 HT
b.
 Hh
c.
 HhTt
d.
 T
e.
 tt
 15.
It was important that Mendel examined not just the F1 generation in his breeding experiments, but the F2 generation as well, because
a.
 he obtained very few F1 progeny, making statistical analysis difficult.
b.
 parental traits that were not observed in the F1 reappeared in the F2, suggesting that the traits did not truly disappear in the F1.
c.
 analysis of the F1 progeny would have allowed him to discover the law of segregation, but not the law of independent assortment.
d.
 the dominant phenotypes were visible in the F2 generation, but not in the F1.
e.
 all of the above
 16.
When crossing a homozygous recessive with a heterozygote, what is the chance of getting an offspring with the homozygous recessive phenotype?
a.
 0%
b.
 25%
c.
 50%
d.
 75%
e.
 100%

Use the diagram and description below to answer the following question.

In a particular plant, leaf color is controlled by gene D. Plants with the dominant allele D have dark green leaves, and plants with the homozygous recessive dd genotype have light green leaves. A true-breeding dark-leaved plant is crossed with a light-leaved one, and the F1 offspring is allowed to self-pollinate. The predicted outcome of this cross is diagrammed in the Punnett square shown below, where 1, 2, 3, and 4 represent the genotypes corresponding to each box within the square.

nar001-1.jpg
 17.
Which of the boxes marked 1-4 correspond to plants with dark leaves?
a.
 1 only
b.
 1 and 2
c.
 2 and 3
d.
 4 only
e.
 1, 2, and 3
 18.
Which of the boxes correspond to plants with a heterozygous genotype?
a.
 1
b.
 1 and 2
c.
 1, 2, and 3
d.
 2 and 3
e.
 2, 3, and 4
 19.
Which of the plants will be true-breeding?
a.
 1 and 4
b.
 2 and 3
c.
 1-4
d.
 1 only
e.
 none
 20.
P = purple, pp = white. The offspring of a cross between two heterozygous purple-flowering plants (Pp Pp) results in
a.
 all purple-flowered plants.
b.
 purple-flowered plants and white-flowered plants.
c.
 two types of white-flowered plants: PP and Pp.
d.
 all white-flowered plants.
e.
 all pink-flowered plants.
 21.
Mendel accounted for the observation that traits which had disappeared in the F1 generation reappeared in the F2 generation by proposing that
a.
 new mutations were frequently generated in the F2 progeny, “reinventing” traits that had been lost in the F1.
b.
 the mechanism controlling the appearance of traits was different between the F1 and the F2 plants.
c.
 traits can be dominant or recessive, and the recessive traits were obscured by the dominant ones in the F1.
d.
 the traits were lost in the F1 due to blending of the parental traits.
e.
 members of the F1 generation had only one allele for each character, but members of the F2 had two alleles for each character.
 22.
What are Punnett squares used for?
a.
 predicting the result of genetic crosses between organisms of known genotypes
b.
 determining the DNA sequence of a given gene
c.
 identifying the gene locus where allelic variations are possible
d.
 testing for the presence of the recessive allele
e.
 more than one of the above
 23.
Which of the following is false, regarding the law of segregation?
a.
 It states that each of two alleles for a given trait segregate into different gametes.
b.
 It can be explained by the segregation of homologous chromosomes during meiosis.
c.
 It can account for the 3:1 ratio seen in the F2 generation of Mendel’s crosses.
d.
 It can be used to predict the likelihood of transmission of certain genetic diseases within families.
e.
 It is a method that can be used to determine the number of chromosomes in a plant.
 24.
The fact that all seven of the pea plant traits studied by Mendel obeyed the principle of independent assortment means that
a.
 none of the traits obeyed the law of segregation.
b.
 the diploid number of chromosomes in the pea plants was 7.
c.
 all of the genes controlling the traits were located on the same chromosome.
d.
 all of the genes controlling the traits behaved as if they were on different chromosomes.
e.
 the formation of gametes in plants occurs by mitosis only.
 25.
Black fur in mice (B) is dominant to brown fur (b) Short tails (T) are dominant to long tails (t). What fraction of the progeny of the cross BbTt BBtt will have black fur and long tails?
a.
 1/16
b.
 3/16
c.
 3/8
d.
 1/2
e.
 9/16
 26.
In certain plants, tall is dominant to short. If a heterozygous plant is crossed with a homozygous tall plant, what is the probability that the offspring will be short?
a.
 1/2
b.
 1/4
c.
 0
d.
 1
e.
 1/6
 27.
A couple has three children, all of whom have brown eyes and blond hair. Both parents are homozygous for brown eyes (BB) but one is a blond (rr) and the other is a redhead (Rr). What is the probability that their next child will be a brown-eyed redhead?
a.
 1/16
b.
 1/8
c.
 1/4
d.
 1/2
e.
 1
 28.
Two true-breeding stocks of pea plants are crossed. One parent has red, axial flowers and the other has white, terminal flowers; all F1 individuals have red, axial flowers. If 1,000 F2 offspring resulted from the cross, approximately how many of them would you expect to have red, terminal flowers? (Assume independent assortment).
a.
 65
b.
 190
c.
 250
d.
 565
e.
 750
 29.
In a cross AaBbCc AaBbCc, what is the probability of producing the genotype AABBCC?
a.
 1/4
b.
 1/8
c.
 1/16
d.
 1/32
e.
 1/64
 30.
Given the parents AABBCc AabbCc, assume simple dominance and independent assortment. What proportion of the progeny will be expected to phenotypically resemble the first parent?
a.
 1/4
b.
 1/8
c.
 3/4
d.
 3/8
e.
 1
 31.
A 1:2:1 phenotypic ratio in the F2 generation of a monohybrid cross is a sign of
a.
 complete dominance.
b.
 multiple alleles.
c.
 incomplete dominance.
d.
 polygenic inheritance.
e.
 pleiotropy.

Refer to the result below to answer the following questions.

A tall plant is crossed with a short plant, and the progeny are all intermediate in size between the two parental plants.
 32.
This could be an example of
a.
 incomplete dominance.
b.
 polygenic inheritance.
c.
 complete dominance.
d.
 A and B
e.
 B and C
 33.
If the intermediate F1 progeny were allowed to self-pollinate, and the F2 progeny were also intermediate in size, but following a normal distribution, this would suggest
a.
 incomplete dominance.
b.
 polygenic inheritance.
c.
 complete dominance.
d.
 a strong environmental influence.
e.
 codominance.
 34.
If the intermediate F1 progeny were allowed to self-pollinate, and 25% of the F2 progeny were tall, 50% were intermediate in size, and 25% were short, this would suggest
a.
 incomplete dominance.
b.
 polygenic inheritance.
c.
 complete dominance.
d.
 pleiotropy.
e.
 multifactorial inheritance.
 35.
In snapdragons, heterozygotes have pink flowers, whereas homozygotes have red or white flowers. When plants with red flowers are crossed with plants with white flowers, what proportion of the offspring will have pink flowers?
a.
 0%
b.
 25%
c.
 50%
d.
 75%
e.
 100%
 36.
Tallness (T) is dominant to dwarfness (t), while red (R) flower color is dominant to white (r). The heterozygous condition results in pink (Rr) flower color. A dwarf, red snapdragon is crossed with a plant homozygous for tallness and white flowers. What are the genotype and phenotype of the F1 individuals?
a.
 ttRr-dwarf and pink
b.
 ttrr-dwarf and white
c.
 TtRr-tall and red
d.
 TtRr-tall and pink
e.
 TTRR-tall and red
 37.
Skin color in a fish is inherited via a single gene with four different alleles. How many different types of gametes would be possible in this system?
a.
 1
b.
 2
c.
 4
d.
 8
e.
 16
 38.
In cattle, roan coat color (mixed red and white hairs) occurs in the heterozygous (Rr) offspring of red (RR) and white (rr) homozygotes. Which of the following crosses would produce offspring in the ratio of 1 red:2 roan:1 white?
a.
 red white
b.
 roan roan
c.
 white roan
d.
 red roan
e.
 The answer cannot be determined from the information provided.
 39.
The relationship between genes S and N is an example of
a.
 incomplete dominance.
b.
 epistasis.
c.
 complete dominance.
d.
 pleiotropy.
e.
 codominance.
 40.
A cross between a true-breeding sharp-spined cactus and a spineless cactus would produce
a.
 all sharp-spined progeny.
b.
 50% sharp-spined, 50% dull-spined progeny.
c.
 25% sharp-spined, 50% dull-spined, 25% spineless progeny
d.
 all spineless progeny
e.
 It is impossible to determine the phenotypes of the progeny.
 41.
If doubly heterozygous SsNn cactuses were allowed to self-pollinate, the F2 would segregate in which of the following ratios?
a.
 3 sharp-spined : 1 spineless
b.
 1 sharp-spined : 2 dull-spined : 1 spineless
c.
 1 sharp spined : 1 dull-spined : 1 spineless
d.
 1 sharp-spined : 1 dull-spined
e.
 9 sharp-spined : 3 dull-spined : 4 spineless

Use the information below to answer the following questions.

Feather color in budgies is determined by two different genes Y and B. YYBB, YyBB, or YYBb is green; yyBB or yyBb is blue; YYbb or Yybb is yellow; and yybb is white.
 42.
A blue budgie is crossed with a white budgie. Which of the following results is not possible?
a.
 green offspring
b.
 yellow offspring
c.
 blue offspring
d.
 A and B
e.
 A, B, and C
 43.
Two blue budgies were crossed. Over the years, they produced 22 offspring, 5 of which were white. What are the most likely genotypes for the two blue budgies?
a.
 yyBB and yyBB
b.
 yyBB and yyBb
c.
 yyBb and yyBb
d.
 yyBB and yybb
e.
 yyBb and yybb
 44.

Three babies were mixed up in a hospital. After consideration of the data below, which of the following represent the correct baby and parent combinations?

Couple #
Blood Groups		 I
A and A		 II
A and B		 III
B and O
Baby #
Blood Groups		 1
B		 2
O		 3
AB
a.
 I-3, II-1, III-2
b.
 I-1, II-3, III-2
c.
 I-2, II-3, III-1
d.
 I-2, II-1, III-3
e.
 I-3, II-2, III-1

Use the following information to answer the questions below.

A woman who has blood type A, has a daughter who is type O positive and a son who is type B negative. Rh positive is a simple dominant trait over Rh negative.
 45.
Which of the following is a possible genotype for the son?
a.
 IBIB
b.
 IBIA
c.
 ii
d.
 IBi
e.
 IAIA
 46.
Which of the following is a possible genotype for the mother?
a.
 IAIA
b.
 IBIB
c.
 ii
d.
 IAi
e.
 IAIB
 47.
Which of the following is a possible phenotype for the father?
a.
 A
b.
 O
c.
 B
d.
 AB
e.
 impossible to determine
 48.
Which of the following is the probable genotype for the mother?
a.
 IAIARR
b.
 IAIARr
c.
 IAirr
d.
 IAiRr
e.
 IAiRR
 49.
Which of the following is a possible phenotype of the father?
a.
 A negative
b.
 O negative
c.
 B positive
d.
 A positive
e.
 O positive
 50.
What is the chromosomal system for determining sex in mammals?
a.
 A
b.
 B
c.
 C
d.
 D
e.
 E
 51.
What is the chromosomal system for sex determination in grasshoppers and certain other insects?
a.
 A
b.
 B
c.
 C
d.
 D
e.
 E
 52.
What is the chromosomal system for sex determination in birds?
a.
 A
b.
 B
c.
 C
d.
 D
e.
 E
 53.
What is the chromosomal system of sex determination in most species of ants and bees?
a.
 A
b.
 B
c.
 C
d.
 D
e.
 E

Use the terms listed below to answer the following questions. Each term may be used once, more than once, or not at all.

A. incomplete dominance
B. multiple alleles
C. pleiotropy
D. epistasis
 54.
the ability of a single gene to have multiple phenotypic effects
a.
 A
b.
 B
c.
 C
d.
 D
 55.
the ABO blood group system
a.
 A
b.
 B
c.
 C
d.
 D
 56.
the phenotype of the heterozygote differs from the phenotypes of both homozygotes
a.
 A
b.
 B
c.
 C
d.
 D
 57.
cystic fibrosis affects the lungs, the pancreas, the digestive system, and other organs, resulting in symptoms ranging from breathing difficulties to recurrent infections
a.
 A
b.
 B
c.
 C
d.
 D
 58.
Which of the following is an example of polygenic inheritance?
a.
 pink flowers in snapdragons
b.
 the ABO blood groups in humans
c.
 Huntington’s disease in humans
d.
 white and purple flower color in peas
e.
 skin pigmentation in humans
 59.
Hydrangea plants of the same genotype are planted in a large flower garden. Some of the plants produce blue flowers and others pink flowers. This can be best explained by
a.
 environmental factors such as soil pH.
b.
 the allele for blue hydrangea being completely dominant.
c.
 the alleles being codominant.
d.
 the fact that a mutation has occurred.
e.
 acknowledging that multiple alleles are involved.

Use the information below to answer the following questions.

A woman and her spouse both show the normal phenotype for pigmentation, but both had one parent who was an albino. Albinism is an autosomal recessive trait.
 60.
What is the probability that their first child will be an albino?
a.
 0
b.
 1/4
c.
 1/2
d.
 3/4
e.
 1
 61.
If their first two children have normal pigmentation, what is the probability that their third child will be an albino?
a.
 0
b.
 1/4
c.
 1/2
d.
 3/4
e.
 1
 62.
Huntington’s disease is caused by a dominant allele. If one of your parents has the disease, what is the probability that you, too, will have the disease?
a.
 1
b.
 3/4
c.
 1/2
d.
 1/4
e.
 0
 63.
A woman has six sons. The chance that her next child will be a daughter is
a.
 1.
b.
 0.
c.
 1/2.
d.
 1/6.
e.
 5/6.

The pedigree chart below is for a family, some of whose members exhibit the recessive trait, wooly hair. Affected individuals are indicated by an open square or circle. Use the chart to answer the following questions.

nar007-1.jpg
 64.
What is the genotype of individual B-5?
a.
 WW
b.
 Ww
c.
 ww
d.
 WW or ww
e.
 ww or Ww
 65.
What is the likelihood that the progeny of D-3 and D-4 will have wooly hair?
a.
 0%
b.
 25%
c.
 50%
d.
 75%
e.
 100%
 66.
What is the probability that individual C-1 is Ww?
a.
 3/4
b.
 1/4
c.
 2/4
d.
 2/3
e.
 1
 67.
People with sickle-cell trait
a.
 are heterozygous for the sickle-cell allele.
b.
 are usually healthy.
c.
 have increased resistance to malaria.
d.
 produce normal and abnormal hemoglobin.
e.
 all of the above
 68.
When a disease is said to have a multifactorial basis, it means that
a.
 many factors, both genetic and environmental, contribute to the disease.
b.
 it is caused by a gene with a large number of alleles.
c.
 it affects a large number of people.
d.
 it has many different symptoms.
e.
 it tends to skip a generation.
 69.
Which of the following terms is least related to the others?
a.
 pedigree
b.
 karyotype
c.
 amniocentesis
d.
 chorionic villus sampling
e.
 epistasis

Use the answers below to answer the following questions. Each answer may be used once, more than once, or not at all.

A. Huntington’s disease
B. Tay-Sachs disease
C. phenylketonuria
D. cystic fibrosis
E. sickle-cell disease
 70.
Substitution of the “wrong” amino acid in the hemoglobin protein results in this disorder.
a.
 A
b.
 B
c.
 C
d.
 D
e.
 E
 71.
Individuals with this disorder are unable to metabolize certain lipids, affecting proper brain development. Affected individuals die in early childhood.
a.
 A
b.
 B
c.
 C
d.
 D
e.
 E
 72.
This is caused by a dominant single gene defect and generally does not appear until the individual is 35-45 years of age.
a.
 A
b.
 B
c.
 C
d.
 D
e.
 E
 73.
Effects of this recessive disorder can be completely overcome by regulating the diet of the affected individual.
a.
 A
b.
 B
c.
 C
d.
 D
e.
 E
 74.
This results from a defect in membrane proteins that normally function in chloride ion transport.
a.
 A
b.
 B
c.
 C
d.
 D
e.
 E
 75.
Which of the following techniques involves the preparation of a karyotype?
a.
 amniocentesis
b.
 chorionic villus sampling
c.
 fetoscopy
d.
 A and B only
e.
 A, B, and C
 76.
Chromosomes and genes share all of the following characteristics except that
a.
 they are both present in pairs in all diploid cells.
b.
 they both undergo segregation during meiosis.
c.
 their copy numbers in the cell decrease after meiosis, and increase during fertilization.
d.
 they are both copied during the S phase of the cell cycle.
e.
 they both pair up with their homologues during prophase of mitosis.
 77.
The improvement of microscopy techniques in the late 1800s set the stage for the emergence of modern genetics because
a.
 it revealed new and unanticipated features of Mendel’s pea plant varieties.
b.
 it allowed biologists to study meiosis and mitosis, revealing the parallels between the behaviors of genes and chromosomes.
c.
 it allowed scientists to see the DNA present within chromosomes.
d.
 it led to the discovery of mitochondria.
e.
 All of the above are true.
 78.
When Thomas Hunt Morgan crossed his red-eyed F1 generation flies to each other, the F2 generation included both red- and white-eyed flies. Remarkably, all the white-eyed flies were male. What was the explanation for this result?
a.
 The involved gene was on the X chromosome.
b.
 The involved gene was on the Y chromosome.
c.
 The involved gene was on an autosome.
d.
 Other male-specific factors influence eye color in flies.
e.
 Other female-specific factors influence eye color in flies.
 79.
Which of the following statements is (are) true?
a.
 The closer two genes are on a chromosome, the higher the probability that a crossover will occur between them.
b.
 The observed frequency of recombination of two genes that are far apart from each other has a maximum value of 50%.
c.
 Two of the traits that Mendel studied-seed color and flower color-are linked on the same chromosome.
d.
 Only B and C are correct.
e.
 A, B, and C are correct.
 80.
How would one explain a testcross involving F1 dihybrid flies in which more parental-type offspring than recombinant-type offspring are produced?
a.
 The two genes are linked.
b.
 The two genes are unlinked.
c.
 Recombination did not occur in the cell during meiosis.
d.
 The testcross was improperly performed.
e.
 Both of the characters are controlled by more than one gene.
 81.
New combinations of linked genes are due to which of the following?
a.
 nondisjunction
b.
 crossing over
c.
 independent assortment
d.
 mixing of sperm and egg
e.
 both A and C
 82.
What does a frequency of recombination of 50% indicate?
a.
 The two genes likely are located on different chromosomes.
b.
 All of the offspring have combinations of traits that match one of the two parents.
c.
 The genes are located on sex chromosomes.
d.
 Abnormal meiosis has occurred.
e.
 Independent assortment is hindered.

The following questions refer to the data and figures below.

CROSS I. Purebred lines of wild-type fruit flies (gray body and normal wings) are mated to flies with black bodies and vestigial wings.

nar009-1.jpg

F1 offspring all have a normal phenotype.

nar009-2.jpg

CROSS II. F1 flies are crossed with flies recessive for both traits (a testcross).

Resulting Offspring Normal Percentage
Gray body; normal wings
575
25.1
Black body; vestigial wings
571
24.9
Black body; normal wings
577
25.2
Gray body; vestigial wings
568
24.8

KEY:
A. CROSS I results give evidence supporting the statement.
B. CROSS I results give evidence against the statement.
C. CROSS II results give evidence supporting the statement.
D. CROSS II results give evidence against the statement.
E. Neither CROSS I nor CROSS II results support the statement.
 83.
Vestigial wings are a recessive trait.
a.
 A
b.
 B
c.
 C
d.
 D
e.
 E
 84.
The genes for body color and wing shape are linked.
a.
 A
b.
 B
c.
 C
d.
 D
e.
 E
 85.
An F1 cross should produce flies that will fall into a Mendelian 9:3:3:1 ratio.
a.
 A
b.
 B
c.
 C
d.
 D
e.
 E
 86.
There are 25 centimorgans (map units) between the genes for body color and wing shape.
a.
 A
b.
 B
c.
 C
d.
 D
e.
 E
 87.
A 0.1% frequency of recombination is observed
a.
 only in sex chromosomes.
b.
 only on genetic maps of viral chromosomes.
c.
 on unlinked chromosomes.
d.
 in any two genes on different chromosomes.
e.
 in genes located very close to one another on the same chromosome.
 88.

The following is a map of four genes on a chromosome:

mc088-1.jpg
Between which two genes would you expect the highest frequency of recombination?

a.
 A and W
b.
 W and E
c.
 E and G
d.
 A and E
e.
 A and G
 89.
The reason that linked genes are inherited together is that
a.
 they are located on the same chromosome.
b.
 the number of genes in a cell is greater than the number of chromosomes.
c.
 chromosomes are unbreakable.
d.
 alleles are paired.
e.
 genes align that way during metaphase I.
 90.
What is the mechanism for the production of genetic recombinants?
a.
 X inactivation
b.
 methylation of cytosine
c.
 crossing over and independent assortment
d.
 nondisjunction
e.
 deletions and duplications during meiosis
 91.
There is good evidence for linkage when
a.
 two genes occur together in the same gamete.
b.
 a gene is associated with a specific phenotype.
c.
 two genes work together to control a specific characteristic.
d.
 genes do not segregate independently during meiosis.
e.
 two characteristics are caused by a single gene.

Refer to the figure below to answer the following questions.

nar010-1.jpg
 92.
In a series of mapping experiments, the recombination frequencies for four different linked genes of Drosophila were determined as shown in the figure. What is the order of these genes on a chromosome map?
a.
 rb-cn-vg-b
b.
 vg-b-rb-cn
c.
 cn-rb-b-vg
d.
 b-rb-cn-vg
e.
 vg-cn-b-rb
 93.
Which of the following two genes are closest on a genetic map of Drosophila?
a.
 b and vg
b.
 vg and cn
c.
 rb and cn
d.
 cn and b
e.
 b and rb
X, Y, and Z are three genes in Drosophila. The recombination frequencies for two of the three genes are shown below.

nar011-1.jpg
 94.
Genes X and Y could be
a.
 located on different chromosomes.
b.
 located very near to each other on the same chromosome.
c.
 located far from each other on the same chromosome.
d.
 both A and B
e.
 both A and C
 95.
If the recombination frequency for Y and Z was found to be 50%, this would mean that
a.
 genes X and Y are on the same chromosome.
b.
 genes X and Y are on different chromosomes.
c.
 genes Y and Z are on different chromosomes.
d.
 both A and C.
e.
 both B and C
 96.
Which of the following is true regarding linkage maps? They
a.
 always have a total of 100 map units.
b.
 can be used to pinpoint the precise physical position of a gene on a chromosome.
c.
 are a genetic map based on recombination frequencies.
d.
 require preparation of karyotypes.
e.
 reflect the frequency of crossing over between X and Y chromosomes.
 97.
The frequency of crossing over between any two linked genes is
a.
 higher if they are recessive.
b.
 different between males and females.
c.
 determined by their relative dominance.
d.
 the same as if they were not linked.
e.
 proportional to the distance between them.
 98.
Sturtevant provided genetic evidence for the existence of four pairs of chromosomes in Drosophila by showing that
a.
 there are four major functional classes of genes in Drosophila.
b.
 Drosophila genes cluster into four distinct groups of linked genes.
c.
 the overall number of genes in Drosophila is a multiple of four.
d.
 the entire Drosophila genome has approximately 400 map units.
e.
 Drosophila genes have, on average, four different alleles.
 99.
Map units on a linkage map cannot be relied upon to calculate physical distances on a chromosome because
a.
 the frequency of crossing over varies along the length of the chromosome.
b.
 the relationship between recombination frequency and map units is different in every individual.
c.
 physical distances between genes change during the course of the cell cycle.
d.
 the gene order on the chromosomes is slightly different in every individual.
e.
 all of the above
 100.
A map of a chromosome that includes the positions of genes relative to visible chromosomal features, such as stained bands, is called a
a.
 linkage map.
b.
 physical map.
c.
 recombination map.
d.
 cytogenetic map.
e.
 banded map.
 101.
Males are more often affected by sex-linked traits than females because
a.
 males are hemizygous for the X chromosome.
b.
 male hormones such as testosterone often exacerbate the effects of mutations on the X chromosome.
c.
 female hormones such as estrogen often compensate for the effects of mutations on the X.
d.
 X chromosomes in males generally have more mutations than X chromosomes in females.
e.
 mutations on the Y chromosome often exacerbate the effects of X-linked mutations.
 102.
SRY is
a.
 a gene present on the Y chromosome that triggers male development.
b.
 a gene present on the X chromosome that triggers female development.
c.
 an autosomal gene that is required for the expression of genes on the Y chromosome.
d.
 an autosomal gene that is required for the expression of genes on the X chromosome.
e.
 required for development, and males or females lacking the gene do not survive past early childhood.
 103.
In cats, black fur color is caused by an X-linked allele; the other allele at this locus causes orange color. The heterozygote is tortoiseshell. What kinds of offspring would you expect from the cross of a black female and an orange male?
a.
 tortoiseshell female; tortoiseshell male
b.
 black female; orange male
c.
 orange female; orange male
d.
 tortoiseshell female; black male
e.
 orange female; black male
 104.
Red-green color blindness is a sex-linked recessive trait in humans. Two people with normal color vision have a color-blind son. What are the genotypes of the parents?
a.
 XcXc and XcY
b.
 XcXc and XCY
c.
 XCXC and XcY
d.
 XCXC and XCY
e.
 XCXc and XCY
 105.
In the following list, which term is least related to the others?
a.
 Duchenne muscular dystrophy
b.
 autosome
c.
 sex-linked genes
d.
 color blindness
e.
 hemophilia
 106.
Cinnabar eyes is a sex-linked recessive characteristic in fruit flies. If a female having cinnabar eyes is crossed with a wild-type male, what percentage of the F1 males will have cinnabar eyes?
a.
 0%
b.
 25%
c.
 50%
d.
 75%
e.
 100%
 107.
Most calico cats are female because
a.
 a male inherits only one of the two X-linked genes controlling hair color.
b.
 the males die during embryonic development.
c.
 the Y chromosome has a gene blocking orange coloration.
d.
 only females can have Barr bodies.
e.
 multiple crossovers on the Y chromosome prevent orange pigment production.
 108.
A recessive allele on the X chromosome is responsible for red-green color blindness in humans. A woman with normal vision whose father is color-blind marries a color-blind male. What is the probability that a son of this couple will be color-blind?
a.
 0
b.
 1/4
c.
 1/2
d.
 3/4
e.
 1
 109.
In birds, sex is determined by a ZW chromosome scheme. Males are ZZ and females are ZW. A lethal recessive allele that causes death of the embryo is sometimes present on the Z chromosome in pigeons. What would be the sex ratio in the offspring of a cross between a male that is heterozygous for the lethal allele and a normal female?
a.
 2:1 male to female
b.
 1:2 male to female
c.
 1:1 male to female
d.
 4:3 male to female
e.
 3:1 male to female
 110.
A man who carries an X-linked allele will pass it on to
a.
 all of his daughters.
b.
 half of his daughters.
c.
 all of his sons.
d.
 half of his sons.
e.
 all of his children.

Refer to the information below to answer the following questions.

An achondroplastic male dwarf with normal vision marries a color-blind woman of normal height. The man’s father was six-feet tall, and both the woman’s parents were of average height. Achondroplastic dwarfism is autosomal dominant, and red-green color blindness is X-linked recessive.
 111.
How many of their daughters might be expected to be color-blind dwarfs?
a.
 all
b.
 none
c.
 half
d.
 one out of four
e.
 three out of four
 112.
How many of their sons would be color-blind and of normal height?
a.
 all
b.
 none
c.
 half
d.
 one out of four
e.
 three out of four
 113.
They have a daughter who is a dwarf with normal color vision. What is the probability that she is heterozygous for both genes?
a.
 0
b.
 0.25
c.
 0.50
d.
 0.75
e.
 1.00
 114.
Male calico cats could be the result of
a.
 sex-linked inheritance.
b.
 nondisjunction, leading to the male calico having two X chromosomes.
c.
 incomplete dominance of multiple alleles.
d.
 recessive alleles retaining their fundamental natures even when expressed.
e.
 a reciprocal translocation.
 115.
A Barr body is normally found in the nucleus of which kind of human cell?
a.
 unfertilized egg cells only
b.
 sperm cells only
c.
 somatic cells of a female only
d.
 somatic cells of a male only
e.
 both male and female somatic cells
 116.
Which of these syndromes afflicts mostly males?
a.
 Turner syndrome
b.
 Down syndrome
c.
 Duchenne muscular dystrophy
d.
 cri du chat syndrome
e.
 chronic myelogenous leukemia
 117.
If a human interphase nucleus of a person contains three Barr bodies, it can be assumed that the person
a.
 has hemophilia.
b.
 is a male.
c.
 has four X chromosomes.
d.
 has Turner syndrome.
e.
 has Down syndrome.
 118.
If nondisjunction occurs in meiosis II during gametogenesis, what will be the result at the completion of meiosis?
a.
 All the gametes will be diploid.
b.
 Two gametes will be n + 1, and two will be n – 1.
c.
 One gamete will be n + 1, one will be n – 1, and two will be n.
d.
 There will be three extra gametes.
e.
 Two of the four gametes will be haploid, and two will be diploid.
 119.

The figure below represents the stained nucleus from a cheek epithelial cell of an individual whose genotype would probably be

mc119-1.jpg

a.
 XX.
b.
 XY.
c.
 XYY.
d.
 XXX.
e.
 XXY.
 120.
If a pair of homologous chromosomes fails to separate during anaphase of meiosis I, what will be the chromosome number of the four resulting gametes with respect to the normal haploid number (n)?
a.
 n + 1; n + 1; n – 1; n – 1
b.
 n + 1; n – 1; n; n
c.
 n + 1; n – 1; n – 1; n – 1
d.
 n + 1; n + 1; n; n
e.
 n – 1; n – 1; n; n
 121.
A cell that has 2n + 1 chromosomes is
a.
 trisomic.
b.
 monosomic.
c.
 aneuploid.
d.
 polyploid.
e.
 both A and C
 122.
If a chromosome lacks certain genes, what has most likely occurred?
a.
 disjunction
b.
 an inversion
c.
 a deletion
d.
 a translocation
e.
 a nonduplication
 123.
One possible result of chromosomal breakage is for a fragment to join a nonhomologous chromosome. This is called a (an)
a.
 deletion.
b.
 disjunction.
c.
 inversion.
d.
 translocation.
e.
 duplication.
 124.
In the following list, which term is least related to the others?
a.
 trisomic
b.
 monosomic
c.
 aneuploid
d.
 triploid
e.
 nondisjunction
 125.
A nonreciprocal crossover causes which of the following products?
a.
 deletion
b.
 duplication
c.
 nondisjunction
d.
 A and B
e.
 B and C
 126.
One possible result of chromosomal breakage can be that a fragment reattaches to the original chromosome in a reverse orientation. This is called
a.
 disjunction.
b.
 translocation.
c.
 deletion.
d.
 inversion.
e.
 aneuploidy.
 127.
A human individual is phenotypically female, but her interphase somatic nuclei do not show the presence of Barr bodies. Which of the following statements concerning her is probably true?
a.
 She has Klinefelter syndrome.
b.
 She has an extra X chromosome.
c.
 She has Turner syndrome.
d.
 She has the normal number of sex chromosomes.
e.
 She has two Y chromosomes.
 128.

The karyotype shown below is associated with which of the following genetic disorders?

mc128-1.jpg

a.
 Turner syndrome
b.
 Down syndrome
c.
 Klinefelter syndrome
d.
 hemophilia
e.
 male-pattern baldness
 129.
In humans, male-pattern baldness is controlled by a gene that occurs in two allelic forms. Allele Hn determines nonbaldness, and allele Hb determines pattern baldness. In males, because of the presence of testosterone, allele Hb is dominant over Hn. If a man and woman both with genotype HnHb have a son, what is the chance that he will eventually be bald?
a.
 0%
b.
 25%
c.
 33%
d.
 50%
e.
 75%
 130.
Of the following human trisomies, the one that generally has the most severe impact on the health of the individual is
a.
 trisomy 21.
b.
 Klinefelter syndrome (XXY).
c.
 trisomy X.
d.
 XYY.
e.
 All of the above have equal impact.
 131.
What do all human males inherit from their mother?
a.
 mitochondrial DNA
b.
 an X chromosome
c.
 the SRY gene
d.
 A and B only
e.
 A, B, and C
 132.
Which of the following statements is true regarding genomic imprinting?
a.
 It explains cases in which the gender of the parent from whom an allele is inherited affects the expression of that allele.
b.
 It is greatest in females because of the larger maternal contribution of cytoplasm.
c.
 It may explain the transmission of Duchenne muscular dystrophy.
d.
 It involves an irreversible alteration in the DNA sequence of imprinted genes.
e.
 All of the above are correct.
 133.

The pedigree in the figure below shows the transmission of a trait in a particular family. Based on this pattern of transmission, the trait is most likely

mc133-1.jpg

a.
 mitochondrial.
b.
 autosomal recessive.
c.
 sex-linked dominant.
d.
 sex-linked recessive.
e.
 autosomal dominant.
 134.
Which of the following statements about mitochondria is false?
a.
 Because of the role of the mitochondria in producing cellular energy, mitochondrial diseases often affect the muscles and nervous system.
b.
 Because mitochondria are present in the cytoplasm, mitochondrial diseases are transmitted maternally.
c.
 Like nuclear genes, mitochondrial genes usually follow Mendelian patterns of inheritance.
d.
 Mitochondria contain circular DNA molecules that code for proteins and RNAs.
e.
 Many mitochondrial genes encode proteins that play roles in the electron transport chain and ATP synthesis.