Author: Biology Junction Team

AP UNIT 1B BIOCHEMISTRY

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AP UNIT 1B BIOCHEMISTRY
 

Multiple Choice
Identify the choice that best completes the statement or answers the question.
 1.
Organic chemistry is a science based on the study of
a.
 functional groups.
b.
 vital forces interacting with matter.
c.
 carbon compounds.
d.
 water and its interaction with other kinds of molecules.
e.
 inorganic compounds.
 2.
How many electron pairs does carbon share in order to complete its valence shell?
a.
 1
b.
 2
c.
 3
d.
 4
e.
 8
 3.
What type(s) of bond(s) does carbon have a tendency to form?
a.
 ionic
b.
 hydrogen
c.
 covalent
d.
 A and B only
e.
 A, B, and C
 4.
What is the reason why hydrocarbons are not soluble in water?
a.
 The majority of their bonds are polar covalent carbon to hydrogen linkages.
b.
 The majority of their bonds are nonpolar covalent carbon-to-hydrogen linkages.
c.
 They are hydrophilic.
d.
 They exhibit considerable molecular complexity and diversity.
e.
 They are lighter than water.
 5.

The two molecules shown in the following figure are best described as

mc005-1.jpg

a.
 optical isomers.
b.
 radioactive isotopes.
c.
 structural isomers.
d.
 nonradioactive isotopes.
e.
 geometric isomers.
 6.

The two molecules shown in the following figure are best described as

mc006-1.jpg

a.
 enantiomers.
b.
 radioactive isotopes.
c.
 structural isomers.
d.
 nonisotopic isomers.
e.
 geometric isomers.
 7.
Research suggests that side effects from Ritalin, the drug used to treat attention deficit disorder, may be caused by contamination of enantiomers, or molecules that
a.
 have identical three-dimensional shapes.
b.
 are mirror images of one another.
c.
 lack an asymmetric carbon.
d.
 differ in the location of their double bonds.
e.
 differ in their electrical charge.
 8.
Which is the best description of a carbonyl group?
a.
 an oxygen joined to a carbon by a single covalent bond
b.
 a nitrogen and two hydrogens joined to a carbon by covalent bonds
c.
 a carbon joined to two hydrogens by single covalent bonds
d.
 a sulfur and a hydrogen joined to a carbon by covalent bonds
e.
 a carbon atom joined to an oxygen by a double covalent bond
 9.

What is the name of the functional group shown in the following figure?

a.
 carbonyl
b.
 ketone
c.
 aldehyde
d.
 carboxyl
e.
 hydroxyl
 10.
Which of the following contains nitrogen in addition to carbon, oxygen, and hydrogen?
a.
 an alcohol such as ethanol
b.
 a monosaccharide such as glucose
c.
 a steroid such as testosterone
d.
 an amino acid such as glycine
e.
 a hydrocarbon such as benzene
 11.
Which two functional groups are always found in amino acids?
a.
 ketone and aldehyde
b.
 carbonyl and carboxyl
c.
 carboxyl and amino
d.
 phosphate and sulfhydryl
e.
 hydroxyl and aldehyde
 12.
A chemist wishes to make an organic molecule less acidic. Which of the following functional groups should be added to the molecule in order to do so?
a.
 carboxyl
b.
 sulfhydryl
c.
 hydroxyl
d.
 amino
e.
 phosphate

Use the figure below to answer the following questions.

nar001-1.jpg
 13.
Which is a hydroxyl functional group?
a.
 Group A
b.
 Group B
c.
 Group C
d.
 Group D
e.
 Group E
 14.
Which is an amino functional group?
a.
 Group A
b.
 Group B
c.
 Group C
d.
 Group D
e.
 Group E
 15.
Which is a functional group that helps stabilize proteins by forming covalent cross-links within or between protein molecules?
a.
 Group A
b.
 Group B
c.
 Group C
d.
 Group D
e.
 Group E
 16.
Polymers of polysaccharides, fats, and proteins are all synthesized from monomers by which process?
a.
 connecting monosaccharides together (condensation reactions)
b.
 the addition of water to each monomer (hydrolysis)
c.
 the removal of water (dehydration reactions)
d.
 ionic bonding of the monomers
e.
 the formation of disulfide bridges between monomers
 17.
Which of the following best summarizes the relationship between dehydration reactions and hydrolysis?
a.
 Dehydration reactions assemble polymers, and hydrolysis breaks down polymers.
b.
 Hydrolysis only occurs in the urinary system, and dehydration reactions only occur in the digestive tract.
c.
 Dehydration reactions can occur only after hydrolysis.
d.
 Hydrolysis creates monomers, and dehydration reactions break down polymers.
e.
 A and C are correct.
 18.

If 128 molecules of the general type shown in the figure below were covalently joined together in sequence, the single molecule that would result would be a

mc018-1.jpg

a.
 polysaccharide.
b.
 polypeptide.
c.
 polyunsaturated lipid.
d.
 monosaccharide.
e.
 disaccharide.
 19.
Lactose, a sugar in milk, is composed of one glucose molecule joined by a glycosidic linkage to one galactose molecule. How is lactose classified?
a.
 as a pentose
b.
 as a hexose
c.
 as a monosaccharide
d.
 as a disaccharide
e.
 as a polysaccharide
 20.
Which of the following is true of both starch and cellulose?
a.
 They are both polymers of glucose.
b.
 They are geometric isomers of each other.
c.
 They can both be digested by humans.
d.
 They are both used for energy storage in plants.
e.
 They are both structural components of the plant cell wall.
 21.
Which of the following is true of cellulose?
a.
 It is a polymer composed of sucrose monomers.
b.
 It is a storage polysaccharide for energy in plant cells.
c.
 It is a storage polysaccharide for energy in animal cells.
d.
 It is a major structural component of plant cell walls.
e.
 It is a major structural component of animal cell plasma membranes.
 22.
Triacylglycerol is a
a.
 protein with tertiary structure.
b.
 lipid made with three fatty acids and glycerol.
c.
 lipid that makes up much of the plasma membrane.
d.
 molecule formed from three alcohols by dehydration reactions.
e.
 carbohydrate with three sugars joined together by glycosidic linkages.
 23.

What is the molecule illustrated in the figure below?

mc023-1.jpg

a.
 a saturated fatty acid
b.
 an unsaturated fatty acid
c.
 a polyunsaturated triacylglyceride
d.
 a trans polyunsaturated triacylglyceride
e.
 a steroid similar to cholesterol
 24.

The molecule shown in the figure below is a

mc024-1.jpg

a.
 polysaccharide.
b.
 polypeptide.
c.
 saturated fatty acid.
d.
 triacylglycerol.
e.
 unsaturated fatty acid.
 25.
A polypeptide can best be described as a
a.
 monomer of a protein polymer.
b.
 polymer containing 20 amino acid molecules.
c.
 polymer containing 19 peptide bonds.
d.
 polymer containing 20 peptide bonds.
e.
 polymer of amino acids.
 26.

The chemical reaction illustrated in the figure below results in the formation of a (an)

mc026-1.jpg

a.
 ionic bond.
b.
 peptide bond.
c.
 glycosidic linkage.
d.
 ester linkage.
e.
 phosphodiester linkage.
 27.
Which bonds are created during the formation of the primary structure of a protein?
a.
 peptide bonds
b.
 hydrogen bonds
c.
 disulfide bonds
d.
 phosphodiester bonds
e.
 A, B, and C
 28.
What maintains the secondary structure of a protein?
a.
 peptide bonds
b.
 hydrogen bonds
c.
 disulfide bonds
d.
 ionic bonds
e.
 phosphodiester bonds
 29.

The figure below shows the

mc029-1.jpg

a.
 1-4 linkage of the glucose monomers of starch.
b.
 1-4 linkage of the glucose monomers of cellulose.
c.
 double helical structure of a DNA molecule.
d.
 helix secondary structure of a polypeptide.
e.
 pleated sheet secondary structure of a polypeptide.
 30.
Altering which of the following levels of structural organization could change the function of a protein?
a.
 primary
b.
 secondary
c.
 tertiary
d.
 quaternary
e.
 all of the above
 31.
Which of the following descriptions best fits the class of molecules known as nucleotides?
a.
 a nitrogenous base and a phosphate group
b.
 a nitrogenous base and a pentose sugar
c.
 a nitrogenous base, a phosphate group, and a pentose sugar
d.
 a phosphate group and an adenine or uracil
e.
 a pentose sugar and a purine or pyrimidine
 32.
All of the following nitrogenous bases are found in DNA except
a.
 thymine.
b.
 adenine.
c.
 uracil.
d.
 guanine.
e.
 cytosine.
 33.
Which of the following statements best summarizes the structural differences between DNA and RNA?
a.
 RNA is a protein, whereas DNA is a nucleic acid.
b.
 DNA is a protein, whereas RNA is a nucleic acid.
c.
 DNA nucleotides contain a different sugar than RNA nucleotides.
d.
 RNA is a double helix, but DNA is single-stranded.
e.
 A and D are correct.

 
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Annelids

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Annelids

 

 

True/False
Indicate whether the sentence or statement is true or false.
1.
Different regions of an annelid’s body specialize for different functions.
2.
Some leeches have become specialized to a parasitic way of life by developing the ability to suck blood from the bodies of other organisms.
 

Multiple Choice
Identify the letter of the choice that best completes the statement or answers the question.
3.
Twisting of the visceral mass of gastropods is called
a.
extension.
c.
torsion.
b.
inversion.
d.
conversion.
4.
Among the various species of gastropods, respiration may take place
a.
with gills.
c.
with lungs.
b.
through the skin.
d.
All of the above
5.
Segmented worms are known as
a.
nematodes.
c.
planarians.
b.
annelids.
d.
arthropods.
6.
Each segment of an annelid
a.
is capable of reproduction.
b.
has a well-developed brain.
c.
has a pseudocoelom.
d.
has a complete set of digestive organs.
7.
The evolution of tremendous diversity in the phylum Annelida is due primarily to
a.
gills.
c.
cephalization.
b.
specialized reproductive organs.
d.
segmented bodies.
8.
A similarity between annelids and arthropods is that they both have
a.
exoskeletons made of chitin.
c.
segmented body patterns.
b.
the ability to fly.
d.
well-developed lungs for respiration.
9.
Segmented worms are known as
a.
nematodes.
c.
planarians.
b.
annelids.
d.
arthropods.
      annelids_files/i0120000.jpg
10.
Refer to the illustration above. Which two organisms in the diagrams have segmented body plans?
a.
Organisms “A” and “C”
c.
Organisms “A” and “D”
b.
Organisms “B” and “D”
d.
Organisms “B” and “C”
11.
Coordinated movements of an annelid’s body segments are possible because of the
a.
development of an advanced brain.
b.
ventral nerve cord and paired segmental ganglia.
c.
presence of a true coelom in the annelid body.
d.
existence of a complete digestive system.
12.
Of the four basic types of tissue, the tissue that is specialized to transmit and receive messages in the body is
a.
epithelial tissue.
c.
muscle tissue.
b.
connective tissue.
d.
nerve tissue.
13.
earthworm movement : circular muscles and setae ::
a.
earthworm digestion : circular muscles and setae
b.
earthworm digestion : sperm receptacles
c.
earthworm reproduction : pharynx
d.
earthworm respiration : skin
14.
The digestive tube of annelids is divided into three regions. Which of the following is not among these regions?
a.
crop
c.
radula
b.
intestine
d.
stomach
15.
The advantage of a closed circulatory system over an open circulatory system is that
a.
blood moves more efficiently through the tubes of a closed circulatory system.
b.
a closed circulatory system prevents blood from leaking out of the body.
c.
blood is able to be pumped by a muscular heart in a closed circulatory system.
d.
lungs are able to function in animals with a closed circulatory system.
16.
Of the following organs, the one that does not exist in annelids is the
a.
heart.
c.
nephridia.
b.
gills.
d.
stomach.
17.
The clitellum of an earthworm
a.
contains the heart.
b.
is associated with reproduction.
c.
acts as a primitive respiratory system.
d.
is necessary for movement.
18.
Earthworms are considered to be beneficial to the environment because
a.
their castings contain nutrients.
b.
they aerate the soil as they move through it.
c.
they break up the soil in which they live.
d.
All of the above
19.
The basic body plan of an annelid
a.
consists of joined legs.
c.
is a tube within a tube.
b.
is similar to a long tube.
d.
can be compared to a corkscrew.
20.
Parapodia are involved in all of the following except
a.
swimming.
c.
burrowing.
b.
gas exchange.
d.
reproduction.

 
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1st Semester 2006  Chapters 1 – 8 and  37

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1st Semester 2006  Chapters 1 – 8 and  37
 

Multiple Choice
Identify the letter of the choice that best completes the statement or answers the question.
 1.
Biology is the study of
a.
 minerals.
c.
 the weather.
b.
 life.
d.
 energy.
 2.
Instructions for traits that are passed from parents to offspring are known as
a.
 a species plan.
c.
 genes.
b.
 organ codes.
d.
 natural selections.
 3.
Homeostasis means
a.
 a change over long periods of time.
b.
 keeping things the same.
c.
 rapid change.
d.
 the same thing as evolution.
 4.
The smallest units that can carry on all the functions of life are called
a.
 molecules.
c.
 organelles.
b.
 cells.
d.
 species.
 5.
Living things
a.
 need energy for life processes.
b.
 have the ability to reproduce.
c.
 are composed of cells.
d.
 All of the above
 6.
A scientist noticed that in acidic pond water some salamanders developed with curved spines. This was a(n)
a.
 hypothesis.
c.
 observation.
b.
 theory.
d.
 control.
 7.
The smallest particle of carbon that can retain the chemical properties of carbon is
a.
 a carbon molecule.
b.
 a carbon macromolecule.
c.
 a carbon atom.
d.
 the nucleus of a carbon atom.
 8.
The electrons of an atom
a.
 are found in the nucleus along with the protons.
b.
 orbit the nucleus in various energy levels.
c.
 have a positive charge.
d.
 are attracted to the positive charge of neutrons.
 9.
Atoms that have gained energy
a.
 have protons and neutrons that move farther apart.
b.
 lose neutrons from the nucleus.
c.
 have electrons that move to higher energy levels.
d.
 absorb electrons into the nucleus.
 10.
Because carbon has four electrons in its outer energy level,
a.
 it can form bonds with carbon atoms only.
b.
 these atoms are naturally chemically stable.
c.
 it can react with up to four other atoms to form covalent bonds.
d.
 it cannot react with anything other than organic molecules.
 11.
Sharing of electrons between atoms of two or more elements
a.
 results in the formation of an ion.
b.
 results in the formation of a compound.
c.
 results in the formation of noble gases.
d.
 results in destabilization of the atoms involved.
 12.
Which of the following statements most accurately describes the difference between an ionic bond and a covalent bond?
a.
 Atoms held together by ionic bonds separate when placed in water, while atoms held together by covalent bonds do not separate in water.
b.
 Ionic bonds hold together atoms of two different types, while covalent bonds hold together atoms of the same type.
c.
 Electrons are exchanged between atoms held together by an ionic bond, but they are shared between atoms held together by a covalent bond.
d.
 Ionic bonds form between atoms that carry opposite charges, while covalent bonds form between uncharged atoms.
 13.
All organic compounds contain the element
a.
 C.
c.
 Ca.
b.
 N.
d.
 Na.
 14.
Which of the following is a carbohydrate?
a.
 DNA
c.
 wax
b.
 insulin
d.
 sucrose
 15.
Animals store glucose in the form of
a.
 cellulose.
c.
 wax.
b.
 glycogen.
d.
 lipids.
 16.
Amino acids are monomers of
a.
 disaccharides.
c.
 nucleotides.
b.
 proteins.
d.
 steroids.
 17.
mc017-1.jpg

Refer to the illustration above. Molecules like molecule 2 are found in

a.
 carbohydrates.
c.
 nucleic acids.
b.
 lipids.
d.
 proteins.
 18.
Saturated fatty acids contain
a.
 carbon atoms that are each bonded to four other atoms.
b.
 carbon atoms linked by double bonds.
c.
 no carboxyl (–COOH) groups.
d.
 more than 100 carbon atoms.
 19.
Nucleic acids include
a.
 chlorophyll and retinal.
b.
 DNA and RNA.
c.
 lipids and sugars.
d.
 glucose and glycogen.
 20.
When the volume of a cell increases, its surface area
a.
 increases at the same rate.
b.
 remains the same.
c.
 increases at a faster rate.
d.
 increases at a slower rate.
 21.
One difference between prokaryotes and eukaryotes is that
a.
 nucleic acids are found only in prokaryotes.
b.
 mitochondria are found in larger quantities in eukaryotes.
c.
 the Golgi apparatus is found only in prokaryotes.
d.
 prokaryotes have no nuclear membrane.
 22.
Only eukaryotic cells have
a.
 DNA.
c.
 ribosomes.
b.
 membrane-bound organelles.
d.
 cytoplasm.
 23.
The structure that regulates what enters and leaves the cell is called the
a.
 nucleus.
c.
 nuclear membrane.
b.
 cell wall.
d.
 plasma membrane.
 24.
A structure within a cell that performs a specific function is called a(n)
a.
 organelle.
c.
 tissue.
b.
 organ tissue.
d.
 biocenter.
 25.
The Golgi apparatus is an organelle that
a.
 receives proteins and lipids from the endoplasmic reticulum.
b.
 labels the molecules made in the endoplasmic reticulum with tags that specify their destination.
c.
 releases molecules in vesicles.
d.
 All of the above
 26.
In which of the following organelles is a cell’s ATP produced?
a.
 mitochondrion
c.
 Golgi apparatus
b.
 endoplasmic reticulum
d.
 lysosome
 27.
Proteins are made on the
a.
 mitochondria.
c.
 nucleus.
b.
 ribosomes.
d.
 plasma membrane.
nar001-1.jpg
 28.
Refer to the illustration above. Which structure immediately identifies this cell as a eukaryote?
a.
 structure 1
c.
 structure 3
b.
 structure 2
d.
 structure 4
 29.
Refer to the illustration above. Structure 1 is
a.
 the endoplasmic reticulum.
b.
 a Golgi apparatus.
c.
 a mitochondrion.
d.
 the nucleus.
 30.
The organelles associated with photosynthesis are the
a.
 mitochondria.
c.
 Golgi apparatus.
b.
 chloroplasts.
d.
 vacuoles.
 31.
Diffusion takes place
a.
 only through a lipid bilayer membrane.
b.
 from an area of low concentration to an area of high concentration.
c.
 only in liquids.
d.
 from an area of high concentration to an area of low concentration.
 32.
The process by which water passes into or out of a cell is called
a.
 solubility.
c.
 selective transport.
b.
 osmosis.
d.
 endocytosis.
 33.
mc033-1.jpg

Refer to the illustration above. The process shown is called

a.
 osmosis.
c.
 active transport.
b.
 facilitated diffusion.
d.
 diffusion.
 34.
Ridding the cell of material by discharging it from sacs at the cell surface is called
a.
 pinocytosis.
c.
 exocytosis.
b.
 phagocytosis.
d.
 endocytosis.
 35.
Placing a plant into a hypertonic environment will
a.
 cause turgor pressure to increase.
b.
 cause the plant to take in water.
c.
 have no effect.
d.
 cause turgor pressure to decrease.
 36.
Based on the cycle of photosynthesis and cellular respiration, one can say that the ultimate original source of energy for all living things on Earth is
a.
 glucose.
c.
 the sun.
b.
 water.
d.
 carbon dioxide.
 37.
Suspended in the fluid stroma of chloroplasts are
a.
 organelles called eukaryotes.
b.
 numerous mitochondrial membranes.
c.
 small coins that provide energy.
d.
 stacks of thylakoids called grana.
 38.
The role of chlorophyll in photosynthesis is to
a.
 absorb light energy.
b.
 pass electrons to carotenoids.
c.
 split water molecules.
d.
 All of the above
 39.
What happens when a chlorophyll molecule absorbs light?
a.
 Some of its electrons are raised to a higher energy level.
b.
 It disintegrates, giving off huge amounts of heat.
c.
 It glows, radiating green light and giving the plant a green appearance.
d.
 It attracts electrons from other molecules.
 40.
The source of oxygen produced during photosynthesis is
a.
 carbon dioxide.
c.
 chlorophyll.
b.
 water.
d.
 glucose.
 41.
The major atmospheric byproduct of photosynthesis is
a.
 nitrogen.
c.
 water.
b.
 carbon dioxide.
d.
 oxygen.
 42.
During photosynthesis, the series of reactions that create the complex carbohydrates needed for energy and growth is called
a.
 the Calvin cycle.
b.
 the Krebs cycle.
c.
 the light reactions.
d.
 the electron transport chain.
 43.
The process of cellular respiration
a.
 is performed only by organisms that are incapable of photosynthesis.
b.
 breaks down food molecules to release stored energy.
c.
 occurs before plants are able to carry out photosynthesis.
d.
 occurs only in animals.
 44.
When muscles are exercised extensively in the absence of sufficient oxygen,
a.
 a large amount of ATP is formed.
b.
 NADH molecules split.
c.
 lactic acid is produced.
d.
 cellular respiration ceases.
 45.
Which of the following is not part of cellular respiration?
a.
 electron transport
c.
 the Krebs cycle
b.
 glycolysis
d.
 the Calvin cycle
 46.
In order to fit within a cell, DNA becomes more compact by
a.
 breaking apart into separate genes.
b.
 extending to form very long, thin molecules.
c.
 wrapping tightly around associated proteins.
d.
 being enzymatically changed into a protein.
 47.
The diploid number of chromosomes in a human skin cell is 46. How many chromosomes are in a human egg cell?
a.
 46
c.
 23
b.
 92
d.
 12.5
 48.
Which of the following is not a characteristic of most insects?
a.
 wings
b.
 three body regions
c.
 an endoskeleton
d.
 abdomen with three pairs of legs
 49.
While insects can destroy crops grown for human consumption, they also contribute to crop production by
a.
 serving as food for many animals.
b.
 pollinating crop plants.
c.
 feeding on decaying wood.
d.
 stimulating crop plants to grow faster.
nar002-1.jpg
 50.
Refer to the illustration above. The life cycle shown is an example of
a.
 direct development.
b.
 complete metamorphosis.
c.
 seasonal development.
d.
 incomplete metamorphosis.


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Internal Anatomy of the Fetal Pig Exam

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Internal Anatomy of the Fetal Pig Exam

1. What does the letter L refer to in the figure of the internal anatomy of the fetal pig?

Answer:

 

2. In the figure of the internal anatomy of the fetal pig, what letter refer to the thyroid gland?

Answer:

 

3. In the figure of the internal anatomy of the fetal pig, what letter refer to the left lung?

Answer:

 

4. What does the letter C refer to in the figure of the internal anatomy of the fetal pig?

Answer:

5. What does the letter J refer to in the figure of the internal anatomy of the fetal pig?

Answer:

 

6. In the figure of the internal anatomy of the fetal pig, what letter refer to the urinary bladder?

Answer:

 

7. What does the letter M refer to in the figure of the internal anatomy of the fetal pig?

Answer:

 

8. What does the letter A refer to in the figure of the internal anatomy of the fetal pig?

Answer:

 

9. In the figure of the internal anatomy of the fetal pig, what letter refer to the diaphragm?

Answer:

10. What does the letter F refer to in the figure of the internal anatomy of the fetal pig?

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11. In the figure of the internal anatomy of the fetal pig, what letter refer to the liver?

Answer:

 

12. In the figure of the internal anatomy of the fetal pig, what letter refer to the right common carotid artery?

Answer:

 

13. What does the letter N refer to in the figure of the internal anatomy of the fetal pig?

Answer:

 

14. What does the letter G refer to in the figure of the internal anatomy of the fetal pig?

Answer:

15. What does the letter E refer to in the figure of the internal anatomy of the fetal pig?

Answer:

 

16. In the figure of the internal anatomy of the fetal pig, what letter refer to the small intestine?

Answer:

 

17. In the figure of the internal anatomy of the fetal pig, what letter refer to the heart?

Answer:

 

18. In the figure of the internal anatomy of the fetal pig, what letter refer to the umbilical vein?

Answer:

 

19. What does the letter B refer to in the figure of the internal anatomy of the fetal pig?

Answer:

20. In the figure of the internal anatomy of the fetal pig, what letter refer to the larynx?

Answer:

 

21. What does the letter K refer to in the figure of the internal anatomy of the fetal pig?

Answer:

 

22. In the figure of the internal anatomy of the fetal pig, what letter refer to the left common carotid artery?

Answer:

 

23. In the figure of the internal anatomy of the fetal pig, what letter refer to the umbilical arteries?

Answer:

 

24. In the figure of the internal anatomy of the fetal pig, what letter refer to the large intestine?

Answer:

25. What does the letter H refer to in the figure of the internal anatomy of the fetal pig?

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26. What does the letter I refer to in the figure of the internal anatomy of the fetal pig?

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27. What does the letter D refer to in the figure of the internal anatomy of the fetal pig?

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28. In the figure of the internal anatomy of the fetal pig, what letter refer to the right lung?

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Amphibian Study Guides

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Amphibian Quiz

 

 

Multiple Choice
Identify the choice that best completes the statement or answers the question.
 1.
The word amphibian is derived from Greek words meaning
a.
 “fishlike.”
c.
 “double life.”
b.
 “froglike.”
d.
 “first lunged.”
 2.
Which of the following is not evidence that amphibians evolved from a lobe-finned fish?
a.
 The limb bones of amphibians are similar in shape and position to those of lobe-finned fishes.
b.
 Amphibians’ limb bones are used to support the body.
c.
 Amphibians are still alive, while lobe-finned fishes are extinct.
d.
 Both amphibians and lobe-finned fishes have a skull and a vertebral column.
 3.
The earliest known land vertebrates
a.
 were salamanders.
b.
 were amphibians.
c.
 lacked bones in their legs.
d.
 were now-extinct reptiles.
 4.
In amphibians, gases are exchanged through the gills, lungs, and
a.
 heart.
c.
 lateral line system.
b.
 air bladder.
d.
 skin.
 5.
Toads, like frogs,
a.
 cannot live in moist areas.
b.
 generally return to the water to reproduce.
c.
 have long tails as adults.
d.
 belong to the order Caudata.
 6.
Amphibians without tails are classified in the order
a.
 Apoda.
c.
 Caudata.
b.
 Anura.
d.
 Hydrodela.
 7.
Newts and salamanders are amphibians of the order
a.
 Apoda.
c.
 Caudata.
b.
 Anura.
d.
 Gymnophiona.
 8.
Amphibians have thin, moist skin
a.
 to allow easier gas exchange.
b.
 because thin, moist skin cannot be eaten by a predator.
c.
 so that they can slip easily into tight places.
d.
 to resist water loss.
 9.
Some type of strong skeletal support
a.
 exists in all animals, whether they are aquatic or terrestrial.
b.
 is necessary for animals to live outside aquatic environments.
c.
 is present primarily in aquatic vertebrates.
d.
 evolved first in reptiles.
 10.
Which of the following characteristics of the skeletons of frogs are adaptations for jumping?
a.
 forelimbs attached to a pectoral girdle and hind limbs attached to a pelvic girdle
b.
 fusion of bones of the lower limbs and of part of the vertebral column
c.
 cervical vertebrae
d.
 many separate, distinct vertebrae
 11.
All terrestrial vertebrates
a.
 must stay near water in order to reproduce.
b.
 have thin, moist skin for gas exchange.
c.
 have tracheal systems for delivering oxygen to cells.
d.
 have a double-loop circulatory system.
 12.
Which of the following is not a preadaptation in the transition from aquatic to terrestrial life?
a.
 bone structure in the fins that worked like legs
b.
 modified pouches in the digestive tract, which evolved into swim bladders
c.
 internal nostrils
d.
 a lateral line system
 13.
The amount of oxygen a lung can absorb depends primarily on
a.
 its thickness.
b.
 its position in the body of an animal.
c.
 its internal surface area.
d.
 the diameter of the bronchioles in the lung.
 14.
Adult frogs, like other amphibians, are
a.
 herbivores.
c.
 parasites.
b.
 omnivores.
d.
 carnivores.
 15.
Male frogs attract females by means of
a.
 vocalizations.
c.
 pheromones.
b.
 the amplexus.
d.
 metamorphosis.
 16.
Which of the following senses is not more developed in amphibians than in bony fishes?
a.
 lateral line system
c.
 smell
b.
 vision
d.
 hearing
 17.
Frogs reproduce in water or moist places because their eggs
a.
 are fertilized externally.
b.
 have a jelly-like coating that is permeable to water.
c.
 will dry out if removed from moisture.
d.
 All of the above
 18.
The series of changes in the life cycle of a frog is called
a.
 amniocentesis.
c.
 evolution.
b.
 metamorphosis.
d.
 synapsis.
 19.
During metamorphosis in frogs,
a.
 lungs replace gills.
b.
 limbs develop.
c.
 the tail disappears.
d.
 All of the above
 20.
Which of the following is not a method used by at least some frogs for caring for fertilized eggs as they develop?
a.
 gastric brooding
b.
 keeping eggs in vocal sacs
c.
 sitting on eggs
d.
 laying eggs on land
 

Completion
Complete each statement.
 21.
Amphibians differ from lobe-finned fishes and most other fishes in that they take in oxygen through their ____________________ and skin.
 22.
Salamanders and ____________________ are amphibians with a distinct head, tail, and limbs.
 23.
Frogs and toads are amphibians of the order ____________________.
 24.
Amphibians supplement the use of their lungs by respiring directly through their skin. This “skin breathing” is called ____________________ respiration.
 25.
Amphibians achieve more efficient circulation than fishes because of their ____________________ circulatory system.
 26.
In amphibians, the blood vessels that go from the lungs to the heart are called the ____________________ veins.
 27.
Young frogs respire using ____________________, while adult frogs respire using ____________________ and skin.
 28.
The tympanic membrane is another word for the ____________________.
 29.
The process of change that transforms a tadpole into an adult frog is called ____________________.
 30.
The male Darwin’s frog (Rhinoderma darwinii) protects maturing eggs by enclosing them in its ____________________ sacs, while a female gastric-brooding frog protects its eggs by keeping them in its ____________________.

 
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