Category: 1st Semester

Quiz Cell Reproduction

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Cell Reproduction

 

 

True/False
Indicate whether the sentence or statement is true or false.
1.
The information needed by a cell to direct its activities and to determine its characteristics is contained in molecules of deoxyribonucleic acid (DNA).
2.
Gametes are diploid so that when fertilization occurs, the resulting zygote will have the characteristic number of chromosomes for that species.
3.
A karyotype is a type of gene.
4.
Cell division in bacteria and eukaryotes takes place in precisely the same manner.
5.
Cells spend most of their lifetime in interphase.
6.
After the replication of a cell’s chromatids, there are twice as many centromeres as there are chromosomes.
7.
Asexual reproduction occurs by mitosis.
8.
During telophase, a nuclear envelope surrounds each new set of chromosomes.
9.
Chromatids separate from each other during telophase.
10.
After mitosis and cytokinesis, each new cell has a complete set of the original cell’s  chromosomes.
 

Completion
Complete each sentence or statement.
11.
Following replication of its DNA, each chromosome contains two ____________________, which are attached to each other by a centromere.
12.
Chromosomes that are not involved in sex determination are called ____________________.
13.
A picture of a cell’s chromosomes is called a ____________________.
14.
The sequence of events that occurs in a cell from one mitotic division to the next is called the ____________________.
15.
“Cables” made of microtubules that extend from the poles of a cell to the centromeres during cell division are called ____________________.
16.
In mitosis, anaphase follows ____________________.
17.
The stage of meiosis during which homologues line up along the equator of the cell is called ____________________.
18.
The process called ____________________ guarantees that the number of chromosomes in gametes is half the number of chromosomes in body cells.
19.
A reciprocal exchange of corresponding segments of DNA is called ____________________.
20.
As a result of spermatogenesis, ____________________ cells are produced that can all develop into sperm cells. As a result of oogenesis, only ____________________ cell(s) develop(s) into (an) egg cell(s).

 
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Quiz Genetics

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Genetics

 

 

True/False
Indicate whether the sentence or statement is true or false.
1.
Genetics is the branch of biology that involves the study of how different traits are transmitted from one generation to the next.
2.
Mendel discovered predictable patterns in the inheritance of traits.
3.
The scientific study of heredity is called genetics.
4.
In Mendel’s experiments with the flower color of pea plants, only the parental generation produced white flowers.
5.
Mendel concluded that the patterns of inheritance are determined entirely by the environment.
6.
The law of independent assortment was proposed by Mendel to explain his observations of inheritance patterns.
7.
Genes on chromosomes are the units of inheritance.
8.
The allele for a recessive trait is usually represented by a capital letter.
9.
Heterozygous individuals have two of the same alleles for a particular gene.
10.
A probability of 1/4 is equal to a probability of 75 percent.
11.
The dominant allele for tallness in pea plants is represented by the letter t.
12.
In codominance, two alleles are expressed at the same time.
13.
All genes have only two alleles.
14.
A dihybrid cross involves two pairs of contrasting traits.
15.
Crosses involving a study of one gene are called monohybrid crosses.
 

Completion
Complete each sentence or statement.
16.
A reproductive process in which fertilization occurs within a single plant is ____________________.
17.
Mendel produced strains of pea plants through the process of ____________________.
18.
____________________ refers to the transmission of traits from parent to offspring in sexually reproducing organisms.
19.
In heterozygous individuals, only the ____________________ allele achieves expression.
20.
A trait that is not expressed in the F1 generation resulting from the crossbreeding of two genetically different, true-breeding organisms is called ____________________.
21.
The principle that states that one factor may mask the effect of another factor is the principle of ____________________.
22.
In Mendel’s experiments, a trait that disappeared in the F1 generation but reappeared in the F2 generation was always a ____________________.
23.
The cellular process that results in the segregation of Mendel’s factors is ____________________.
24.
Mendel formulated two principles known as the laws of ____________________.
25.
An organism that has two identical alleles for a trait is called ____________________.
26.
An organism’s ____________________ refers to the set of alleles it has inherited.
27.
The likelihood that a specific event will occur is called ____________________.
In pea plants, tallness (T) is dominant to shortness (t). Crosses between plants with these traits can be analyzed using a Punnett square similar to the one shown below.
T
t
T
1
2
t
3
4
28.
Refer to the illustration above. The parents shown in the Punnett square could have offspring with a genotype ratio of ____________________.
29.
Refer to the illustration above. The phenotype of the plant that would be represented in box “4” of the Punnett square would be ____________________.
30.
A cross involving two pairs of contrasting traits is a(n) ____________________ cross.

 
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Quiz Protein Synthesis

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Protein Synthesis

 

 

Completion
Complete each sentence or statement.
1.
In eukaryotes, gene expression is related to the coiling and uncoiling of ____________________.
2.
A DNA subunit composed of a phosphate group, a five-carbon sugar, and a nitrogen-containing base is called a(n) ____________________.
3.
The name of the five-carbon sugar that makes up a part of the backbone of molecules of DNA is ____________________.
4.
Knowing the order of the bases in a gene permits scientists to determine the exact order of the amino acids in the expressed ____________________.
5.
Due to the strict pairing of nitrogen base pairs in DNA molecules, the two strands are said to be ____________________ to each other.
6.
According to base-pairing rules, adenine pairs with ____________________ and guanine pairs with ____________________.
7.
The enzyme that is responsible for replicating molecules of DNA by attaching complementary bases in the correct sequence is ____________________.
8.
Enzymes called ____________________ are responsible for unwinding the DNA double helix by breaking the hydrogen bonds that hold the complementary strands together.
9.
The process by which DNA copies itself is called ____________________.
10.
Molecules of ____________________ carry instructions for protein synthesis from the nucleus to the cytoplasm.
11.
The nitrogen-containing base that is found only in RNA is ____________________.
12.
The enzyme responsible for making RNA is called ____________________.
13.
The form of ribonucleic acid that carries genetic information from the DNA to the ribosomes is ____________________.
14.
A ____________________ is a sequence of DNA at the beginning of a gene that signals RNA polymerase to begin transcription.
15.
Messenger RNA is produced during the process of ____________________.
16.
Of the 64 codons of mRNA, 61 code for ____________________, 3 are ____________________ signals, and one is a ____________________ signal.
17.
Nucleotide sequences of tRNA that are complementary to codons on mRNA are called ____________________.
18.
The sequence of three nucleotides that code for specific amino acids or stop signals in the synthesis of protein is called a(n) ____________________.
19.
The information contained in a molecule of messenger RNA is used to make protein during the process of ____________________.
20.
During translation, amino acids are brought to the ribosomes by molecules of ____________________.

 
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PCC Biochemistry 2011

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PCC Biochemistry 2011
 

Multiple Choice
Identify the choice that best completes the statement or answers the question.
 1.
The three particles that make up atoms are
a.
 protons, neutrons, and isotopes.
c.
 positives, negatives, and electrons.
b.
 neutrons, isotopes, and electrons.
d.
 protons, neutrons, and electrons.
 2.
The space surrounding the nucleus of an atom contains
a.
 protons.
c.
 neutrons.
b.
 electrons.
d.
 ions.
 3.
Democritus believed that atoms
a.
 were composed of electrons.
c.
 could be divided.
b.
 were composed of protons.
d.
 could not be divided.
 4.
If an atom contains 3 protons, 4 neutrons,  and 3 electrons, its mass number would be
a.
 3.
c.
 7.
b.
 4.
d.
 11.
 5.
If a chlorine atom had 17 protons and 18 neutrons, it would be called
a.
 chlorine-17.
c.
 chlorine-35.
b.
 chlorine-18.
d.
 chlorine-1.
 6.
Isotopes are atoms of the same element with the same number of protons and
a.
 a different number of electrons.
c.
 a different number of neutrons.
b.
 a different number of molecules.
d.
 the same number of neutrons.
 7.
Which of the following is a use of radioactive isotopes?
a.
 can determine the ages of rocks and fossils
b.
 can be used to treat cancer and kill bacteria that cause food to spoil
c.
 can be used as “tracers” to follow the movements of substances within organisms
d.
 all of the above
 8.
If an atom contains 11 protons and 12 neutrons, its atomic number is
a.
 1.
c.
 12.
b.
 11.
d.
 23.
 9.
Which of the following terms describes a substance formed by the combination of two or more elements in definite proportions?
a.
 compound
c.
 nucleus
b.
 isotope
d.
 enzyme
 10.
Which of the following makes up a molecule of water?
a.
 one atom of hydrogen and one atom of oxygen
b.
 one atom of sodium and one atom of chlorine
c.
 one atom of hydrogen and two atoms of oxygen
d.
 two atoms of hydrogen and one atom of oxygen
 11.
Which of the following is NOT true about chlorine?
a.
 It is a poisonous, greenish gas.
b.
 It combines with sodium to form table salt.
c.
 It was used to kill many soldiers in World War I.
d.
 It is not reactive.
 12.
Which of the following statements about a compound is true?
a.
 The physical and chemical properties of a compound are usually very different from those of the elements from which it is formed.
b.
 Only the physical properties of a compound are usually the same as those of the elements from which it is formed.
c.
 Only the chemical properties of a compound are usually the same as those of the elements from which it is formed.
d.
 The physical and chemical properties of a compound are usually the same as those of the elements from which it is formed.
 13.
A covalent bond is formed as the result of
a.
 transferring electrons.
c.
 transferring protons.
b.
 sharing an electron pair.
d.
 sharing a proton pair.
 14.
Which term does NOT apply to sodium chloride?
a.
 molecule
c.
 compound
b.
 ionic bonding
d.
 crystal
 15.
What type of electron is available to form bonds?
a.
 valence
c.
 ionic
b.
 nucleus
d.
 covalent
 16.
What type of ion forms when an atom loses electrons?
a.
 neutral
c.
 negative
b.
 positive
d.
 possibly positive or negative
 17.
Ice floats on water because
a.
 of cohesion.
c.
 water shrinks when it freezes.
b.
 ice has a higher density than water.
d.
 water expands when it freezes.
 18.
The most abundant compound in most living things is
a.
 carbon dioxide.
c.
 sodium chloride.
b.
 water.
d.
 sugar.
 19.
Water molecules are polar, with the
a.
 oxygen side being slightly positive and the hydrogen side being slightly negative.
b.
 oxygen and hydrogen sides being slightly positive.
c.
 oxygen and hydrogen sides being slightly negative.
d.
 oxygen side being slightly negative and the hydrogen side being slightly positive.
 20.
In a water molecule, shared electrons spend more time around the oxygen atom than the hydrogen atoms.  As a result, the oxygen atom is
a.
 slightly negative.
c.
 slightly positive.
b.
 very negative.
d.
 very positive.
 21.
A solution is a(an)
a.
 combination of isotopes.
b.
 chemical reaction.
c.
 evenly distributed mixture of two or more substances.
d.
 combination of two or more liquids.
 22.
If you stir salt into boiling water, you produce a
a.
 mixture called a suspension.
c.
 solution and suspension.
b.
 mixture called a solution.
d.
 mixture only.
 23.
When salt is dissolved in water, water is the
a.
 reactant.
c.
 solute.
b.
 solution.
d.
 solvent.
 24.
While preparing a cell culture, a scientist places a colony of bacteria into distilled water and stirs it up.  This mixture of water and living cells would best be called a(an)
a.
 solution.
b.
 suspension.
c.
 buffer.
d.
 adhesion.
 25.
If the pH of stomach acid and of oven cleaner were measured,
a.
 both would be below 7.
b.
 both would be above 7.
c.
 the pH of stomach acid would be above 7, but the pH of oven cleaner would be below 7.
d.
 the pH of stomach acid would be below 7, but the pH of oven cleaner would be above 7.
 26.
A map of eastern North America, showing the pH of rainfall in the various states, indicates that the pH of rain in New York State varies from 4.22 to 4.40. According to these figures, the most acidic rainfall in New York State has a pH of
a.
 4.22.
c.
 4.35.
b.
 4.30.
d.
 4.40.
 27.
A substance with a pH of 6 is called
a.
 an acid.
c.
 both an acid and a base.
b.
 a base.
d.
 neither an acid nor a base.
 28.
Solutions that contain concentrations of H+ ions lower than pure water
a.
 have pH values below 7.
c.
 are bases.
b.
 are acids.
d.
 are enzymes.
 29.
Amino acid is to protein as
a.
 fat is to lipid.
c.
 sugar is to fat.
b.
 DNA is to RNA.
d.
 simple sugar is to starch.
 30.
A monosaccharide is a
a.
 carbohydrate.
c.
 nucleic acid.
b.
 lipid.
d.
 protein.
 31.
Which of the following is NOT a monomer?
a.
 a glucose molecule
c.
 a nucleotide
b.
 an amino acid
d.
 a protein
 32.
Which of the following is NOT a function of proteins?
a.
 store and transmit genetic information
b.
 help to fight disease
c.
 control the rate of reactions and regulate cell processes
d.
 build tissues such as bone and muscle
 33.
Which statement is true?
a.
 Simple sugars are made of polysaccharides.
b.
 Glycerol is made of fatty acids.
c.
 RNA molecules are made of nucleotides.
d.
 Amino acids are made of proteins.
 34.
In chemical reactions, atoms are
a.
 created.
c.
 rearranged.
b.
 destroyed.
d.
 neutralized.
 35.
When hydrogen and oxygen combine to form water, water is
a.
 a product.
c.
 both a product and a reactant.
b.
 a reactant.
d.
 neither a product nor a reactant.
 36.
Identify the reactant(s) in the chemical reaction, CO2 + H2O ® H2CO3.
a.
 CO2, H2O, and H2CO3
c.
 H2CO3
b.
 CO2 and H2O
d.
 CO2
 37.
What is the process that changes one set of chemicals into another set of chemicals?
a.
 cohesion
c.
 chemical reaction
b.
 adhesion
d.
 dissolving
 38.
What is the term used to describe the energy needed to get a reaction started?
a.
 adhesion energy
c.
 cohesion energy
b.
 activation energy
d.
 chemical energy
 39.
Chemical reactions that release energy
a.
 will not occur.
c.
 will always explode.
b.
 will never explode.
d.
 often occur spontaneously.
 40.
If a reaction in one direction releases energy, the reaction in the opposite direction
a.
 also releases energy.
c.
 destroys energy.
b.
 absorbs energy.
d.
 cannot occur.
 41.
Which of the following is a form of energy that may be released during a chemical reaction?
a.
 heat
c.
 light
b.
 sound
d.
 all of the above
 42.
Which of the following statements about enzymes is NOT true?
a.
 Enzymes work best at a specified pH.
b.
 All enzymes have the same shape as their substrates.
c.
 Enzymes are proteins.
d.
 The shape of an enzyme allows it to do its job.
 43.
Which of the following statements is true about catalysts?
a.
 Catalysts slow down the rate of chemical reactions.
b.
 All catalysts are enzymes.
c.
 Catalysts are used up during a chemical reaction.
d.
 Catalysts lower the activation energy of a chemical reaction.
 44.
A substance that accelerates the rate of a chemical reaction is called a(an)
a.
 catalyst.
c.
 molecule.
b.
 lipid.
d.
 element.
 45.
Enzymes affect the reactions in living cells by changing the
a.
 products of the reaction.
c.
 temperature of the reaction.
b.
 speed of the reaction.
d.
 pH of the reaction.
 

Short Answer
 46.
Why are atoms considered neutral?
 47.
What is a molecule?
 

Other

USING SCIENCE SKILLS

 

pH Values of Some Common Substances
Substance pH
Hydrochloric acid
1.0
Sulfuric acid
1.2
Tomatoes
4.2
Rainwater
6.2
Pure water
7.0
Sea water
8.5
Ammonium chloride
11.1
Sodium hydroxide
13.0

Figure 2–2
 48.
Applying Concepts What is the strongest acid listed in Figure 2–2?
 49.
Applying Concepts What is the pH of the strongest base listed in Figure 2–2?
 50.
Applying Concepts Using your knowledge of the pH scale, which of the chemicals in Figure 2-2 has the lowest concentration of H+ ions?

 
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Genetics

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Genetics
 

Modified True/False
Indicate whether the statement is true or false.  If false, change the identified word or phrase to make the statement true.
 1.
Mendel discovered predictable patterns in the inheritance of traits. _________________________
 2.
Garden peas are difficult to grow because they mature slowly. _________________________
 3.
When Mendel cross-pollinated two varieties from the P generation that exhibited contrasting traits, he called the offspring the second filial, or F2, generation. _________________________
 4.
The contrasting forms of each character studied by Mendel appeared in a 3:1 ratio in the F2 generation. _________________________
 5.
A dominant allele masks the effect of a recessive allele. _________________________
 6.
The allele for a recessive trait is usually represented by a capital letter. _________________________
 7.
Heterozygous individuals have two of the same alleles for a particular gene. _________________________
 8.
The inheritance of sex-linked traits can be studied by making a pedigree of several generations of a family. _________________________
nar001-1.jpg
 9.
Refer to the illustration above. The father listed in the pedigree is most likely heterozygous for the trait. _________________________
 10.
Refer to the illustration above. Child #3 probably has the dominant phenotype. _________________________
 11.
Albinism is caused by a recessive allele. _________________________
 12.
The phenotype that results from an inherited pair of alleles depends on the instructions in the genes only. _________________________
 13.
Traits for different characters that are usually inherited together are said to be combined. _________________________
 

Multiple Choice
Identify the choice that best completes the statement or answers the question.
 14.
The passing of traits from parents to offspring is called
a.
 genetics.
c.
 development.
b.
 heredity.
d.
 maturation.
 15.
The difference between Mendel’s experiments in the area of heredity and those done by earlier researchers was that
a.
 earlier researchers did not have microscopes.
b.
 earlier researchers used detailed and numerical procedures.
c.
 Mendel expressed the results of his experiments in terms of numbers.
d.
 Mendel used pea plants with both purple and white flowers.
 16.
The scientific study of heredity is called
a.
 meiosis.
c.
 genetics.
b.
 crossing-over.
d.
 pollination.
 17.
The “father” of genetics was
a.
 A. Knight.
c.
 Gregor Mendel.
b.
 Hans Krebs.
d.
 Charles Darwin.
 18.
Garden peas are good subjects for studying heredity because they
a.
 are difficult to grow.
c.
 produce few offspring.
b.
 mature quickly.
d.
 have few traits.
 19.
Mendel obtained his P generation by allowing the plants to
a.
 self-pollinate.
c.
 assort independently.
b.
 cross-pollinate.
d.
 segregate.
 20.
Step 1 of Mendel’s garden pea experiment, allowing each variety of garden pea to self-pollinate for several generations, produced the
a.
 F1 generation.
c.
 P generation.
b.
 F2 generation.
d.
 P1 generation.
 21.
F2 : F1 ::
a.
 P : F1
c.
 F1 : P
b.
 F1 : F2
d.
 P : F2
 22.
An allele that is always expressed whenever it is present is called
a.
 dominant.
c.
 recessive.
b.
 phenotypic.
d.
 superior.
 23.
The discovery of chromosomes provided a link between the first law of heredity that stemmed from Mendel’s work and
a.
 pollination.
c.
 mitosis.
b.
 inheritance.
d.
 meiosis.
 24.
The law of segregation states that
a.
 alleles of a gene separate from each other during meiosis.
b.
 different alleles of a gene can never be found in the same organism.
c.
 each gene of an organism ends up in a different gamete.
d.
 each gene is found on a different molecule of DNA.
 25.
Mendel’s law of segregation states that
a.
 pairs of alleles are dependent on one another when separation occurs during gamete formation.
b.
 pairs of alleles separate independently of one another after gamete formation.
c.
 each pair of alleles remains together when gametes are formed.
d.
 the two alleles for a trait segregate independently when gametes are formed.
 26.
The phenotype of an organism
a.
 is used to represent its genetic composition.
b.
 is the physical appearance of a trait.
c.
 occurs only in dominant individuals.
d.
 cannot be seen.
 27.
If an individual possesses two recessive alleles for the same trait, the individual is said to be
a.
 homozygous for the trait.
c.
 heterozygous for the trait.
b.
 haploid for the trait.
d.
 mutated.
 28.
When an individual heterozygous for a trait is crossed with an individual homozygous recessive for the trait, the offspring produced will
a.
 all have the same genotype.
b.
 show two different phenotypes.
c.
 show three different phenotypes.
d.
 all have the same phenotype.
 29.
Tallness (T) is dominant to shortness (t) in pea plants. Which of the following represents a genotype of a pea plant that is heterozygous for tallness?
a.
 T
c.
 Tt
b.
 TT
d.
 tt
 30.
homozygous : heterozygous ::
a.
 heterozygous : Bb
c.
 probability : chance
b.
 gg : Gg
d.
 factor : gene
 31.
Mendel’s finding that the inheritance of one trait had no effect on the inheritance of another became known as the
a.
 law of dominance.
b.
 law of universal inheritance.
c.
 law of separate convenience.
d.
 law of independent assortment.

In humans, having freckles (F) is dominant to not having freckles (f). The inheritance of these traits can be studied using a Punnett square similar to the one shown below.

nar002-1.jpg
 32.
Refer to the illustration above. The child represented in box 1 in the Punnett square would
a.
 be homozygous for freckles.
b.
 have an extra freckles chromosome.
c.
 be heterozygous for freckles.
d.
 not have freckles.
 33.
Refer to the illustration above. The parents shown in the Punnett square could have children with a phenotype ratio of
a.
 1:2:1.
c.
 3:1.
b.
 4:0.
d.
 2:2.
 34.
Refer to the illustration above. Which box in the Punnett square represents a child who does not have freckles?
a.
 box 1
c.
 box 3
b.
 box 2
d.
 box 4
 35.
Refer to the illustration above. The child in box 3 of the Punnett square has the genotype
a.
 FF.
c.
 ff.
b.
 Ff.
d.
 FfFf.

In rabbits, black fur (B) is dominant to brown fur (b). Consider the following cross between two rabbits.

nar003-1.jpg
 36.
Refer to the illustration above. The device shown, which is used to determine the probable outcome of genetic crosses, is called a
a.
 Mendelian box.
c.
 genetic graph.
b.
 Punnett square.
d.
 phenotypic paradox.
 37.
Refer to the illustration above. Both of the parents in the cross are
a.
 black.
c.
 homozygous dominant.
b.
 brown.
d.
 homozygous recessive.
 38.
Refer to the illustration above. The phenotype of the offspring indicated by box 3 would be
a.
 brown.
c.
 a mixture of brown and black.
b.
 black.
d.
 white.
 39.
Refer to the illustration above. The genotypic ratio of the F1 generation would be
a.
 1:1.
c.
 1:3.
b.
 3:1.
d.
 1:2:1.
 40.
What is the expected genotypic ratio resulting from a homozygous dominant ´ heterozygous monohybrid cross?
a.
 1:0
c.
 1:2:1
b.
 1:1
d.
 1:3:1
 41.
What is the expected genotypic ratio resulting from a heterozygous ´ heterozygous monohybrid cross?
a.
 1:2:1
c.
 1:2
b.
 1:3:1
d.
 1:0
 42.
What is the expected phenotypic ratio resulting from a homozygous dominant ´ heterozygous monohybrid cross?
a.
 1:3:1
c.
 2:1
b.
 1:2:1
d.
 1:0
 43.
The unknown genotype of an individual with a dominant phenotype can be determined using a
a.
 ratio.
c.
 probability formula.
b.
 dihybrid cross.
d.
 test cross.
 44.
What is the probability that the offspring of a homozygous dominant individual and a homozygous recessive individual will exhibit the dominant phenotype?
a.
 0.25
c.
 0.66
b.
 0.5
d.
 1.0
 45.
Probability is calculated by dividing the number of one kind of possible outcome by the
a.
 number of other kinds of outcomes.
b.
 total number of all possible outcomes.
c.
 number of genes being considered.
d.
 total number of offspring produced.
 46.
If a characteristic is sex-linked, the gene for it is found on
a.
 a sex chromosome.
c.
 a linked chromosome.
b.
 an autosome.
d.
 an allele.
 47.
Since the allele for colorblindness is located on the X chromosome, colorblindness
a.
 cannot be inherited.
c.
 is sex-linked.
b.
 occurs only in adults.
d.
 occurs only in females.
 48.
A diagram in which several generations of a family and the occurrence of certain genetic characteristics are shown is called a
a.
 Punnett square.
c.
 pedigree.
b.
 monohybrid cross.
d.
 family karyotype.
 49.
In humans, eye color and height are controlled by
a.
 simple dominance.
c.
 polygenic inheritance.
b.
 multiple alleles.
d.
 incomplete dominance.
 50.
Which of the following traits is controlled by multiple alleles in humans?
a.
 eye color
c.
 colorblindness
b.
 blood type
d.
 albinism
 51.
What would be the blood type of a person who inherited an A allele from one parent and an O allele from the other?
a.
 type A
c.
 type AB
b.
 type B
d.
 type O
 52.
Which of the following is not an outcome of the environment modifying a phenotype?
a.
 the changing of the color of an animal’s fur as the temperature changes
b.
 the increased intelligence of a person who attended school for many years
c.
 the very short stature of a kind of tree that grows at a high altitude in comparison with the same kind of tree growing at a lower altitude
d.
 the pink-flowered snapdragons that result from crosses between red-flowered and white-flowered snapdragon plants
 53.
Genes that are close together on a single chromosome are considered to be
a.
 alleles.
c.
 independent.
b.
 homozygous.
d.
 linked.

 
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