Category: 1st Semester

Chapter 3 Biochemistry Studyguide

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Chapter 3 Biochemistry Study Guide

 

 

Modified True/False
Indicate whether the statement is true or false.  If false, change the identified word or phrase to make the statement true.
 1.
Atoms have a positive charge. _________________________
 2.
Electrons have very little mass. _________________________
 3.
Molecules are atoms that have gained or lost one or more electrons. _________________________
 4.
An atom with more electrons than protons has a positive charge. _________________________
 5.
A covalent bond forms between two atoms that share electrons to form a molecule. _________________________
 6.
Water molecules attract nonpolar molecules such as oil. _________________________
 7.
The ability of water to retain heat helps cells maintain a constant internal temperature. _________________________
 8.
The role of carbohydrates in cells is to supply energy. _________________________
 9.
RNA is made up of a double strand of nucleotides. _________________________
 10.
When cells break down food, the energy from the food is temporarily stored as ATP. _________________________
 11.
The amount of energy needed to cause a chemical reaction to start is called activation energy. _________________________
 12.
Without enzymes, chemical reactions necessary for life would not occur quickly or easily enough to sustain life. _________________________
 13.
When an enzyme binds with its substrate, the activation energy needed for the chemical reaction to occur is increased. _________________________
 

Multiple Choice
Identify the choice that best completes the statement or answers the question.
 14.
Atoms are not composed of
a.
 protons.
c.
 electrons.
b.
 neutrons.
d.
 chemical bonds
 15.
The electrons of an atom
a.
 are found in the nucleus along with the protons.
b.
 occupy the space surrounding the nucleus.
c.
 have a positive charge.
d.
 are attached to the positive charge of neutrons.
 16.
The smallest particle of matter that can retain the chemical properties of carbon is a carbon
a.
 molecule.
c.
 atom.
b.
 macromolecule.
d.
 element.
 17.
A substance that is composed of only one type of atom is called a(n)
a.
 compound.
c.
 element.
b.
 cell.
d.
 molecule.
 18.
All matter is composed of
a.
 cells.
c.
 atoms.
b.
 molecules.
d.
 carbon.
 19.
Covalent bonds form when
a.
 two molecules of water share electrons.
b.
 a molecule of water becomes an ion.
c.
 two hydrogen atoms share electrons with one oxygen atom.
d.
 two hydronium ions are attracted to each other.
 20.
Ionic bonds form between particles that have
a.
 opposite charges.
c.
 no charges.
b.
 the same charge.
d.
 neutral charges.
 21.
The bond formed when two atoms share a pair of electrons is called a(n)
a.
 hydrogen bond.
c.
 covalent bond.
b.
 ionic bond.
d.
 water bond.
 22.
Sharing of electrons in the outer energy levels of two atoms
a.
 results in ion formation.
b.
 makes both atoms stable.
c.
 only occurs if both are atoms of the same element.
d.
 is found only among carbon atoms.
 23.
A molecule that has a partial positive charge on one side and a partial negative charge on the other side is called a(n)
a.
 nonpolar molecule.
c.
 charged molecule.
b.
 polar molecule.
d.
 ion.
 24.
Nonpolar molecules have
a.
 no negative or positive ends.
c.
 only a negative end.
b.
 both negative and positive ends.
d.
 only a positive end.
 25.
When placed in the same container, oil and water do not mix because
a.
 they are both polar.
c.
 they are both nonpolar.
b.
 water is polar and oil is nonpolar.
d.
 water is nonpolar and oil is polar.
 26.
Attractions between water molecules are called
a.
 covalent bonds.
c.
 polar bonds.
b.
 ionic bonds.
d.
 hydrogen bonds.
 27.
Water is a polar molecule because
a.
 it contains two hydrogen atoms for each oxygen atom.
b.
 it has a charge.
c.
 different parts of the molecule have slightly different charges.
d.
 it does not have a charge.
 28.
Which is not a unique property of water?
a.
 Frozen water floats.
b.
 Water retains a large amount of heat.
c.
 Water molecules stick to each other.
d.
 Water cools rapidly.
 29.
Acidic solutions have a pH that is
a.
 less than 7.
c.
 a negative number.
b.
 between 7 and 14.
d.
 more than 7.
 30.
Hydronium ions, H+, react with hydroxide ions, OH-, to form
a.
 water.
c.
 a base.
b.
 an acid.
d.
 a buffer.
 31.
Which of the following is not a large biomolecule?
a.
 carbohydrate
c.
 lipid
b.
 ice
d.
 nucleic acid
 32.
The building blocks of most biomolecules contain the element
a.
 carbon.
c.
 calcium.
b.
 nitrogen.
d.
 sodium.
 33.
Which of the following molecules are classified as carbohydrates?
a.
 amino acids
c.
 nucleotides
b.
 fats
d.
 sugars
 34.
Polysaccharides are
a.
 carbohydrates.
c.
 proteins.
b.
 lipids.
d.
 nucleic acids.
nar001-1.jpg
nar001-2.jpg
Molecule A
Molecule B
 35.
Refer to the illustration above. Molecule A is a
a.
 carbohydrate.
c.
 nucleic acid.
b.
 lipid.
d.
 protein.
 36.
Plants store glucose in the form of
a.
 starch.
c.
 cellulose.
b.
 glycogen.
d.
 chitin.
 37.
Which of the following is a carbohydrate?
a.
 ATP
c.
 wax
b.
 steroid
d.
 sucrose
 38.
Lipids are
a.
 soluble in water.
b.
 made of chains of amino acids.
c.
 linked together with peptide bonds.
d.
 used by the body for storing energy.
 39.
All of the following are examples of lipids except
a.
 oil.
c.
 steroids.
b.
 starch.
d.
 candle wax.
 40.
Which molecules are most closely related to lipids?
a.
 amino acids
b.
 long chains of carbon and hydrogen
c.
 nucleotides
d.
 sugars
 41.
Which of the following molecules are most closely related to proteins?
a.
 amino acids
c.
 nucleotides
b.
 monosaccharides
d.
 sugars
 42.
Long chains of amino acids are found in
a.
 carbohydrates.
c.
 proteins.
b.
 lipids.
d.
 sugars.
 43.
The overall shape of a single chain of amino acids in a protein is that protein’s
a.
 primary structure.
c.
 tertiary structure.
b.
 secondary structure.
d.
 quaternary structure.
 44.
The amino group of one amino acid is linked to the carboxyl group of another amino acid in a protein. This link is a(n)
a.
 peptide bond.
c.
 ionic bond.
b.
 hydrogen bond.
d.
 polar bond.
 45.
What gives each amino acid its unique properties?
a.
 its side group
c.
 its carboxyl group
b.
 its amino group
d.
 its sequence
 46.
The two types of nucleic acids are
a.
 RNA and ATP.
c.
 DNA and ATP.
b.
 DNA and RNA.
d.
 nucleotides and ATP.
 47.
Which of the following molecules are most closely related to nucleic acids?
a.
 amino acids
c.
 nucleotides
b.
 fats
d.
 sugars
 48.
DNA stores
a.
 fat.
c.
 energy.
b.
 carbohydrates.
d.
 hereditary information.
 49.
The two strands of a DNA molecule are held together by
a.
 ionic bonds.
c.
 hydrogen bonds.
b.
 covalent bonds.
d.
 peptide bonds.
 50.
Which of the following is not part of a nucleotide in a DNA molecule?
a.
 three phosphate groups
c.
 a base
b.
 a sugar
d.
 a phosphate group
 51.
ATP (adenosine triphosphate) stores energy in the bonds between its
a.
 hydrogen atoms.
c.
 nucleotides.
b.
 carbon atoms.
d.
 phosphate groups.
 52.
When paper burns, the paper combines with oxygen to form carbon dioxide and water vapor. How does the mass of carbon dioxide plus water vapor compare with the mass of the paper plus oxygen?
a.
 The mass of carbon dioxide plus water vapor is greater than that of paper plus oxygen.
b.
 The mass of carbon dioxide plus water vapor is less than that of paper plus oxygen.
c.
 It is impossible to tell.
d.
 The mass of carbon dioxide plus water vapor is identical to that of paper plus oxygen.
 53.
The law of conservation of energy states that energy cannot be
a.
 changed from one form to another.
b.
 taken from the surroundings in a reaction.
c.
 released into the surroundings in a reaction.
d.
 created or destroyed in a chemical reaction.
 54.
A chemical reaction will probably occur between two substrate molecules if they
a.
 are far apart.
b.
 are aligned in the wrong spatial orientation.
c.
 have large amounts of kinetic energy.
d.
 have little kinetic energy.
 55.
Reducing activation energy
a.
 is a violation of the laws of nature.
b.
 requires higher temperatures than those found within cells.
c.
 occurs only when reactants are quickly added to the reaction mixture.
d.
 is accomplished by the action of enzymes on reactants.
nar002-1.jpg
 56.
Refer to the illustration above. Which of the following statements regarding the graph is true?
a.
 Reaction 2 occurs faster than Reaction 3 because Reaction 2 requires more energy than Reaction 3.
b.
 The difference between the graphs shown for Reaction 2 and Reaction 3 occurs because of a difference in the activation energy of these reactions.
c.
 Reactant A contains more energy at the beginning of the reaction than product C has at the end of the reaction.
d.
 Product B contains more energy at the end of the reaction than reactant A has at the beginning of the reaction.
 57.
Refer to the illustration above. Reaction 3 in the graph
a.
 probably occurred in the presence of an enzyme.
b.
 requires more activation energy than Reaction 2.
c.
 is the same as Reaction 1, but faster.
d.
 is slower than Reaction 2.
 58.
The molecule on which an enzyme acts is called a(n)
a.
 active site.
c.
 polar molecule.
b.
 inactive site.
d.
 substrate.
 59.
An enzyme
a.
 is used up in a reaction.
b.
 raises the activation energy of a reaction.
c.
 bonds with an active site on a substrate molecule.
d.
 lowers the activation energy of a reaction.
 60.
Enzymes
a.
 are able to heat up molecules so that they can react.
b.
 always provide carbon dioxide for chemical reactions.
c.
 hold substrate molecules in the correct alignment.
d.
 absorb excess heat so that reactions occur at low temperatures.
 61.
A cell contains
a.
 thousands of different kinds of enzymes, each assisting in a different chemical reaction.
b.
 one kind of enzyme that assists in thousands of different chemical reactions.
c.
 approximately 100 kinds of enzymes, each assisting in a different chemical reaction.
d.
 one enzyme that assists in reactions involving protein substrates and one enzyme that assists in reactions involving substrates that are not proteins.
 

Completion
Complete each statement.
 62.
The negatively charged particles in an atom are ____________________.
 63.
Protons and neutrons are found in the ____________________ of an atom.
 64.
A(n) ____________________ is a group of atoms held together by covalent bonds.
 65.
Sodium chloride, NaCl, is an example of a(n) _________________.
 66.
A(n) ____________________ bond forms between two atoms sharing electrons.
 67.
The attraction between oppositely charged ions results in the formation of a(n) ____________________.
 68.
Weak chemical attractions between polar molecules are ____________________ bonds.
 69.
Lipids are ____________________ molecules because they have no negative and positive poles.
 70.
Water heats and cools ____________________.
 71.
The attraction that causes water and other liquids to form drops and thin films is ____________________.
 72.
The medium in which most cellular events take place is ____________________.
 73.
Substances with a pH less than 7 are ____________________.
 74.
Substances with a pH greater than 7 are ____________________.
 75.
The pH scale measures the concentration of ____________________ ions in solutions.
 76.
A carbon atom can bond with four other atoms because it has ____________________ valence electrons.
 77.
A(n) ____________________ contains carbon, hydrogen, and oxygen in a ratio of 1:2:1.
 78.
Amino acids are the building blocks of __________________.
 79.
Most proteins consist of two or more ________________ that twist and fold around each other.
 80.
Long chains of nucleotides are called ____________________.
 81.
The ability to move or change matter is ____________________.
 82.
All living things require a source of ____________________ to carry out their life activities.
 83.
The starting materials for chemical reactions are called ____________________, while the new substances that are formed are called ____________________.
 84.
The energy needed to start a chemical reaction is called ____________________.
 85.
A biochemical reaction can be speeded up by adding a(n) ____________________, which lowers the amount of activation energy required to start the reaction.
 86.
The portion of an enzyme molecule into which a specific substrate can fit is called the ____________________.
 

Short Answer
 87.
How many different kinds of atoms are there in an element?
 88.
How does an atom become an ion?
 89.
An ionic bond forms between what two kinds of particles?
 90.
What makes a water molecule polar?
 91.
How well do nonpolar molecules dissolve in water?
 92.
What is an attraction between particles of different substances called?
 93.
What are the two most common elements found in large biomolecules?
 94.
What is the function of lipids in cells?
 95.
What determines the primary structure of a protein?
 96.
Where do your cells get most of the energy they need for metabolism?
 97.
How do enzymes speed up a chemical reaction?
 

Problem
 98.

The following statements are about the molecule ATP (adenosine triphosphate). For each statement, first determine whether it is true or false. Then, if it is false, rewrite the statement so that it is correct.

a. ATP is chemically similar to a carbohydrate.
b. Cells require ATP to function.
c. None of the energy in food molecules is stored in ATP.
d. ATP is the primary source of energy for chemical reactions occurring in all cells of all living organisms.

nar003-1.jpg
 99.

Refer to the illustration above. The graph depicts the relative energy levels of the products and reactants for the following chemical reaction: A + B « C + D.

a. Which substances, A, B, C, and/or D, are present at point 1 on the graph?
b. Which substances, A, B, C, and/or D, are present at point 3 on the graph?
c. Why is point 2 at a higher energy level than point 1?
d. Why is point 3 at a lower energy level than point 1?
e. Draw a dashed line on the graph indicating how the energy level of this reaction over time would be different if the enzyme that catalyzes the reaction were not present.

Enzymes catalyze a variety of biological reactions. The extent to which they can speed up the rate of a reaction is dependent on a number of factors. Draw a graph for the following condition(s), showing the effect of altering one factor on the relative rate of a reaction. Use “0” to indicate no activity, and “1” through “10” to indicate increasing rate of reaction from very low to very high. Include a label for your graph(s).
 100.
Refer to the paragraph above, and then draw your graph in the space below. Enzyme #1 is inactive between 0°C and 10°C. It is active above 10°C, with the rate increasing steadily until the temperature reaches 40°C. At 40°C, the rate of the reaction is very high. Above 40°C, the rate decreases steadily until the temperature reaches 60°C, at which point the enzyme is no longer active.
 101.
Refer to the paragraph above, and draw your graph. Enzyme #2 is inactive at a pH of 1–4. It is active above a pH of 4, with the rate increasing slowly until the pH reaches 6. Above a pH of 6, the rate increases sharply until the pH reaches 7. Above a pH of 7, the rate decreases sharply until the pH reaches 8. Above a pH of 8, the rate decreases gradually until the pH reaches 10, at which point the enzyme is no longer active.
 102.
Refer to the paragraph above, and draw your graph. Enzyme #3 is inactive when the concentration of the substrate it acts upon is zero. The enzyme is active when the substrate concentration is above zero, with the rate increasing only very slightly until the concentration reaches 30%. Above 30%, the rate increases very sharply to a high level, until the concentration reaches 60%. Above a concentration of 60%, the rate increases very little. The rate does not increase when the substrate concentration is above 80%.
 

Essay
 103.
Describe how an enzyme can function in speeding up a chemical reaction within a cell.

 
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Chapter 4 Cell Structure Study Guide

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Chapter 4 Cell Structure Study Guide

 

  

Modified True/False
Indicate whether the statement is true or false.  If false, change the identified word or phrase to make the statement true.
 
 1.
Robert Hooke first observed cells by looking at a thin slice of cork under a microscope. _________________________
 


 
 2.
Mathias Schleiden concluded that cells make up every part of a plant. _________________________
 


 
 3.
Differences in the colors of cells enable different cells to perform different functions. _________________________
 


 
 4.
All cells have a cell wall that surrounds them. _________________________
 


 
 5.
All multicellular organisms are made up of prokaryotic cells. _________________________
 


 
 6.
The cells of animals are prokaryotic. _________________________
 


 
 7.
The cytoskeleton is a web of protein fibers in eukaryotic cells. _________________________
 


 
 8.
Substances made in the nucleus, such as RNA messages, move into the nucleolus by passing through nuclear pores. _________________________
 


 
 9.
Flattened, membrane-bound sacs that package and distribute proteins are called the Golgi apparatus. _________________________
 


 
 10.
Ribosomes attached to the smooth ER make proteins. _________________________
 


 
 11.
Lysosomes contain specific enzymes that break down large molecules, such as food particles. _________________________
 


 
 12.
Ribosomes are the sites of ATP production in animals. _________________________
 


 
 13.
Most of a cell’s ATP is produced in the cell’s mitochondria. _________________________
 


 
 14.
A typical animal cell contains one or more chloroplasts. _________________________
 


 
 15.
A chloroplast is an organelle that uses light energy to make sugar from carbon dioxide and water. _________________________
 


 
 16.
Prokaryotes are always multicellular organisms. _________________________
 


 
 17.
Many prokaryotes have flagella that allow them to attach to surfaces. _________________________
 


 
 18.
A tissue is a distinct group of cells that have similar structures and functions. _________________________
 


 
 19.
A leaf is made up of different tissues that work together. _________________________
 


 
 20.
In multicellular organisms, a single cell must carry out all of the organism’s activities. _________________________
 


 
 21.
A unicellular organism is composed of many individual, permanently associated cells that coordinate their activities. _________________________
 


 
 22.
Colonial organisms are unicellular organisms that can live as a connected group or survive when separated. _________________________
 


 
 23.
Some protists and most fungi have a multicellular body. _________________________
 


 
 24.
Most multicellular organisms begin as a single cell. _________________________
 


 
  

Multiple Choice
Identify the choice that best completes the statement or answers the question.
 
 25.
Which of the following led to the discovery of cells?
a.
 electricity
c.
 microscopes
b.
 computers
d.
 calculators
 
 26.
Which of the following is part of the cell theory?
a.
 All living things are made of one cell.
b.
 Cells are the basic units of structure and function in organisms.
c.
 Most cells arise from existing cells.
d.
 Cells are nonliving units that make up organisms.
 
 27.
When the volume of a cell increases, its surface area
a.
 increases at the same rate.
c.
 increases at a faster rate.
b.
 remains the same.
d.
 increases at a slower rate.
 
 28.
Surface area is an important factor in limiting cell growth because
a.
 the cell can burst if the membrane becomes too large.
b.
 materials cannot enter the cell if it is too large.
c.
 the cell may become too large to take in enough food and to remove enough wastes.
d.
 waste products cannot leave the cell if it is too small.
 
 29.
The size to which cells can grow is limited by their
a.
 location.
c.
 function.
b.
 structure.
d.
 surface area-to-volume ratio.
 
 30.
As cell size increases, the surface area-to-volume ratio
a.
 decreases.
c.
 increases then decreases.
b.
 increases.
d.
 remains the same.
 
 31.
To function most efficiently, a cell’s size must be
a.
 large.
c.
 small.
b.
 medium.
d.
 any size.
 
 32.
Which of the following shapes would allow a cell to have the greatest surface area-to-volume ratio?
a.
 sphere
c.
 egg-shaped
b.
 cube
d.
 broad and flat
 
 33.
A cube with a side length of 6 mm has a surface area-to-volume ratio of
a.
 1:1.
c.
 3:1.
b.
 2:1.
d.
 6:1.
 
 34.
One difference between prokaryotes and eukaryotes is that prokaryotes do not have
a.
 DNA.
c.
 cytoplasm.
b.
 a cell membrane.
d.
 a nucleus.
 
 35.
Which cells have a cell membrane, cytoplasm, ribosomes, and DNA?
a.
 only animal cells
c.
 only eukaryotic cells
b.
 only prokaryotic cells
d.
 all cells
 
 36.
The genetic material that provides instructions for making proteins is
a.
 DNA.
c.
 cytoplasm.
b.
 cytosol.
d.
 a ribosome.
 
 37.
A structure within a eukaryotic cell that carries out specific activities inside the cell is called a(n)
a.
 organelle.
c.
 nucleus.
b.
 cytoplasm.
d.
 membrane.
 
 38.
Which of the following statements about prokaryotes is correct?
a.
 They have a nucleus.
b.
 Their evolution preceded that of eukaryotes.
c.
 The organelles in their cytoplasm are surrounded by membranes.
d.
 They are multicellular organisms.
 
 39.
Only eukaryotic cells have
a.
 DNA.
c.
 ribosomes.
b.
 membrane-bound organelles.
d.
 cytoplasm.
 
   
 
nar001-1.jpg
 
 40.
Refer to the illustration above. Which structure acts as a boundary between the outside environment and the inside of the cell?
a.
 structure 1
c.
 structure 3
b.
 structure 2
d.
 structure 4
 
 41.
Refer to the illustration above. Which structure immediately identifies this cell as a eukaryote?
a.
 structure 1
c.
 structure 3
b.
 structure 2
d.
 structure 4
 
 42.
Refer to the illustration above. In eukaryotic cells, DNA is found in
a.
 structure 1.
c.
 structure 3.
b.
 structure 2.
d.
 structure 5.
 
 43.
Refer to the illustration above. Structure 2 is
a.
 rough endoplasmic reticulum.
c.
 a mitochondrion.
b.
 a Golgi apparatus.
d.
 the nucleus.
 
 44.
Refer to the illustration above. Which structure produces vesicles filled with proteins?
a.
 structure 1
c.
 structure 4
b.
 structure 2
d.
 structure 5
 
 45.
Refer to the illustration above. Structure 5 is
a.
 part of the endoplasmic reticulum.
c.
 a mitochondrion.
b.
 a Golgi apparatus.
d.
 the nucleus.
 
 46.
Refer to the illustration above. The cell uses structure 3 to
a.
 transport material from one part of the cell to another.
b.
 package proteins so they can be stored by the cell.
c.
 use light energy to make sugar.
d.
 use energy from organic compounds to make ATP.
 
 47.
Refer to the illustration above. The cell shown is probably an animal cell because it
a.
 has mitochondria.
c.
 has a cell membrane.
b.
 does not have a cell wall.
d.
 does not have a nucleus.
 
 48.
Microfilaments, microtubules, and intermediate fibers are three kinds of cytoskeleton
a.
 protein fibers.
c.
 organelles.
b.
 membranes.
d.
 DNA.
 
 49.
What kind of cytoskeleton fibers could help a cell change shape to fit into a space?
a.
 microfilaments
c.
 intermediate fibers
b.
 microtubules
d.
 tubulin fibers
 
 50.
Which of the following is true of both DNA and some proteins?
a.
 made in nucleus
b.
 made in ribosomes
c.
 must be kept separate from cytoplasm
d.
 must be kept separate from nucleus
 
 51.
cell : cell membrane ::
a.
 nucleus : DNA
c.
 organelle : cell
b.
 nucleus : nuclear envelope
d.
 cell : DNA
 
 52.
The double membrane surrounding the nucleus is called the
a.
 nucleolus.
c.
 ribosome.
b.
 nuclear wall.
d.
 nuclear envelope.
 
 53.
In a cell, proteins are made on the
a.
 mitochondria.
c.
 nucleus.
b.
 ribosomes.
d.
 cell membrane.
 
 54.
Where are bound ribosomes located?
a.
 suspended in the cytosol
b.
 inside the nucleus
c.
 attached to membranes of another organelle
d.
 outside the cell membrane
 
 55.
The organelle that moves proteins and other substances through the cell is the
a.
 endoplasmic reticulum.
c.
 Golgi apparatus.
b.
 mitochondrion.
d.
 cytoplasm.
 
 56.
The organelle that modifies, sorts, and packages proteins is the
a.
 endoplasmic reticulum.
c.
 lysosome.
b.
 ribosome.
d.
 Golgi apparatus.
 
   
 
nar002-1.jpg
 
 57.
Refer to the illustration above. The structures labeled 4 are
a.
 vesicles.
c.
 ribosomes.
b.
 lysosomes.
d.
 chloroplasts.
 
 58.
Refer to the illustration above. Which structure packages proteins for distribution?
a.
 structure 1
c.
 structure 3
b.
 structure 2
d.
 structure 4
 
 59.
Refer to the illustration above. Structure 3 is a(n)
a.
 mitochondrion.
c.
 ribosome.
b.
 endoplasmic reticulum.
d.
 vesicle.
 
 60.
Plant cells have a large membrane-bound compartment in which water, waste products, and nutrients can be stored. This compartment is called the
a.
 mitochondrion.
c.
 Golgi apparatus.
b.
 chloroplast.
d.
 central vacuole.
 
 61.
A cell that requires a lot of energy might contain large numbers of
a.
 chromosomes.
c.
 mitochondria.
b.
 vacuoles.
d.
 lysosomes.
 
 62.
The organelles associated with plant photosynthesis are the
a.
 mitochondria.
c.
 Golgi apparatus.
b.
 chloroplasts.
d.
 vacuoles.
 
 63.
sunlight : chloroplasts ::
a.
 chloroplasts : lysosomes
c.
 organic compounds : ribosomes
b.
 organic compounds : mitochondria
d.
 ATP : vesicles
 
 64.
What do chloroplasts and mitochondria have in common?
a.
 absorption of light energy
c.
 production of ATP
b.
 presence in all cells
d.
 digestion of cell wastes
 
 65.
All the following are found in both plant and animal cells, except
a.
 a cell wall.
c.
 mitochondria.
b.
 a cell membrane.
d.
 endoplasmic reticulum.
 
 66.
Short, thick outgrowths that allow prokaryotes to attach to surfaces or each other are called
a.
 flagella.
c.
 microfilaments.
b.
 microtubules.
d.
 pili.
 
 67.
Which of the following is an example of a prokaryotic cell?
a.
 chloroplast
c.
 bacterium
b.
 fungus
d.
 muscle cell
 
 68.
Which of the following pairs contains unrelated items?
a.
 eukaryote-plant
c.
 cell wall-animal cell
b.
 ribosome-protein
d.
 mitochondria-ATP
 
 69.
What level of organization is the small intestine?
a.
 cell
c.
 organ
b.
 tissue
d.
 organ system
 
 70.
Which of the following statements about colonial organisms is correct?
a.
 They are multicellular.
b.
 Their cell activities are integrated.
c.
 They are a collection of different kinds of cells.
d.
 They can survive when separated.
 
  

Completion
Complete each statement.
 
   71.
All cells arise from ____________________.
 
 

 
   72.
The basic unit of structure and function in an organism is the ____________________.
 
 

 
   73.
The statement that “cells arise only from existing cells” is part of the ____________________.
 
 

 
   74.
As a cell’s size decreases, its surface area-to-volume ratio ____________________.
 
 

 
   75.
The surface area-to-volume ratio limits a cell’s ____________________.
 
 

 
   76.
Eukaryotic cells contain specialized structures called ____________________.
 
 

 
   77.
A cell with a nucleus is a(n) ____________________ cell.
 
 

 
   78.
Scientists think that ____________________ cells evolved about 1.5 billion years ago.
 
 

 
   79.
All substances that enter or leave a cell must cross the cell ____________________.
 
 

 
   80.
The ____________________ houses a cell’s DNA, which contains genetic material.
 
 

 
   81.
The organelles where protein synthesis occurs in a cell are called ____________________.
 
 

 
   82.
Prokaryotic cells have a cell ____________________ that surrounds the cell membrane.
 
 

 
   83.
Some prokaryotic cells have a ____________________ that surrounds the cell wall.
 
 

 
   84.
____________________ cells have a system of internal membranes that divides the cytoplasm into compartments.
 
 

 
   85.
The web of protein fibers that supports the shape of the cell is called the ____________________.
 
 

 
   86.
The cytoskeleton’s network of ____________________ fibers anchors cell organelles.
 
 

 
   87.
A ribosome is made of ____________________ and many proteins.
 
 

 
   88.
DNA instructions are copied as ____________________ messages.
 
 

 
   89.
Ribosomes use RNA messages to assemble ____________________.
 
 

 
   90.
The ____________________ is a structure that makes ribosome parts in the nucleus.
 
 

 
   91.
Rough endoplasmic reticulum has ____________________ attached to its surface.
 
 

 
   92.
____________________ endoplasmic reticulum has no attached ribosomes.
 
 

 
   93.
Vesicles that contain newly made proteins move through the ____________________ from the ER to the Golgi apparatus.
 
 

 
   94.
Vesicles help maintain ____________________ by storing and releasing various substances as the cell needs them.
 
 

 
   95.
Lysosomes work by fusing with other ____________________.
 
 

 
   96.
Photosynthesis takes place in the ____________________ of plant cells.
 
 

 
   97.
Both plant cells and animal cells have cell membranes. In addition, plant cells are surrounded by a(n) ____________________.
 
 

 
   98.
In multicellular organisms, similar cells group together to make ____________________.
 
 

 
   99.
A group of identical cells that can survive alone if separated are called ____________________ organisms.
 
 

 
  

Short Answer
 
   100.
Why did it take more than 150 years for scientists to appreciate the discoveries of Hook and Leeuwenhoek?
 

 
   101.
What are the three parts of the cell theory?
 

 
   102.
What happens to a cell’s surface area-to-volume ratio as the cell gets larger?
 

 
   103.
How can a large cell have a large surface area-to-volume ratio?
 

 
   104.
What is the difference in the location of DNA in a prokaryotic cell and in a eukaryotic cell?
 

 
   105.
What is the function of organelles in eukaryotic cells?
 

 
   106.
Describe the characteristics of DNA in a prokaryotic cell.
 

 
   107.
What are three kinds of cytoskeleton in eukaryotic cells?
 

 
   108.
What are three functions of the cytoskeleton?
 

 
   109.
Where are ribosome parts made and assembled?
 

 
   110.
What kind of ribosomes makes proteins that remain inside the cell?
 

 
   111.
How does the appearance of the two kinds of endoplasmic reticulum differ? What causes the difference?
 

 
   112.
What happens to the vesicle membrane of a vesicle that migrates to the cell membrane and releases proteins to the outside of the cell?
 

 
   113.
What is the function of a contractile vacuole in a protist?
 

 
   114.
Describe what happens in a protist after the cell membrane surrounds food outside the cell.
 

 
   115.
What is the difference between the energy source of chloroplasts and mitochondria? What do the two organelles have in common?
 

 
   116.
Compare the functions of flagella and pili in prokaryotes.
 

 
   117.
What are three structures present in plant cells but not in animal cells?
 

 
   118.
What are the levels of organization of cells in a multicellular organism?
 

 
   119.
How does a multicellular organism develop from a single cell?
 

 
  

Essay
 
   120.
Small cells function more efficiently than large cells do. Briefly explain why this is true, using the concept of surface area-to-volume ratio.
 

 
   121.
Describe the making of a ribosome. Include the difference between the two kinds of ribosomes.
 

 
   122.
Describe the movement of proteins through the internal membrane system of a cell.
 

 

 

 
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Cell Reproduction

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Cell Reproduction

 

 

Modified True/False
Indicate whether the statement is true or false.  If false, change the identified word or phrase to make the statement true.
 1.
A gene is a segment of DNA that directs the production of RNA and protein. _________________________
 2.
The information needed by a cell to direct its activities and to determine its characteristics is contained in molecules of protein. _________________________
 3.
After the replication of a cell’s DNA, there are twice as many centromeres as there are chromatids. _________________________
 4.
Cells that seldom divide spend most of their time in interphase. _________________________
 5.
After mitosis and interphase, each new cell has a complete set of the parent cell’s chromosomes. _________________________
 6.
In animal cells, cytokinesis results when a cell plate forms across the cell to divide the cytoplasm. _________________________
 7.
Plant cells separate their cytoplasm during cytokinesis when protein threads pinch the cell in half. _________________________
 8.
The cell cycle has four checkpoints that act to inhibit uncontrolled cell division. _________________________
 9.
Offspring formed by asexual reproduction look exactly like their parent. _________________________
 10.
In budding, new individuals develop from pieces of the original individual. _________________________
 11.
Some eukaryotes reproduce asexually, and some produce sexually. _________________________
 12.
In asexual reproduction, two parents each pass genetic material to their offspring. _________________________
 13.
Asexual reproduction provides for genetic diversity, the raw material for evolution. _________________________
 14.
Genetic diversity is the raw material for evolution. _________________________
 15.
Genes on chromosomes are the units of inheritance. _________________________
 16.
Each human somatic cell contains two copies of each chromosome for a total of 23 chromosomes. _________________________
 17.
Gametes are diploid so that when fertilization occurs, the resulting zygote will have the characteristic number of chromosomes for that species. _________________________
 18.
While paired together during the second division of meiosis, two chromosomes may exchange segments of DNA. _________________________
 19.
Crossing-over is the exchange of corresponding portions of chromatids between homologous chromosomes. _________________________
 20.
Random fertilization refers to the fact that homologous chromosomes are distributed randomly during meiosis. _________________________
 21.
The process by which sperm are produced in male animals is called spermatogenesis. _________________________
 22.
During the diploid life cycle, all of the cells are diploid. _________________________
 23.
During the haploid life cycle, the zygote is the only diploid cell. _________________________
 24.
In the life cycle of a plant, the gametophyte is the haploid phase that produces gametes by mitosis. _________________________
 25.
A spore gives rise to a multicellular individual without joining with another cell. _________________________
 26.
Moss plants have haploid life cycles. ______________________________
 

Multiple Choice
Identify the choice that best completes the statement or answers the question.
 27.
Which of the following is not a reason cells divide?
a.
 The cell gets too big to process and transport nutrients.
b.
 New cells are needed for growth.
c.
 DNA cannot be copied quickly enough in large cells.
d.
 Surface area-to-volume ratio becomes too large.
 28.
The chromosome of a bacterium
a.
 is wrapped around proteins.
b.
 has a circular shape.
c.
 occurs in multiple pairs within the cell.
d.
 is found within the nucleus.
 29.
The region of a chromosome where two sister chromatids are held together is called a
a.
 spindle.
c.
 nucleosome.
b.
 centromere.
d.
 centriole.
 30.
Chromatids are
a.
 dense patches within the nucleus.
b.
 bacterial chromosomes.
c.
 joined strands of duplicated genetic material.
d.
 prokaryotic nuclei.
 31.
When a chromosome condenses,
a.
 a histone wraps around chromatin.
b.
 beads form on the DNA double helix.
c.
 its centromere splits.
d.
 looped domains coil into a structure.
 32.
In order to fit within a cell, DNA becomes more compact by
a.
 breaking apart into separate genes.
b.
 extending to form very long, thin molecules.
c.
 wrapping tightly around histones.
d.
 being enzymatically changed into a protein.
 33.
In a bacterium, cell division takes place when
a.
 its nucleus divides.
b.
 the cell splits into two cells, one of which receives all of the DNA.
c.
 the DNA is copied, a new cell wall forms between the DNA copies, and the cell splits into two cells.
d.
 spindle fibers form.
 34.
The phase of the cell cycle that occupies most of an average cell’s life is
a.
 G1.
c.
 G2.
b.
 mitosis.
d.
 S.
 35.
What occurs after cytokinesis is completed?
a.
 The cell organizes its microtubules.
c.
 The cell enters G1.
b.
 The cell begins to replicate its DNA.
d.
 The cell enters G2.
 36.
Which of the following shows the correct sequence of the cell cycle?
a.
 cytokinesis ® mitosis ® G1 ® S ® G2
b.
 S ® G1 ® G2 ® mitosis ® cytokinesis
c.
 G1 ® S ® G2 ® mitosis ® cytokinesis
d.
 mitosis ® G1 ® S® G2 ® cytokinesis
 37.
Cells that are not dividing remain in the
a.
 mitosis phase.
c.
 first gap phase.
b.
 synthesis phase.
d.
 second gap phase.
 38.
The synthesis (S) phase is characterized by
a.
 DNA replication.
b.
 cell division.
c.
 replication of mitochondria and other organelles.
d.
 the division of cytoplasm.
 39.
5 steps : the cell cycle ::
a.
 6 steps : prophase
c.
 3 steps : meiosis
b.
 9 steps : cytokinesis
d.
 4 steps : mitosis
 40.
The first three phases of the cell cycle are collectively known as
a.
 a gap.
c.
 mitosis.
b.
 telophase.
d.
 interphase.
 41.
cell growth : G1 ::
a.
 mitosis : cytokinesis
b.
 mitosis : meiosis
c.
 mitochondria replication : synthesis phase
d.
 DNA copying : synthesis phase
 42.
metaphase : prophase ::
a.
 G1 : mitosis
c.
 mitosis : cytokinesis
b.
 G2 : S
d.
 S : mitosis
 43.
Mitosis is the process by which
a.
 microtubules are assembled.
b.
 cytoplasm is divided.
c.
 the nucleus is divided into two nuclei.
d.
 the cell rests.
 44.
A spindle fiber is a specialized form of
a.
 microtubule.
c.
 centriole.
b.
 centrosome.
d.
 chromosome.
 45.
The phase of mitosis that is characterized by the arrangement of all chromosomes along the equator of the cell is called
a.
 telophase.
c.
 anaphase.
b.
 metaphase.
d.
 prophase.
nar001-1.jpg
 46.
Refer to the illustration above. The cell in diagram 1 is in
a.
 metaphase.
c.
 anaphase.
b.
 telophase.
d.
 prophase.
 47.
Refer to the illustration above. Mitosis begins with the stage shown in diagram
a.
 1.
c.
 3.
b.
 2.
d.
 4.
 48.
Refer to the illustration above. The cell shown in diagram 5 is in
a.
 metaphase.
c.
 anaphase.
b.
 telophase.
d.
 prophase.
nar002-1.jpg
 49.
Refer to the illustration above. Which of the following correctly indicates the order in which these events occur?
a.
 A, B, C, D
c.
 B, A, C, D
b.
 C, B, A, D
d.
 A, C, B, D
 50.
Refer to the illustration above. During which stage do the centromeres divide?
a.
 A
c.
 C
b.
 B
d.
 D
 51.
As a result of mitosis, each of the two new cells produced from the parent cell during cytokinesis
a.
 receives a few chromosomes from the parent cell.
b.
 receives an exact copy of all the chromosomes present in the parent cell.
c.
 donates a chromosome to the parent cell.
d.
 receives exactly half the chromosomes from the parent cell.
 52.
Cytokinesis in plant cells involves the formation of
a.
 a belt of protein threads.
c.
 spindle fibers.
b.
 a cell plate.
d.
 centrioles.
 53.
Which of the following statements is true?
a.
 Prokaryotes divide by mitosis.
b.
 Eukaryotes have circular chromosomes.
c.
 Animal cells form new cell walls when they divide.
d.
 Plant cells and animal cells have different strategies for cytokinesis.
 54.
In eukaryotes, the cell cycle is controlled by
a.
 proteins.
c.
 lipids.
b.
 carbohydrates.
d.
 fats.
 55.
At the G2 checkpoint, DNA replication is checked by
a.
 receptor proteins.
c.
 repair enzymes.
b.
 electron transport chains.
d.
 cell-surface markers.
 56.
The cell cycle is monitored as each cell passes through
a.
 the S phase.
c.
 the interphase checkpoint.
b.
 checkpoints.
d.
 cytokinesis.
 57.
Normal cells become cancer cells when
a.
 regulation of cell growth and division occurs.
b.
 cells respond to control mechanisms.
c.
 cells pass through G1.
d.
 cells do not respond to checkpoints.
 58.
Which of the following is not a type of asexual reproduction?
a.
 budding
c.
 binary fission
b.
 fragmentation
d.
 fertilization
 59.
Hydras reproduce by
a.
 budding.
c.
 binary fission.
b.
 fragmentation.
d.
 parthenogenesis.
 60.
Budding is an example of
a.
 endosymbiosis.
c.
 meiosis.
b.
 asexual reproduction.
d.
 sexual reproduction.
 61.
The simplest and most primitive method of reproduction is
a.
 sexual.
c.
 haploid.
b.
 diploid.
d.
 asexual.
 62.
Binary fission
a.
 occurs when two cells collide with each other.
b.
 produces excess energy.
c.
 creates new species.
d.
 is the process by which bacteria reproduce.
 63.
The process of producing offspring is called reproduction and can be
a.
 eukaryotic or prokaryotic.
c.
 zygotic or gametic.
b.
 asexual or sexual.
d.
 haploid or diploid
 64.
Sexual reproduction includes
a.
 budding.
c.
 binary fission.
b.
 fragmentation.
d.
 fertilization
 65.
Normal human males develop from fertilized eggs containing which of the following sex chromosome combinations?
a.
 XY
c.
 XO
b.
 XX
d.
 OO
 66.
Homologous chromosomes are pairs of chromosomes containing genes that code for
a.
 different traits.
c.
 DNA.
b.
 the same traits.
d.
 sex.
 67.
In humans, gametes contain
a.
 22 autosomes and 1 sex chromosome.
b.
 1 autosome and 22 sex chromosomes.
c.
 45 autosomes and 1 sex chromosome.
d.
 1 autosome and 45 sex chromosomes.
 68.
In humans, the male determines the sex of the child because males have
a.
 two X chromosomes.
c.
 two Y chromosomes.
b.
 one X and one Y chromosome.
d.
 46 chromosomes.
 69.
The X and Y chromosomes are called
a.
 extra chromosomes.
c.
 sex chromosomes.
b.
 homologous chromosomes.
d.
 autosomes.
 70.
female : XX ::
a.
 female : gametes
c.
 male : YY
b.
 female : eggs
d.
 male : XY
 71.
How many chromosomes are in the body cells of an organism that has a haploid number of 8?
a.
 4
c.
 12
b.
 8
d.
 16
 72.
The diploid number of chromosomes in a human skin cell is 46. The number of chromosomes found in a human egg cell is
a.
 46.
c.
 23.
b.
 92.
d.
 12.5.
 73.
diploid : somatic cell :: haploid :
a.
 body cell
c.
 gamete
b.
 chromosome
d.
 zygote
 74.
A haploid cell is one that
a.
 has two homologues of each chromosome.
b.
 is designated by the symbol 2n.
c.
 has chromosomes found in pairs.
d.
 has one set of chromosomes.
nar003-1.jpg
 75.
Refer to the illustration above. The process shown is
a.
 mitosis.
c.
 meiosis.
b.
 chromosomal mutation.
d.
 dominance.
 76.
Separation of homologues occurs during
a.
 mitosis.
c.
 meiosis II.
b.
 meiosis I.
d.
 fertilization.
 77.
When crossing-over takes place, chromosomes
a.
 mutate in the first division.
b.
 produce new genes.
c.
 decrease in number.
d.
 exchange corresponding segments of DNA.

Using the information you have learned about cell reproduction, infer answers to the questions below about a cell with a diploid number of 4 chromosomes. Select from among the diagrams below, labeled A, B, C, D, and E, to answer the questions.

nar004-1.jpg
 78.
Which of the diagrams above depicts a cell at the end of meiosis I?
a.
 B
c.
 D
b.
 C
d.
 E
 79.
Which of the diagrams above depicts a cell at the end of meiosis II?
a.
 A
c.
 C
b.
 B
d.
 D
 80.
Which of the diagrams above depicts a cell at the beginning of mitosis?
a.
 B
c.
 D
b.
 C
d.
 E
 81.
Which of the diagrams above depicts a cell at the end of mitosis?
a.
 A
c.
 C
b.
 B
d.
 D
 82.
The difference between anaphase of mitosis and anaphase I of meiosis is that
a.
 the chromosomes line up at the equator in anaphase I.
b.
 centromeres do not exist in anaphase I.
c.
 chromatids do not separate at the centromere in anaphase I.
d.
 crossing-over occurs only in anaphase of mitosis.
 83.
The exchange of segments of DNA between the members of a pair of chromosomes
a.
 ensures that variations within a species never occur.
b.
 acts as a source of variations within a species.
c.
 always produces genetic disorders.
d.
 is called genetic crossing.
 84.
Crossing-over occurs
a.
 during prophase II.
c.
 during prophase I.
b.
 during fertilization.
d.
 at the centromere.
 85.
Which of the following does not provide new genetic combinations?
a.
 random fertilization
c.
 independent assortment
b.
 cytokinesis
d.
 crossing-over
 86.
During cytokinesis in the female, what divides unequally?
a.
 the sperm cell
c.
 the cytoplasm
b.
 the ovary
d.
 the DNA
 87.
The more common name for an ovum is a(n)
a.
 egg.
c.
 nutrient.
b.
 hormone.
d.
 polar body.
 88.
To create new haploid cells during the haploid life cycle, the zygote undergoes
a.
 mitosis.
c.
 fusion.
b.
 fertilization.
d.
 meiosis.
 89.
Which of the following is not a type of sexual life cycle?
a.
 alternation of generations
c.
 diploid
b.
 haploid
d.
 parthenogenesis
 90.
In alternation of generations, a diploid spore-forming cell gives rise to four
a.
 zygotes.
c.
 haploid spores.
b.
 sperm cells.
d.
 diploid spores.
 91.
During alternation of generations, cells reproduce by
a.
 meiosis only.
c.
 both meiosis and mitosis.
b.
 mitosis only.
d.
 binary fission.
 

Completion
Complete each statement.
 92.
Growth occurs through cell enlargement and cell ____________________.
 93.
The DNA in eukaryotic cells is packaged into structures called ____________________.
 94.
A duplicated chromosome consists of two identical ____________________, which are held together at the centromere.
 95.
The sequence of events that occurs in a cell from one cell division to the next is called the ____________________.
 96.
Collectively, the time spent in G1 + S + G2 is called ____________________.
 97.
A cell’s DNA is copied during the ____________________ phase.
 98.
Cells that are not dividing remain in the ____________________ phase.
 99.
Spindle fibers are made of hollow tubes of protein called ____________________.
 100.
The spindle is assembled by the ____________________.
 101.
In most eukaryotic cells, ____________________ takes place after the nucleus divides.
 102.
In plant cells, a(n) ____________________ forms in the center of the cell during cytokinesis.
 103.
Normal cell growth and cell division are regulated by ____________________.
 104.
The cell cycle is controlled in eukaryotes at three principal ____________________.
 105.
Loss of control and regulation of the ____________________ can result in the development of cancer.
 106.
The separation of a parent into two or more individuals of about equal size is called ____________________.
 107.
Binary fission is the process by which ____________________ split asexually into two identical organisms.
 108.
Only ____________________ cells can produce gametes.
 109.
Somatic cells containing two sets of 23 chromosomes each are always ____________________.
 110.
After a new nuclear membrane forms during telophase I of meiosis, the ____________________ divides, resulting in two cells.
 111.
The process called ____________________ guarantees that the number of chromosomes in gametes is half the number of chromosomes in body cells.
 112.
Prophase I of meiosis is different from prophase of mitosis in that every chromosome pairs with its ____________________.
 113.
A reciprocal exchange of corresponding segments of DNA is called ____________________ – ____________________.
 114.
The four haploid cells formed in the male at the end of meiosis II develop tails and are called ____________________.
 115.
The diploid number of chromosomes is re-established through ____________________.
 116.
In a haploid life cycle, ____________________ results in the first cell of a multicellular haploid organism.

 
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Chapter 1 Introduction Study Guide

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Modified True/False
Indicate whether the statement is true or false.  If false, change the identified word or phrase to make the statement true.
 1.
Accepting ideas is the cornerstone of scientific thought. _________________________
 2.
Skepticism is a habit of mind in which a person accepts the validity of accepted ideas. _________________________
 3.
The law of gravity and the law of conservation of energy are national laws. _________________________
 4.
Scientific investigations require ethical behavior. _________________________
 5.
Most scientific investigations begin with observations that lead to universal laws. _________________________
 6.
A hypothesis is a possible explanation that can be tested by observation or experimentation. _________________________
 7.
The control group and the experimental group are identical except for one variable. _________________________
 8.
A hypothesis is a general explanation for a broad range of data. _________________________
 9.
International System of Units (SI) is the official name of the metric system. _________________________
 10.
A centimeter is equal to 10 millimeters. _________________________
 11.
Light and electron autoclaves help magnify objects. _________________________
 12.
A technique is a way of doing something. _________________________
 13.
In the event of a lab accident, one thing you should always do is remain calm. _________________________
 14.
Biology is the study of nonliving things. _________________________
 15.
A student who wants to study bacteria would take microbiology classes. _________________________
 16.
Reproduction insures ongoing generations of both one-celled organisms and frogs. _________________________
 17.
Homeostasis is the maintenance of a stable internal environment in spite of changes in the external environment. _________________________
 18.
The bacterium that causes cholera is an example of a pathogen. _________________________
 19.
Scientists discovered that predicting the spread of cholera involves understanding reproductive behavior of plankton. _________________________
 20.
The study of all the factors in the spread of cholera in human populations is an example of ecology. _________________________
 21.
Scientists in the 21st century are better able to prevent disease because of their improved understanding of biology. _________________________
 22.
The completion of the Human Genome Project was one minor contribution to the ability to cure disease. _________________________
 23.
Scientists expect people to live longer lives because of advances in the science of biology. _________________________
 24.
The application of technology to medicine has greatly increased the ability of people to live healthy lives. _________________________
 25.
Genetic engineering is the only practical application of biotechnology. _________________________
 26.
Genetic engineering is widely used in agriculture to produce crops that are pest-resistant. _________________________
 27.
Surrounding a drug compound with a layer of atoms that allows for the slow release of the drug is an example of genetic engineering. _________________________
 28.
Making a new kind of fastener modeled on the way an aquatic animal fastens onto rocks on the ocean floor is an example of nanotechnology. _________________________
 29.
Biometrics involves analyzing large amounts of data on biological characteristics. _________________________
 30.
Unique genetic traits, such as hair color, are the most important source of data for biometrics. _________________________
 31.
Advances in biotechnology have been slowed by ethical concerns. _________________________
 32.
The ethics of different kinds of biotechnology will be decided by individuals and scientists. _________________________
 33.
One good way to protect the environment is to learn more about it. _________________________
 34.
Environmental science involves neither the study of organisms nor their physical surroundings. _________________________
 35.
One reason that wildlife biologists collect DNA samples from endangered species is the hope that these species can be cloned if they become extinct. _________________________
 36.
Genetic engineering is used to track the movements of animals in the wild. _________________________
 37.
Community environmental groups make problems for environmental research. _________________________
 

Multiple Choice
Identify the choice that best completes the statement or answers the question.
 38.
Which of the following do scientists not use to support ideas?
a.
 opinions
c.
 experiments
b.
 evidence
d.
 investigations
 39.
Which of the following applies to all branches of science?
a.
 cell organization
c.
 gravity
b.
 earthquakes
d.
 reproduction
 40.
Which of the following is unethical behavior in scientific investigations?
a.
 allowing peers to review investigations
b.
 following guidelines for medical experiments
c.
 reporting inaccurate data
d.
 basing investigations on someone else’s work
 41.
Scientific thinking can be used
a.
 only by scientists.
c.
 by all living things.
b.
 only in experiments.
d.
 by everyone in daily life.
 42.
A scientist noticed that the number of salamanders in ponds in the Rocky Mountains was declining. This was a(n)
a.
 hypothesis.
c.
 observation.
b.
 theory.
d.
 control.
 43.
A hypothesis is a
a.
 definite answer to a given problem.
b.
 testable possible explanation of an observation.
c.
 proven statement.
d.
 concluding statement.
 44.
observation : hypothesis ::
a.
 theory : observation
c.
 certainty : prediction
b.
 guess : hypothesis
d.
 hypothesis : investigation
 45.
Most typically, the order in which the steps of scientific investigations are applied is
a.
 controlled experiment, hypothesis, analysis of results, observations, questions, conclusions.
b.
 observations, controlled experiment, hypothesis, analysis of results, conclusions, questions.
c.
 observations, questions, hypothesis, controlled experiment, analysis of results, conclusions.
d.
 questions, observations, analysis of results, controlled experiment, conclusions, hypothesis.
 46.
If experiments are not possible or ethical, scientists
a.
 cannot test a hypothesis.
b.
 test more than one variable at a time.
c.
 do not use a control group.
d.
 look for connections in data gathered.
 47.
Scientific hypotheses are most often tested by the process of
a.
 communicating.
c.
 experimenting.
b.
 inferring.
d.
 analyzing data.
 48.
A planned procedure to test a hypothesis is called a(n)
a.
 prediction.
c.
 control.
b.
 experiment.
d.
 variable.
 49.
The variable that is measured in an experiment is the _____ variable.
a.
 dependent
c.
 control
b.
 independent
d.
 experimental
 50.
A general explanation for a broad range of data is called a
a.
 hypothesis.
c.
 prediction.
b.
 theory.
d.
 controlled experiment.
 51.
A scientific theory is
a.
 absolutely certain and never questioned.
b.
 unchangeable.
c.
 revised as new evidence is presented.
d.
 a controlled experiment.
 52.
Scientists build theories from many
a.
 experiments that support hypotheses.
b.
 hypotheses that are rejected.
c.
 experiments with different variables.
d.
 untested ideas.
 53.
The metric system of measurement is based on powers of
a.
 1.
c.
 100.
b.
 10.
d.
 1000.
 54.
A specialized tool used to magnify organisms so that they can be observed is a
a.
 pipet.
c.
 satellite.
b.
 microscope.
d.
 laminar-flow hood.
 55.
Which of the following would scientists use to prevent contamination in an experiment?
a.
 electron microscope
c.
 remote collection of data
b.
 light microscope
d.
 sterile technique
 56.
Which of the following is the most recent tool available to scientists?
a.
 remote tracking devices
c.
 autoclaves
b.
 microscopes
d.
 sterilized pipets
 57.
You can work safely in the science lab by
a.
 taking shortcuts in procedures.
b.
 waiting until the end of experiments to clean area.
c.
 estimating measurements of chemicals.
d.
 following all instructions.
 58.
All of the following are important for working safely in a science laboratory except
a.
 tasting chemicals.
c.
 working cautiously.
b.
 measuring chemicals precisely.
d.
 wearing safety goggles.
 59.
Biology is the study of
a.
 life.
c.
 weather.
b.
 minerals.
d.
 energy.
 60.
The branch of biology that is the study of the human body is
a.
 ecology.
c.
 cell biology.
b.
 evolutionary theory.
d.
 physiology.
 61.
Which of the following is not one of the seven properties of life?
a.
 metabolism
c.
 responsiveness
b.
 homeostasis
d.
 photosynthesis
 62.
As a characteristic of all living things, homeostasis relates most directly to which of the following biological themes?
a.
 interacting systems
c.
 stability
b.
 scale and structure
d.
 evolution
 63.
chemical reactions : metabolism ::
a.
 cells : an organism
c.
 reproduction : living
b.
 heredity : homeostasis
d.
 experimentation : observation
 64.
All living things maintain a balance within their cells and with the environment through the process of
a.
 growth.
c.
 homeostasis.
b.
 development.
d.
 evolution.
 65.
The energy that drives metabolism in animals comes from
a.
 homeostasis.
c.
 water.
b.
 food.
d.
 heredity.
 66.
Children tend to resemble their parents due to
a.
 heredity.
c.
 metabolism.
b.
 responsiveness.
d.
 homeostasis.
 67.
A field of sunflowers facing the sun is an example of
a.
 metabolism.
c.
 responsiveness.
b.
 growth.
d.
 heredity.
 68.
The changes in human babies during their first year of life is an example of
a.
 heredity.
c.
 evolution.
b.
 responsiveness.
d.
 development.
 69.
Filtering contaminated water through a sari is
a.
 an ineffective way to reduce cases of cholera.
b.
 the best way to prevent the spread of cholera.
c.
 a low-tech solution to reducing cases of cholera.
d.
 another factor that causes cholera to spread rapidly.
 70.
All of the following should be researched in studying the epidemiology of waterborne diseases except the
a.
 genomes of the pathogens.
b.
 habitat of pathogens.
c.
 food chain of the pathogens.
d.
 environmental factors that affect pathogens.
 71.
One of the most important tools in preventing the spread of disease is
a.
 computer modeling.
c.
 genetic engineering.
b.
 DNA fingerprinting.
d.
 giving vaccinations.
 72.
computer modeling : epidemiology ::
a.
 genetics : DNA fingerprinting
b.
 cloning : biotechnology
c.
 genome : vaccination
d.
 human health : disease prevention
 73.
Which of the following terms is used to refer to a piece of equipment made for a specific use?
a.
 process
c.
 device
b.
 cure
d.
 treatment
 74.
Which of the following is least likely to help humans live longer?
a.
 epidemiology
c.
 genetics
b.
 medicine
d.
 DNA fingerprinting
 75.
knowledge of biology : human potential ::
a.
 assistive technologies : everyday lives
b.
 human potential : epidemiology
c.
 populations : disease outbreaks
d.
 genomes : genetics
 76.
The technology of changing the genetic material of a living cell is called
a.
 biometrics.
c.
 genetics.
b.
 genetic engineering.
d.
 DNA fingerprinting.
 77.
Planting Bt corn helps farmers decrease the use of
a.
 fertilizers.
c.
 pesticides.
b.
 herbicides.
d.
 cultivators.
 78.
All of the following are known advantages of planting Bt corn except it
a.
 adds some bacterial genes to food supplies.
b.
 lowers a farmer’s cost of production.
c.
 improves a farmer’s crop yield.
d.
 reduces chemical contaminants in the environment.
 79.
The application of a biological structure or process to solve design problems is called
a.
 adaptation.
c.
 cloning.
b.
 biomimetics.
d.
 decoding.
 80.
Which of these biotechnologies has the potential to repair tissues inside the body?
a.
 biometrics
c.
 epidemiology
b.
 biomimetics
d.
 nanotechnology
 81.
clam shell formation : ceramics ::
a.
 CAT scanning : modeling fossils
b.
 strong fabrics : spider silk
c.
 spider silk : strong fabrics
d.
 modeling fossils : CAT scanning
 82.
The analysis of biological traits to identify people is called
a.
 arithmetics.
c.
 genetics.
b.
 biometrics.
d.
 statistics.
 83.
Which of the following traits of an individual would be most useful for identifying a victim in a forensic investigation?
a.
 eye color
c.
 blood type
b.
 hair color
d.
 DNA fingerprint
 84.
The ethical concerns about biotechnology must be addressed by
a.
 scientists only.
c.
 both individuals and scientists.
b.
 societies only.
d.
 both individuals and societies.
 85.
All of the following biotechnologies are considered by some to be unethical except
a.
 biomimetic products.
c.
 human stem cell research.
b.
 biometrics data bases.
d.
 genetically modified foods.
 86.
Which of the following would be an unethical use of biometric data and methods?
a.
 linking criminals to crime scenes
b.
 eliminating innocent people from a list of criminal suspects
c.
 excluding people with certain genes from getting jobs
d.
 protecting citizens from bioterrorism
 87.
Which of the following is considered to be one of the most important applications of biology?
a.
 biometrics
c.
 environmental science
b.
 genetic engineering
d.
 assistive technologies
 88.
In order to make wise decisions about the use of natural resources, citizens will need to have a better understanding of
a.
 biomimetics.
c.
 environmental science.
b.
 genetics.
d.
 genetic engineering.
 89.
ecology : environmental science ::
a.
 biomolecules : strong glues
c.
 forensics : biometrics
b.
 genetics : genetic engineering
d.
 spider silk : clam shells
 90.
What do the initials GIS stand for?
a.
 geological inference standard
c.
 geographic information system
b.
 genetic improvement survey
d.
 global investigation society
 91.
Satellite tagging is a technology that is most likely to be used in
a.
 assisting the disabled.
c.
 developing maps of the world.
b.
 conservation of wildlife.
d.
 tracking the spread of disease.
 92.
Each of the following is a part of a GIS program except
a.
 access to data from different sources.
b.
 computer mapping.
c.
 environmental databases.
d.
 genetic analysis tools.
 93.
Which of the following must be done before an environmental study is begun locally?
a.
 contact several scientists
c.
 identify a problem
b.
 buy a GIS program
d.
 gather up volunteers
 94.
At the Raptor Rehabilitation Center, students in an environmental club help take care of injured and orphaned birds of prey. Based on this information, what does the term raptor refer to?
a.
 a bird of prey
c.
 orphaned wildlife
b.
 the environment
d.
 debilitating injury
 

Completion
Complete each statement.
 95.
The medical treatment for ulcers changed after scientists discovered that ____________________ cause stomach ulcers.
 96.
The questioning and often doubtful attitude required for scientific thought is called ____________________.
 97.
The truths that govern science and are valid everywhere in the universe are universal ____________________.
 98.
____________________ are a system of moral principles and values.
 99.
Most scientific investigations begin with ____________________ that lead to questions.
 100.
A reason to set up an experiment is to test a ____________________.
 101.
A(n) ____________________ experiment is a procedure that tests one factor at a time and that uses a(n) ____________________ group and an experimental group.
 102.
In a controlled experiment, the ____________________ group is the group that has one variable changed.
 103.
In an experiment, the ____________________ group receives no experimental treatment.
 104.
Factors that may change as a result of experimental treatment are ____________________ variables.
 105.
A(n) ____________________ is a specific, testable prediction for a limited set of conditions, and a(n) ____________________ is a general explanation for a broad range of data.
 106.
Scientists use the ______________________________ system to make measurements.
 107.
SI is the abbreviation for the ____________________ System of Units.
 108.
The SI base unit for length is the ____________________.
 109.
A kilogram is equal to ____________________ grams.
 110.
In a light microscope, light passes through one or more ____________________ to produce an enlarged image of an object.
 111.
Scientists use ____________________ techniques to minimize the risk of contamination.
 112.
The study of the interactions of living organisms with one another and with the nonliving part of their environment is called ____________________.
 113.
The branch of biology that studies the changes in types of organisms over time is called ___________________ theory.
 114.
Scientists who study whales, bats, or bears in their natural habitat are called ____________________ biologists.
 115.
The process of _________________ traits changing over time is called evolution.
 116.
Every living organism is composed of one or more ____________________.
 117.
All cells have the same basic ____________________.
 118.
The sum of all chemical reactions carried out in an organism is ____________________.
 119.
The energy used by living organisms originates from the ____________________.
 120.
The study of ____________________ involves finding out how diseases are spread.
 121.
Cholera bacteria can cause the disease only when ____________________ increases.
 122.
A ____________________ is a medical procedure that allows a person to resist infection by a certain disease.
 123.
Many new tools for studying and treating diseases caused by problems in genes have come from the study of ____________________.
 124.
In developed countries, the length of human lives has nearly ____________________ in the past century.
 125.
One example of an assistive technology that helps people in everyday life is ____________________.
 126.
The gene that was added to Bt corn came from a(n) ____________________.
 127.
Bt corn contains a gene that produces a ____________________ that kills the European core borer.
 128.
The robotic items produced through nanotechnology often resemble tiny ____________________.
 129.
Imitating biological structures, processes, and systems to solve engineering problems is called ____________________.
 130.
Because of ____________________, dissection is no longer needed to determine the shapes and locations of internal organs.
 131.
Fingerprints and iris patterns are useful in identification because they are ____________________ to individuals.
 132.
Material used in ____________________ is obtained from hair and skin cells.
 133.
Research that involves human stem cells is limited because many people think that such research is ____________________.
 134.
The study of living organisms and their environments is called _________________________.
 135.
The existence of undiscovered resources is an important reason to study and ____________________ natural environments.
 136.
The movements of wildlife can be studied through the technology of ____________________.
 137.
Wildlife agents use the technology of ____________________ to identify the remains of endangered animals and to identify who killed them.
 138.
The people in communities who make contributions to environmental research are called ____________________.
 139.
Students make contributions to environmental conservation by helping to care for ____________________ or ____________________ wildlife.
 

Short Answer
 140.
What universal law applies in a study of the flight of birds? How does it apply?
 141.
How could you use scientific thought to investigate a claim about a product?
 142.
Write a hypothesis to explain why the water level in an aquarium is going down.
 143.
What two groups are part of a controlled experiment?
 144.
What is the difference between an independent variable and dependent variables in a controlled experiment?
 145.
How does a scientist verify the conclusions of an experiment?
 146.
What is the difference between a hypothesis and a theory?
 147.
What makes SI easy to use?
 148.
What are the base SI units for volume, length, and mass?
 149.
What are two common kinds of microscopes. How do they differ?
 150.
What is sterile technique? What are four tools of sterile technique?
 151.
Suppose you are a scientist who studies sharks in their natural habitat. What are two names that describe the kind of biologist you are?
 152.
What is heredity?
 153.
Name the seven properties of life.
 154.
How are data from weather and climate satellites used in epidemiology?
 155.
How does a vaccination help people and animals resist disease?
 156.
How will the completion of the Human Genome Project contribute to biological research in the 21st Century?
 157.
List two examples of assistive technologies that will improve the lives of people with injuries and diseases.
 158.
How does genetic engineering that produced Bt corn help to increase the yield in a farmer’s corn field?
 159.
List two practical applications of biotechnology other than genetic engineering.
 160.
How has genetic engineering improved the treatment of people who have diabetes?
 161.
From what biological structure did engineers get the idea for a submarine?
 162.
What makes iris scans an effective technology for identifying people?
 163.
List two biological characteristics of individuals, besides fingerprints and iris patterns, that can be analyzed by computers to identify people.
 164.
List two concerns that people have expressed about the ethics of biotechnology.
 165.
List three important resources that all living things get from the environment.
 166.
What do the initials GIS stand for?
 167.
What is satellite tagging?
 168.
List three steps that students could take to get involved in environmental research.
 

Essay
 169.
Explain why accurate data and peer review are important in science.
 170.
The results of an experiment do not support the hypothesis that the experiment was designed to test. Was the experiment a waste of time? Explain your answer.
 171.
Explain the difference between an independent variable and a dependent variable in a controlled experiment. Also indicate whether or not each kind of variable would be found in a control group and an experimental group.
 172.
Summarize the steps in the development of a theory.
 173.
Before doing experiments, what should you know about lab safety? What procedure should you follow if an accident occurs during an experiment in your class?
 174.
List and describe the seven properties of life shared by all living organisms.
 175.
Toads that live in hot, dry regions bury themselves in the soil during the day. How might this be important to toads?
nar001-1.jpg
 176.
Refer to the map above. West Nile Virus is a virus that attacks the nervous system of birds, humans, and many other mammals. The virus first appeared in the United States in 1999, when an outbreak was reported in the New York City area. Based on this background and the information shown in the map, write a paragraph that summarizes the state of West Nile Virus incidence in the United States as of 2006.
 177.
Explain how increased understanding of biology and science in general should enable humans to live longer and healthier lives.
 178.
Compare and contrast fingerprints and DNA fingerprints as a means of identifying individuals.
 179.
Ethics is the study of whether human actions are moral (right or wrong, acceptable or unacceptable). Summarize the role of ethics in guiding the future of biotechnology.
 180.
What important lesson can be learned from the recent discovery of new kinds of organisms in a remote area of New Guinea?

 
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Chapter 5 Homeostasis and Transport RETEST

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Chapter 5 Homeostasis and Transport RETEST
 

Multiple Choice
Identify the choice that best completes the statement or answers the question.
 1.
As a result of diffusion, the concentration of many types of substances
a.
 always remains greater inside a membrane.
b.
 eventually becomes balanced on both sides of a membrane.
c.
 always remains greater on the outside of a membrane.
d.
 becomes imbalanced on both sides of a membrane.
 2.
Diffusion takes place
a.
 only through a lipid bilayer membrane.
b.
 from an area of low concentration to an area of high concentration.
c.
 only in liquids.
d.
 from an area of high concentration to an area of low concentration.
            Concentration of Water and Solutes in Four Adjacent Cells

nar001-1.jpg
 3.
Refer to the illustration above. Which cell is most likely to lose both water molecules and solute molecules as the system approaches equilibrium?
a.
 cell “A”
c.
 cell “C”
b.
 cell “B”
d.
 cell “D”
 4.
Refer to the illustration above. In this system, solute molecules in cell “B” are most likely to
a.
 remain in cell “B.”
c.
 diffuse into cell “A.”
b.
 adhere to cell “B’s” membrane.
d.
 diffuse into cell “D”
 5.
Refer to the illustration above. In this system, water molecules are most likely to diffuse in which direction?
a.
 from “A” to “B”
c.
 from “D” to “C”
b.
 from “B” to “D”
d.
 from “C” to “A”
 6.
The dispersal of ink in a beaker of water is an example of
a.
 diffusion.
c.
 active transport.
b.
 osmosis.
d.
 endocytosis.
 7.
heavy rains : flooding ::
a.
 osmosis : proton pumping
b.
 high solute concentration : isotonic solution
c.
 active transport : ATP
d.
 concentration difference : osmosis
 8.
Sugar molecules can enter cells through the process of
a.
 exocytosis.
c.
 osmosis.
b.
 facilitated diffusion.
d.
 ion pumps.
 9.
Channels utilizing facilitated diffusion
a.
 work in two directions.
b.
 require an electrical signal to function.
c.
 Both a and b
d.
 None of the above
 10.
Which of the following is not characteristic of facilitated diffusion?
a.
 It requires a carrier protein.
b.
 It moves substances against a concentration gradient.
c.
 It requires no energy input.
d.
 It involves a change in the shape of its carrier.
 11.
Which of the following is true of ions and their transport across cell membranes?
a.
 The “gates” for ion channels are always open.
b.
 Ions are very small and thus can cross cell membranes readily.
c.
 Electrical or chemical signals may control the movement of ions across cell membranes.
d.
 Because they are charged particles, the movement of ions across cell membranes requires energy input.
 12.
Which of the following does not expend energy?
a.
 diffusion
c.
 active transport
b.
 chemiosmosis
d.
 a sodium-potassium pump
 13.
Which of the following enters a cell by active transport?
a.
 glucose
c.
 sodium ion
b.
 water
d.
 potassium ion
 14.
The process by which water passes into or out of a cell is called
a.
 solubility.
c.
 selective transport.
b.
 osmosis.
d.
 endocytosis.
nar002-1.jpg
 15.
Refer to the illustration above. The process shown is called
a.
 osmosis.
c.
 active transport.
b.
 facilitated diffusion.
d.
 diffusion.
 16.
The sodium-potassium pump usually pumps
a.
 potassium out of the cell.
b.
 sodium into the cell.
c.
 potassium into the cell.
d.
 only a potassium and sugar molecule together.
 17.
proton pump : protons ::
a.
 ATP : protons
c.
 sodium-potassium pump : ATP
b.
 channel : protons
d.
 sodium-potassium pump : sodium
 18.
Ridding the cell of material by discharging it from sacs at the cell surface is called
a.
 chemiosmosis.
c.
 exocytosis.
b.
 exorcism.
d.
 endocytosis.
 19.
Molecules that are too large to be moved across a cell membrane can be removed from the cell by
a.
 diffusion.
c.
 lipid carriers.
b.
 exocytosis.
d.
 osmosis.
 20.
Molecules that are too large to be moved through the membrane can be transported into the cell by
a.
 osmosis.
c.
 lipid carriers.
b.
 endocytosis.
d.
 diffusion.
 21.
endocytosis : exocytosis ::
a.
 phagocytosis : bacteria
c.
 cold : hot
b.
 secrete : exocytosis
d.
 white blood cell : bacteria

 
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