Category: 1st Semester

AP Unit 1 – Biochemistry

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AP Unit 1     Biocehemistry

 

 

Multiple Choice
Identify the choice that best completes the statement or answers the question.
 1.
Which of the following properties or processes do we associate with living things?
a.
 evolutionary adaptations
b.
 energy processing
c.
 responding to the environment
d.
 growth and reproduction
e.
 all of the above
 2.
Which of the following sequences represents the hierarchy of biological organization from the most to the least complex level?
a.
 organelle, cell, organ system, population, community, ecosystem
b.
 ecosystem, community, organism, tissue, cell, organelle
c.
 biosphere, population, organism, cell, tissue, molecule
d.
 biosphere, community, tissue, organ system, molecule, organelle
e.
 organism, population, organ system, tissue, molecule, cell
 3.
What is a localized group of organisms that belong to the same species?
a.
 biosystem
b.
 community
c.
 population
d.
 ecosystem
e.
 organ system
 4.
A maple leaf is at which level in the hierarchy of biological organization?
a.
 tissue
b.
 cell
c.
 organelle
d.
 organ
e.
 organ system
 5.
Which of these is an example of an organelle?
a.
 chloroplast
b.
 muscle
c.
 epidermis
d.
 intestine
e.
 maple leaf
 6.
Plants convert the energy of sunlight into
a.
 the energy of motion.
b.
 carbon dioxide and water.
c.
 the potential energy of chemical bonds.
d.
 minerals.
e.
 kinetic energy.
 7.
As a result of photosynthesis, plants release ____ into the atmosphere.
a.
 methane
b.
 carbon dioxide
c.
 water
d.
 minerals
e.
 oxygen
 8.
The dynamics of any ecosystem include the following major processes:
a.
 the flow of energy from sunlight to producers
b.
 the flow of energy from sunlight to producers and then to consumers
c.
 the recycling of chemical nutrients
d.
 the flow of energy to producers and the recycling of nutrients
e.
 the flow of energy from sunlight to producers and then to consumers, and the recycling of chemical nutrients
 9.
For most ecosystems ____ is (are) the ultimate source of energy, and energy leaves the ecosystem in the form of ____.
a.
 sunlight; heat
b.
 heat; light
c.
 plants; animals
d.
 plants; heat
e.
 producers; consumers
 10.
The lowest level of biological organization that can perform all the activities required for life is the
a.
 organelle-for example, a chloroplast.
b.
 cell-for example, a skin cell.
c.
 tissue-for example, nervous tissue.
d.
 organ system-for example, the reproductive system.
e.
 organism-for example, an amoeba, dog, human, or maple tree.
 11.
Which of the following is true regarding deoxyribonucleic acid (DNA)?
a.
 Each deoxyribonucleic acid molecule is composed of two long chains of nucleotides arranged in a double helix.
b.
 Genes are composed of deoxyribonucleic acid.
c.
 DNA is composed of chemical building blocks called nucleotides.
d.
 Only A and C are correct.
e.
 A, B, and C are correct.
 12.
What are the basic “building blocks” of deoxyribonucleic acid (DNA)?
a.
 100,000 different kinds of proteins
b.
 26 different kinds of chromosomes
c.
 20 different kinds of amino acids
d.
 4 different kinds of nucleotides
e.
 3 different kinds of genomes
 13.
Which of the following types of cells utilize deoxyribonucleic acid (DNA) as their genetic material?
a.
 animal
b.
 plant
c.
 archaea
d.
 A and B only
e.
 A, B, and C
 14.
The chemical reactions within cells are regulated by organic catalysts called
a.
 feedback activators.
b.
 feedback inhibitors.
c.
 enzymes.
d.
 metabolites.
e.
 nutrients.
 15.
Once labor begins in childbirth, contractions increase in intensity and frequency until delivery. The increasing labor contractions of childbirth are an example of
a.
 a bioinformatic system.
b.
 positive feedback.
c.
 negative feedback.
d.
 feedback inhibition.
e.
 both C and D
 16.
When blood glucose level rises, the pancreas secretes insulin, and as a result blood glucose level declines. When blood glucose level is low, the pancreas secretes glucagon, and as a result blood glucose level rises. Such regulation of blood glucose level is the result of
a.
 catalytic feedback.
b.
 positive feedback.
c.
 negative feedback.
d.
 bioinformatic regulation.
e.
 both A and B
 17.
Which of the following are characteristics shared by members of both domain Bacteria and domain Archaea?
a.
 cytosol
b.
 nucleus
c.
 DNA
d.
 A and C only
e.
 A, B, and C
 18.
All eukaryotes belong to which group(s)?
a.
 domain Bacteria
b.
 domain Archaea
c.
 domain Eukarya
d.
 kingdom Protista
e.
 both C and D
 19.
Species that are in the same ____ are more closely related than species that are only in the same ____.
a.
 phylum; class
b.
 family; order
c.
 class; order
d.
 family; genus
e.
 kingdom; phylum
 20.
Which of these is reflective of the hierarchical organization of life from most to least inclusive?
a.
 kingdom, order, family, phylum, class, genus, species
b.
 phylum, class, order, kingdom, family, genus, species
c.
 kingdom, phylum, class, order, family, genus, species
d.
 genus, species, kingdom, phylum, class, order, family
e.
 class, order, kingdom, phylum, family, genus, species
 21.
About 25 of the 92 natural elements are known to be essential to life. Which four of these 25 elements make up approximately 96% of living matter?
a.
 carbon, sodium, chlorine, nitrogen
b.
 carbon, sulfur, phosphorus, hydrogen
c.
 oxygen, hydrogen, calcium, sodium
d.
 carbon, hydrogen, nitrogen, oxygen
e.
 carbon, oxygen, sulfur, calcium
 22.
Which of the following statements is false?
a.
 Atoms of the various elements differ in their number of subatomic particles.
b.
 All atoms of a particular element have the same number of protons in their nuclei.
c.
 The neutrons and protons present in the nucleus of an atom are almost identical in mass; each has a mass of about 1 dalton.
d.
 An atom is the smallest unit of an element that still retains the properties of the element.
e.
 Protons and electrons are electrically charged particles. Protons have one unit of negative charge, and electrons have one unit of positive charge.
 23.
Each element is unique and different from other elements because of the number of protons in the nuclei of its atoms. Which of the following indicates the number of protons in an atom’s nucleus?
a.
 atomic mass
b.
 atomic weight
c.
 atomic number
d.
 mass weight
e.
 mass number
 24.
The mass number of an element can be easily approximated by adding together the number of ____ in an atom of that element.
a.
 protons and neutrons
b.
 energy levels
c.
 protons and electrons
d.
 neutrons and electrons
e.
 isotopes
 25.
Calcium has an atomic number of 20 and an atomic mass of 40. Therefore, a calcium atom must have
a.
 20 protons.
b.
 40 electrons.
c.
 40 neutrons.
d.
 A and B only
e.
 A, B, and C
 26.
An atom with an atomic number of 9 and a mass number of 19 would have an atomic mass of approximately
a.
 9 daltons.
b.
 9 grams.
c.
 10 daltons.
d.
 20 grams.
e.
 19 daltons.
 27.
How do isotopes of the same element differ from each other?
a.
 number of protons
b.
 number of electrons
c.
 number of neutrons
d.
 valence electron distribution
e.
 amount of radioactivity
 28.
One difference between carbon-12 and carbon-14 is that carbon-14 has
a.
 two more protons than carbon-12.
b.
 two more electrons than carbon-12.
c.
 two more neutrons than carbon-12.
d.
 A and C only
e.
 B and C only
 29.
Electrons exist only at fixed levels of potential energy. However, if an atom absorbs sufficient energy, a possible result is that
a.
 an electron may move to an electron shell farther out from the nucleus.
b.
 an electron may move to an electron shell closer to the nucleus.
c.
 the atom may become a radioactive isotope.
d.
 the atom would become a positively charged ion, or cation.
e.
 the atom would become a negatively charged ion, or anion.

Use the figure below to answer the following questions.

nar001-1.jpg
 30.
Which drawing depicts the electron configuration of neon (Ne)?
a.
 Drawing A
b.
 Drawing B
c.
 Drawing C
d.
 Drawing D
e.
 Drawing E
 31.
Which drawing depicts the electron configuration of oxygen (O)?
a.
 Drawing A
b.
 Drawing B
c.
 Drawing C
d.
 Drawing D
e.
 Drawing E
 32.
Which drawing is of an atom with the atomic number of 6?
a.
 Drawing A
b.
 Drawing B
c.
 Drawing C
d.
 Drawing D
e.
 Drawing E
 33.
Which drawing depicts an atom that is inert or chemically unreactive?
a.
 Drawing A
b.
 Drawing B
c.
 Drawing C
d.
 Drawing D
e.
 Drawing E

Use the information extracted from the periodic table in the figure below to answer the following questions.

nar002-1.jpg
 34.
How many electrons does nitrogen have in its valence shell?
a.
 2
b.
 5
c.
 7
d.
 8
e.
 14
 35.
How many electrons does phosphorus have in its valence shell?
a.
 1
b.
 2
c.
 3
d.
 4
e.
 5
 36.
What do atoms form when they share electron pairs?
a.
 elements
b.
 ions
c.
 aggregates
d.
 isotopes
e.
 molecules
 37.
If an atom of sulfur (atomic number 16) were allowed to react with atoms of hydrogen (atomic number 1), which of the molecules below would be formed?
a.
 S-H
b.
 H-S-H
c.
 H-S-H
|
H
d.
 H
|
H-S-H
|
H
e.
 H=S=H
 38.
What is the maximum number of covalent bonds an element with atomic number 8 can make with hydrogen?
a.
 1
b.
 2
c.
 3
d.
 4
e.
 6
 39.
A molecule of carbon dioxide (CO2) is formed when one atom of carbon (atomic number 6) is covalently bonded with two atoms of oxygen (atomic number 8). What is the total number of electrons that must be shared between the carbon atom and the oxygen atoms in order to complete the outer electron shell of all three atoms?
a.
 1
b.
 2
c.
 3
d.
 4
e.
 5
 40.
When two atoms are equally electronegative, they will interact to form
a.
 equal numbers of isotopes.
b.
 ions.
c.
 polar covalent bonds.
d.
 nonpolar covalent bonds.
e.
 ionic bonds.
 41.
What results from an unequal sharing of electrons between atoms?
a.
 a nonpolar covalent bond
b.
 a polar covalent bond
c.
 an ionic bond
d.
 a hydrogen bond
e.
 a hydrophobic interaction
 42.
In a single molecule of water, the two hydrogen atoms are bonded to a single oxygen atom by
a.
 hydrogen bonds.
b.
 nonpolar covalent bonds.
c.
 polar covalent bonds.
d.
 ionic bonds.
e.
 van der Waals interactions.
 43.
What determines the cohesiveness of water molecules?
a.
 hydrophobic interactions
b.
 nonpolar covalent bonds
c.
 ionic bonds
d.
 hydrogen bonds
e.
 both A and C
 44.
What do cohesion, surface tension, and adhesion have in common with reference to water?
a.
 All increase when temperature increases.
b.
 All are produced by ionic bonding.
c.
 All are properties related to hydrogen bonding.
d.
 All have to do with nonpolar covalent bonds.
e.
 C and D only
 45.
Which of the following is possible due to the high surface tension of water?
a.
 Lakes don’t freeze solid in winter, despite low temperatures.
b.
 A water strider can walk across the surface of a small pond.
c.
 Organisms resist temperature changes, although they give off heat due to chemical reactions.
d.
 Water can act as a solvent.
e.
 The pH of water remains exactly neutral.
 46.
Water’s high specific heat is mainly a consequence of the
a.
 small size of the water molecules.
b.
 high specific heat of oxygen and hydrogen atoms.
c.
 absorption and release of heat when hydrogen bonds break and form.
d.
 fact that water is a poor heat conductor.
e.
 inability of water to dissipate heat into dry air.
 47.
Desert rabbits are adapted to the warm climate because their large ears aid in the removal of heat due to the
a.
 high surface tension of water.
b.
 high heat of vaporization of water.
c.
 high specific heat of water.
d.
 buffering capacity of water.
e.
 dissociation of water molecules.
 48.
The formation of ice during colder weather helps moderate the seasonal transition to winter. This is mainly because
a.
 the breaking of hydrogen bonds absorbs heat.
b.
 the formation of hydrogen bonds releases heat.
c.
 the formation of hydrogen bonds absorbs heat.
d.
 there is greater evaporative cooling of lakes.
e.
 ice is denser than liquid water.
 49.
Why does ice float in liquid water?
a.
 The liquid water molecules have more kinetic energy and thus support the ice.
b.
 The ionic bonds between the molecules in ice prevent the ice from sinking.
c.
 Ice always has air bubbles that keep it afloat.
d.
 Hydrogen bonds stabilize and keep the molecules of ice farther apart than the water molecules of liquid water.
e.
 The crystalline lattice of ice causes it to be denser than liquid water.
 50.
Which of the following solutions has the greatest concentration of hydrogen ions [H+]?
a.
 gastric juice at pH 2
b.
 vinegar at pH 3
c.
 tomato juice at pH 4
d.
 black coffee at pH 5
e.
 household bleach at pH 12
 51.
Which of the following solutions has the greatest concentration of hydroxide ions [OH-]?
a.
 lemon juice at pH 2
b.
 vinegar at pH 3
c.
 tomato juice at pH 4
d.
 urine at pH 6
e.
 seawater at pH 8
 52.
Organic chemistry is a science based on the study of
a.
 functional groups.
b.
 vital forces interacting with matter.
c.
 carbon compounds.
d.
 water and its interaction with other kinds of molecules.
e.
 inorganic compounds.
 53.
Which property of the carbon atom gives it compatibility with a greater number of different elements than any other type of atom?
a.
 Carbon has 6 to 8 neutrons.
b.
 Carbon has a valence of 4.
c.
 Carbon forms ionic bonds.
d.
 A and C only
e.
 A, B, and C
 54.
How many electron pairs does carbon share in order to complete its valence shell?
a.
 1
b.
 2
c.
 3
d.
 4
e.
 8
 55.
What type(s) of bond(s) does carbon have a tendency to form?
a.
 ionic
b.
 hydrogen
c.
 covalent
d.
 A and B only
e.
 A, B, and C
 56.

The two molecules shown in the following figure are best described as

mc056-1.jpg

a.
 optical isomers.
b.
 radioactive isotopes.
c.
 structural isomers.
d.
 nonradioactive isotopes.
e.
 geometric isomers.
 57.
A compound contains hydroxyl groups as its predominant functional group. Which of the following statements is true concerning this compound?
a.
 It lacks an asymmetric carbon, and it is probably a fat or lipid.
b.
 It should dissolve in water.
c.
 It should dissolve in a nonpolar solvent.
d.
 It won’t form hydrogen bonds with water.
e.
 It is hydrophobic.
 58.

What is the name of the functional group shown in the following figure?

a.
 carbonyl
b.
 ketone
c.
 aldehyde
d.
 carboxyl
e.
 hydroxyl
 59.
Which two functional groups are always found in amino acids?
a.
 ketone and aldehyde
b.
 carbonyl and carboxyl
c.
 carboxyl and amino
d.
 phosphate and sulfhydryl
e.
 hydroxyl and aldehyde

Use the figure below to answer the following questions.

nar003-1.jpg
 60.
Which is a hydroxyl functional group?
a.
 Group A
b.
 Group B
c.
 Group C
d.
 Group D
e.
 Group E
 61.
Which is an amino functional group?
a.
 Group A
b.
 Group B
c.
 Group C
d.
 Group D
e.
 Group E
 62.
Which is a carbonyl functional group?
a.
 Group A
b.
 Group B
c.
 Group C
d.
 Group D
e.
 Group E
 63.
Which is a functional group that helps stabilize proteins by forming covalent cross-links within or between protein molecules?
a.
 Group A
b.
 Group B
c.
 Group C
d.
 Group D
e.
 Group E

Use the molecules shown in the figure below to answer the following questions..

nar004-1.jpg
 64.
Which molecule contains a sulfhydryl functional group?
a.
 Molecule A
b.
 Molecule B
c.
 Molecule C
d.
 Molecule D
e.
 Molecule E
 65.
Which of the following is not one of the four major groups of macromolecules found in living organisms?
a.
 glucose
b.
 carbohydrates
c.
 lipids
d.
 proteins
e.
 nucleic acids
 66.
Polymers of polysaccharides, fats, and proteins are all synthesized from monomers by which process?
a.
 connecting monosaccharides together (condensation reactions)
b.
 the addition of water to each monomer (hydrolysis)
c.
 the removal of water (dehydration reactions)
d.
 ionic bonding of the monomers
e.
 the formation of disulfide bridges between monomers
 67.
Which of the following best summarizes the relationship between dehydration reactions and hydrolysis?
a.
 Dehydration reactions assemble polymers, and hydrolysis breaks down polymers.
b.
 Hydrolysis only occurs in the urinary system, and dehydration reactions only occur in the digestive tract.
c.
 Dehydration reactions can occur only after hydrolysis.
d.
 Hydrolysis creates monomers, and dehydration reactions break down polymers.
e.
 A and C are correct.
 68.
A molecule with the chemical formula C16H32O16 is probably a
a.
 carbohydrate.
b.
 lipid.
c.
 protein.
d.
 nucleic acid.
e.
 hydrocarbon.
 69.

If 128 molecules of the general type shown in the figure below were covalently joined together in sequence, the single molecule that would result would be a

mc069-1.jpg

a.
 polysaccharide.
b.
 polypeptide.
c.
 polyunsaturated lipid.
d.
 monosaccharide.
e.
 disaccharide.
 70.
Lactose, a sugar in milk, is composed of one glucose molecule joined by a glycosidic linkage to one galactose molecule. How is lactose classified?
a.
 as a pentose
b.
 as a hexose
c.
 as a monosaccharide
d.
 as a disaccharide
e.
 as a polysaccharide
 71.
Which of the following are polysaccharides?
a.
 glycogen
b.
 starch
c.
 chitin
d.
 A and B only
e.
 A, B, and C
 72.
Which of the following is (are) true for the class of large biological molecules known as lipids?
a.
 They are insoluble in water.
b.
 They are an important constituent of cell membranes.
c.
 They contain twice as much energy as an equivalent weight of polysaccharide.
d.
 Only A and B are correct.
e.
 A, B, and C are correct.
 73.
Saturated fatty acids
a.
 are the predominant fatty acid in corn oil.
b.
 have double bonds between carbon atoms of the fatty acids.
c.
 have a higher ratio of hydrogen to carbon than do unsaturated fatty acids.
d.
 are usually liquid at room temperature.
e.
 are usually produced by plants.
 74.

What is the molecule illustrated in the figure below?

mc074-1.jpg

a.
 a saturated fatty acid
b.
 an unsaturated fatty acid
c.
 a polyunsaturated triacylglyceride
d.
 a trans polyunsaturated triacylglyceride
e.
 a steroid similar to cholesterol
 75.

The molecule shown in the figure below is a

mc075-1.jpg

a.
 polysaccharide.
b.
 polypeptide.
c.
 saturated fatty acid.
d.
 triacylglycerol.
e.
 unsaturated fatty acid.
 76.
The 20 different amino acids found in polypeptides exhibit different chemical and physical properties because of different
a.
 carboxyl groups attached to an alpha carbon
b.
 amino groups attached to an alpha carbon
c.
 side chains (R groups).
d.
 alpha carbons.
e.
 asymmetric carbons.
 77.

The chemical reaction illustrated in the figure below results in the formation of a (an)

mc077-1.jpg

a.
 ionic bond.
b.
 peptide bond.
c.
 glycosidic linkage.
d.
 ester linkage.
e.
 phosphodiester linkage.
 78.

The figure below shows the

mc078-1.jpg

a.
 1-4 linkage of the glucose monomers of starch.
b.
 1-4 linkage of the glucose monomers of cellulose.
c.
 double helical structure of a DNA molecule.
d.
 helix secondary structure of a polypeptide.
e.
 pleated sheet secondary structure of a polypeptide.
 79.
What is the term used for a change in a protein’s three-dimensional shape or conformation due to disruption of hydrogen bonds, disulfide bridges, or ionic bonds?
a.
 hydrolysis
b.
 stabilization
c.
 destabilization
d.
 renaturation
e.
 denaturation
 80.
Which of the following best describes the flow of information in eukaryotic cells?
a.
 DNA RNA proteins
b.
 RNA proteins DNA
c.
 proteins DNA RNA
d.
 RNA DNA proteins
e.
 DNA proteins RNA

 
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AP Unit 4 Study Guide 134

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AP Unit 4 Study Guide 134

 

 

Multiple Choice
Identify the choice that best completes the statement or answers the question.
 1.
Pea plants were particularly well suited for use in Mendel’s breeding experiments for all of the following reasons except that
a.
 peas show easily observed variations in a number of characters, such as pea shape and flower color.
b.
 it is possible to completely control matings between different pea plants.
c.
 it is possible to obtain large numbers of progeny from any given cross.
d.
 peas have an unusually long generation time.
e.
 many of the observable characters that vary in pea plants are controlled by single genes.
 2.
A plant with purple flowers is allowed to self-pollinate. Generation after generation, it produces purple flowers. This is an example of
a.
 hybridization.
b.
 incomplete dominance.
c.
 true-breeding.
d.
 the law of segregation.
e.
 polygenetics.
 3.
Which of the following statements about Mendel’s breeding experiments is correct?
a.
 None of the parental (P) plants were true-breeding.
b.
 All of the F2 progeny showed a phenotype that was intermediate between the two parental (P) phenotypes.
c.
 Half of the F1 progeny had the same phenotype as one of the parental (P) plants, and the other half had the same phenotype as the other parent.
d.
 All of the F1 progeny resembled one of the parental (P) plants, but only some of the F2 progeny did.
e.
 none of the above
 4.
What is the difference between a monohybrid cross and a dihybrid cross?
a.
 A monohybrid cross involves a single parent, whereas a dihybrid cross involves two parents.
b.
 A monohybrid cross produces a single progeny, whereas a dihybrid cross produces two progeny.
c.
 A monohybrid cross involves organisms that are heterozygous for a single character, whereas a dihybrid cross involves organisms that are heterozygous for two characters.
d.
 A monohybrid cross is performed only once, whereas a dihybrid cross is performed twice.
e.
 A monohybrid cross results in a 9:3:3:1 ratio whereas a dihybrid cross gives a 3:1 ratio.
 5.
A cross between homozygous purple-flowered and homozygous white-flowered pea plants results in offspring with purple flowers. This demonstrates
a.
 the blending model of genetics.
b.
 true-breeding.
c.
 dominance.
d.
 a dihybrid cross.
e.
 the mistakes made by Mendel.
 6.
The F1 offspring of Mendel’s classic pea cross always looked like one of the two parental varieties because
a.
 one allele was completely dominant over another.
b.
 each allele affected phenotypic expression.
c.
 the traits blended together during fertilization.
d.
 no genes interacted to produce the parental phenotype.
e.
 different genes interacted to produce the parental phenotype.
 7.
What was the most significant conclusion that Gregor Mendel drew from his experiments with pea plants?
a.
 There is considerable genetic variation in garden peas.
b.
 Traits are inherited in discrete units, and are not the results of “blending.”
c.
 Recessive genes occur more frequently in the F1 than do dominant ones.
d.
 Genes are composed of DNA.
e.
 An organism that is homozygous for many recessive traits is at a disadvantage.
 8.
Which of the following is (are) true for alleles?
a.
 They can be identical or different for any given gene in a somatic cell.
b.
 They can be dominant or recessive.
c.
 They can represent alternative forms of a gene.
d.
 Only A and B are correct.
e.
 A, B, and C are correct.
 9.
What is genetic cross between an individual showing a dominant phenotype (but of unknown genotype) and a homozygous recessive individual called?
a.
 a self-cross
b.
 a testcross
c.
 a hybrid cross
d.
 an F1 cross
e.
 a dihybrid cross
 10.
How many unique gametes could be produced through independent assortment by an individual with the genotype AaBbCCDdEE?
a.
 4
b.
 8
c.
 16
d.
 32
e.
 64
 11.
Two plants are crossed, resulting in offspring with a 3:1 ratio for a particular trait. This suggests
a.
 that the parents were true-breeding for contrasting traits.
b.
 incomplete dominance.
c.
 that a blending of traits has occurred.
d.
 that the parents were both heterozygous.
e.
 that each offspring has the same alleles.
 12.
Two characters that appear in a 9:3:3:1 ratio in the F2 generation should have which of the following properties?
a.
 Each of the characters is controlled by a single gene.
b.
 The genes controlling the characters obey the law of independent assortment.
c.
 Each of the genes controlling the characters has two alleles.
d.
 Only A and C are correct.
e.
 A, B, and C are correct.
 13.
A 9:3:3:1 phenotypic ratio is characteristic of which of the following?
a.
 a monohybrid cross
b.
 a dihybrid cross
c.
 a trihybrid cross
d.
 linked genes
e.
 both A and D
 14.
A sexually reproducing animal has two unlinked genes, one for head shape (H). and one for tail length (T). Its genotype is HhTt. Which of the following genotypes is possible in a gamete from this organism?
a.
 HT
b.
 Hh
c.
 HhTt
d.
 T
e.
 tt
 15.
It was important that Mendel examined not just the F1 generation in his breeding experiments, but the F2 generation as well, because
a.
 he obtained very few F1 progeny, making statistical analysis difficult.
b.
 parental traits that were not observed in the F1 reappeared in the F2, suggesting that the traits did not truly disappear in the F1.
c.
 analysis of the F1 progeny would have allowed him to discover the law of segregation, but not the law of independent assortment.
d.
 the dominant phenotypes were visible in the F2 generation, but not in the F1.
e.
 all of the above
 16.
When crossing a homozygous recessive with a heterozygote, what is the chance of getting an offspring with the homozygous recessive phenotype?
a.
 0%
b.
 25%
c.
 50%
d.
 75%
e.
 100%

Use the diagram and description below to answer the following question.

In a particular plant, leaf color is controlled by gene D. Plants with the dominant allele D have dark green leaves, and plants with the homozygous recessive dd genotype have light green leaves. A true-breeding dark-leaved plant is crossed with a light-leaved one, and the F1 offspring is allowed to self-pollinate. The predicted outcome of this cross is diagrammed in the Punnett square shown below, where 1, 2, 3, and 4 represent the genotypes corresponding to each box within the square.

nar001-1.jpg
 17.
Which of the boxes marked 1-4 correspond to plants with dark leaves?
a.
 1 only
b.
 1 and 2
c.
 2 and 3
d.
 4 only
e.
 1, 2, and 3
 18.
Which of the boxes correspond to plants with a heterozygous genotype?
a.
 1
b.
 1 and 2
c.
 1, 2, and 3
d.
 2 and 3
e.
 2, 3, and 4
 19.
Which of the plants will be true-breeding?
a.
 1 and 4
b.
 2 and 3
c.
 1-4
d.
 1 only
e.
 none
 20.
P = purple, pp = white. The offspring of a cross between two heterozygous purple-flowering plants (Pp Pp) results in
a.
 all purple-flowered plants.
b.
 purple-flowered plants and white-flowered plants.
c.
 two types of white-flowered plants: PP and Pp.
d.
 all white-flowered plants.
e.
 all pink-flowered plants.
 21.
Mendel accounted for the observation that traits which had disappeared in the F1 generation reappeared in the F2 generation by proposing that
a.
 new mutations were frequently generated in the F2 progeny, “reinventing” traits that had been lost in the F1.
b.
 the mechanism controlling the appearance of traits was different between the F1 and the F2 plants.
c.
 traits can be dominant or recessive, and the recessive traits were obscured by the dominant ones in the F1.
d.
 the traits were lost in the F1 due to blending of the parental traits.
e.
 members of the F1 generation had only one allele for each character, but members of the F2 had two alleles for each character.
 22.
What are Punnett squares used for?
a.
 predicting the result of genetic crosses between organisms of known genotypes
b.
 determining the DNA sequence of a given gene
c.
 identifying the gene locus where allelic variations are possible
d.
 testing for the presence of the recessive allele
e.
 more than one of the above
 23.
Which of the following is false, regarding the law of segregation?
a.
 It states that each of two alleles for a given trait segregate into different gametes.
b.
 It can be explained by the segregation of homologous chromosomes during meiosis.
c.
 It can account for the 3:1 ratio seen in the F2 generation of Mendel’s crosses.
d.
 It can be used to predict the likelihood of transmission of certain genetic diseases within families.
e.
 It is a method that can be used to determine the number of chromosomes in a plant.
 24.
The fact that all seven of the pea plant traits studied by Mendel obeyed the principle of independent assortment means that
a.
 none of the traits obeyed the law of segregation.
b.
 the diploid number of chromosomes in the pea plants was 7.
c.
 all of the genes controlling the traits were located on the same chromosome.
d.
 all of the genes controlling the traits behaved as if they were on different chromosomes.
e.
 the formation of gametes in plants occurs by mitosis only.
 25.
Black fur in mice (B) is dominant to brown fur (b) Short tails (T) are dominant to long tails (t). What fraction of the progeny of the cross BbTt BBtt will have black fur and long tails?
a.
 1/16
b.
 3/16
c.
 3/8
d.
 1/2
e.
 9/16
 26.
In certain plants, tall is dominant to short. If a heterozygous plant is crossed with a homozygous tall plant, what is the probability that the offspring will be short?
a.
 1/2
b.
 1/4
c.
 0
d.
 1
e.
 1/6
 27.
A couple has three children, all of whom have brown eyes and blond hair. Both parents are homozygous for brown eyes (BB) but one is a blond (rr) and the other is a redhead (Rr). What is the probability that their next child will be a brown-eyed redhead?
a.
 1/16
b.
 1/8
c.
 1/4
d.
 1/2
e.
 1
 28.
Two true-breeding stocks of pea plants are crossed. One parent has red, axial flowers and the other has white, terminal flowers; all F1 individuals have red, axial flowers. If 1,000 F2 offspring resulted from the cross, approximately how many of them would you expect to have red, terminal flowers? (Assume independent assortment).
a.
 65
b.
 190
c.
 250
d.
 565
e.
 750
 29.
In a cross AaBbCc AaBbCc, what is the probability of producing the genotype AABBCC?
a.
 1/4
b.
 1/8
c.
 1/16
d.
 1/32
e.
 1/64
 30.
Given the parents AABBCc AabbCc, assume simple dominance and independent assortment. What proportion of the progeny will be expected to phenotypically resemble the first parent?
a.
 1/4
b.
 1/8
c.
 3/4
d.
 3/8
e.
 1
 31.
A 1:2:1 phenotypic ratio in the F2 generation of a monohybrid cross is a sign of
a.
 complete dominance.
b.
 multiple alleles.
c.
 incomplete dominance.
d.
 polygenic inheritance.
e.
 pleiotropy.

Refer to the result below to answer the following questions.

A tall plant is crossed with a short plant, and the progeny are all intermediate in size between the two parental plants.
 32.
This could be an example of
a.
 incomplete dominance.
b.
 polygenic inheritance.
c.
 complete dominance.
d.
 A and B
e.
 B and C
 33.
If the intermediate F1 progeny were allowed to self-pollinate, and the F2 progeny were also intermediate in size, but following a normal distribution, this would suggest
a.
 incomplete dominance.
b.
 polygenic inheritance.
c.
 complete dominance.
d.
 a strong environmental influence.
e.
 codominance.
 34.
If the intermediate F1 progeny were allowed to self-pollinate, and 25% of the F2 progeny were tall, 50% were intermediate in size, and 25% were short, this would suggest
a.
 incomplete dominance.
b.
 polygenic inheritance.
c.
 complete dominance.
d.
 pleiotropy.
e.
 multifactorial inheritance.
 35.
In snapdragons, heterozygotes have pink flowers, whereas homozygotes have red or white flowers. When plants with red flowers are crossed with plants with white flowers, what proportion of the offspring will have pink flowers?
a.
 0%
b.
 25%
c.
 50%
d.
 75%
e.
 100%
 36.
Tallness (T) is dominant to dwarfness (t), while red (R) flower color is dominant to white (r). The heterozygous condition results in pink (Rr) flower color. A dwarf, red snapdragon is crossed with a plant homozygous for tallness and white flowers. What are the genotype and phenotype of the F1 individuals?
a.
 ttRr-dwarf and pink
b.
 ttrr-dwarf and white
c.
 TtRr-tall and red
d.
 TtRr-tall and pink
e.
 TTRR-tall and red
 37.
Skin color in a fish is inherited via a single gene with four different alleles. How many different types of gametes would be possible in this system?
a.
 1
b.
 2
c.
 4
d.
 8
e.
 16
 38.
In cattle, roan coat color (mixed red and white hairs) occurs in the heterozygous (Rr) offspring of red (RR) and white (rr) homozygotes. Which of the following crosses would produce offspring in the ratio of 1 red:2 roan:1 white?
a.
 red white
b.
 roan roan
c.
 white roan
d.
 red roan
e.
 The answer cannot be determined from the information provided.
 39.
The relationship between genes S and N is an example of
a.
 incomplete dominance.
b.
 epistasis.
c.
 complete dominance.
d.
 pleiotropy.
e.
 codominance.
 40.
A cross between a true-breeding sharp-spined cactus and a spineless cactus would produce
a.
 all sharp-spined progeny.
b.
 50% sharp-spined, 50% dull-spined progeny.
c.
 25% sharp-spined, 50% dull-spined, 25% spineless progeny
d.
 all spineless progeny
e.
 It is impossible to determine the phenotypes of the progeny.
 41.
If doubly heterozygous SsNn cactuses were allowed to self-pollinate, the F2 would segregate in which of the following ratios?
a.
 3 sharp-spined : 1 spineless
b.
 1 sharp-spined : 2 dull-spined : 1 spineless
c.
 1 sharp spined : 1 dull-spined : 1 spineless
d.
 1 sharp-spined : 1 dull-spined
e.
 9 sharp-spined : 3 dull-spined : 4 spineless

Use the information below to answer the following questions.

Feather color in budgies is determined by two different genes Y and B. YYBB, YyBB, or YYBb is green; yyBB or yyBb is blue; YYbb or Yybb is yellow; and yybb is white.
 42.
A blue budgie is crossed with a white budgie. Which of the following results is not possible?
a.
 green offspring
b.
 yellow offspring
c.
 blue offspring
d.
 A and B
e.
 A, B, and C
 43.
Two blue budgies were crossed. Over the years, they produced 22 offspring, 5 of which were white. What are the most likely genotypes for the two blue budgies?
a.
 yyBB and yyBB
b.
 yyBB and yyBb
c.
 yyBb and yyBb
d.
 yyBB and yybb
e.
 yyBb and yybb
 44.

Three babies were mixed up in a hospital. After consideration of the data below, which of the following represent the correct baby and parent combinations?

Couple #
Blood Groups		 I
A and A		 II
A and B		 III
B and O
Baby #
Blood Groups		 1
B		 2
O		 3
AB
a.
 I-3, II-1, III-2
b.
 I-1, II-3, III-2
c.
 I-2, II-3, III-1
d.
 I-2, II-1, III-3
e.
 I-3, II-2, III-1

Use the following information to answer the questions below.

A woman who has blood type A, has a daughter who is type O positive and a son who is type B negative. Rh positive is a simple dominant trait over Rh negative.
 45.
Which of the following is a possible genotype for the son?
a.
 IBIB
b.
 IBIA
c.
 ii
d.
 IBi
e.
 IAIA
 46.
Which of the following is a possible genotype for the mother?
a.
 IAIA
b.
 IBIB
c.
 ii
d.
 IAi
e.
 IAIB
 47.
Which of the following is a possible phenotype for the father?
a.
 A
b.
 O
c.
 B
d.
 AB
e.
 impossible to determine
 48.
Which of the following is the probable genotype for the mother?
a.
 IAIARR
b.
 IAIARr
c.
 IAirr
d.
 IAiRr
e.
 IAiRR
 49.
Which of the following is a possible phenotype of the father?
a.
 A negative
b.
 O negative
c.
 B positive
d.
 A positive
e.
 O positive
 50.
What is the chromosomal system for determining sex in mammals?
a.
 A
b.
 B
c.
 C
d.
 D
e.
 E
 51.
What is the chromosomal system for sex determination in grasshoppers and certain other insects?
a.
 A
b.
 B
c.
 C
d.
 D
e.
 E
 52.
What is the chromosomal system for sex determination in birds?
a.
 A
b.
 B
c.
 C
d.
 D
e.
 E
 53.
What is the chromosomal system of sex determination in most species of ants and bees?
a.
 A
b.
 B
c.
 C
d.
 D
e.
 E

Use the terms listed below to answer the following questions. Each term may be used once, more than once, or not at all.

A. incomplete dominance
B. multiple alleles
C. pleiotropy
D. epistasis
 54.
the ability of a single gene to have multiple phenotypic effects
a.
 A
b.
 B
c.
 C
d.
 D
 55.
the ABO blood group system
a.
 A
b.
 B
c.
 C
d.
 D
 56.
the phenotype of the heterozygote differs from the phenotypes of both homozygotes
a.
 A
b.
 B
c.
 C
d.
 D
 57.
cystic fibrosis affects the lungs, the pancreas, the digestive system, and other organs, resulting in symptoms ranging from breathing difficulties to recurrent infections
a.
 A
b.
 B
c.
 C
d.
 D
 58.
Which of the following is an example of polygenic inheritance?
a.
 pink flowers in snapdragons
b.
 the ABO blood groups in humans
c.
 Huntington’s disease in humans
d.
 white and purple flower color in peas
e.
 skin pigmentation in humans
 59.
Hydrangea plants of the same genotype are planted in a large flower garden. Some of the plants produce blue flowers and others pink flowers. This can be best explained by
a.
 environmental factors such as soil pH.
b.
 the allele for blue hydrangea being completely dominant.
c.
 the alleles being codominant.
d.
 the fact that a mutation has occurred.
e.
 acknowledging that multiple alleles are involved.

Use the information below to answer the following questions.

A woman and her spouse both show the normal phenotype for pigmentation, but both had one parent who was an albino. Albinism is an autosomal recessive trait.
 60.
What is the probability that their first child will be an albino?
a.
 0
b.
 1/4
c.
 1/2
d.
 3/4
e.
 1
 61.
If their first two children have normal pigmentation, what is the probability that their third child will be an albino?
a.
 0
b.
 1/4
c.
 1/2
d.
 3/4
e.
 1
 62.
Huntington’s disease is caused by a dominant allele. If one of your parents has the disease, what is the probability that you, too, will have the disease?
a.
 1
b.
 3/4
c.
 1/2
d.
 1/4
e.
 0
 63.
A woman has six sons. The chance that her next child will be a daughter is
a.
 1.
b.
 0.
c.
 1/2.
d.
 1/6.
e.
 5/6.

The pedigree chart below is for a family, some of whose members exhibit the recessive trait, wooly hair. Affected individuals are indicated by an open square or circle. Use the chart to answer the following questions.

nar007-1.jpg
 64.
What is the genotype of individual B-5?
a.
 WW
b.
 Ww
c.
 ww
d.
 WW or ww
e.
 ww or Ww
 65.
What is the likelihood that the progeny of D-3 and D-4 will have wooly hair?
a.
 0%
b.
 25%
c.
 50%
d.
 75%
e.
 100%
 66.
What is the probability that individual C-1 is Ww?
a.
 3/4
b.
 1/4
c.
 2/4
d.
 2/3
e.
 1
 67.
People with sickle-cell trait
a.
 are heterozygous for the sickle-cell allele.
b.
 are usually healthy.
c.
 have increased resistance to malaria.
d.
 produce normal and abnormal hemoglobin.
e.
 all of the above
 68.
When a disease is said to have a multifactorial basis, it means that
a.
 many factors, both genetic and environmental, contribute to the disease.
b.
 it is caused by a gene with a large number of alleles.
c.
 it affects a large number of people.
d.
 it has many different symptoms.
e.
 it tends to skip a generation.
 69.
Which of the following terms is least related to the others?
a.
 pedigree
b.
 karyotype
c.
 amniocentesis
d.
 chorionic villus sampling
e.
 epistasis

Use the answers below to answer the following questions. Each answer may be used once, more than once, or not at all.

A. Huntington’s disease
B. Tay-Sachs disease
C. phenylketonuria
D. cystic fibrosis
E. sickle-cell disease
 70.
Substitution of the “wrong” amino acid in the hemoglobin protein results in this disorder.
a.
 A
b.
 B
c.
 C
d.
 D
e.
 E
 71.
Individuals with this disorder are unable to metabolize certain lipids, affecting proper brain development. Affected individuals die in early childhood.
a.
 A
b.
 B
c.
 C
d.
 D
e.
 E
 72.
This is caused by a dominant single gene defect and generally does not appear until the individual is 35-45 years of age.
a.
 A
b.
 B
c.
 C
d.
 D
e.
 E
 73.
Effects of this recessive disorder can be completely overcome by regulating the diet of the affected individual.
a.
 A
b.
 B
c.
 C
d.
 D
e.
 E
 74.
This results from a defect in membrane proteins that normally function in chloride ion transport.
a.
 A
b.
 B
c.
 C
d.
 D
e.
 E
 75.
Which of the following techniques involves the preparation of a karyotype?
a.
 amniocentesis
b.
 chorionic villus sampling
c.
 fetoscopy
d.
 A and B only
e.
 A, B, and C
 76.
Chromosomes and genes share all of the following characteristics except that
a.
 they are both present in pairs in all diploid cells.
b.
 they both undergo segregation during meiosis.
c.
 their copy numbers in the cell decrease after meiosis, and increase during fertilization.
d.
 they are both copied during the S phase of the cell cycle.
e.
 they both pair up with their homologues during prophase of mitosis.
 77.
The improvement of microscopy techniques in the late 1800s set the stage for the emergence of modern genetics because
a.
 it revealed new and unanticipated features of Mendel’s pea plant varieties.
b.
 it allowed biologists to study meiosis and mitosis, revealing the parallels between the behaviors of genes and chromosomes.
c.
 it allowed scientists to see the DNA present within chromosomes.
d.
 it led to the discovery of mitochondria.
e.
 All of the above are true.
 78.
When Thomas Hunt Morgan crossed his red-eyed F1 generation flies to each other, the F2 generation included both red- and white-eyed flies. Remarkably, all the white-eyed flies were male. What was the explanation for this result?
a.
 The involved gene was on the X chromosome.
b.
 The involved gene was on the Y chromosome.
c.
 The involved gene was on an autosome.
d.
 Other male-specific factors influence eye color in flies.
e.
 Other female-specific factors influence eye color in flies.
 79.
Which of the following statements is (are) true?
a.
 The closer two genes are on a chromosome, the higher the probability that a crossover will occur between them.
b.
 The observed frequency of recombination of two genes that are far apart from each other has a maximum value of 50%.
c.
 Two of the traits that Mendel studied-seed color and flower color-are linked on the same chromosome.
d.
 Only B and C are correct.
e.
 A, B, and C are correct.
 80.
How would one explain a testcross involving F1 dihybrid flies in which more parental-type offspring than recombinant-type offspring are produced?
a.
 The two genes are linked.
b.
 The two genes are unlinked.
c.
 Recombination did not occur in the cell during meiosis.
d.
 The testcross was improperly performed.
e.
 Both of the characters are controlled by more than one gene.
 81.
New combinations of linked genes are due to which of the following?
a.
 nondisjunction
b.
 crossing over
c.
 independent assortment
d.
 mixing of sperm and egg
e.
 both A and C
 82.
What does a frequency of recombination of 50% indicate?
a.
 The two genes likely are located on different chromosomes.
b.
 All of the offspring have combinations of traits that match one of the two parents.
c.
 The genes are located on sex chromosomes.
d.
 Abnormal meiosis has occurred.
e.
 Independent assortment is hindered.

The following questions refer to the data and figures below.

CROSS I. Purebred lines of wild-type fruit flies (gray body and normal wings) are mated to flies with black bodies and vestigial wings.

nar009-1.jpg

F1 offspring all have a normal phenotype.

nar009-2.jpg

CROSS II. F1 flies are crossed with flies recessive for both traits (a testcross).

Resulting Offspring Normal Percentage
Gray body; normal wings
575
25.1
Black body; vestigial wings
571
24.9
Black body; normal wings
577
25.2
Gray body; vestigial wings
568
24.8

KEY:
A. CROSS I results give evidence supporting the statement.
B. CROSS I results give evidence against the statement.
C. CROSS II results give evidence supporting the statement.
D. CROSS II results give evidence against the statement.
E. Neither CROSS I nor CROSS II results support the statement.
 83.
Vestigial wings are a recessive trait.
a.
 A
b.
 B
c.
 C
d.
 D
e.
 E
 84.
The genes for body color and wing shape are linked.
a.
 A
b.
 B
c.
 C
d.
 D
e.
 E
 85.
An F1 cross should produce flies that will fall into a Mendelian 9:3:3:1 ratio.
a.
 A
b.
 B
c.
 C
d.
 D
e.
 E
 86.
There are 25 centimorgans (map units) between the genes for body color and wing shape.
a.
 A
b.
 B
c.
 C
d.
 D
e.
 E
 87.
A 0.1% frequency of recombination is observed
a.
 only in sex chromosomes.
b.
 only on genetic maps of viral chromosomes.
c.
 on unlinked chromosomes.
d.
 in any two genes on different chromosomes.
e.
 in genes located very close to one another on the same chromosome.
 88.

The following is a map of four genes on a chromosome:

mc088-1.jpg
Between which two genes would you expect the highest frequency of recombination?

a.
 A and W
b.
 W and E
c.
 E and G
d.
 A and E
e.
 A and G
 89.
The reason that linked genes are inherited together is that
a.
 they are located on the same chromosome.
b.
 the number of genes in a cell is greater than the number of chromosomes.
c.
 chromosomes are unbreakable.
d.
 alleles are paired.
e.
 genes align that way during metaphase I.
 90.
What is the mechanism for the production of genetic recombinants?
a.
 X inactivation
b.
 methylation of cytosine
c.
 crossing over and independent assortment
d.
 nondisjunction
e.
 deletions and duplications during meiosis
 91.
There is good evidence for linkage when
a.
 two genes occur together in the same gamete.
b.
 a gene is associated with a specific phenotype.
c.
 two genes work together to control a specific characteristic.
d.
 genes do not segregate independently during meiosis.
e.
 two characteristics are caused by a single gene.

Refer to the figure below to answer the following questions.

nar010-1.jpg
 92.
In a series of mapping experiments, the recombination frequencies for four different linked genes of Drosophila were determined as shown in the figure. What is the order of these genes on a chromosome map?
a.
 rb-cn-vg-b
b.
 vg-b-rb-cn
c.
 cn-rb-b-vg
d.
 b-rb-cn-vg
e.
 vg-cn-b-rb
 93.
Which of the following two genes are closest on a genetic map of Drosophila?
a.
 b and vg
b.
 vg and cn
c.
 rb and cn
d.
 cn and b
e.
 b and rb
X, Y, and Z are three genes in Drosophila. The recombination frequencies for two of the three genes are shown below.

nar011-1.jpg
 94.
Genes X and Y could be
a.
 located on different chromosomes.
b.
 located very near to each other on the same chromosome.
c.
 located far from each other on the same chromosome.
d.
 both A and B
e.
 both A and C
 95.
If the recombination frequency for Y and Z was found to be 50%, this would mean that
a.
 genes X and Y are on the same chromosome.
b.
 genes X and Y are on different chromosomes.
c.
 genes Y and Z are on different chromosomes.
d.
 both A and C.
e.
 both B and C
 96.
Which of the following is true regarding linkage maps? They
a.
 always have a total of 100 map units.
b.
 can be used to pinpoint the precise physical position of a gene on a chromosome.
c.
 are a genetic map based on recombination frequencies.
d.
 require preparation of karyotypes.
e.
 reflect the frequency of crossing over between X and Y chromosomes.
 97.
The frequency of crossing over between any two linked genes is
a.
 higher if they are recessive.
b.
 different between males and females.
c.
 determined by their relative dominance.
d.
 the same as if they were not linked.
e.
 proportional to the distance between them.
 98.
Sturtevant provided genetic evidence for the existence of four pairs of chromosomes in Drosophila by showing that
a.
 there are four major functional classes of genes in Drosophila.
b.
 Drosophila genes cluster into four distinct groups of linked genes.
c.
 the overall number of genes in Drosophila is a multiple of four.
d.
 the entire Drosophila genome has approximately 400 map units.
e.
 Drosophila genes have, on average, four different alleles.
 99.
Map units on a linkage map cannot be relied upon to calculate physical distances on a chromosome because
a.
 the frequency of crossing over varies along the length of the chromosome.
b.
 the relationship between recombination frequency and map units is different in every individual.
c.
 physical distances between genes change during the course of the cell cycle.
d.
 the gene order on the chromosomes is slightly different in every individual.
e.
 all of the above
 100.
A map of a chromosome that includes the positions of genes relative to visible chromosomal features, such as stained bands, is called a
a.
 linkage map.
b.
 physical map.
c.
 recombination map.
d.
 cytogenetic map.
e.
 banded map.
 101.
Males are more often affected by sex-linked traits than females because
a.
 males are hemizygous for the X chromosome.
b.
 male hormones such as testosterone often exacerbate the effects of mutations on the X chromosome.
c.
 female hormones such as estrogen often compensate for the effects of mutations on the X.
d.
 X chromosomes in males generally have more mutations than X chromosomes in females.
e.
 mutations on the Y chromosome often exacerbate the effects of X-linked mutations.
 102.
SRY is
a.
 a gene present on the Y chromosome that triggers male development.
b.
 a gene present on the X chromosome that triggers female development.
c.
 an autosomal gene that is required for the expression of genes on the Y chromosome.
d.
 an autosomal gene that is required for the expression of genes on the X chromosome.
e.
 required for development, and males or females lacking the gene do not survive past early childhood.
 103.
In cats, black fur color is caused by an X-linked allele; the other allele at this locus causes orange color. The heterozygote is tortoiseshell. What kinds of offspring would you expect from the cross of a black female and an orange male?
a.
 tortoiseshell female; tortoiseshell male
b.
 black female; orange male
c.
 orange female; orange male
d.
 tortoiseshell female; black male
e.
 orange female; black male
 104.
Red-green color blindness is a sex-linked recessive trait in humans. Two people with normal color vision have a color-blind son. What are the genotypes of the parents?
a.
 XcXc and XcY
b.
 XcXc and XCY
c.
 XCXC and XcY
d.
 XCXC and XCY
e.
 XCXc and XCY
 105.
In the following list, which term is least related to the others?
a.
 Duchenne muscular dystrophy
b.
 autosome
c.
 sex-linked genes
d.
 color blindness
e.
 hemophilia
 106.
Cinnabar eyes is a sex-linked recessive characteristic in fruit flies. If a female having cinnabar eyes is crossed with a wild-type male, what percentage of the F1 males will have cinnabar eyes?
a.
 0%
b.
 25%
c.
 50%
d.
 75%
e.
 100%
 107.
Most calico cats are female because
a.
 a male inherits only one of the two X-linked genes controlling hair color.
b.
 the males die during embryonic development.
c.
 the Y chromosome has a gene blocking orange coloration.
d.
 only females can have Barr bodies.
e.
 multiple crossovers on the Y chromosome prevent orange pigment production.
 108.
A recessive allele on the X chromosome is responsible for red-green color blindness in humans. A woman with normal vision whose father is color-blind marries a color-blind male. What is the probability that a son of this couple will be color-blind?
a.
 0
b.
 1/4
c.
 1/2
d.
 3/4
e.
 1
 109.
In birds, sex is determined by a ZW chromosome scheme. Males are ZZ and females are ZW. A lethal recessive allele that causes death of the embryo is sometimes present on the Z chromosome in pigeons. What would be the sex ratio in the offspring of a cross between a male that is heterozygous for the lethal allele and a normal female?
a.
 2:1 male to female
b.
 1:2 male to female
c.
 1:1 male to female
d.
 4:3 male to female
e.
 3:1 male to female
 110.
A man who carries an X-linked allele will pass it on to
a.
 all of his daughters.
b.
 half of his daughters.
c.
 all of his sons.
d.
 half of his sons.
e.
 all of his children.

Refer to the information below to answer the following questions.

An achondroplastic male dwarf with normal vision marries a color-blind woman of normal height. The man’s father was six-feet tall, and both the woman’s parents were of average height. Achondroplastic dwarfism is autosomal dominant, and red-green color blindness is X-linked recessive.
 111.
How many of their daughters might be expected to be color-blind dwarfs?
a.
 all
b.
 none
c.
 half
d.
 one out of four
e.
 three out of four
 112.
How many of their sons would be color-blind and of normal height?
a.
 all
b.
 none
c.
 half
d.
 one out of four
e.
 three out of four
 113.
They have a daughter who is a dwarf with normal color vision. What is the probability that she is heterozygous for both genes?
a.
 0
b.
 0.25
c.
 0.50
d.
 0.75
e.
 1.00
 114.
Male calico cats could be the result of
a.
 sex-linked inheritance.
b.
 nondisjunction, leading to the male calico having two X chromosomes.
c.
 incomplete dominance of multiple alleles.
d.
 recessive alleles retaining their fundamental natures even when expressed.
e.
 a reciprocal translocation.
 115.
A Barr body is normally found in the nucleus of which kind of human cell?
a.
 unfertilized egg cells only
b.
 sperm cells only
c.
 somatic cells of a female only
d.
 somatic cells of a male only
e.
 both male and female somatic cells
 116.
Which of these syndromes afflicts mostly males?
a.
 Turner syndrome
b.
 Down syndrome
c.
 Duchenne muscular dystrophy
d.
 cri du chat syndrome
e.
 chronic myelogenous leukemia
 117.
If a human interphase nucleus of a person contains three Barr bodies, it can be assumed that the person
a.
 has hemophilia.
b.
 is a male.
c.
 has four X chromosomes.
d.
 has Turner syndrome.
e.
 has Down syndrome.
 118.
If nondisjunction occurs in meiosis II during gametogenesis, what will be the result at the completion of meiosis?
a.
 All the gametes will be diploid.
b.
 Two gametes will be n + 1, and two will be n – 1.
c.
 One gamete will be n + 1, one will be n – 1, and two will be n.
d.
 There will be three extra gametes.
e.
 Two of the four gametes will be haploid, and two will be diploid.
 119.

The figure below represents the stained nucleus from a cheek epithelial cell of an individual whose genotype would probably be

mc119-1.jpg

a.
 XX.
b.
 XY.
c.
 XYY.
d.
 XXX.
e.
 XXY.
 120.
If a pair of homologous chromosomes fails to separate during anaphase of meiosis I, what will be the chromosome number of the four resulting gametes with respect to the normal haploid number (n)?
a.
 n + 1; n + 1; n – 1; n – 1
b.
 n + 1; n – 1; n; n
c.
 n + 1; n – 1; n – 1; n – 1
d.
 n + 1; n + 1; n; n
e.
 n – 1; n – 1; n; n
 121.
A cell that has 2n + 1 chromosomes is
a.
 trisomic.
b.
 monosomic.
c.
 aneuploid.
d.
 polyploid.
e.
 both A and C
 122.
If a chromosome lacks certain genes, what has most likely occurred?
a.
 disjunction
b.
 an inversion
c.
 a deletion
d.
 a translocation
e.
 a nonduplication
 123.
One possible result of chromosomal breakage is for a fragment to join a nonhomologous chromosome. This is called a (an)
a.
 deletion.
b.
 disjunction.
c.
 inversion.
d.
 translocation.
e.
 duplication.
 124.
In the following list, which term is least related to the others?
a.
 trisomic
b.
 monosomic
c.
 aneuploid
d.
 triploid
e.
 nondisjunction
 125.
A nonreciprocal crossover causes which of the following products?
a.
 deletion
b.
 duplication
c.
 nondisjunction
d.
 A and B
e.
 B and C
 126.
One possible result of chromosomal breakage can be that a fragment reattaches to the original chromosome in a reverse orientation. This is called
a.
 disjunction.
b.
 translocation.
c.
 deletion.
d.
 inversion.
e.
 aneuploidy.
 127.
A human individual is phenotypically female, but her interphase somatic nuclei do not show the presence of Barr bodies. Which of the following statements concerning her is probably true?
a.
 She has Klinefelter syndrome.
b.
 She has an extra X chromosome.
c.
 She has Turner syndrome.
d.
 She has the normal number of sex chromosomes.
e.
 She has two Y chromosomes.
 128.

The karyotype shown below is associated with which of the following genetic disorders?

mc128-1.jpg

a.
 Turner syndrome
b.
 Down syndrome
c.
 Klinefelter syndrome
d.
 hemophilia
e.
 male-pattern baldness
 129.
In humans, male-pattern baldness is controlled by a gene that occurs in two allelic forms. Allele Hn determines nonbaldness, and allele Hb determines pattern baldness. In males, because of the presence of testosterone, allele Hb is dominant over Hn. If a man and woman both with genotype HnHb have a son, what is the chance that he will eventually be bald?
a.
 0%
b.
 25%
c.
 33%
d.
 50%
e.
 75%
 130.
Of the following human trisomies, the one that generally has the most severe impact on the health of the individual is
a.
 trisomy 21.
b.
 Klinefelter syndrome (XXY).
c.
 trisomy X.
d.
 XYY.
e.
 All of the above have equal impact.
 131.
What do all human males inherit from their mother?
a.
 mitochondrial DNA
b.
 an X chromosome
c.
 the SRY gene
d.
 A and B only
e.
 A, B, and C
 132.
Which of the following statements is true regarding genomic imprinting?
a.
 It explains cases in which the gender of the parent from whom an allele is inherited affects the expression of that allele.
b.
 It is greatest in females because of the larger maternal contribution of cytoplasm.
c.
 It may explain the transmission of Duchenne muscular dystrophy.
d.
 It involves an irreversible alteration in the DNA sequence of imprinted genes.
e.
 All of the above are correct.
 133.

The pedigree in the figure below shows the transmission of a trait in a particular family. Based on this pattern of transmission, the trait is most likely

mc133-1.jpg

a.
 mitochondrial.
b.
 autosomal recessive.
c.
 sex-linked dominant.
d.
 sex-linked recessive.
e.
 autosomal dominant.
 134.
Which of the following statements about mitochondria is false?
a.
 Because of the role of the mitochondria in producing cellular energy, mitochondrial diseases often affect the muscles and nervous system.
b.
 Because mitochondria are present in the cytoplasm, mitochondrial diseases are transmitted maternally.
c.
 Like nuclear genes, mitochondrial genes usually follow Mendelian patterns of inheritance.
d.
 Mitochondria contain circular DNA molecules that code for proteins and RNAs.
e.
 Many mitochondrial genes encode proteins that play roles in the electron transport chain and ATP synthesis.

 
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AP UNIT 1B BIOCHEMISTRY

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Multiple Choice
Identify the choice that best completes the statement or answers the question.
 1.
Organic chemistry is a science based on the study of
a.
 functional groups.
b.
 vital forces interacting with matter.
c.
 carbon compounds.
d.
 water and its interaction with other kinds of molecules.
e.
 inorganic compounds.
 2.
How many electron pairs does carbon share in order to complete its valence shell?
a.
 1
b.
 2
c.
 3
d.
 4
e.
 8
 3.
What type(s) of bond(s) does carbon have a tendency to form?
a.
 ionic
b.
 hydrogen
c.
 covalent
d.
 A and B only
e.
 A, B, and C
 4.
What is the reason why hydrocarbons are not soluble in water?
a.
 The majority of their bonds are polar covalent carbon to hydrogen linkages.
b.
 The majority of their bonds are nonpolar covalent carbon-to-hydrogen linkages.
c.
 They are hydrophilic.
d.
 They exhibit considerable molecular complexity and diversity.
e.
 They are lighter than water.
 5.

The two molecules shown in the following figure are best described as

mc005-1.jpg

a.
 optical isomers.
b.
 radioactive isotopes.
c.
 structural isomers.
d.
 nonradioactive isotopes.
e.
 geometric isomers.
 6.

The two molecules shown in the following figure are best described as

mc006-1.jpg

a.
 enantiomers.
b.
 radioactive isotopes.
c.
 structural isomers.
d.
 nonisotopic isomers.
e.
 geometric isomers.
 7.
Research suggests that side effects from Ritalin, the drug used to treat attention deficit disorder, may be caused by contamination of enantiomers, or molecules that
a.
 have identical three-dimensional shapes.
b.
 are mirror images of one another.
c.
 lack an asymmetric carbon.
d.
 differ in the location of their double bonds.
e.
 differ in their electrical charge.
 8.
Which is the best description of a carbonyl group?
a.
 an oxygen joined to a carbon by a single covalent bond
b.
 a nitrogen and two hydrogens joined to a carbon by covalent bonds
c.
 a carbon joined to two hydrogens by single covalent bonds
d.
 a sulfur and a hydrogen joined to a carbon by covalent bonds
e.
 a carbon atom joined to an oxygen by a double covalent bond
 9.

What is the name of the functional group shown in the following figure?

a.
 carbonyl
b.
 ketone
c.
 aldehyde
d.
 carboxyl
e.
 hydroxyl
 10.
Which of the following contains nitrogen in addition to carbon, oxygen, and hydrogen?
a.
 an alcohol such as ethanol
b.
 a monosaccharide such as glucose
c.
 a steroid such as testosterone
d.
 an amino acid such as glycine
e.
 a hydrocarbon such as benzene
 11.
Which two functional groups are always found in amino acids?
a.
 ketone and aldehyde
b.
 carbonyl and carboxyl
c.
 carboxyl and amino
d.
 phosphate and sulfhydryl
e.
 hydroxyl and aldehyde
 12.
A chemist wishes to make an organic molecule less acidic. Which of the following functional groups should be added to the molecule in order to do so?
a.
 carboxyl
b.
 sulfhydryl
c.
 hydroxyl
d.
 amino
e.
 phosphate

Use the figure below to answer the following questions.

nar001-1.jpg
 13.
Which is a hydroxyl functional group?
a.
 Group A
b.
 Group B
c.
 Group C
d.
 Group D
e.
 Group E
 14.
Which is an amino functional group?
a.
 Group A
b.
 Group B
c.
 Group C
d.
 Group D
e.
 Group E
 15.
Which is a functional group that helps stabilize proteins by forming covalent cross-links within or between protein molecules?
a.
 Group A
b.
 Group B
c.
 Group C
d.
 Group D
e.
 Group E
 16.
Polymers of polysaccharides, fats, and proteins are all synthesized from monomers by which process?
a.
 connecting monosaccharides together (condensation reactions)
b.
 the addition of water to each monomer (hydrolysis)
c.
 the removal of water (dehydration reactions)
d.
 ionic bonding of the monomers
e.
 the formation of disulfide bridges between monomers
 17.
Which of the following best summarizes the relationship between dehydration reactions and hydrolysis?
a.
 Dehydration reactions assemble polymers, and hydrolysis breaks down polymers.
b.
 Hydrolysis only occurs in the urinary system, and dehydration reactions only occur in the digestive tract.
c.
 Dehydration reactions can occur only after hydrolysis.
d.
 Hydrolysis creates monomers, and dehydration reactions break down polymers.
e.
 A and C are correct.
 18.

If 128 molecules of the general type shown in the figure below were covalently joined together in sequence, the single molecule that would result would be a

mc018-1.jpg

a.
 polysaccharide.
b.
 polypeptide.
c.
 polyunsaturated lipid.
d.
 monosaccharide.
e.
 disaccharide.
 19.
Lactose, a sugar in milk, is composed of one glucose molecule joined by a glycosidic linkage to one galactose molecule. How is lactose classified?
a.
 as a pentose
b.
 as a hexose
c.
 as a monosaccharide
d.
 as a disaccharide
e.
 as a polysaccharide
 20.
Which of the following is true of both starch and cellulose?
a.
 They are both polymers of glucose.
b.
 They are geometric isomers of each other.
c.
 They can both be digested by humans.
d.
 They are both used for energy storage in plants.
e.
 They are both structural components of the plant cell wall.
 21.
Which of the following is true of cellulose?
a.
 It is a polymer composed of sucrose monomers.
b.
 It is a storage polysaccharide for energy in plant cells.
c.
 It is a storage polysaccharide for energy in animal cells.
d.
 It is a major structural component of plant cell walls.
e.
 It is a major structural component of animal cell plasma membranes.
 22.
Triacylglycerol is a
a.
 protein with tertiary structure.
b.
 lipid made with three fatty acids and glycerol.
c.
 lipid that makes up much of the plasma membrane.
d.
 molecule formed from three alcohols by dehydration reactions.
e.
 carbohydrate with three sugars joined together by glycosidic linkages.
 23.

What is the molecule illustrated in the figure below?

mc023-1.jpg

a.
 a saturated fatty acid
b.
 an unsaturated fatty acid
c.
 a polyunsaturated triacylglyceride
d.
 a trans polyunsaturated triacylglyceride
e.
 a steroid similar to cholesterol
 24.

The molecule shown in the figure below is a

mc024-1.jpg

a.
 polysaccharide.
b.
 polypeptide.
c.
 saturated fatty acid.
d.
 triacylglycerol.
e.
 unsaturated fatty acid.
 25.
A polypeptide can best be described as a
a.
 monomer of a protein polymer.
b.
 polymer containing 20 amino acid molecules.
c.
 polymer containing 19 peptide bonds.
d.
 polymer containing 20 peptide bonds.
e.
 polymer of amino acids.
 26.

The chemical reaction illustrated in the figure below results in the formation of a (an)

mc026-1.jpg

a.
 ionic bond.
b.
 peptide bond.
c.
 glycosidic linkage.
d.
 ester linkage.
e.
 phosphodiester linkage.
 27.
Which bonds are created during the formation of the primary structure of a protein?
a.
 peptide bonds
b.
 hydrogen bonds
c.
 disulfide bonds
d.
 phosphodiester bonds
e.
 A, B, and C
 28.
What maintains the secondary structure of a protein?
a.
 peptide bonds
b.
 hydrogen bonds
c.
 disulfide bonds
d.
 ionic bonds
e.
 phosphodiester bonds
 29.

The figure below shows the

mc029-1.jpg

a.
 1-4 linkage of the glucose monomers of starch.
b.
 1-4 linkage of the glucose monomers of cellulose.
c.
 double helical structure of a DNA molecule.
d.
 helix secondary structure of a polypeptide.
e.
 pleated sheet secondary structure of a polypeptide.
 30.
Altering which of the following levels of structural organization could change the function of a protein?
a.
 primary
b.
 secondary
c.
 tertiary
d.
 quaternary
e.
 all of the above
 31.
Which of the following descriptions best fits the class of molecules known as nucleotides?
a.
 a nitrogenous base and a phosphate group
b.
 a nitrogenous base and a pentose sugar
c.
 a nitrogenous base, a phosphate group, and a pentose sugar
d.
 a phosphate group and an adenine or uracil
e.
 a pentose sugar and a purine or pyrimidine
 32.
All of the following nitrogenous bases are found in DNA except
a.
 thymine.
b.
 adenine.
c.
 uracil.
d.
 guanine.
e.
 cytosine.
 33.
Which of the following statements best summarizes the structural differences between DNA and RNA?
a.
 RNA is a protein, whereas DNA is a nucleic acid.
b.
 DNA is a protein, whereas RNA is a nucleic acid.
c.
 DNA nucleotides contain a different sugar than RNA nucleotides.
d.
 RNA is a double helix, but DNA is single-stranded.
e.
 A and D are correct.

 
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First Semester Test 2007 – AP Biology

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First Semester Test 2007 – AP Biology

 

 

Multiple Choice
Identify the choice that best completes the statement or answers the question.

Use the figure below to answer the following questions.

nar001-1.jpg
 1.
Which drawing depicts the electron configuration of neon (Ne)?
a.
 Drawing A
b.
 Drawing B
c.
 Drawing C
d.
 Drawing D
e.
 Drawing E

Use the information extracted from the periodic table in the figure below to answer the following questions.

nar002-1.jpg
 2.
How many electrons does an atom of sulfur have in its valence shell?
a.
 4
b.
 6
c.
 8
d.
 16
e.
 32
 3.
What is the valence of an atom with six electrons in its outer electron shell?
a.
 1
b.
 2
c.
 3
d.
 4
e.
 5
 4.
What do atoms form when they share electron pairs?
a.
 elements
b.
 ions
c.
 aggregates
d.
 isotopes
e.
 molecules
 5.
A van der Waals interaction is the weak attraction between
a.
 the electrons of one molecule and the electrons of a nearby molecule.
b.
 the nucleus of one molecule and the electrons of a nearby molecule.
c.
 a polar molecule and a nearby nonpolar molecule.
d.
 a polar molecule and a nearby molecule that is also polar.
e.
 a nonpolar molecule and a nearby molecule that is also nonpolar.
 6.
The slight negative charge at one end of one water molecule is attracted to the slight positive charge of another water molecule. What is this attraction called?
a.
 a covalent bond
b.
 a hydrogen bond
c.
 an ionic bond
d.
 a hydrophilic bond
e.
 a hydrophobic bond
 7.
Early 19th-century scientists believed that living organisms differed from nonliving things as a result of possessing a “life force” that could create organic molecules from inorganic matter. The term given to this belief is
a.
 organic synthesis.
b.
 vitalism.
c.
 mechanism.
d.
 organic evolution.
e.
 inorganic synthesis.
 8.
Which of the following contains nitrogen in addition to carbon, oxygen, and hydrogen?
a.
 an alcohol such as ethanol
b.
 a monosaccharide such as glucose
c.
 a steroid such as testosterone
d.
 an amino acid such as glycine
e.
 a hydrocarbon such as benzene
 9.
In which of the structures are the atoms bonded by ionic bonds?
a.
 A
b.
 B
c.
 C
d.
 C, D, and E only
e.
 none of the structures

Use the figure below to answer the following questions.

nar003-1.jpg
 10.
Which is a carbonyl functional group?
a.
 Group A
b.
 Group B
c.
 Group C
d.
 Group D
e.
 Group E

Use the molecules shown in the figure below to answer the following questions..

nar004-1.jpg
 11.
Which molecule contains an amino functional group, but is not an amino acid?
a.
 Molecule A
b.
 Molecule B
c.
 Molecule C
d.
 Molecule D
e.
 Molecule E
 12.
Upon chemical analysis, a particular protein was found to contain 556 amino acids. How many peptide bonds are present in this protein?
a.
 139
b.
 554
c.
 555
d.
 556
e.
 558
 13.

The figure below best illustrates the

mc013-1.jpg

a.
 secondary structure of a polypeptide.
b.
 tertiary structure of a polypeptide.
c.
 quaternary structure of a protein.
d.
 double helix structure of DNA.
e.
 primary structure of a polysaccharide.
 14.
The R group or side chain of the amino acid serine is –CH2-OH. The R group or side chain of the amino acid alanine is –CH3. Where would you expect to find these amino acids in a globular protein in aqueous solution?
a.
 Serine would be in the interior, and alanine would be on the exterior of the globular protein.
b.
 Alanine would be in the interior, and serine would be on the exterior of the globular protein.
c.
 Both serine and alanine would be in the interior of the globular protein.
d.
 Both serine and alanine would be on the exterior of the globular protein.
e.
 Both serine and alanine would be in the interior and on the exterior of the globular protein.

The following questions are based on the 15 molecules illustrated below. Each molecule may be used once, more than once, or not at all.

nar005-1.jpg
 15.
Which of the following molecules is (are) a carbohydrate?
a.
 1 and 4
b.
 6
c.
 12
d.
 5 and 14
e.
 all of the above
 16.
Which of the following correctly lists the order in which cellular components will be found in the pellet when homogenized cells are treated with increasingly rapid spins in a centrifuge?
a.
 ribosomes, nucleus, mitochondria
b.
 chloroplasts, ribosomes, vacuoles
c.
 nucleus, ribosomes, chloroplasts
d.
 vacuoles, ribosomes, nucleus
e.
 nucleus, mitochondria, ribosomes
 17.
Which of the following are prokaryotic cells?
a.
 plants
b.
 fungi
c.
 bacteria
d.
 animals
e.
 B and C only
 18.
Which of the following comparisons between prokaryotic and eukaryotic cells is incorrect?
a.
 The lack of organelles in prokaryotes means that they are structurally less complex than eukaryotes.
b.
 The lack of internal membranes means that prokaryotes cannot compartmentalize function to the same extent as eukaryotes.
c.
 All membrane function in prokaryotes is accomplished in the plasma membrane, while in eukaryotes, these functions are more distributed among the organelles.
d.
 The specialization of function in organelles suggests that eukaryotes will contain a wider variety of phospholipids than prokaryotes.
e.
 The lack of organelles in prokaryotes means that the basic cellular functions are different in prokaryotes than in eukaryotes.
 19.
Which of the following statements correctly describes some aspect of protein excretion in prokaryotic cells?
a.
 Prokaryotes are unlikely to be able to excrete proteins because they lack an endomembrane system.
b.
 The mechanism of protein excretion in prokaryotes is probably the same as that in eukaryotes.
c.
 Proteins that are excreted by prokaryotes are synthesized on ribosomes that are bound to the cytoplasmic surface of the plasma membrane.
d.
 In prokaryotes, the ribosomes that are used for the synthesis of secreted proteins are located outside of the cell.
e.
 Prokaryotes contain large pores in their plasma membrane that permit the movement of proteins out of the cell.
 20.
All of the following structures and proteins are directly associated with movement in cells or by cells except
a.
 cilia.
b.
 dynein.
c.
 actin.
d.
 flagella.
e.
 centrosomes.
 21.
All of the following serve an important role in determining or maintaining the structure of plant cells. Which of the following are distinct from the others in terms of composition?
a.
 microtubules
b.
 microfilaments
c.
 plant cell walls
d.
 intermediate filaments
e.
 nuclear lamina
 22.
The surface of an integral membrane protein would be best described as
a.
 hydrophilic.
b.
 hydrophobic.
c.
 amphipathic.
d.
 completely covered with phospholipids.
e.
 exposed on only one surface of the membrane.
 23.
Which of the following is a reasonable explanation for why unsaturated fatty acids help keep any membrane more fluid at lower temperatures?
a.
 The double bonds form a kink in the fatty acid tail, forcing adjacent lipids to be further apart.
b.
 Unsaturated fatty acids have a higher cholesterol content.
c.
 Unsaturated fatty acids permit more water in the interior of the membrane.
d.
 The double bonds block interaction among the hydrophilic head groups of the lipids.
e.
 The double bonds result in a shorter fatty acid tail.
 24.
Of the following functions, which is most important for the glycoproteins and glycolipids of animal cell membranes?
a.
 facilitated diffusion of molecules down their concentration gradients
b.
 active transport of molecules against their concentration gradients
c.
 maintaining the integrity of a fluid mosaic membrane
d.
 maintaining membrane fluidity at low temperatures
e.
 a cell’s ability to distinguish one type of neighboring cell from another
 25.
What membrane-surface molecules are thought to be most important as cells recognize each other?
a.
 phospholipids
b.
 integral proteins
c.
 peripheral proteins
d.
 cholesterol
e.
 glycoproteins
 26.
Which of the following is (are) true for anabolic pathways?
a.
 They do not depend on enzymes.
b.
 They are highly regulated sequences of chemical reactions.
c.
 They consume energy to build up polymers from monomers.
d.
 They release energy as they degrade polymers to monomers.
e.
 both B and C
 27.
Which of the following statements about metabolism is incorrect?
a.
 Metabolism is an emergent property of life at the level of organisms.
b.
 Metabolism manages the utilization of materials and energy resources.
c.
 The uptake of water associated with the hydrolysis of biological polymers is part of metabolism.
d.
 Metabolism depends on a constant supply of energy.
e.
 None of these statements about metabolism is incorrect.
 28.
Which of the following statements is not representative of the second law of thermodynamics?
a.
 Conversion of energy from one form to another is always accompanied by some loss of free energy.
b.
 Heat represents a form of energy that cannot be used by most organisms to do work.
c.
 Without an input of energy, organisms would tend towards increasing entropy.
d.
 Cells require a constant input of energy to maintain their high level of organization.
e.
 Every energy transformation by a cell decreases the entropy of the universe.
 29.
Why is ATP an important molecule in metabolism?
a.
 Its hydrolysis provides an input of free energy for exergonic reactions.
b.
 It provides energy coupling between exergonic and endergonic reactions.
c.
 Its terminal phosphate group contains a strong covalent bond that when hydrolyzed releases free energy.
d.
 A and B only
e.
 A, B and C
 30.
Many different things can alter enzyme activity. Which of the following underlie all types of enzyme regulation?
a.
 changes in the activation energy of the reaction
b.
 changes in the active site of the enzyme
c.
 changes in the free energy of the reaction
d.
 A and B only
e.
 A, B, and C
The following questions are based on the reaction A + B C + D shown in the figure below.

nar006-2.jpg
 31.
Which of the following bests describes the reaction?
a.
 negative G, spontaneous
b.
 positive G, nonspontaneous
c.
 positive G, exergonic
d.
 negative G, endergonic
e.
 G of zero, chemical equilibrium
 32.
What is the term for metabolic pathways that release stored energy by breaking down complex molecules?
a.
 anabolic pathways
b.
 catabolic pathways
c.
 fermentation pathways
d.
 thermodynamic pathways
e.
 bioenergetic pathways
 33.
Which of the following statements about glycolysis false?
a.
 Glycolysis has steps involving oxidation-reduction reactions.
b.
 The enzymes of glycolysis are located in the cytosol of the cell.
c.
 Glycolysis can operate in the complete absence of O2.
d.
 The end products of glycolysis are CO2 and H2O.
e.
 Glycolysis makes ATP exclusively through substrate-level phosphorylation.
 34.
Inside an active mitochondrion, most electrons follow which pathway?
a.
 glycolysis NADH oxidative phosphorylation ATP oxygen
b.
 citric acid cycle FADH2 electron transport chain ATP
c.
 electron transport chain citric acid cycle ATP oxygen
d.
 pyruvate citric acid cycle ATP NADH oxygen
e.
 citric acid cycle NADH electron transport chain oxygen
 35.
Fermentation takes place in the
a.
 cytosol.
b.
 mitochondrial outer membrane.
c.
 mitochondrial inner membrane.
d.
 mitochondrial intermembrane space.
e.
 mitochondrial matrix.
 36.
Muscle cells in oxygen deprivation convert pyruvate to ____, and in this step gain____.
a.
 lactate; ATP
b.
 alcohol; CO2
c.
 alcohol; ATP
d.
 ATP; NADH2
e.
 lactate; NAD+
 37.
In alcohol fermentation, NAD+ is regenerated from NADH during the
a.
 reduction of acetaldehyde to ethanol (ethyl alcohol).
b.
 oxidation of pyruvate to acetyl CoA.
c.
 reduction of pyruvate to form lactate.
d.
 oxidation of NAD+ in the citric acid cycle.
e.
 phosphorylation of ADP to form ATP.
 38.
What does the chemiosmotic process in chloroplasts involve?
a.
 establishment of a proton gradient
b.
 diffusion of electrons through the thylakoid membrane
c.
 reduction of water to produce ATP energy
d.
 movement of water by osmosis into the thylakoid space from the stroma
e.
 formation of glucose, using carbon dioxide, NADPH, and ATP
 39.
Which statement is false?
a.
 Thylakoid membranes contain the photosynthetic pigments.
b.
 The O2 released during photosynthesis comes from water.
c.
 RuBP is produced during cyclic electron flow in the light reactions of photosynthesis.
d.
 The light reactions of photosynthesis provide the energy for the Calvin cycle.
e.
 When chlorophyll is reduced, it gains electrons.
 40.
In C4 photosynthesis, carbon fixation takes place in the ____ cells, and then is transferred as malic or aspartic acid to ____ cells, where carbon dioxide is released for entry into the Calvin cycle.
a.
 mesophyll; bundle-sheath
b.
 stomatal; mesophyll
c.
 bundle-sheath; epidermal
d.
 epidermal; mesophyll
e.
 stomatal; epidermal
 41.
What could happen to the target cells in an animal that lack receptors for local regulators?
a.
 They could compensate by receiving nutrients via an a factor.
b.
 They could develop normally in response to neurotransmitters instead.
c.
 They could divide but never reach full size.
d.
 They would not be able to multiply in response to growth factors from nearby cells.
e.
 Hormones would not be able to interact with target cells.
 42.
G proteins and G-protein-linked receptors
a.
 are found only in animal cells.
b.
 are found only in bacterial cells.
c.
 are thought to have evolved very early, because of their similar structure and function in a wide variety of modern organisms whose common ancestors diverged billions of years ago.
d.
 probably evolved from an adaptation of the citric acid cycle.
e.
 are not widespread in nature and were unimportant in the evolution of eukaryotes.
 43.
Membrane receptors that attach phosphates to specific amino acids in proteins are
a.
 not found in humans.
b.
 called receptor tyrosine-kinases.
c.
 a class of GTP G-protein signal receptors.
d.
 associated with several bacterial diseases in humans.
e.
 important in yeast mating factors that contain amino acids.
 44.
The receptors for a group of signaling molecules known as growth factors are often
a.
 ligand-gated ion channels.
b.
 G-protein-linked receptors.
c.
 cyclic AMP.
d.
 receptor tyrosine kinases.
e.
 neurotransmitters.
 45.
Sutherland discovered that epinephrine
a.
 signals bypass the plasma membrane of cells.
b.
 lowers blood glucose by binding to liver cells.
c.
 interacts with insulin inside muscle cells.
d.
 interacts directly with glycogen phosphorylase.
e.
 elevates the cytosolic concentration of cyclic AMP.
 46.
The general name for an enzyme that transfers phosphate groups from ATP to a protein is
a.
 phosphorylase.
b.
 phosphatase.
c.
 protein kinase.
d.
 ATPase.
e.
 protease.
 47.
Which of the following would be inhibited by a drug that specifically blocks the addition of phosphate groups to proteins?
a.
 G-protein-linked receptor signaling
b.
 ligand-gated ion channel signaling
c.
 adenylyl cyclase activity
d.
 phosphatase activity
e.
 receptor tyrosine kinase activity
 48.
If there are 20 chromatids in a cell, how many centromeres are there?
a.
 10
b.
 20
c.
 30
d.
 40
e.
 80
 49.
If cells in the process of dividing are subjected to colchicine, a drug that interferes with the functioning of the spindle apparatus, at which stage will mitosis be arrested?
a.
 anaphase
b.
 prophase
c.
 telophase
d.
 metaphase
e.
 interphase
 50.
Regarding mitosis and cytokinesis, one difference between higher plants and animals is that in plants
a.
 the spindles contain microfibrils in addition to microtubules, whereas animal spindles do not contain microfibrils.
b.
 sister chromatids are identical, but they differ from one another in animals.
c.
 a cell plate begins to form at telophase, whereas animals a cleavage furrow is initiated at that stage.
d.
 chromosomes become attached to the spindle at prophase, whereas in animals chromosomes do not become attached until anaphase.
e.
 spindle poles contain centrioles, whereas spindle poles in animals do not.
 51.
Which of the following is true concerning cancer cells?
a.
 They do not exhibit density-dependent inhibition when growing in culture.
b.
 When they stop dividing, they do so at random points in the cell cycle.
c.
 They are not subject to cell cycle controls.
d.
 B and C only
e.
 A, B, and C
 52.
Which of the following is true of a species that has a chromosome number of 2n = 16?
a.
 The species is diploid with 32 chromosomes.
b.
 The species has 16 sets of chromosomes.
c.
 There are 8 homologous pairs.
d.
 During the S phase of the cell cycle there will be 32 separate chromosomes.
e.
 A gamete from this species has 4 chromosomes.
 53.
Which of the following is the term for a human cell that contains 22 pairs of autosomes and two X chromosomes?
a.
 an unfertilized egg cell
b.
 a sperm cell
c.
 a male somatic cell
d.
 a female somatic cell
e.
 both A and D
 54.
In animals, meiosis results in gametes, and fertilization results in
a.
 spores.
b.
 gametophytes.
c.
 zygotes.
d.
 sporophytes.
e.
 clones.
 55.
All of the following are functions of meiosis in plants except
a.
 production of spores.
b.
 reduction of chromosome number by half.
c.
 independent assortment of chromosomes.
d.
 crossing over and recombination of homologous chromosomes.
e.
 production of identical daughter cells.
 56.
Which of the following is true of the process of meiosis?
a.
 Two diploid cells result.
b.
 Four diploid cells result.
c.
 Four haploid cells result.
d.
 Four autosomes result.
e.
 Four chiasmata result.
 57.
Which sample might represent an animal cell in G2 phase of the cell cycle?
a.
 I
b.
 II
c.
 III
d.
 both I and II
e.
 both II and III

The following questions refer to the essential steps in meiosis described below.

1. formation of four new nuclei, each with half the chromosomes present in the parental nucleus
2. alignment of tetrads at the metaphase plate
3. separation of sister chromatids
4. separation of the homologues; no uncoupling of the centromere
5. synapsis; chromosomes moving to the middle of the cell in pairs
 58.
From the descriptions above, which of the following is the order that most logically illustrates a sequence of meiosis?
a.
 1, 2, 3, 4, 5
b.
 5, 4, 2, 1, 3
c.
 5, 3, 2, 4, 1
d.
 4, 5, 2, 1, 3
e.
 5, 2, 4, 3, 1
 59.
Which of the following statements about Mendel’s breeding experiments is correct?
a.
 None of the parental (P) plants were true-breeding.
b.
 All of the F2 progeny showed a phenotype that was intermediate between the two parental (P) phenotypes.
c.
 Half of the F1 progeny had the same phenotype as one of the parental (P) plants, and the other half had the same phenotype as the other parent.
d.
 All of the F1 progeny resembled one of the parental (P) plants, but only some of the F2 progeny did.
e.
 none of the above
 60.
A cross between homozygous purple-flowered and homozygous white-flowered pea plants results in offspring with purple flowers. This demonstrates
a.
 the blending model of genetics.
b.
 true-breeding.
c.
 dominance.
d.
 a dihybrid cross.
e.
 the mistakes made by Mendel.
 61.
When crossing a homozygous recessive with a heterozygote, what is the chance of getting an offspring with the homozygous recessive phenotype?
a.
 0%
b.
 25%
c.
 50%
d.
 75%
e.
 100%
 62.
P = purple, pp = white. The offspring of a cross between two heterozygous purple-flowering plants (Pp Pp) results in
a.
 all purple-flowered plants.
b.
 purple-flowered plants and white-flowered plants.
c.
 two types of white-flowered plants: PP and Pp.
d.
 all white-flowered plants.
e.
 all pink-flowered plants.
 63.
A couple has three children, all of whom have brown eyes and blond hair. Both parents are homozygous for brown eyes (BB) but one is a blond (rr) and the other is a redhead (Rr). What is the probability that their next child will be a brown-eyed redhead?
a.
 1/16
b.
 1/8
c.
 1/4
d.
 1/2
e.
 1
 64.
Which of the following is true regarding linkage maps? They
a.
 always have a total of 100 map units.
b.
 can be used to pinpoint the precise physical position of a gene on a chromosome.
c.
 are a genetic map based on recombination frequencies.
d.
 require preparation of karyotypes.
e.
 reflect the frequency of crossing over between X and Y chromosomes.
 65.

The figure below represents the stained nucleus from a cheek epithelial cell of an individual whose genotype would probably be

mc065-1.jpg

a.
 XX.
b.
 XY.
c.
 XYY.
d.
 XXX.
e.
 XXY.

 
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