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Chapter 2 Study Guide

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Chapter 2 study guide
 

Multiple Choice
Identify the choice that best completes the statement or answers the question.
 1.
Atoms are composed of
a.
 protons with a positive charge.
b.
 neutrons with no charge.
c.
 electrons with a negative charge.
d.
 All of the above
 2.
The smallest particle of carbon that can retain the chemical properties of carbon is
a.
 a carbon molecule.
b.
 a carbon macromolecule.
c.
 a carbon atom.
d.
 the nucleus of a carbon atom.
 3.
A substance that is composed of only one type of atom is called a(n)
a.
 nucleus.
c.
 element.
b.
 cell.
d.
 molecule.
 4.
All matter in the universe is composed of
a.
 cells.
c.
 atoms.
b.
 molecules.
d.
 carbon.
 5.
The electrons of an atom
a.
 are found in the nucleus along with the protons.
b.
 orbit the nucleus in various energy levels.
c.
 have a positive charge.
d.
 are attracted to the positive charge of neutrons.
 6.
Atoms that have gained energy
a.
 have protons and neutrons that move farther apart.
b.
 lose neutrons from the nucleus.
c.
 have electrons that move to higher energy levels.
d.
 absorb electrons into the nucleus.
 7.
Which of the following states of matter contain(s) particles that are tightly linked together in a definite shape?
a.
 solid
c.
 gas
b.
 liquid
d.
 solid and liquid
 8.
Because carbon has four electrons in its outer energy level,
a.
 it can form bonds with carbon atoms only.
b.
 these atoms are naturally chemically stable.
c.
 it can react with up to four other atoms to form covalent bonds.
d.
 it cannot react with anything other than organic molecules.
 9.
The bond formed when two atoms share a pair of electrons is called a
a.
 hydrogen bond.
c.
 covalent bond.
b.
 nonpolar bond.
d.
 water bond.
 10.
Sharing of electrons between atoms of two or more elements
a.
 results in the formation of an ion.
b.
 results in the formation of a compound.
c.
 results in the formation of noble gases.
d.
 results in destabilization of the atoms involved.
 11.
An atom that has gained or lost electrons is called a(n)
a.
 molecule.
c.
 ion.
b.
 nucleon.
d.
 element.
 12.
Which of the following statements most accurately describes the difference between an ionic bond and a covalent bond?
a.
 Atoms held together by ionic bonds separate when placed in water, while atoms held together by covalent bonds do not separate in water.
b.
 Ionic bonds hold together atoms of two different types, while covalent bonds hold together atoms of the same type.
c.
 Electrons are exchanged between atoms held together by an ionic bond, but they are shared between atoms held together by a covalent bond.
d.
 Ionic bonds form between atoms that carry opposite charges, while covalent bonds form between uncharged atoms.
nar001-1.jpg
 13.
Refer to the graph above. Reaction 1 in the graph
a.
 is an energy-storing reaction.
b.
 requires a greater activation energy than reaction 2.
c.
 may use the same initial reactant condition needed to form product Y.
d.
 All of the above
 14.
Refer to the graph above. Reaction 3 in the graph
a.
 probably occurred in the presence of a catalyst.
b.
 requires a greater activation energy than reaction 2.
c.
 is the same as reaction 1, but faster.
d.
 takes longer than reaction 2.
 15.
Refer to the graph above. Which of these statements regarding the graph is true?
a.
 Reaction 2 occurs faster than reaction 3 because reaction 2 requires more energy than reaction 3.
b.
 The difference in the graphs shown for reaction 2 and reaction 3 is due to a difference in the activation energy needed for these reactions.
c.
 Reactant X contains more energy at the beginning of the reaction than product Z has after the reaction.
d.
 All of the above
 16.
Changing the course or pathway of a chemical reaction so that it requires less activation energy
a.
 is a violation of the laws of nature.
b.
 requires higher temperatures than those found within cells.
c.
 occurs only when reactants are quickly added to the reaction mixture.
d.
 is accomplished by the action of catalysts on reactants.
 17.
Enzymes
a.
 are able to heat up molecules so that they can react.
b.
 provide CO2 for chemical reactions.
c.
 are biological catalysts.
d.
 absorb excess heat so that reactions occur at low temperatures.
 18.
A single organism may contain
a.
 thousands of different enzymes, each one specific to a different chemical reaction.
b.
 one enzyme that plays a role in thousands of different chemical reactions.
c.
 approximately 100 kinds of enzymes, each one specific to a different chemical reaction.
d.
 one enzyme that is specific to photosynthesis and one enzyme that is specific to cellular respiration.
 19.
When a molecule gains an electron, it has been
a.
 oxidized.
c.
 digested.
b.
 reduced.
d.
 inactivated.
 20.
Oxidation-reduction reactions are important in organisms because they
a.
 allow the passage of energy from molecule to molecule.
b.
 prevent nuclear reactions from occurring.
c.
 allow the creation and destruction of energy.
d.
 None of the above; oxidation-reduction reactions do not occur in living organisms.
 21.
The concentration of a solution is
a.
 the number of particles of a substance in a solvent.
b.
 the amount of a solvent that is dissolved in a fixed amount of a solution.
c.
 the amount of a solute that is dissolved in a fixed amount of a solution.
d.
 the ratio of solute to solvent in a solution.
 22.
A neutral solution has an equal number of
a.
 hydrogen and hydronium ions.
b.
 hydroxide and hydronium ions.
c.
 hydrogen and hydroxide ions.
d.
 oxygen and hydrogen ions.
 23.
The terms base and alkaline refer to solutions that
a.
 contain dissolved sodium hydroxide.
b.
 contain more hydronium ions than hydroxide ions.
c.
 contain more hydroxide ions than hydronium ions.
d.
 contain more hydroxide ions than hydrogen ions.
 24.
A solution with a pH of 11 is
a.
 acidic.
c.
 neutral.
b.
 alkaline.
d.
 a buffer.
 25.
Acidic solutions have a pH that is
a.
 less than 7.
c.
 a negative number.
b.
 between 0 and 14.
d.
 more than 7.
 26.
Buffers
a.
 are of relatively little importance in living things.
b.
 are formed when a large number of hydroxide ions are released in a solution.
c.
 are formed when a large number of hydronium ions are released in a solution.
d.
 tend to prevent great fluctuations in pH.
 27.
Atoms become more stable when they form compounds because
a.
 they always lose electrons when they form compounds.
b.
 their outer orbitals become filled when they form compounds.
c.
 they always gain electrons when they form compounds.
d.
 their nucleus loses extra protons when they form compounds.
 28.
A water molecule is polar because its hydrogen and oxygen atoms
a.
 both lose electrons.
b.
 become ions.
c.
 both gain electrons.
d.
 do not share the electrons equally.
 29.
Polar molecules such as water have
a.
 no negative or positive poles.
b.
 both negative and positive poles.
c.
 only a negative pole.
d.
 only a positive pole.
 30.
A molecule that has a partial positive charge on one side and a partial negative charge on the other side is called a
a.
 nonpolar molecule.
c.
 charged molecule.
b.
 polar molecule.
d.
 bipolar molecule.
 31.
Water is a polar molecule because
a.
 it contains two hydrogen atoms for each oxygen atom.
b.
 it has a charge.
c.
 different parts of the molecule have slightly different charges.
d.
 it does not have a charge.
 32.
Water molecules break up other polar substances
a.
 such as salts.
b.
 because of the uneven charge distribution that exists in water molecules.
c.
 thus freeing ions in these substances for use by the body.
d.
 All of the above
 33.
Which of the following characteristics of water is not a result of hydrogen bonding?
a.
 adhesive strength
b.
 capillarity
c.
 cohesive strength
d.
 All of the above are a result of hydrogen bonding.
 

Completion
Complete each statement.
 34.
Substances that are changed when they become involved in chemical reactions are called ____________________, while the new substances that are formed are called ____________________.
 35.
The energy needed to break existing chemical bonds during the initiation of a chemical reaction is called ____________________.
 36.
Chemical reactions in the body can be speeded up by adding a(n) ____________________, which lowers the amount of activation energy required to start the reaction.
 37.
The loss of electrons from a molecule is called ____________________, while the gain of electrons by a molecule is called ____________________.
 38.
A substance that dissolves in another is called a(n) ____________________.
 39.
____________________ is the most common solvent in cells.
 40.
____________________ and ____________________ ions form when water dissociates.
 41.
An acidic solution is one that has more ____________________ than ____________________ ions.
 42.
A solution with a pH of 3 has ____________________ times more hydronium ions than a solution with a pH of 6.
 43.
Buffers are important because body fluids must be maintained within a relatively narrow range of ____________________.
 44.
Water is very effective at dissolving other polar substances because of its ____________________.
 45.
Breaking of ____________________ bonds is the first thing that happens when water is heated, which means that it takes a great deal of thermal energy to raise the temperature of water.
 

Problem
 46.

pr046-1.jpg

Refer to the illustration above. The graph depicts the relative energy levels of the products and reactants for the following chemical reaction: A + B C + D. Write your answers to the following in the spaces below.

a.      Which substances, A, B, C, and/or D, are present at point 1 on the graph?
b.      Which substances, A, B, C, and/or D, are present at point 3 on the graph?
c.      Why is point 2 at a higher energy level than point 1?
d.      Why is point 3 at a lower energy level than point 1?
e.      Draw a dashed line on the graph indicating how the energy level of this reaction over time would be different if the enzyme that catalyzes the reaction were not present.
 

Essay
 47.
Plant growers often use sprinkler irrigation to protect crops they are growing from frost damage. The water that lands on the leaves turns to ice. How does this protect the plants from frost damage? Write your answer in the space below.
 48.
Define enzyme, and describe how an enzyme can function in speeding up a chemical reaction within a cell. Write your answer in the space below.
 49.
How does water’s polar nature affect its ability to dissolve different substances? Write your answer in the space below.
 50.
Explain the relationship between hydrogen bonding and the observation that a full sealed bottle of water breaks when it freezes. Write your answer in the space below.

 
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Chapter 1 Introduction Study Guide

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Chapter 1 Introduction Study Guide

 

 

Modified True/False
Indicate whether the statement is true or false.  If false, change the identified word or phrase to make the statement true.
 1.
Accepting ideas is the cornerstone of scientific thought. _________________________
 2.
Skepticism is a habit of mind in which a person accepts the validity of accepted ideas. _________________________
 3.
The law of gravity and the law of conservation of energy are national laws. _________________________
 4.
Scientific investigations require ethical behavior. _________________________
 5.
Most scientific investigations begin with observations that lead to universal laws. _________________________
 6.
A hypothesis is a possible explanation that can be tested by observation or experimentation. _________________________
 7.
The control group and the experimental group are identical except for one variable. _________________________
 8.
A hypothesis is a general explanation for a broad range of data. _________________________
 9.
International System of Units (SI) is the official name of the metric system. _________________________
 10.
A centimeter is equal to 10 millimeters. _________________________
 11.
Light and electron autoclaves help magnify objects. _________________________
 12.
A technique is a way of doing something. _________________________
 13.
In the event of a lab accident, one thing you should always do is remain calm. _________________________
 14.
Biology is the study of nonliving things. _________________________
 15.
A student who wants to study bacteria would take microbiology classes. _________________________
 16.
Reproduction insures ongoing generations of both one-celled organisms and frogs. _________________________
 17.
Homeostasis is the maintenance of a stable internal environment in spite of changes in the external environment. _________________________
 18.
The bacterium that causes cholera is an example of a pathogen. _________________________
 19.
Scientists discovered that predicting the spread of cholera involves understanding reproductive behavior of plankton. _________________________
 20.
The study of all the factors in the spread of cholera in human populations is an example of ecology. _________________________
 21.
Scientists in the 21st century are better able to prevent disease because of their improved understanding of biology. _________________________
 22.
The completion of the Human Genome Project was one minor contribution to the ability to cure disease. _________________________
 23.
Scientists expect people to live longer lives because of advances in the science of biology. _________________________
 24.
The application of technology to medicine has greatly increased the ability of people to live healthy lives. _________________________
 25.
Genetic engineering is the only practical application of biotechnology. _________________________
 26.
Genetic engineering is widely used in agriculture to produce crops that are pest-resistant. _________________________
 27.
Surrounding a drug compound with a layer of atoms that allows for the slow release of the drug is an example of genetic engineering. _________________________
 28.
Making a new kind of fastener modeled on the way an aquatic animal fastens onto rocks on the ocean floor is an example of nanotechnology. _________________________
 29.
Biometrics involves analyzing large amounts of data on biological characteristics. _________________________
 30.
Unique genetic traits, such as hair color, are the most important source of data for biometrics. _________________________
 31.
Advances in biotechnology have been slowed by ethical concerns. _________________________
 32.
The ethics of different kinds of biotechnology will be decided by individuals and scientists. _________________________
 33.
One good way to protect the environment is to learn more about it. _________________________
 34.
Environmental science involves neither the study of organisms nor their physical surroundings. _________________________
 35.
One reason that wildlife biologists collect DNA samples from endangered species is the hope that these species can be cloned if they become extinct. _________________________
 36.
Genetic engineering is used to track the movements of animals in the wild. _________________________
 37.
Community environmental groups make problems for environmental research. _________________________
 

Multiple Choice
Identify the choice that best completes the statement or answers the question.
 38.
Which of the following do scientists not use to support ideas?
a.
 opinions
c.
 experiments
b.
 evidence
d.
 investigations
 39.
Which of the following applies to all branches of science?
a.
 cell organization
c.
 gravity
b.
 earthquakes
d.
 reproduction
 40.
Which of the following is unethical behavior in scientific investigations?
a.
 allowing peers to review investigations
b.
 following guidelines for medical experiments
c.
 reporting inaccurate data
d.
 basing investigations on someone else’s work
 41.
Scientific thinking can be used
a.
 only by scientists.
c.
 by all living things.
b.
 only in experiments.
d.
 by everyone in daily life.
 42.
A scientist noticed that the number of salamanders in ponds in the Rocky Mountains was declining. This was a(n)
a.
 hypothesis.
c.
 observation.
b.
 theory.
d.
 control.
 43.
A hypothesis is a
a.
 definite answer to a given problem.
b.
 testable possible explanation of an observation.
c.
 proven statement.
d.
 concluding statement.
 44.
observation : hypothesis ::
a.
 theory : observation
c.
 certainty : prediction
b.
 guess : hypothesis
d.
 hypothesis : investigation
 45.
Most typically, the order in which the steps of scientific investigations are applied is
a.
 controlled experiment, hypothesis, analysis of results, observations, questions, conclusions.
b.
 observations, controlled experiment, hypothesis, analysis of results, conclusions, questions.
c.
 observations, questions, hypothesis, controlled experiment, analysis of results, conclusions.
d.
 questions, observations, analysis of results, controlled experiment, conclusions, hypothesis.
 46.
If experiments are not possible or ethical, scientists
a.
 cannot test a hypothesis.
b.
 test more than one variable at a time.
c.
 do not use a control group.
d.
 look for connections in data gathered.
 47.
Scientific hypotheses are most often tested by the process of
a.
 communicating.
c.
 experimenting.
b.
 inferring.
d.
 analyzing data.
 48.
A planned procedure to test a hypothesis is called a(n)
a.
 prediction.
c.
 control.
b.
 experiment.
d.
 variable.
 49.
The variable that is measured in an experiment is the _____ variable.
a.
 dependent
c.
 control
b.
 independent
d.
 experimental
 50.
A general explanation for a broad range of data is called a
a.
 hypothesis.
c.
 prediction.
b.
 theory.
d.
 controlled experiment.
 51.
A scientific theory is
a.
 absolutely certain and never questioned.
b.
 unchangeable.
c.
 revised as new evidence is presented.
d.
 a controlled experiment.
 52.
Scientists build theories from many
a.
 experiments that support hypotheses.
b.
 hypotheses that are rejected.
c.
 experiments with different variables.
d.
 untested ideas.
 53.
The metric system of measurement is based on powers of
a.
 1.
c.
 100.
b.
 10.
d.
 1000.
 54.
A specialized tool used to magnify organisms so that they can be observed is a
a.
 pipet.
c.
 satellite.
b.
 microscope.
d.
 laminar-flow hood.
 55.
Which of the following would scientists use to prevent contamination in an experiment?
a.
 electron microscope
c.
 remote collection of data
b.
 light microscope
d.
 sterile technique
 56.
Which of the following is the most recent tool available to scientists?
a.
 remote tracking devices
c.
 autoclaves
b.
 microscopes
d.
 sterilized pipets
 57.
You can work safely in the science lab by
a.
 taking shortcuts in procedures.
b.
 waiting until the end of experiments to clean area.
c.
 estimating measurements of chemicals.
d.
 following all instructions.
 58.
All of the following are important for working safely in a science laboratory except
a.
 tasting chemicals.
c.
 working cautiously.
b.
 measuring chemicals precisely.
d.
 wearing safety goggles.
 59.
Biology is the study of
a.
 life.
c.
 weather.
b.
 minerals.
d.
 energy.
 60.
The branch of biology that is the study of the human body is
a.
 ecology.
c.
 cell biology.
b.
 evolutionary theory.
d.
 physiology.
 61.
Which of the following is not one of the seven properties of life?
a.
 metabolism
c.
 responsiveness
b.
 homeostasis
d.
 photosynthesis
 62.
As a characteristic of all living things, homeostasis relates most directly to which of the following biological themes?
a.
 interacting systems
c.
 stability
b.
 scale and structure
d.
 evolution
 63.
chemical reactions : metabolism ::
a.
 cells : an organism
c.
 reproduction : living
b.
 heredity : homeostasis
d.
 experimentation : observation
 64.
All living things maintain a balance within their cells and with the environment through the process of
a.
 growth.
c.
 homeostasis.
b.
 development.
d.
 evolution.
 65.
The energy that drives metabolism in animals comes from
a.
 homeostasis.
c.
 water.
b.
 food.
d.
 heredity.
 66.
Children tend to resemble their parents due to
a.
 heredity.
c.
 metabolism.
b.
 responsiveness.
d.
 homeostasis.
 67.
A field of sunflowers facing the sun is an example of
a.
 metabolism.
c.
 responsiveness.
b.
 growth.
d.
 heredity.
 68.
The changes in human babies during their first year of life is an example of
a.
 heredity.
c.
 evolution.
b.
 responsiveness.
d.
 development.
 69.
Filtering contaminated water through a sari is
a.
 an ineffective way to reduce cases of cholera.
b.
 the best way to prevent the spread of cholera.
c.
 a low-tech solution to reducing cases of cholera.
d.
 another factor that causes cholera to spread rapidly.
 70.
All of the following should be researched in studying the epidemiology of waterborne diseases except the
a.
 genomes of the pathogens.
b.
 habitat of pathogens.
c.
 food chain of the pathogens.
d.
 environmental factors that affect pathogens.
 71.
One of the most important tools in preventing the spread of disease is
a.
 computer modeling.
c.
 genetic engineering.
b.
 DNA fingerprinting.
d.
 giving vaccinations.
 72.
computer modeling : epidemiology ::
a.
 genetics : DNA fingerprinting
b.
 cloning : biotechnology
c.
 genome : vaccination
d.
 human health : disease prevention
 73.
Which of the following terms is used to refer to a piece of equipment made for a specific use?
a.
 process
c.
 device
b.
 cure
d.
 treatment
 74.
Which of the following is least likely to help humans live longer?
a.
 epidemiology
c.
 genetics
b.
 medicine
d.
 DNA fingerprinting
 75.
knowledge of biology : human potential ::
a.
 assistive technologies : everyday lives
b.
 human potential : epidemiology
c.
 populations : disease outbreaks
d.
 genomes : genetics
 76.
The technology of changing the genetic material of a living cell is called
a.
 biometrics.
c.
 genetics.
b.
 genetic engineering.
d.
 DNA fingerprinting.
 77.
Planting Bt corn helps farmers decrease the use of
a.
 fertilizers.
c.
 pesticides.
b.
 herbicides.
d.
 cultivators.
 78.
All of the following are known advantages of planting Bt corn except it
a.
 adds some bacterial genes to food supplies.
b.
 lowers a farmer’s cost of production.
c.
 improves a farmer’s crop yield.
d.
 reduces chemical contaminants in the environment.
 79.
The application of a biological structure or process to solve design problems is called
a.
 adaptation.
c.
 cloning.
b.
 biomimetics.
d.
 decoding.
 80.
Which of these biotechnologies has the potential to repair tissues inside the body?
a.
 biometrics
c.
 epidemiology
b.
 biomimetics
d.
 nanotechnology
 81.
clam shell formation : ceramics ::
a.
 CAT scanning : modeling fossils
b.
 strong fabrics : spider silk
c.
 spider silk : strong fabrics
d.
 modeling fossils : CAT scanning
 82.
The analysis of biological traits to identify people is called
a.
 arithmetics.
c.
 genetics.
b.
 biometrics.
d.
 statistics.
 83.
Which of the following traits of an individual would be most useful for identifying a victim in a forensic investigation?
a.
 eye color
c.
 blood type
b.
 hair color
d.
 DNA fingerprint
 84.
The ethical concerns about biotechnology must be addressed by
a.
 scientists only.
c.
 both individuals and scientists.
b.
 societies only.
d.
 both individuals and societies.
 85.
All of the following biotechnologies are considered by some to be unethical except
a.
 biomimetic products.
c.
 human stem cell research.
b.
 biometrics data bases.
d.
 genetically modified foods.
 86.
Which of the following would be an unethical use of biometric data and methods?
a.
 linking criminals to crime scenes
b.
 eliminating innocent people from a list of criminal suspects
c.
 excluding people with certain genes from getting jobs
d.
 protecting citizens from bioterrorism
 87.
Which of the following is considered to be one of the most important applications of biology?
a.
 biometrics
c.
 environmental science
b.
 genetic engineering
d.
 assistive technologies
 88.
In order to make wise decisions about the use of natural resources, citizens will need to have a better understanding of
a.
 biomimetics.
c.
 environmental science.
b.
 genetics.
d.
 genetic engineering.
 89.
ecology : environmental science ::
a.
 biomolecules : strong glues
c.
 forensics : biometrics
b.
 genetics : genetic engineering
d.
 spider silk : clam shells
 90.
What do the initials GIS stand for?
a.
 geological inference standard
c.
 geographic information system
b.
 genetic improvement survey
d.
 global investigation society
 91.
Satellite tagging is a technology that is most likely to be used in
a.
 assisting the disabled.
c.
 developing maps of the world.
b.
 conservation of wildlife.
d.
 tracking the spread of disease.
 92.
Each of the following is a part of a GIS program except
a.
 access to data from different sources.
b.
 computer mapping.
c.
 environmental databases.
d.
 genetic analysis tools.
 93.
Which of the following must be done before an environmental study is begun locally?
a.
 contact several scientists
c.
 identify a problem
b.
 buy a GIS program
d.
 gather up volunteers
 94.
At the Raptor Rehabilitation Center, students in an environmental club help take care of injured and orphaned birds of prey. Based on this information, what does the term raptor refer to?
a.
 a bird of prey
c.
 orphaned wildlife
b.
 the environment
d.
 debilitating injury
 

Completion
Complete each statement.
 95.
The medical treatment for ulcers changed after scientists discovered that ____________________ cause stomach ulcers.
 96.
The questioning and often doubtful attitude required for scientific thought is called ____________________.
 97.
The truths that govern science and are valid everywhere in the universe are universal ____________________.
 98.
____________________ are a system of moral principles and values.
 99.
Most scientific investigations begin with ____________________ that lead to questions.
 100.
A reason to set up an experiment is to test a ____________________.
 101.
A(n) ____________________ experiment is a procedure that tests one factor at a time and that uses a(n) ____________________ group and an experimental group.
 102.
In a controlled experiment, the ____________________ group is the group that has one variable changed.
 103.
In an experiment, the ____________________ group receives no experimental treatment.
 104.
Factors that may change as a result of experimental treatment are ____________________ variables.
 105.
A(n) ____________________ is a specific, testable prediction for a limited set of conditions, and a(n) ____________________ is a general explanation for a broad range of data.
 106.
Scientists use the ______________________________ system to make measurements.
 107.
SI is the abbreviation for the ____________________ System of Units.
 108.
The SI base unit for length is the ____________________.
 109.
A kilogram is equal to ____________________ grams.
 110.
In a light microscope, light passes through one or more ____________________ to produce an enlarged image of an object.
 111.
Scientists use ____________________ techniques to minimize the risk of contamination.
 112.
The study of the interactions of living organisms with one another and with the nonliving part of their environment is called ____________________.
 113.
The branch of biology that studies the changes in types of organisms over time is called ___________________ theory.
 114.
Scientists who study whales, bats, or bears in their natural habitat are called ____________________ biologists.
 115.
The process of _________________ traits changing over time is called evolution.
 116.
Every living organism is composed of one or more ____________________.
 117.
All cells have the same basic ____________________.
 118.
The sum of all chemical reactions carried out in an organism is ____________________.
 119.
The energy used by living organisms originates from the ____________________.
 120.
The study of ____________________ involves finding out how diseases are spread.
 121.
Cholera bacteria can cause the disease only when ____________________ increases.
 122.
A ____________________ is a medical procedure that allows a person to resist infection by a certain disease.
 123.
Many new tools for studying and treating diseases caused by problems in genes have come from the study of ____________________.
 124.
In developed countries, the length of human lives has nearly ____________________ in the past century.
 125.
One example of an assistive technology that helps people in everyday life is ____________________.
 126.
The gene that was added to Bt corn came from a(n) ____________________.
 127.
Bt corn contains a gene that produces a ____________________ that kills the European core borer.
 128.
The robotic items produced through nanotechnology often resemble tiny ____________________.
 129.
Imitating biological structures, processes, and systems to solve engineering problems is called ____________________.
 130.
Because of ____________________, dissection is no longer needed to determine the shapes and locations of internal organs.
 131.
Fingerprints and iris patterns are useful in identification because they are ____________________ to individuals.
 132.
Material used in ____________________ is obtained from hair and skin cells.
 133.
Research that involves human stem cells is limited because many people think that such research is ____________________.
 134.
The study of living organisms and their environments is called _________________________.
 135.
The existence of undiscovered resources is an important reason to study and ____________________ natural environments.
 136.
The movements of wildlife can be studied through the technology of ____________________.
 137.
Wildlife agents use the technology of ____________________ to identify the remains of endangered animals and to identify who killed them.
 138.
The people in communities who make contributions to environmental research are called ____________________.
 139.
Students make contributions to environmental conservation by helping to care for ____________________ or ____________________ wildlife.
 

Short Answer
 140.
What universal law applies in a study of the flight of birds? How does it apply?
 141.
How could you use scientific thought to investigate a claim about a product?
 142.
Write a hypothesis to explain why the water level in an aquarium is going down.
 143.
What two groups are part of a controlled experiment?
 144.
What is the difference between an independent variable and dependent variables in a controlled experiment?
 145.
How does a scientist verify the conclusions of an experiment?
 146.
What is the difference between a hypothesis and a theory?
 147.
What makes SI easy to use?
 148.
What are the base SI units for volume, length, and mass?
 149.
What are two common kinds of microscopes. How do they differ?
 150.
What is sterile technique? What are four tools of sterile technique?
 151.
Suppose you are a scientist who studies sharks in their natural habitat. What are two names that describe the kind of biologist you are?
 152.
What is heredity?
 153.
Name the seven properties of life.
 154.
How are data from weather and climate satellites used in epidemiology?
 155.
How does a vaccination help people and animals resist disease?
 156.
How will the completion of the Human Genome Project contribute to biological research in the 21st Century?
 157.
List two examples of assistive technologies that will improve the lives of people with injuries and diseases.
 158.
How does genetic engineering that produced Bt corn help to increase the yield in a farmer’s corn field?
 159.
List two practical applications of biotechnology other than genetic engineering.
 160.
How has genetic engineering improved the treatment of people who have diabetes?
 161.
From what biological structure did engineers get the idea for a submarine?
 162.
What makes iris scans an effective technology for identifying people?
 163.
List two biological characteristics of individuals, besides fingerprints and iris patterns, that can be analyzed by computers to identify people.
 164.
List two concerns that people have expressed about the ethics of biotechnology.
 165.
List three important resources that all living things get from the environment.
 166.
What do the initials GIS stand for?
 167.
What is satellite tagging?
 168.
List three steps that students could take to get involved in environmental research.
 

Essay
 169.
Explain why accurate data and peer review are important in science.
 170.
The results of an experiment do not support the hypothesis that the experiment was designed to test. Was the experiment a waste of time? Explain your answer.
 171.
Explain the difference between an independent variable and a dependent variable in a controlled experiment. Also indicate whether or not each kind of variable would be found in a control group and an experimental group.
 172.
Summarize the steps in the development of a theory.
 173.
Before doing experiments, what should you know about lab safety? What procedure should you follow if an accident occurs during an experiment in your class?
 174.
List and describe the seven properties of life shared by all living organisms.
 175.
Toads that live in hot, dry regions bury themselves in the soil during the day. How might this be important to toads?
nar001-1.jpg
 176.
Refer to the map above. West Nile Virus is a virus that attacks the nervous system of birds, humans, and many other mammals. The virus first appeared in the United States in 1999, when an outbreak was reported in the New York City area. Based on this background and the information shown in the map, write a paragraph that summarizes the state of West Nile Virus incidence in the United States as of 2006.
 177.
Explain how increased understanding of biology and science in general should enable humans to live longer and healthier lives.
 178.
Compare and contrast fingerprints and DNA fingerprints as a means of identifying individuals.
 179.
Ethics is the study of whether human actions are moral (right or wrong, acceptable or unacceptable). Summarize the role of ethics in guiding the future of biotechnology.
 180.
What important lesson can be learned from the recent discovery of new kinds of organisms in a remote area of New Guinea?

 
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Cell Reproduction

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Cell Reproduction

 

 

Modified True/False
Indicate whether the statement is true or false.  If false, change the identified word or phrase to make the statement true.
 1.
A gene is a segment of DNA that directs the production of RNA and protein. _________________________
 2.
The information needed by a cell to direct its activities and to determine its characteristics is contained in molecules of protein. _________________________
 3.
After the replication of a cell’s DNA, there are twice as many centromeres as there are chromatids. _________________________
 4.
Cells that seldom divide spend most of their time in interphase. _________________________
 5.
After mitosis and interphase, each new cell has a complete set of the parent cell’s chromosomes. _________________________
 6.
In animal cells, cytokinesis results when a cell plate forms across the cell to divide the cytoplasm. _________________________
 7.
Plant cells separate their cytoplasm during cytokinesis when protein threads pinch the cell in half. _________________________
 8.
The cell cycle has four checkpoints that act to inhibit uncontrolled cell division. _________________________
 9.
Offspring formed by asexual reproduction look exactly like their parent. _________________________
 10.
In budding, new individuals develop from pieces of the original individual. _________________________
 11.
Some eukaryotes reproduce asexually, and some produce sexually. _________________________
 12.
In asexual reproduction, two parents each pass genetic material to their offspring. _________________________
 13.
Asexual reproduction provides for genetic diversity, the raw material for evolution. _________________________
 14.
Genetic diversity is the raw material for evolution. _________________________
 15.
Genes on chromosomes are the units of inheritance. _________________________
 16.
Each human somatic cell contains two copies of each chromosome for a total of 23 chromosomes. _________________________
 17.
Gametes are diploid so that when fertilization occurs, the resulting zygote will have the characteristic number of chromosomes for that species. _________________________
 18.
While paired together during the second division of meiosis, two chromosomes may exchange segments of DNA. _________________________
 19.
Crossing-over is the exchange of corresponding portions of chromatids between homologous chromosomes. _________________________
 20.
Random fertilization refers to the fact that homologous chromosomes are distributed randomly during meiosis. _________________________
 21.
The process by which sperm are produced in male animals is called spermatogenesis. _________________________
 22.
During the diploid life cycle, all of the cells are diploid. _________________________
 23.
During the haploid life cycle, the zygote is the only diploid cell. _________________________
 24.
In the life cycle of a plant, the gametophyte is the haploid phase that produces gametes by mitosis. _________________________
 25.
A spore gives rise to a multicellular individual without joining with another cell. _________________________
 26.
Moss plants have haploid life cycles. ______________________________
 

Multiple Choice
Identify the choice that best completes the statement or answers the question.
 27.
Which of the following is not a reason cells divide?
a.
 The cell gets too big to process and transport nutrients.
b.
 New cells are needed for growth.
c.
 DNA cannot be copied quickly enough in large cells.
d.
 Surface area-to-volume ratio becomes too large.
 28.
The chromosome of a bacterium
a.
 is wrapped around proteins.
b.
 has a circular shape.
c.
 occurs in multiple pairs within the cell.
d.
 is found within the nucleus.
 29.
The region of a chromosome where two sister chromatids are held together is called a
a.
 spindle.
c.
 nucleosome.
b.
 centromere.
d.
 centriole.
 30.
Chromatids are
a.
 dense patches within the nucleus.
b.
 bacterial chromosomes.
c.
 joined strands of duplicated genetic material.
d.
 prokaryotic nuclei.
 31.
When a chromosome condenses,
a.
 a histone wraps around chromatin.
b.
 beads form on the DNA double helix.
c.
 its centromere splits.
d.
 looped domains coil into a structure.
 32.
In order to fit within a cell, DNA becomes more compact by
a.
 breaking apart into separate genes.
b.
 extending to form very long, thin molecules.
c.
 wrapping tightly around histones.
d.
 being enzymatically changed into a protein.
 33.
In a bacterium, cell division takes place when
a.
 its nucleus divides.
b.
 the cell splits into two cells, one of which receives all of the DNA.
c.
 the DNA is copied, a new cell wall forms between the DNA copies, and the cell splits into two cells.
d.
 spindle fibers form.
 34.
The phase of the cell cycle that occupies most of an average cell’s life is
a.
 G1.
c.
 G2.
b.
 mitosis.
d.
 S.
 35.
What occurs after cytokinesis is completed?
a.
 The cell organizes its microtubules.
c.
 The cell enters G1.
b.
 The cell begins to replicate its DNA.
d.
 The cell enters G2.
 36.
Which of the following shows the correct sequence of the cell cycle?
a.
 cytokinesis ® mitosis ® G1 ® S ® G2
b.
 S ® G1 ® G2 ® mitosis ® cytokinesis
c.
 G1 ® S ® G2 ® mitosis ® cytokinesis
d.
 mitosis ® G1 ® S® G2 ® cytokinesis
 37.
Cells that are not dividing remain in the
a.
 mitosis phase.
c.
 first gap phase.
b.
 synthesis phase.
d.
 second gap phase.
 38.
The synthesis (S) phase is characterized by
a.
 DNA replication.
b.
 cell division.
c.
 replication of mitochondria and other organelles.
d.
 the division of cytoplasm.
 39.
5 steps : the cell cycle ::
a.
 6 steps : prophase
c.
 3 steps : meiosis
b.
 9 steps : cytokinesis
d.
 4 steps : mitosis
 40.
The first three phases of the cell cycle are collectively known as
a.
 a gap.
c.
 mitosis.
b.
 telophase.
d.
 interphase.
 41.
cell growth : G1 ::
a.
 mitosis : cytokinesis
b.
 mitosis : meiosis
c.
 mitochondria replication : synthesis phase
d.
 DNA copying : synthesis phase
 42.
metaphase : prophase ::
a.
 G1 : mitosis
c.
 mitosis : cytokinesis
b.
 G2 : S
d.
 S : mitosis
 43.
Mitosis is the process by which
a.
 microtubules are assembled.
b.
 cytoplasm is divided.
c.
 the nucleus is divided into two nuclei.
d.
 the cell rests.
 44.
A spindle fiber is a specialized form of
a.
 microtubule.
c.
 centriole.
b.
 centrosome.
d.
 chromosome.
 45.
The phase of mitosis that is characterized by the arrangement of all chromosomes along the equator of the cell is called
a.
 telophase.
c.
 anaphase.
b.
 metaphase.
d.
 prophase.
nar001-1.jpg
 46.
Refer to the illustration above. The cell in diagram 1 is in
a.
 metaphase.
c.
 anaphase.
b.
 telophase.
d.
 prophase.
 47.
Refer to the illustration above. Mitosis begins with the stage shown in diagram
a.
 1.
c.
 3.
b.
 2.
d.
 4.
 48.
Refer to the illustration above. The cell shown in diagram 5 is in
a.
 metaphase.
c.
 anaphase.
b.
 telophase.
d.
 prophase.
nar002-1.jpg
 49.
Refer to the illustration above. Which of the following correctly indicates the order in which these events occur?
a.
 A, B, C, D
c.
 B, A, C, D
b.
 C, B, A, D
d.
 A, C, B, D
 50.
Refer to the illustration above. During which stage do the centromeres divide?
a.
 A
c.
 C
b.
 B
d.
 D
 51.
As a result of mitosis, each of the two new cells produced from the parent cell during cytokinesis
a.
 receives a few chromosomes from the parent cell.
b.
 receives an exact copy of all the chromosomes present in the parent cell.
c.
 donates a chromosome to the parent cell.
d.
 receives exactly half the chromosomes from the parent cell.
 52.
Cytokinesis in plant cells involves the formation of
a.
 a belt of protein threads.
c.
 spindle fibers.
b.
 a cell plate.
d.
 centrioles.
 53.
Which of the following statements is true?
a.
 Prokaryotes divide by mitosis.
b.
 Eukaryotes have circular chromosomes.
c.
 Animal cells form new cell walls when they divide.
d.
 Plant cells and animal cells have different strategies for cytokinesis.
 54.
In eukaryotes, the cell cycle is controlled by
a.
 proteins.
c.
 lipids.
b.
 carbohydrates.
d.
 fats.
 55.
At the G2 checkpoint, DNA replication is checked by
a.
 receptor proteins.
c.
 repair enzymes.
b.
 electron transport chains.
d.
 cell-surface markers.
 56.
The cell cycle is monitored as each cell passes through
a.
 the S phase.
c.
 the interphase checkpoint.
b.
 checkpoints.
d.
 cytokinesis.
 57.
Normal cells become cancer cells when
a.
 regulation of cell growth and division occurs.
b.
 cells respond to control mechanisms.
c.
 cells pass through G1.
d.
 cells do not respond to checkpoints.
 58.
Which of the following is not a type of asexual reproduction?
a.
 budding
c.
 binary fission
b.
 fragmentation
d.
 fertilization
 59.
Hydras reproduce by
a.
 budding.
c.
 binary fission.
b.
 fragmentation.
d.
 parthenogenesis.
 60.
Budding is an example of
a.
 endosymbiosis.
c.
 meiosis.
b.
 asexual reproduction.
d.
 sexual reproduction.
 61.
The simplest and most primitive method of reproduction is
a.
 sexual.
c.
 haploid.
b.
 diploid.
d.
 asexual.
 62.
Binary fission
a.
 occurs when two cells collide with each other.
b.
 produces excess energy.
c.
 creates new species.
d.
 is the process by which bacteria reproduce.
 63.
The process of producing offspring is called reproduction and can be
a.
 eukaryotic or prokaryotic.
c.
 zygotic or gametic.
b.
 asexual or sexual.
d.
 haploid or diploid
 64.
Sexual reproduction includes
a.
 budding.
c.
 binary fission.
b.
 fragmentation.
d.
 fertilization
 65.
Normal human males develop from fertilized eggs containing which of the following sex chromosome combinations?
a.
 XY
c.
 XO
b.
 XX
d.
 OO
 66.
Homologous chromosomes are pairs of chromosomes containing genes that code for
a.
 different traits.
c.
 DNA.
b.
 the same traits.
d.
 sex.
 67.
In humans, gametes contain
a.
 22 autosomes and 1 sex chromosome.
b.
 1 autosome and 22 sex chromosomes.
c.
 45 autosomes and 1 sex chromosome.
d.
 1 autosome and 45 sex chromosomes.
 68.
In humans, the male determines the sex of the child because males have
a.
 two X chromosomes.
c.
 two Y chromosomes.
b.
 one X and one Y chromosome.
d.
 46 chromosomes.
 69.
The X and Y chromosomes are called
a.
 extra chromosomes.
c.
 sex chromosomes.
b.
 homologous chromosomes.
d.
 autosomes.
 70.
female : XX ::
a.
 female : gametes
c.
 male : YY
b.
 female : eggs
d.
 male : XY
 71.
How many chromosomes are in the body cells of an organism that has a haploid number of 8?
a.
 4
c.
 12
b.
 8
d.
 16
 72.
The diploid number of chromosomes in a human skin cell is 46. The number of chromosomes found in a human egg cell is
a.
 46.
c.
 23.
b.
 92.
d.
 12.5.
 73.
diploid : somatic cell :: haploid :
a.
 body cell
c.
 gamete
b.
 chromosome
d.
 zygote
 74.
A haploid cell is one that
a.
 has two homologues of each chromosome.
b.
 is designated by the symbol 2n.
c.
 has chromosomes found in pairs.
d.
 has one set of chromosomes.
nar003-1.jpg
 75.
Refer to the illustration above. The process shown is
a.
 mitosis.
c.
 meiosis.
b.
 chromosomal mutation.
d.
 dominance.
 76.
Separation of homologues occurs during
a.
 mitosis.
c.
 meiosis II.
b.
 meiosis I.
d.
 fertilization.
 77.
When crossing-over takes place, chromosomes
a.
 mutate in the first division.
b.
 produce new genes.
c.
 decrease in number.
d.
 exchange corresponding segments of DNA.

Using the information you have learned about cell reproduction, infer answers to the questions below about a cell with a diploid number of 4 chromosomes. Select from among the diagrams below, labeled A, B, C, D, and E, to answer the questions.

nar004-1.jpg
 78.
Which of the diagrams above depicts a cell at the end of meiosis I?
a.
 B
c.
 D
b.
 C
d.
 E
 79.
Which of the diagrams above depicts a cell at the end of meiosis II?
a.
 A
c.
 C
b.
 B
d.
 D
 80.
Which of the diagrams above depicts a cell at the beginning of mitosis?
a.
 B
c.
 D
b.
 C
d.
 E
 81.
Which of the diagrams above depicts a cell at the end of mitosis?
a.
 A
c.
 C
b.
 B
d.
 D
 82.
The difference between anaphase of mitosis and anaphase I of meiosis is that
a.
 the chromosomes line up at the equator in anaphase I.
b.
 centromeres do not exist in anaphase I.
c.
 chromatids do not separate at the centromere in anaphase I.
d.
 crossing-over occurs only in anaphase of mitosis.
 83.
The exchange of segments of DNA between the members of a pair of chromosomes
a.
 ensures that variations within a species never occur.
b.
 acts as a source of variations within a species.
c.
 always produces genetic disorders.
d.
 is called genetic crossing.
 84.
Crossing-over occurs
a.
 during prophase II.
c.
 during prophase I.
b.
 during fertilization.
d.
 at the centromere.
 85.
Which of the following does not provide new genetic combinations?
a.
 random fertilization
c.
 independent assortment
b.
 cytokinesis
d.
 crossing-over
 86.
During cytokinesis in the female, what divides unequally?
a.
 the sperm cell
c.
 the cytoplasm
b.
 the ovary
d.
 the DNA
 87.
The more common name for an ovum is a(n)
a.
 egg.
c.
 nutrient.
b.
 hormone.
d.
 polar body.
 88.
To create new haploid cells during the haploid life cycle, the zygote undergoes
a.
 mitosis.
c.
 fusion.
b.
 fertilization.
d.
 meiosis.
 89.
Which of the following is not a type of sexual life cycle?
a.
 alternation of generations
c.
 diploid
b.
 haploid
d.
 parthenogenesis
 90.
In alternation of generations, a diploid spore-forming cell gives rise to four
a.
 zygotes.
c.
 haploid spores.
b.
 sperm cells.
d.
 diploid spores.
 91.
During alternation of generations, cells reproduce by
a.
 meiosis only.
c.
 both meiosis and mitosis.
b.
 mitosis only.
d.
 binary fission.
 

Completion
Complete each statement.
 92.
Growth occurs through cell enlargement and cell ____________________.
 93.
The DNA in eukaryotic cells is packaged into structures called ____________________.
 94.
A duplicated chromosome consists of two identical ____________________, which are held together at the centromere.
 95.
The sequence of events that occurs in a cell from one cell division to the next is called the ____________________.
 96.
Collectively, the time spent in G1 + S + G2 is called ____________________.
 97.
A cell’s DNA is copied during the ____________________ phase.
 98.
Cells that are not dividing remain in the ____________________ phase.
 99.
Spindle fibers are made of hollow tubes of protein called ____________________.
 100.
The spindle is assembled by the ____________________.
 101.
In most eukaryotic cells, ____________________ takes place after the nucleus divides.
 102.
In plant cells, a(n) ____________________ forms in the center of the cell during cytokinesis.
 103.
Normal cell growth and cell division are regulated by ____________________.
 104.
The cell cycle is controlled in eukaryotes at three principal ____________________.
 105.
Loss of control and regulation of the ____________________ can result in the development of cancer.
 106.
The separation of a parent into two or more individuals of about equal size is called ____________________.
 107.
Binary fission is the process by which ____________________ split asexually into two identical organisms.
 108.
Only ____________________ cells can produce gametes.
 109.
Somatic cells containing two sets of 23 chromosomes each are always ____________________.
 110.
After a new nuclear membrane forms during telophase I of meiosis, the ____________________ divides, resulting in two cells.
 111.
The process called ____________________ guarantees that the number of chromosomes in gametes is half the number of chromosomes in body cells.
 112.
Prophase I of meiosis is different from prophase of mitosis in that every chromosome pairs with its ____________________.
 113.
A reciprocal exchange of corresponding segments of DNA is called ____________________ – ____________________.
 114.
The four haploid cells formed in the male at the end of meiosis II develop tails and are called ____________________.
 115.
The diploid number of chromosomes is re-established through ____________________.
 116.
In a haploid life cycle, ____________________ results in the first cell of a multicellular haploid organism.

 
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Chapter 5 Homeostasis and Transport RETEST

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Chapter 5 Homeostasis and Transport RETEST
 

Multiple Choice
Identify the choice that best completes the statement or answers the question.
 1.
As a result of diffusion, the concentration of many types of substances
a.
 always remains greater inside a membrane.
b.
 eventually becomes balanced on both sides of a membrane.
c.
 always remains greater on the outside of a membrane.
d.
 becomes imbalanced on both sides of a membrane.
 2.
Diffusion takes place
a.
 only through a lipid bilayer membrane.
b.
 from an area of low concentration to an area of high concentration.
c.
 only in liquids.
d.
 from an area of high concentration to an area of low concentration.
            Concentration of Water and Solutes in Four Adjacent Cells

nar001-1.jpg
 3.
Refer to the illustration above. Which cell is most likely to lose both water molecules and solute molecules as the system approaches equilibrium?
a.
 cell “A”
c.
 cell “C”
b.
 cell “B”
d.
 cell “D”
 4.
Refer to the illustration above. In this system, solute molecules in cell “B” are most likely to
a.
 remain in cell “B.”
c.
 diffuse into cell “A.”
b.
 adhere to cell “B’s” membrane.
d.
 diffuse into cell “D”
 5.
Refer to the illustration above. In this system, water molecules are most likely to diffuse in which direction?
a.
 from “A” to “B”
c.
 from “D” to “C”
b.
 from “B” to “D”
d.
 from “C” to “A”
 6.
The dispersal of ink in a beaker of water is an example of
a.
 diffusion.
c.
 active transport.
b.
 osmosis.
d.
 endocytosis.
 7.
heavy rains : flooding ::
a.
 osmosis : proton pumping
b.
 high solute concentration : isotonic solution
c.
 active transport : ATP
d.
 concentration difference : osmosis
 8.
Sugar molecules can enter cells through the process of
a.
 exocytosis.
c.
 osmosis.
b.
 facilitated diffusion.
d.
 ion pumps.
 9.
Channels utilizing facilitated diffusion
a.
 work in two directions.
b.
 require an electrical signal to function.
c.
 Both a and b
d.
 None of the above
 10.
Which of the following is not characteristic of facilitated diffusion?
a.
 It requires a carrier protein.
b.
 It moves substances against a concentration gradient.
c.
 It requires no energy input.
d.
 It involves a change in the shape of its carrier.
 11.
Which of the following is true of ions and their transport across cell membranes?
a.
 The “gates” for ion channels are always open.
b.
 Ions are very small and thus can cross cell membranes readily.
c.
 Electrical or chemical signals may control the movement of ions across cell membranes.
d.
 Because they are charged particles, the movement of ions across cell membranes requires energy input.
 12.
Which of the following does not expend energy?
a.
 diffusion
c.
 active transport
b.
 chemiosmosis
d.
 a sodium-potassium pump
 13.
Which of the following enters a cell by active transport?
a.
 glucose
c.
 sodium ion
b.
 water
d.
 potassium ion
 14.
The process by which water passes into or out of a cell is called
a.
 solubility.
c.
 selective transport.
b.
 osmosis.
d.
 endocytosis.
nar002-1.jpg
 15.
Refer to the illustration above. The process shown is called
a.
 osmosis.
c.
 active transport.
b.
 facilitated diffusion.
d.
 diffusion.
 16.
The sodium-potassium pump usually pumps
a.
 potassium out of the cell.
b.
 sodium into the cell.
c.
 potassium into the cell.
d.
 only a potassium and sugar molecule together.
 17.
proton pump : protons ::
a.
 ATP : protons
c.
 sodium-potassium pump : ATP
b.
 channel : protons
d.
 sodium-potassium pump : sodium
 18.
Ridding the cell of material by discharging it from sacs at the cell surface is called
a.
 chemiosmosis.
c.
 exocytosis.
b.
 exorcism.
d.
 endocytosis.
 19.
Molecules that are too large to be moved across a cell membrane can be removed from the cell by
a.
 diffusion.
c.
 lipid carriers.
b.
 exocytosis.
d.
 osmosis.
 20.
Molecules that are too large to be moved through the membrane can be transported into the cell by
a.
 osmosis.
c.
 lipid carriers.
b.
 endocytosis.
d.
 diffusion.
 21.
endocytosis : exocytosis ::
a.
 phagocytosis : bacteria
c.
 cold : hot
b.
 secrete : exocytosis
d.
 white blood cell : bacteria

 
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Bacteria and Viruses

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bacteria and Viruses

 

 

Multiple Choice
Identify the choice that best completes the statement or answers the question.
 1.
Many microscopic organisms or entities have been identified as pathogens, including all of the following except:
a.
 protozoa.
b.
 viruses.
c.
 fungi.
d.
 bacteria.
e.
 None of the above, all may be pathogenic.
 2.
Which of the following statements about bacteria is false?
a.
 A small percentage of bacteria are pathogenic.
b.
 Some bacteria can photosynthesize.
c.
 Bacteria are important decomposers.
d.
 Bacteria are not cellular and are sometimes not classified as life forms.
e.
 Bacteria convert atmospheric nitrogen into ammonia and then nitrates that can be used by plants.
 3.
Viruses were first identified:
a.
 because they caused an infection and formed colonies on nutrient agar plates.
b.
 because they were seen in the light microscope.
c.
 because they caused an infection and were small enough to pass through filters that trapped bacteria.
d.
 because they were smaller than bacteria and had all the properties of living organisms.
e.
 because they caused an infection and were seen in the electron microscope.
 4.
The protein coat of a virus is called the:
a.
 capsule.
b.
 capsid.
c.
 exospore.
d.
 phage.
e.
 pilus.
 5.
Viruses that attack bacteria are called:
a.
 phages.
b.
 bacteriods
c.
 prions.
d.
 virons.
e.
 viroids.
Figure 23-01
Use the figure below to answer the corresponding questions.nar001-1.jpg
 6.
The structure of the virus in Figure 23-01 that is common to all viruses is:
a.
 2.
b.
 3.
c.
 4.
d.
 5.
e.
 All of the above.
 7.
In Figure 23-01, the function of the structure labeled 3 is:
a.
 attachment to a host cell.
b.
 locomotion.
c.
 mate recognition.
d.
 replication.
e.
 to take over host cell mechanisms.
 8.
Viruses are classified by:
a.
 the sequence of their DNA.
b.
 structural similarities.
c.
 the sequence of their rRNA genes.
d.
 the traditional Linnaean binomial nomenclature system.
e.
 an international committee.
 9.
Viruses:
a.
 are very tiny cells on the order of 500 nm.
b.
 contain both RNA and DNA.
c.
 cannot independently perform metabolic activities.
d.
 have a standard morphology that includes a capsid, tail, and tail fibers.
e.
 All of the above.
 10.
Viruses:
a.
 are usually species-specific.
b.
 may have multiple origins.
c.
 are probably related to mobile genetic elements.
d.
 may have escaped from cells.
e.
 All of the above.
 11.
Phages are being considered for:
a.
 vectors in gene therapy experiments.
b.
 antibiotics in bacterial infections.
c.
 gene transfer vectors in animal cells.
d.
 being equivalent to the first living organisms.
e.
 All of the above.
 12.
Temperate viruses:
a.
 always destroy their host immediately.
b.
 are considered virulent.
c.
 do not always destroy their host.
d.
 do not undergo a lysogenic cycle.
e.
 undergo a lytic cycle.
 13.
Virulent (lytic) phages:
a.
 infect viruses.
b.
 destroy bacteria.
c.
 infect, but do not destroy bacteria.
d.
 infect virions.
e.
 infect prions.
 14.
The five stages of a lytic infection are attachment, penetration, _____________, assembly, and release.
a.
 lysis
b.
 prophage
c.
 lysogenesis
d.
 transduction
e.
 replication
 15.
A prophage:
a.
 is phage DNA that is integrated into viral DNA.
b.
 is phage DNA that is integrated into bacterial DNA.
c.
 replicates only when the eukaryotic cell it infects replicates.
d.
 is an underdeveloped lytic virus.
e.
 is a bacterial cell about to lyse.
 16.
The bacterium that causes botulism disease is harmless until it:
a.
 is infected by lytic bacteria.
b.
 is infected by certain retroviruses.
c.
 contains a certain prophage DNA.
d.
 is irradiated by UV radiation.
e.
 is infected by prions.
 17.
____________ conversion occurs when a bacterium carrying viral genes takes on new, atypical characteristics.
a.
 Transducing
b.
 Lysogenic
c.
 Prophage
d.
 Lytic
e.
 Reverse
 18.
The specificity of viruses to different types of cells is due to _____________ sites on the host cell.
a.
 prophage
b.
 receptor
c.
 transduction
d.
 penetration
e.
 transcription
 19.
Retroviruses differ from other RNA viruses by:
a.
 having reverse transcriptase instead of RNA-dependent RNA polymerase.
b.
 the shape of their capsid.
c.
 the way they infect their host cells.
d.
 the sugar coating on their capsids.
e.
 lytically destroying their hosts.
 20.
Which of the following diseases is not caused by a virus?
a.
 rabies
b.
 polio
c.
 warts in humans
d.
 chickenpox
e.
 Lyme disease
 21.
Which of the following identifies a group of DNA viruses?
a.
 retroviruses
b.
 herpesviruses
c.
 paramyxoviruses
d.
 filovirus
e.
 picornaviruses
 22.
Viral proteins can damage host cells by:
a.
 increasing the rate of fermentation within the host.
b.
 producing endotoxins.
c.
 causing a decline in coordination and increased irritability.
d.
 preventing transcription of viral nucleic acids.
e.
 overwhelming the host cell with a large number of viruses.
 23.
Viral infections in humans spread via the circulatory system. Viral infections in plants spread from cell to cell via:
a.
 endocytosis.
b.
 plasmodesmata.
c.
 infected seeds.
d.
 pili.
e.
 transformation.
 24.
Human viruses can enter human cells by fusion with the cell membrane or by:
a.
 diffusion into the cell.
b.
 passage through specific protein channels.
c.
 coating themselves with lipids that cloak their entrance into the cell.
d.
 endocytosis.
e.
 hitchhiking onto protein signals entering the cell.
 25.
Viroids cause a variety of plant diseases and are composed only of:
a.
 strands of RNA.
b.
 strands of DNA.
c.
 protein coats.
d.
 peptidoglycan.
e.
 a capsid.
 26.
Mad cow disease is an example of an infection caused by a:
a.
 bacterium.
b.
 bacteriophage.
c.
 retrovirus.
d.
 viroid.
e.
 prion.
 27.
_____________ is credited with the discovery of prions as a new biological principle of infection.
a.
 Stanley Prusiner
b.
 Anton van Leeuwenhoek
c.
 Dmitrii Ivanowsky
d.
 Stanley Brenner
e.
 Carl Woese
 28.
A symptom of a transmissible spongiform encephalopathy (TSE) is:
a.
 degeneration of the digestive tract.
b.
 progressive immune deficiency.
c.
 degeneration of the brain and central nervous system.
d.
 inflammation of the reproductive organs.
e.
 influenza-like symptoms.
 29.
The volume of a typical bacterium is about ____________ the volume of a typical eukaryotic cell.
a.
 equal to
b.
 a half
c.
 a tenth
d.
 a hundredth
e.
 a thousandth
 30.
A chain of round bacteria would be called:
a.
 spirilla.
b.
 diplococci.
c.
 bacilli.
d.
 streptococci.
e.
 streptobacilli.
 31.
Rod-shaped bacteria are called:
a.
 streptococci.
b.
 bacilli.
c.
 diplococci.
d.
 vibrio.
e.
 spirochete.
Figure 23-02
Use the figure below to answer the corresponding questions.nar002-1.jpg
 32.
The structure in Figure 23-02 labeled C is:
a.
 a ribosome.
b.
 the plasma membrane.
c.
 the capsule.
d.
 the cell wall.
e.
 the flagellum.
 33.
What is the function of the structure labeled A in Figure 23-02?
a.
 to adhere to surfaces or other bacteria
b.
 to prevent phagocytosis
c.
 support and protection in hypotonic conditions
d.
 transmission of DNA between bacteria
e.
 locomotion
 34.
Even though bacteria lack membrane-bound organelles, such as chloroplasts and mitochondria, they can still perform the functions of these organelles by localizing certain metabolic enzymes on:
a.
 the nuclear membranes.
b.
 the endoplasmic reticulum.
c.
 the plasma membrane.
d.
 ribosomes.
e.
 the cell wall.
 35.
Most bacterial cells keep from bursting in a hypotonic environment by:
a.
 an efficient water pump.
b.
 a tough cell membrane.
c.
 pumping large quantities of salts into the cell.
d.
 a rigid cell wall.
e.
 a stiff capsule.
 36.
Gram-positive bacteria would stain __________ in a gram stain because of a thick layer of __________ in their cell walls.
a.
 green; peptidoglycan
b.
 purple; peptidoglycan
c.
 green; cellulose
d.
 purple; polysaccharides
e.
 red; polysaccharides
 37.
The walls of Eubacteria contain peptidoglycan, which is:
a.
 lipids crosslinked with sugars.
b.
 sugars crosslinked with proteins.
c.
 a protein.
d.
 a lipid.
e.
 a polysaccharide.
 38.
Penicillin works most effectively against gram-positive bacteria because:
a.
 penicillin affects cell membranes.
b.
 they have a thick peptidoglycan cell wall and penicillin affects the synthesis of peptidoglycans.
c.
 they have special protein channels that allow penicillin to enter the cell and halt the cell cycle.
d.
 they are smaller than gram-negative bacteria and, thus, easily take up penicillin by diffusion.
e.
 they contain prophages that negatively interact with penicillin.
 39.
Some bacteria avoid a host’s immune system by means of:
a.
 efficient use of their flagella.
b.
 ameboid motion.
c.
 their capsule.
d.
 changing their cell wall structure.
e.
 eliminating the use of a membrane.
 40.
Bacteria:
a.
 are incapable of locomotion.
b.
 move by means of pili
c.
 move by means of cilia.
d.
 move by means of a rotating flagella.
e.
 move by means of a whiplike flagella.
 41.
Small circles of DNA called ______________ exist in addition to the bacterial chromosome.
a.
 capsids
b.
 plasmids
c.
 chromatids
d.
 pili
e.
 centromeres
 42.
Small hairlike structures on the surface of bacteria are called:
a.
 capsids.
b.
 pili.
c.
 chromatids.
d.
 plasmids.
e.
 virons.
 43.
Plasmids of bacteria often have genes involved in:
a.
 reproduction.
b.
 motility.
c.
 viral resistance.
d.
 antibiotic resistance.
e.
 photosynthesis.
 44.
Pili are involved in adhesion of bacterial cells to a substrate or host, or in transmission of __________ between bacteria.
a.
 ribosomes
b.
 cytoplasm
c.
 vectors
d.
 RNA
e.
 DNA
 45.
Prokaryotes have their genetic information stored in:
a.
 several small, circular pieces of DNA.
b.
 a single, small, circular piece of DNA.
c.
 a large, linear piece of DNA.
d.
 several small, linear pieces of DNA.
e.
 a large, circular piece of DNA.
 46.
_______________ is a form of genetic exchange in bacteria that involves contact between two cells.
a.
 Transformation
b.
 Transduction
c.
 Conjugation
d.
 Binary fission
e.
 Budding
 47.
_____________ are dormant structures formed by bacteria in response to adverse environmental conditions.
a.
 Capsids
b.
 Endospores
c.
 Exotoxins
d.
 Endotoxins
e.
 Heterocysts
 48.
Most bacteria are:
a.
 photoheterotrophs.
b.
 chemoheterotrophs.
c.
 autotrophs.
d.
 heterotrophs.
e.
 chemoautotrophs.
 49.
A bacterium that gains nourishment from dead organisms is referred to as:
a.
 an autotroph.
b.
 a parasite.
c.
 a saprotroph.
d.
 a chemoautotroph.
e.
 a pathogen.
 50.
A(an) ___________________ bacterium would not be able to survive in the presence of oxygen.
a.
 facultative aerobic
b.
 facultative anaerobic
c.
 facultative autotrophic
d.
 obligate aerobic
e.
 obligate anaerobic
 51.
The most common mode of reproduction in bacteria is:
a.
 binary fission.
b.
 transformation.
c.
 transduction.
d.
 conjugation.
e.
 mitosis.
 52.
The first indication that Archae were different from the Eubacteria came from differences noted in their:
a.
 cell wall.
b.
 preferred habitats.
c.
 16 S rRNA sequence.
d.
 protein synthesis machinery.
e.
 resistance to antibiotics.
 53.
The Archaea differ from the Eubacteria and eukaryotes by having different ____________ in their cell membranes, but they are similar to eukaryotes in their ____________ process.
a.
 sugars; replication
b.
 sugars; transcription
c.
 lipids; replication
d.
 lipids; transcription
e.
 proteins; transcription
Figure 23-03
Use the figure below to answer the corresponding questions.nar003-1.jpg
 54.
Which of the following groups from Figure 23-03 represents gram-negative bacteria?
a.
 Spirochetes
b.
 Protists
c.
 Methanogens
d.
 Halophiles
e.
 None of the above.
 55.
Which of the following groups from Figure 23-03 is a member of the Eubacteria domain?
a.
 Fungi
b.
 Halophiles
c.
 Chlamydias
d.
 Protists
e.
 More than one of the above.
 56.
About how many different species of bacteria have been classified?
a.
 200
b.
 2,000
c.
 4,000
d.
 20,000
e.
 40,000
 57.
The most significant difference between the Archaea and the Eubacteria is:
a.
 lack of a nuclear envelope in the Archaea.
b.
 the absence of the 70S ribosomes in the Eubacteria.
c.
 the presence of a single filament flagellum in the Eubacteria.
d.
 the absence of peptidoglycans in the cell walls of the Archaea.
e.
 All of the above.
 58.
One difference between the Archaea and the Eukarya is:
a.
 the lack of a nuclear envelope in the Archaea.
b.
 the absence of the 70S ribosomes in the Archaea.
c.
 the presence of membrane-bound organelles in the Archaea.
d.
 the presence of peptidoglycans in the cell walls of the Archaea.
e.
 the presence of simple RNA polymerase in the Archaea.
 59.
One unique characteristic associated with some of the extreme halophilic Archaea is:
a.
 that they are found at deep-sea vents on the sea floor.
b.
 that they are a source of most known antibiotics.
c.
 that they have photosynthetic ability involving a purple bacteriorhodopsin pigment.
d.
 that they fix atmospheric nitrogen that is then used by plants.
e.
 that most form symbiotic associations.
 60.
_____________ Archae are typically found in abnormally hot environments.
a.
 Extreme halophile
b.
 Extreme thermophile
c.
 Pyrrhanogen
d.
 Metanogen
e.
 Any of the above.
 61.
Most prokaryotes belong to the:
a.
 Fungi.
b.
 Archaea.
c.
 Protista.
d.
 Eubacteria.
e.
 Viroids.
 62.
Bacterial ____________ cause systemic symptoms such as fever, whereas bacterial ____________ cause more specific maladies.
a.
 phages; prophages
b.
 prophages; phages
c.
 endotoxins; exotoxins
d.
 exotoxins; endotoxins
e.
 exotoxins; phages
 63.
The bacterial reproductive parasite Wolbachia is known to:
a.
 eradicate males from a population.
b.
 convert males into females.
c.
 cause infected females to lay eggs that develop without fertilization.
d.
 reduce the number of males in a population.
e.
 All the above.
 64.
The symbiotic bacteria found in the root nodules of legumes:
a.
 supply the plant with the nitrogen it needs in the form of nitrates.
b.
 are motile, soil-dwelling bacteria.
c.
 belong to the genus Rhizobium.
d.
 are gram-negative Eubacteria.
e.
 All of the above.
 65.
Koch’s postulates include all the following except:
a.
 when a sample of a pure culture is injected into a healthy host causes the same disease.
b.
 a sample of the microorganism from a diseased host can be grown in pure culture.
c.
 the microorganism can be recovered from an experimentally infected host.
d.
 the microorganism must be visible in the electron microscope.
e.
 the pathogen must be present in every individual with the disease.
 66.
The first bacteria that was clearly identified as the cause of an infectious disease was:
a.
 Legionella pneumophila, which causes Legionnaires’ disease.
b.
 Chamydia sp., which causes pelvic inflammatory disease in women.
c.
 Clostridium botulinum, which causes botulism.
d.
 Vibrio cholerae, which causes cholera.
e.
 Bacillus anthracis, which causes anthrax.
 

Short Answer
 67.
Compare and contrast a virus and a bacterium.
 68.
List the characteristics of the following groups and identify examples for each: Archaea, Eubacteria, and Eukarya.
 69.

Compare and contrast the metabolic diversity of bacteria in one of the two groups below.

A. Obligate anaerobes, facultative anaerobes, and aerobes
B. Autotrophic and heterotrophic bacteria

 70.
Identify and briefly discuss two ecological roles filled by bacteria.
 

Essay
 71.
Describe the theory that attempts to explain the species specificity of viruses to their hosts.
 72.
Discuss the distinction between gram-negative and gram-positive bacteria. In the laboratory, how is this determined? What are differences between these two groups of bacteria?
 73.
Describe endotoxins and exotoxins. What effects do they each have on infected persons?

 
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