Category: Resources

Transcription and Translation Tool

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Transcription and Translation Tool Converts DNA to RNA to protein.

DNA sequence:
RNA sequence:
 Protein sequence:
DNA (deoxyribonucleic acid)

  • a permanent copy of genetic information.
  • uses “T” instead of “U”
  • no 2′ OH group
  • more stable than RNA
  • lower error frequency during replication than RNA
RNA (ribonucleic acid)

  • messenger RNA (mRNA) is a temporary copy of the gene sequence in which protein is encoded.
Protein

  • consists of amino acids linked by aminoester (“peptide”) bonds.
  • most enzymes and many structural components of cells are made of proteins.

Study Guide Cellular Respiration

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studyguide cellular respiration

 

 

Multiple Choice
Identify the choice that best completes the statement or answers the question.
 1.
When cells break down food molecules, energy
a.
 is released all at once.
b.
 is released entirely as body heat into the environment.
c.
 is temporarily stored in ATP molecules.
d.
 causes excitation of electrons in chlorophyll molecules.
 2.
ATP
a.
 contains five phosphate groups.
b.
 is essential for a cell to perform all the tasks necessary for life.
c.
 is found only in bacteria.
d.
 All of the above
 3.
A substance produced during photosynthesis that is used for completion of cellular respiration is
a.
 water.
c.
 NADPH.
b.
 ATP.
d.
 oxygen.
 4.
The process of cellular respiration
a.
 is performed only by organisms that are incapable of photosynthesis.
b.
 breaks down food molecules to release stored energy.
c.
 occurs before plants are able to carry out photosynthesis.
d.
 occurs only in animals.
 5.
cellular respiration : organic compounds ::
a.
 light bulb : glass
c.
 automobile : gasoline
b.
 trunk : clothing
d.
 country : nation
 6.
When glycolysis occurs,
a.
 a molecule of glucose is split.
b.
 two molecules of pyruvic acid are made.
c.
 some ATP is produced.
d.
 All of the above
 7.
The name of the process that takes place when organic compounds are broken down in the absence of oxygen is
a.
 respiration.
c.
 fermentation.
b.
 oxidation.
d.
 All of the above
 8.
When muscles are exercised extensively in the absence of sufficient oxygen,
a.
 a large amount of ATP is formed.
b.
 NADH molecules split.
c.
 lactic acid is produced.
d.
 cellular respiration ceases.
 9.
You have been growing some animal cells in culture. The cells grow well for several weeks, and then their growth slows down. You conduct some tests and determine that there is a lot of lactic acid in the culture fluid. Which of the following is the most likely explanation for the poor growth of the cells?
a.
 There is too much glucose in the culture fluid.
b.
 There is not enough glucose in the culture fluid.
c.
 There is too much oxygen in the culture fluid.
d.
 There is not enough oxygen in the culture fluid.
 10.
If the formation of a standard amount of ATP under certain conditions requires 12 kcal of energy and the complete oxidation of glucose yields 686 kcal of energy, how efficient is glycolysis at extracting energy from glucose?
a.
 1.7%
c.
 7.0%
b.
 3.5%
d.
 35%
 11.
Cellular respiration takes place in two stages:
a.
 glycolysis and fermentation.
b.
 Stage 1 and Stage 2 of photosynthesis.
c.
 glycolysis, then aerobic respiration.
d.
 aerobic respiration, then glycolysis.
 12.
In cellular respiration, a two-carbon molecule combines with a four-carbon molecule to form citric acid as part of
a.
 glycolysis.
b.
 carbon fixation.
c.
 the Krebs cycle.
d.
 the electron transport chain.
 13.
Acetyl coenzyme A
a.
 is formed from the breakdown of pyruvic acid.
b.
 enters the Krebs cycle.
c.
 can be used in synthesis of needed molecules.
d.
 All of the above
 14.
Glycolysis and aerobic respiration are different in that
a.
 glycolysis occurs on the cell membrane, while aerobic respiration occurs in mitochondria.
b.
 glycolysis occurs only in photosynthesis, while aerobic respiration is part of cellular respiration.
c.
 glycolysis occurs in the absence of oxygen, while aerobic respiration requires oxygen.
d.
 There is no difference; these terms are different names for the same process.
 15.
Which of the following is not formed during the Krebs cycle?
a.
 CO2
c.
 NADH
b.
 FADH2
d.
 NADPH
 16.
Which of the following is not part of cellular respiration?
a.
 electron transport
c.
 the Krebs cycle
b.
 glycolysis
d.
 the Calvin cycle
 17.
With oxygen present, the Krebs cycle and the electron transport chain
a.
 provide organisms an alternative to glycolysis.
b.
 produce most of the ATP needed for life.
c.
 break down glucose to produce carbon dioxide, water, and ATP.
d.
 All of the above
 18.
Water is an end product in
a.
 lactic acid formation.
c.
 the Krebs cycle.
b.
 fermentation.
d.
 the electron transport chain.
 19.
Krebs cycle : CO2 ::
a.
 glycolysis : glucose
b.
 acetyl CoA formation : O2
c.
 cellular respiration : O2
d.
 electron transport chain : ATP
 20.
ATP molecules produced during aerobic respiration
a.
 remain in the mitochondria in which they are formed.
b.
 are stored in chloroplasts of the same cell in which they are formed.
c.
 enter the cell’s cytoplasm through the membranes of the mitochondria in which they are formed.
d.
 are distributed by the bloodstream to all cells in the body.
 21.
At the end of the electron transport chain,
a.
 the electrons combine with oxygen and protons to form water.
b.
 the electrons are used in the formation of ethyl alcohol.
c.
 the electrons build up inside the mitochondria and diffuse back to a thylakoid.
d.
 None of the above
C6 H12O6 + 6O2 + ADP + P ® 6CO2 + 6 H2O + MOLECULE A
 22.
The process shown in the equation above begins in the cytoplasm of a cell and ends in the
a.
 cytoplasm.
c.
 endoplasmic reticulum.
b.
 mitochondria.
d.
 lysosome.
 23.
The equation above summarizes the process known as
a.
 photosynthesis.
c.
 cellular respiration.
b.
 fermentation.
d.
 protein breakdown.
 24.
The molecule referred to as “molecule A” in the equation above is
a.
 NADPH.
c.
 NADH.
b.
 ATP.
d.
 ADP.
 25.
When living cells break down molecules, energy is
a.
 stored as ADP.
c.
 released as heat.
b.
 stored as ATP.
d.
 Both b and c
 26.
Which of the following is the best explanation for the presence of both chloroplasts and mitochondria in plant cells?
a.
 In the light, plants are photosynthetic autotrophs. In the dark, they are heterotrophs.
b.
 If plants cannot produce enough ATP in the process of photosynthesis to meet their energy needs, they can produce it in aerobic respiration.
c.
 Sugars are produced in chloroplasts. These sugars can be stored in the plant for later use, converted to other chemicals, or broken down in aerobic respiration to yield ATP for the plant to use to meet its energy needs.
d.
 The leaves and sometimes the stems of plants contain chloroplasts, which produce ATP to meet the energy needs of these plant parts. The roots of plants contain mitochondria, which produce ATP to meet the energy needs of these plant parts.
 27.
In cellular respiration, the most energy is transferred during
a.
 glycolysis.
b.
 lactic acid fermentation.
c.
 the Krebs cycle.
d.
 the electron transport chain
 28.
Electrons are donated to the electron transport chain by
a.
 ATP and NADH.
c.
 ATP and NAD+.
b.
 FADH2 and NADH.
d.
 NAD+ and ATP.
 29.
If the formation of 38 molecules of ATP requires 266 kcal of energy and the complete oxidation of glucose yields 686 kcal of energy, how efficient is cellular respiration at extracting energy from glucose?
a.
 20%
c.
 25%
b.
 39%
d.
 100%
 

Completion
Complete each statement.
 30.
During fermentation, either ethyl alcohol and carbon dioxide or ____________________ is formed.
 31.
Of the maximum possible yield of 38 ATP molecules produced by the complete oxidation of one glucose molecule, ____________________ molecules of ATP are produced during glycolysis.
 32.
The Krebs cycle takes place in the _________________________.
 

Essay
 33.
The relationship between photosynthesis and cellular respiration is usually described as a cycle. Briefly explain. Write your answer in the space below.

 
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Periodic Table

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Periodic Table of the Elements

H He
Li Be B C N O F Ne
Na Mg Al Si P S Cl Ar
K Ca Sc Ti V Cr Mn Fe Co Ni Cu Zn Ga Ge As Se Br Kr
Rb Sr Y Zr Nb Mo Tc Ru Rh Pd Ag Cd In Sn Sb Te I Xe
Cs Ba La Hf Ta W Re Os Ir Pt Au Hg Tl Pb Bi Po At Rn
Fr Ra Ac Unq Unp Unh Uns Uno Une
Ce Pr Nd Pm Sm Eu Gd Tb Dy Ho Er Tm Yb Lu
Th Pa U Np Pu Am Cm Bk Cf Es Fm Md No Lr
Name Number Weight
Melts Boils

 

Legend
Metals A solid substance that is a good conductor of heat and electricity. Can be formed into many shapes.
Metalloid “Middle elements” – conduct heat and electricity better than nonmetals, but not as well as metals. Easier to shape than nonmetals, but not as easy as metals. Solid at room temperature.
Nonmetals A poor conductor of heat and electricity. Not easily formed into shapes.

 

 

 

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Protein Synthesis Study Guide

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Protein Synthesis Study Guide

 

 

Multiple Choice
Identify the choice that best completes the statement or answers the question.
 1.
What did Griffith observe when he injected into mice a mixture of heat-killed disease-causing bacteria and live harmless bacteria?
a.
 The disease-causing bacteria changed into harmless bacteria.
b.
 The mice developed pneumonia.
c.
 The harmless bacteria died.
d.
 The mice were unaffected.
 2.
Which of the following is a nucleotide found in DNA?
a.
 ribose + phosphate group + thymine
b.
 ribose + phosphate group + uracil
c.
 deoxyribose + phosphate group + uracil
d.
 deoxyribose + phosphate group + cytosine
 3.
DNA replication results in two DNA molecules,
a.
 each with two new strands.
b.
 one with two new strands and the other with two original strands.
c.
 each with one new strand and one original strand.
d.
 each with two original strands.
 4.
During mitosis, the
a.
 DNA molecules unwind.
b.
 histones and DNA molecules separate.
c.
 DNA molecules become more tightly coiled.
d.
 nucleosomes become less tightly packed.
 5.
Unlike DNA, RNA contains
a.
 adenine.
c.
 phosphate groups.
b.
 uracil.
d.
 thymine.
 6.
Which type(s) of RNA is(are) involved in protein synthesis?
a.
 transfer RNA only
b.
 messenger RNA only
c.
 ribosomal RNA and transfer RNA only
d.
 messenger RNA, ribosomal RNA, and transfer RNA
 7.
During transcription, an RNA molecule is formed
a.
 that is complementary to both strands of DNA.
b.
 that is complementary to neither strand of DNA.
c.
 that is double-stranded.
d.
 inside the nucleus.
 8.
How many codons are needed to specify three amino acids?
a.
 3
c.
 9
b.
 6
d.
 12
 9.
Which of the following terms is LEAST closely related to the others?
a.
 intron
c.
 polypeptide
b.
 tRNA
d.
 anticodon
 10.
Which type of RNA functions as a blueprint of the genetic code?
a.
 rRNA
c.
 mRNA
b.
 tRNA
d.
 RNA polymerase
 11.
Which of the following is NOT a gene mutation?
a.
 inversion
c.
 deletion
b.
 insertion
d.
 substitution
 12.
Which of the following statements is NOT true?
a.
 Mutations do not occur in hox genes.
b.
 Hox genes that are found in different animals are very different from each other.
c.
 Hox genes control the normal development of an animal.
d.
 Hox genes occur in clusters.
 13.
Avery’s experiments showed that bacteria are transformed by
a.
 RNA.
c.
 proteins.
b.
 DNA.
d.
 carbohydrates.
 14.

Figure 12-5 shows the structure of a(an)

mc014-1.jpg

 

Figure 12–5

a.
 DNA molecule.
c.
 RNA molecule.
b.
 amino acid.
d.
 protein.
 15.
DNA is copied during a process called
a.
 replication.
c.
 transcription.
b.
 translation.
d.
 transformation.
 16.
In eukaryotes, DNA
a.
 is located in the nucleus.
c.
 is located in the ribosomes.
b.
 floats freely in the cytoplasm.
d.
 is circular.
 17.
RNA contains the sugar
a.
 ribose.
c.
 glucose.
b.
 deoxyribose.
d.
 lactose.
 18.
Which RNA molecule carries amino acids?
a.
 messenger RNA
c.
 ribosomal RNA
b.
 transfer RNA
d.
 RNA polymerase
 19.
What is produced during transcription?
a.
 RNA molecules
c.
 RNA polymerase
b.
 DNA molecules
d.
 proteins
 20.

What does Figure 12-6 show?

mc020-1.jpg

Figure 12-6

a.
 anticodons
b.
 the order in which amino acids are linked
c.
 the code for splicing mRNA
d.
 the genetic code
 21.
What happens during the process of translation?
a.
 Messenger RNA is made from DNA.
b.
 The cell uses information from messenger RNA to produce proteins.
c.
 Transfer RNA is made from messenger RNA.
d.
 Copies of DNA molecules are made.
 22.
Genes contain instructions for assembling
a.
 purines.
c.
 proteins.
b.
 nucleosomes.
d.
 pyrimidines.
 23.
A mutation that involves a single nucleotide is called a(an)
a.
 chromosomal mutation.
c.
 point mutation.
b.
 inversion.
d.
 translocation.
 

Completion
Complete each statement.
 24.

The structure labeled X in Figure 12-1 is a(an) ____________________.

co024-1.jpg

 

Figure 12–1
 25.
The order of nitrogenous bases in DNA determines the order of ____________________ in proteins.
 26.
There is no ____________________ that is specified by a stop codon on an mRNA molecule.
 27.
The lac repressor releases the operator in the presence of ____________________.
 28.
In eukaryotes, proteins that attract RNA polymerase bind to ____________________ sequences in DNA.
 29.
According to the principle of ____________________, hydrogen bonds can form only between adenine and thymine, and between guanine and cytosine.
 30.
Chromatin contains proteins called ____________________.
 31.

In Figure 12-7, A, B, and C are three types of ____________________.

co031-1.jpg

 

Figure 12–7
 32.
After introns are cut out of an RNA molecule, the remaining ____________________ are spliced back together to form the final messenger RNA.
 33.
A mutation in a series of genes, called the ____________________, can change the organs that develop in specific parts of an embryo.
 

Short Answer
 34.
At the beginning of DNA replication, what two processes “unzip” the two strands of a DNA molecule?
 35.

In Figure 12-2, which molecule is tRNA, and what is its function?

sa035-1.jpg

 

Figure 12–2
 36.

According to Figure 12-3, what codons specify the amino acid arginine?

sa036-1.jpg

 

Figure 12–3
 37.
What happens to lac repressors in E. coli when lactose is present?
 38.
What are the three main parts of an RNA nucleotide?
 39.
What must happen to a DNA molecule before RNA polymerase can make RNA?
 40.
What causes translation to stop?
 41.
What is a mutation?
 

Essay
 42.
Describe the structure of a DNA molecule.
 43.
Contrast the functions of the three main types of RNA.
 

Other

USING SCIENCE SKILLS

nar001-1.jpg

 

Figure 12–4
 44.
Interpreting Graphics What process is illustrated in Figure 12-4?
 45.
Interpreting Graphics Identify structure C in Figure 12-4.
 46.
Interpreting Graphics Which labeled structure in Figure 12-4 is a codon?
 47.
Inferring What is the relationship between the codons and anticodons in Figure 12-4? How is this relationship important?
 48.
Predicting In Figure 12-4, what will happen after the ribosome joins the methionine and phenylalanine?

USING SCIENCE SKILLS

nar002-1.jpg

Figure 12–8
 49.
Classifying What general type of mutation results from processes A, B, C, and D in Figure 12-8?
 50.
Interpreting Graphics In Figure 12-8, which process or processes involve two chromosomes?
 51.
Comparing and Contrasting Contrast process A and process B in Figure 12-8.
 52.
Interpreting Graphics During which process in Figure 12-8 does a segment of a chromosome become oriented in the reverse direction?
 53.
Interpreting Graphics In Figure 12-8, which process produces two chromosomes with translocations?

 
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Protist Study Guide

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Protist Quiz

 

 

Modified True/False
Indicate whether the statement is true or false.  If false, change the identified word or phrase to make the statement true.
 1.
The kingdom Protista contains the eukaryotes that are not plants, animals, or fungi. _________________________
 2.
Sexual reproduction with spores evolved in protists. _________________________
 3.
Tissues, organs, and organ systems evolved in unicellular protists. _________________________
 4.
Sexual reproduction allows Chlamydomonas to delay development of new organisms until environmental conditions are favorable. _________________________
 5.
Amoebas move by means of pseudopodia. _________________________
 6.
Diatoms are the only type of protists with single shells. _________________________
 7.
Paramecium takes in food through its contractile vacuole. _________________________
 8.
Cellular slime molds form a mass of cytoplasm that has many nuclei. _________________________
 9.
Protists have an important effect on humans because they cause disease. _________________________
 10.
Malaria is caused by the protist Plasmodium and is spread by the bite of certain fleas. _________________________
 11.
Carrageenan is a product made by protists that is used to flavor many food products. _________________________
 

Multiple Choice
Identify the choice that best completes the statement or answers the question.
 12.
Which of the following is not true about some or all protists?
a.
 unicellular and heterotrophic
c.
 multicellular and autotrophic
b.
 unicellular and autotrophic
d.
 multicellular and prokaryotic
 13.
The kingdom Protista does not include
a.
 most of the single-celled eukaryotes.
c.
 multicellular seaweed.
b.
 slime and water molds.
d.
 prokaryotes.
 14.
Which of the following characteristics did not evolve in the Kingdom Protista?
a.
 unicellularity
c.
 membrane-bound organelles
b.
 gametes
d.
 complex cilia and flagella
 15.
sexual reproduction : diversity ::
a.
 flagella : cilia
c.
 green algae : flagella
b.
 multicellularity : tissues
d.
 unicellularity : protists
 16.
Eukaryotes that lack the features of animals, plants, or fungi are classified in the kingdom
a.
 Archaebacteria.
c.
 Protista.
b.
 Plantae.
d.
 Animalia.
 17.
You have been given an unknown organism to identify. You find that it is unicellular and has a cell wall. Which of the following must it also have?
a.
 chloroplasts
c.
 pseudopodia
b.
 asexual reproduction
d.
 one or more flagella
 18.
When Chlamydomonas reproduces sexually, it divides by mitosis, producing
a.
 zygospores.
c.
 haploid gametes.
b.
 diploid gametes.
d.
 zoospores.
 19.
Zoospores are
a.
 produced as a result of meiosis.
c.
 produced as a result of mitosis.
b.
 diploid.
d.
 all parasitic.
 20.
The haploid, gamete-producing phase in the life cycle of some multicellular protists is known as the
a.
 zygospore generation.
c.
 conjugation generation.
b.
 gametophyte generation.
d.
 sporophyte generation.
 21.
The marine green alga Ulva reproduces sexually by
a.
 alternation of generations.
c.
 mitosis.
b.
 conjugation.
d.
 aggregation.
 22.
Pseudopodia are used for
a.
 Paramecium conjugation.
c.
 Euglena reproduction.
b.
 movement by amoebas.
d.
 Paramecium mitosis.
 23.
Amoebas capture food by
a.
 engulfing it.
c.
 trapping it with flagella.
b.
 using cilia.
d.
 taking it into an oral groove.
 24.
When an individual diatom gets too small because of repeated division, it
a.
 grows to full size in its existing shell.
b.
 slips out of its shell, grows to full size, and regenerates a new shell.
c.
 slips out of its shell, grows to full size, and reinhabits its old shell.
d.
 slips out of its shell and lives the rest of its life without a shell.
 25.
Algae are
a.
 sometimes heterotrophic.
b.
 always microscopic in size.
c.
 found in fresh water, salt water, and damp soil.
d.
 found only in fresh water.
 26.
Red algae
a.
 are multicellular.
c.
 have eyespots.
b.
 are unicellular.
d.
 have double shells.
 27.
Euglenoids are examples of protists that
a.
 can be both autotrophic and heterotrophic.
b.
 are only parasitic heterotrophs.
c.
 are always autotrophic.
d.
 swim away from light.
 28.
dinoflagellates : flagella ::
a.
 amoebas : pseudopodia
c.
 ciliates : pseudopodia
b.
 sporozoans : flagella
d.
 amoebas : flagella
 29.
The process in which two Paramecia come together to exchange parts of their genetic material is called
a.
 mitosis.
c.
 pollination.
b.
 replication.
d.
 conjugation.
nar001-1.jpg
 30.
Refer to the illustration above. Excess water in the body of the Paramecium is forced back out by the structure labeled
a.
 A
c.
 D
b.
 C
d.
 E
 31.
Refer to the illustration above. The structure that contains the cell’s chromosomes is labeled
a.
 A
c.
 C
b.
 B
d.
 E
 32.
Refer to the illustration above. Structure C is the
a.
 macronucleus.
c.
 oral groove.
b.
 contractile vacuole.
d.
 micronucleus.
 33.
Refer to the illustration above. The structure that controls routine cellular functions is labeled
a.
 A
c.
 C
b.
 B
d.
 D
 34.
Funguslike protists reproduce by releasing
a.
 gametes.
c.
 zoospores.
b.
 spores.
d.
 plasmodia.
 35.
Giardiasis is a disease that is spread
a.
 by direct person-to-person contact.
c.
 through contaminated water.
b.
 through the air.
d.
 by the Anopheles mosquito.
 36.
Chagas disease is spread by
a.
 kissing bugs.
c.
 contaminated food.
b.
 mosquitoes.
d.
 contaminated water.
 37.
Which of the following is not a human disease caused by a protist?
a.
 amebic dysentery
c.
 malaria
b.
 toxoplasmosis
d.
 tuberculosis.
 38.
giardiasis : contaminated water ::
a.
 amebic dysentery : mosquito
c.
 malaria : mosquito
b.
 amebic dysentery : giardiasis
d.
 malaria : food contamination
 39.
The protist that causes malaria reproduces in the
a.
 intestine of a human.
c.
 red blood cells of a human.
b.
 red blood cells of a mosquito.
d.
 stinger of a mosquito.
 40.
Malaria is caused by several species of
a.
 Toxoplasma.
c.
 Giardia.
b.
 Phytophthora.
d.
 Plasmodium.
 41.
The stage in the life cycle of Plasmodium in which it lives in mosquitoes and is injected into humans is called the
a.
 gametophyte.
c.
 sporophyte.
b.
 sporozoite.
d.
 zoospore.
 42.
Symbiotic protists live in all of the following organisms except
a.
 termites.
c.
 cattle.
b.
 corals.
d.
 bacteria.
 43.
Protists that play an important role in aquatic food webs are called
a.
 plankton.
c.
 anchovies.
b.
 lichens.
d.
 cyanobacteria.
 44.
The evolution of the plant kingdom can be inferred by studying
a.
 green algae.
c.
 red algae.
b.
 brown algae.
d.
 dinoflagellates.
 45.
A mass of cytoplasm that has many nuclei is a(n)
a.
 spore.
c.
 colony.
b.
 plasmodium.
d.
 amoeba.
 46.
A protist that almost destroyed the entire potato crop in Ireland in 1846 is a
a.
 plasmodial slime mold.
c.
 dinoflagellate.
b.
 cellular slime mold.
d.
 water mold.
 47.
A downy mildew gets nutrients by
a.
 photosynthesis.
b.
 absorbing them from the environment.
c.
 making them from inorganic chemicals.
d.
 making them from organic building blocks.
 48.
When an algal bloom dies, the bacteria that decompose the algae
a.
 deplete carbon dioxide levels in the water.
b.
 kill the plankton population.
c.
 deplete oxygen levels in the water.
d.
 kill fish.
 49.
A protist used by scientists to study cell movement and cell signaling is a
a.
 dinoflagellate.
c.
 paramecium.
b.
 diatom.
d.
 slime mold.
 50.
Agar is a product used to grow bacteria. Agar comes from
a.
 bacteria.
c.
 diatoms.
b.
 algae.
d.
 amoebas.
 

Completion
Complete each statement.
 51.
Two important features that evolved in the protists were multicellularity and sexual reproduction with the production of ____________________.
 52.
The evolution of ____________________ allowed single-celled organisms to perform many functions at the same time.
 53.
When ______________________________ evolved, protists could become genetically diverse.
 54.
Although protists are diverse, they are all ____________________.
Life Cycle of Chlamydomonas
nar002-1.jpg
 55.
Refer to the illustration above. Arrow B is pointing to a ____________________ in the life cycle.
 56.
Refer to the illustration above. Arrow A is pointing to ____________________ in the life cycle.
 57.
According to the illustration above, Chlamydomonas reproduces both sexually and ____________________.
 58.
Some protists undergo sexual reproduction only at times of environmental ____________________.
 59.
Ulva is characterized by two distinct multicellular phases: a diploid, spore producing phase called the ____________________ generation and a haploid, gamete-producing phase called the ____________________ generation.
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 60.
Refer to the illustration above. The organism shown in A moves and obtains food by means of ____________________.
 61.
Refer to the illustration above. The organism shown in C moves by means of ____________________.
 62.
Refer to the illustration above. The organism shown in B moves by means of ____________________.
 63.
Some amoeboid protists have porous shells called ____________________.
 64.
____________________ have double shells that resemble small boxes with lids.
 65.
The large brown algae that grow along coasts are called ____________________.
 66.
Protists that are strict photoautotrophs are called ____________________.
 67.
Poisonous “red tides” are caused by population explosions of ____________________.
 68.
Brown algae are the only algae that form more than one kind of ____________________.
 69.
Some protists have ____________________ that contain light-sensitive pigments.
 70.
____________________ disease is a protist-caused disease that is transmitted by kissing bugs.
 71.
Disease-causing protists are transmitted mainly by insects or by contaminated ____________________ and ____________________.
 72.
The stage of Plasmodium that infects the liver is called the ____________________; the second stage of the Plasmodium life cycle, which infects red blood cells, is called the ____________________.
 73.
Plantlike protists produce ____________________, which allows most forms of life to live on Earth.
 74.
____________________ are related to green algae and are thought to have evolved from them.
 75.
Funguslike protists resemble fungi in that they reproduce with ____________________ and they ____________________ nutrients from their environment.
 76.
Cellular slime molds usually exist as single-celled amoebas, but they form ____________________ and release ____________________ when food or water is scarce.
 77.
A water mold caused the great potato famine in ____________________ in 1846.
 78.
The empty shells of diatoms are used as ____________________ in cleaning agents.
 79.
Red algae produce carrageenan, which is used in the food industry to ____________________ foods such as ice cream and salad dressings.

 
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