Author: Biology Junction Team

Study Guide Cellular Respiration

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studyguide cellular respiration

 

 

Multiple Choice
Identify the choice that best completes the statement or answers the question.
 1.
When cells break down food molecules, energy
a.
 is released all at once.
b.
 is released entirely as body heat into the environment.
c.
 is temporarily stored in ATP molecules.
d.
 causes excitation of electrons in chlorophyll molecules.
 2.
ATP
a.
 contains five phosphate groups.
b.
 is essential for a cell to perform all the tasks necessary for life.
c.
 is found only in bacteria.
d.
 All of the above
 3.
A substance produced during photosynthesis that is used for completion of cellular respiration is
a.
 water.
c.
 NADPH.
b.
 ATP.
d.
 oxygen.
 4.
The process of cellular respiration
a.
 is performed only by organisms that are incapable of photosynthesis.
b.
 breaks down food molecules to release stored energy.
c.
 occurs before plants are able to carry out photosynthesis.
d.
 occurs only in animals.
 5.
cellular respiration : organic compounds ::
a.
 light bulb : glass
c.
 automobile : gasoline
b.
 trunk : clothing
d.
 country : nation
 6.
When glycolysis occurs,
a.
 a molecule of glucose is split.
b.
 two molecules of pyruvic acid are made.
c.
 some ATP is produced.
d.
 All of the above
 7.
The name of the process that takes place when organic compounds are broken down in the absence of oxygen is
a.
 respiration.
c.
 fermentation.
b.
 oxidation.
d.
 All of the above
 8.
When muscles are exercised extensively in the absence of sufficient oxygen,
a.
 a large amount of ATP is formed.
b.
 NADH molecules split.
c.
 lactic acid is produced.
d.
 cellular respiration ceases.
 9.
You have been growing some animal cells in culture. The cells grow well for several weeks, and then their growth slows down. You conduct some tests and determine that there is a lot of lactic acid in the culture fluid. Which of the following is the most likely explanation for the poor growth of the cells?
a.
 There is too much glucose in the culture fluid.
b.
 There is not enough glucose in the culture fluid.
c.
 There is too much oxygen in the culture fluid.
d.
 There is not enough oxygen in the culture fluid.
 10.
If the formation of a standard amount of ATP under certain conditions requires 12 kcal of energy and the complete oxidation of glucose yields 686 kcal of energy, how efficient is glycolysis at extracting energy from glucose?
a.
 1.7%
c.
 7.0%
b.
 3.5%
d.
 35%
 11.
Cellular respiration takes place in two stages:
a.
 glycolysis and fermentation.
b.
 Stage 1 and Stage 2 of photosynthesis.
c.
 glycolysis, then aerobic respiration.
d.
 aerobic respiration, then glycolysis.
 12.
In cellular respiration, a two-carbon molecule combines with a four-carbon molecule to form citric acid as part of
a.
 glycolysis.
b.
 carbon fixation.
c.
 the Krebs cycle.
d.
 the electron transport chain.
 13.
Acetyl coenzyme A
a.
 is formed from the breakdown of pyruvic acid.
b.
 enters the Krebs cycle.
c.
 can be used in synthesis of needed molecules.
d.
 All of the above
 14.
Glycolysis and aerobic respiration are different in that
a.
 glycolysis occurs on the cell membrane, while aerobic respiration occurs in mitochondria.
b.
 glycolysis occurs only in photosynthesis, while aerobic respiration is part of cellular respiration.
c.
 glycolysis occurs in the absence of oxygen, while aerobic respiration requires oxygen.
d.
 There is no difference; these terms are different names for the same process.
 15.
Which of the following is not formed during the Krebs cycle?
a.
 CO2
c.
 NADH
b.
 FADH2
d.
 NADPH
 16.
Which of the following is not part of cellular respiration?
a.
 electron transport
c.
 the Krebs cycle
b.
 glycolysis
d.
 the Calvin cycle
 17.
With oxygen present, the Krebs cycle and the electron transport chain
a.
 provide organisms an alternative to glycolysis.
b.
 produce most of the ATP needed for life.
c.
 break down glucose to produce carbon dioxide, water, and ATP.
d.
 All of the above
 18.
Water is an end product in
a.
 lactic acid formation.
c.
 the Krebs cycle.
b.
 fermentation.
d.
 the electron transport chain.
 19.
Krebs cycle : CO2 ::
a.
 glycolysis : glucose
b.
 acetyl CoA formation : O2
c.
 cellular respiration : O2
d.
 electron transport chain : ATP
 20.
ATP molecules produced during aerobic respiration
a.
 remain in the mitochondria in which they are formed.
b.
 are stored in chloroplasts of the same cell in which they are formed.
c.
 enter the cell’s cytoplasm through the membranes of the mitochondria in which they are formed.
d.
 are distributed by the bloodstream to all cells in the body.
 21.
At the end of the electron transport chain,
a.
 the electrons combine with oxygen and protons to form water.
b.
 the electrons are used in the formation of ethyl alcohol.
c.
 the electrons build up inside the mitochondria and diffuse back to a thylakoid.
d.
 None of the above
C6 H12O6 + 6O2 + ADP + P ® 6CO2 + 6 H2O + MOLECULE A
 22.
The process shown in the equation above begins in the cytoplasm of a cell and ends in the
a.
 cytoplasm.
c.
 endoplasmic reticulum.
b.
 mitochondria.
d.
 lysosome.
 23.
The equation above summarizes the process known as
a.
 photosynthesis.
c.
 cellular respiration.
b.
 fermentation.
d.
 protein breakdown.
 24.
The molecule referred to as “molecule A” in the equation above is
a.
 NADPH.
c.
 NADH.
b.
 ATP.
d.
 ADP.
 25.
When living cells break down molecules, energy is
a.
 stored as ADP.
c.
 released as heat.
b.
 stored as ATP.
d.
 Both b and c
 26.
Which of the following is the best explanation for the presence of both chloroplasts and mitochondria in plant cells?
a.
 In the light, plants are photosynthetic autotrophs. In the dark, they are heterotrophs.
b.
 If plants cannot produce enough ATP in the process of photosynthesis to meet their energy needs, they can produce it in aerobic respiration.
c.
 Sugars are produced in chloroplasts. These sugars can be stored in the plant for later use, converted to other chemicals, or broken down in aerobic respiration to yield ATP for the plant to use to meet its energy needs.
d.
 The leaves and sometimes the stems of plants contain chloroplasts, which produce ATP to meet the energy needs of these plant parts. The roots of plants contain mitochondria, which produce ATP to meet the energy needs of these plant parts.
 27.
In cellular respiration, the most energy is transferred during
a.
 glycolysis.
b.
 lactic acid fermentation.
c.
 the Krebs cycle.
d.
 the electron transport chain
 28.
Electrons are donated to the electron transport chain by
a.
 ATP and NADH.
c.
 ATP and NAD+.
b.
 FADH2 and NADH.
d.
 NAD+ and ATP.
 29.
If the formation of 38 molecules of ATP requires 266 kcal of energy and the complete oxidation of glucose yields 686 kcal of energy, how efficient is cellular respiration at extracting energy from glucose?
a.
 20%
c.
 25%
b.
 39%
d.
 100%
 

Completion
Complete each statement.
 30.
During fermentation, either ethyl alcohol and carbon dioxide or ____________________ is formed.
 31.
Of the maximum possible yield of 38 ATP molecules produced by the complete oxidation of one glucose molecule, ____________________ molecules of ATP are produced during glycolysis.
 32.
The Krebs cycle takes place in the _________________________.
 

Essay
 33.
The relationship between photosynthesis and cellular respiration is usually described as a cycle. Briefly explain. Write your answer in the space below.

 
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Genetics Practice Test

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Genetics Practice Test

 

 

Multiple Choice
Identify the choice that best completes the statement or answers the question.
 1.
Mendel prevented self-pollination of his plants by
a.
 growing only one kind of plant.
b.
 preventing crossing-over.
c.
 removing the anthers of the plants.
d.
 removing the stigmas of the plants.
 2.
The “father” of genetics was
a.
 T. A. Knight.
c.
 Gregor Mendel.
b.
 Hans Krebs.
d.
 None of the above
 3.
Mendel obtained his P generation by allowing the plants to
a.
 self-pollinate.
c.
 assort independently.
b.
 cross-pollinate.
d.
 segregate.
 4.
What is the probability that the offspring of a homozygous dominant individual and a homozygous recessive individual will exhibit the dominant phenotype?
a.
 0.25
c.
 0.66
b.
 0.5
d.
 1.0
 5.
True-breeding pea plants always
a.
 are pollinated by hand.
b.
 produce offspring each of which can have multiple forms of a trait.
c.
 produce offspring each of which can have only one form of a trait.
d.
 are heterozygous.
 6.
The first filial (F1) generation is the result of
a.
 cross-pollination among parents and the next generation.
b.
 crosses between individuals of the parental generation.
c.
 crosses between the offspring of a parental cross.
d.
 self-fertilization between parental stock.
 7.
Which of the following is the designation for Mendel’s original pure strains of plants?
a.
 P
c.
 F1
b.
 P1
d.
 F2
 8.
F2 : F1 ::
a.
 P : F1
c.
 F1 : P
b.
 F1 : F2
d.
 dominant trait : recessive trait
 9.
The passing of traits from parents to offspring is called
a.
 genetics.
c.
 development.
b.
 heredity.
d.
 maturation.
 10.
A genetic trait that appears in every generation of offspring is called
a.
 dominant.
c.
 recessive.
b.
 phenotypic.
d.
 superior.
 11.
homozygous : heterozygous ::
a.
 heterozygous : Bb
c.
 BB : Bb
b.
 probability : predicting chances
d.
 homozygous : BB
 12.
Mendel’s finding that the inheritance of one trait had no effect on the inheritance of another became known as the
a.
 law of dominance.
b.
 law of universal inheritance.
c.
 law of separate convenience.
d.
 law of independent assortment.
 13.
To describe how traits can disappear and reappear in a certain pattern from generation to generation, Mendel proposed
a.
 the law of independent assortment.
b.
 the law of segregation.
c.
 the law of genotypes.
d.
 that the F2 generation will produce only purple flowers.
 14.
The law of segregation explains that
a.
 alleles of a gene separate from each other during meiosis.
b.
 different alleles of a gene can never be found in the same organism.
c.
 each gene of an organism ends up in a different gamete.
d.
 each gene is found on a different molecule of DNA.
 15.
When Mendel crossed pea plants that differed in two characteristics, such as flower color and plant height,
a.
 these experiments led to his law of segregation.
b.
 he found that the inheritance of one trait did not influence the inheritance of the other trait.
c.
 he found that the inheritance of one trait influenced the inheritance of the other trait.
d.
 these experiments were considered failures because the importance of his work was not recognized.
 16.
The phenotype of an organism
a.
 represents its genetic composition.
b.
 reflects all the traits that are actually expressed.
c.
 occurs only in dominant pure organisms.
d.
 cannot be seen.
 17.
If an individual has two recessive alleles for the same trait, the individual is said to be
a.
 homozygous for the trait.
b.
 haploid for the trait.
c.
 heterozygous for the trait.
d.
 mutated.
 18.
An individual heterozygous for a trait and an individual homozygous recessive for the trait are crossed and produce many offspring. These offspring are likely to be
a.
 all the same genotype.
b.
 of two different phenotypes.
c.
 of three different phenotypes.
d.
 all the same phenotype.
 19.
Tallness (T) is dominant over shortness (t) in pea plants. Which of the following represents the genotype of a pea plant that is heterozygous for tallness?
a.
 T
c.
 Tt
b.
 TT
d.
 tt

In humans, having freckles (F) is dominant over not having freckles (f). The inheritance of these traits can be studied using a Punnett square similar to the one shown below.

nar001-1.jpg
 20.
Refer to the illustration above. The genotype represented in box 1 in the Punnett square would
a.
 be homozygous for freckles.
b.
 have an extra freckles chromosome.
c.
 be heterozygous for freckles.
d.
 have freckles chromosomes.
 21.
Refer to the illustration above. The genotype in box 3 of the Punnett square is
a.
 FF.
c.
 ff.
b.
 Ff.
d.
 None of the above
 22.
A trait that occurs in 450 individuals out of a total of 1,800 individuals occurs with a probability of
a.
 0.04.
c.
 0.50.
b.
 0.25.
d.
 0.75.
 23.
How many different phenotypes can be produced by a pair of codominant alleles?
a.
 1
c.
 3
b.
 2
d.
 4
nar002-1.jpg
 24.
Refer to the illustration above. The phenotype represented by box 1 is
a.
 green, inflated.
c.
 yellow, inflated.
b.
 green, constricted.
d.
 yellow, constricted.
 25.
Refer to the illustration above. The genotype represented by box 2 is
a.
 GgIi.
c.
 GI.
b.
 GGIi.
d.
 Gi.
 26.
2,000 yellow seeds : 8,000 total seeds ::
a.
 1 : 6
c.
 1 : 3
b.
 1 : 8
d.
 1 : 4

In rabbits, black fur (B) is dominant over brown fur (b). Consider the following cross between two rabbits.

nar003-1.jpg
 27.
Refer to the illustration above. The device shown, which is used to determine the probable outcome of genetic crosses, is called a
a.
 Mendelian box.
c.
 genetic graph.
b.
 Punnett square.
d.
 phenotypic paradox.
 28.
Refer to the illustration above. Both of the parents in the cross are
a.
 black.
b.
 brown.
c.
 homozygous dominant.
d.
 homozygous recessive.
 29.
Refer to the illustration above. The phenotype of the offspring indicated by box 3 would be
a.
 brown.
b.
 black.
c.
 a mixture of brown and black.
d.
 The phenotype cannot be determined.
 30.
Refer to the illustration above. The genotypic ratio of the F1 generation would be
a.
 1:1.
c.
 1:3.
b.
 3:1.
d.
 1:2:1.
 31.
What is the expected genotypic ratio resulting from a homozygous dominant ´ heterozygous monohybrid cross?
a.
 1:0
c.
 1:2:1
b.
 1:1
d.
 1:3:1
 32.
What fraction of the offspring resulting from a heterozygous ´ heterozygous dihybrid cross are homozygous recessive for both traits?
a.
 9/16
c.
 3/16
b.
 1/4
d.
 1/16
 33.
What is the expected genotypic ratio resulting from a heterozygous ´ heterozygous monohybrid cross?
a.
 1:2:1
c.
 1:2
b.
 1:3:1
d.
 1:0
 34.
What is the expected phenotypic ratio resulting from a homozygous dominant ´ heterozygous monohybrid cross?
a.
 1:3:1
c.
 2:1
b.
 1:2:1
d.
 1:0
nar004-1.jpg
 35.
Refer to the illustration above. The phenotype represented by box 1 is
a.
 round, yellow.
c.
 wrinkled, yellow.
b.
 round, green.
d.
 wrinkled, green.
 36.
Refer to the illustration above. The genotype represented by box 2 is
a.
 RRYY.
c.
 RrYy.
b.
 RrYY.
d.
 rrYy.
 37.
Refer to the illustration above. Which of the following boxes represents the same phenotype as box 7?
a.
 3
c.
 5
b.
 4
d.
 6
 38.
An organism that has inherited two of the same alleles of a gene from its parents is called
a.
 hereditary.
c.
 homozygous.
b.
 heterozygous.
d.
 a mutation.
 39.
In pea plants, yellow seeds are dominant over green seeds. What would be the expected genotype ratio in a cross between a plant with green seeds and a plant that is heterozygous for seed color?
a.
 1:3
c.
 4:1
b.
 1:2:1
d.
 1:1
 40.
codominance : both traits are displayed ::
a.
 probability : crosses
b.
 heterozygous : alleles are the same
c.
 homozygous : alleles are the same
d.
 Punnett square : chromosomes combine
 41.
The difference between a monohybrid cross and a dihybrid cross is that
a.
 monohybrid crosses involve traits for which only one allele exists, while dihybrid traits involve two alleles.
b.
 monohybrid crosses involve self-pollination, while dihybrid crosses involve cross-pollination.
c.
 monohybrid crosses involve one trait; dihybrid crosses involve two traits.
d.
 dihybrid crosses require two Punnett squares; monohybrid crosses need only one.
 42.
What fraction of the offspring resulting from a heterozygous ´ heterozygous dihybrid cross are heterozygous for both traits?
a.
 9/16
c.
 3/16
b.
 1/4
d.
 1/16
 43.
A cross of two individuals for a single contrasting trait is called
a.
 monohybrid.
c.
 dominant.
b.
 dihybrid.
d.
 codominant.
 

Completion
Complete each statement.
 44.
The transferring of pollen between plants is called ____________________.
 45.
Mendel produced true-breeding strains of pea plants through the process of ____________________.
 46.
When two members of the F1 generation are allowed to breed with each other, the offspring are referred to as the ____________________ generation.
 47.
In heterozygous individuals, only the ____________________ allele achieves expression.
 48.
The statement that the members of each pair of alleles separate when gametes are formed is known as the _________________________.
 49.
Different forms of a particular gene, which Mendel called factors, are now called ____________________.
 50.
The cellular process that results in the segregation of Mendel’s factors is ____________________.
 51.
The portion of a DNA molecule containing the coded instructions that result in a particular characteristic of an organism is called a(n) ____________________.
 52.
An organism’s ____________________ refers to the set of alleles it has inherited.
 53.
The likelihood that a specific event will occur is called ____________________.
 54.

co054-1.jpg

Refer to the illustration above. The box labeled “X” represents the phenotype ____________________.
 55.
A fractional probability of 1/2 is the same as a decimal probability of ____________________.

In pea plants, tallness (T) is dominant over shortness (t). Crosses between plants with these traits can be analyzed using a Punnett square similar to the one shown below.

nar005-1.jpg
 56.
Refer to the illustration above. The parents shown in the Punnett square are likely to have offspring with a genotype ratio of ____________________.
 57.
Refer to the illustration above. Box 2 and box ____________________ in the Punnett square represent plants that would be heterozygous for tallness.
 58.
Refer to the illustration above. The phenotype of the plant that would be represented in box 4 of the Punnett square would be ____________________.
 59.
Refer to the illustration above. The genotype of both parents shown in the Punnett square above is ____________________.
 60.
A situation in which both alleles for a trait are expressed in a heterozygous offspring is called ____________________.
 61.
A pattern of heredity in which a heterozygous individual has a phenotype that is intermediate between the phenotypes of its two homozygous parents is called _________________________.
 62.
A table used to determine and diagram the results of a genetic cross is called a ____________________.
 63.
In genetics, lowercase letters are usually used to indicate ____________________.
 

Problem
 64.
In tomato plants, tallness is dominant over dwarfness and hairy stems are dominant over hairless stems. True-breeding (homozygous) plants that are tall and have hairy stems are available. True-breeding (homozygous) plants that are dwarf and have hairless stems are also available. Design an experiment to determine whether the genes for height and hairiness of stem are on the same or different chromosomes. Explain how you will be able to determine from the results whether the genes are on the same chromosome or different chromosomes, and whether they are close to each other or far apart if they are on the same chromosome. Write your answer in the space below.
 65.

A scientist crossed true-breeding tall and hairy-stemmed tomato plants with true-breeding dwarf and hairless-stemmed tomato plants. He found that all of the F1 plants produced as a result of this cross were tall and hairy-stemmed. He then allowed the F1 plants to pollinate each other and obtained 1000 F2 plants. Of these 1000 F2 plants, he observed the following numbers of four different phenotypes:

557 tall and hairy-stemmed plants 192 dwarf and hairy-stemmed plants
180 tall and hairless-stemmed plants 71 dwarf and hairless-stemmed plants

Write your answers to the following in the space below or on a separate sheet of paper.

a.      Which height characteristic is dominant, tallness or dwarfness?
b.      Which stem characteristic is dominant, hairiness or hairlessness?
c.      What are the genotypes of the original, true-breeding parents? (Be sure to indicate what the symbols you use stand for.)
d.      What are the genotypes of the F1 hybrid plants? (Be sure to indicate what the symbols you use stand for.)
e.      What are the genotypes of the four types of plants found in the F2 generation? (Be sure to indicate what the symbols you use stand for.)
f.      What were the expected numbers of plants of each type in the F2 generation? (Round off to the nearest whole numbers.)
g.      Why did the observed numbers of plants of each type in the F2 generation differ from the expected?
h.      How could this experiment have been changed to obtain numbers of plants of each type in the F2 generation that were closer to the expected numbers?
 

Essay
 66.
How might you go about determining the genotype of a red-flowering plant where red is dominant over white? Write your answer in the space below.
 67.
Describe pollination in pea plants. Write your answer in the space below.
 68.
In what ways did Mendel’s methods help ensure his success in unraveling the mechanics of heredity? Write your answer in the space below.
 69.
What conclusions did Gregor Mendel reach based on his observations of pea plants? Write your answer in the space below.
 70.
Describe Mendel’s observation regarding independent assortment. Write your answer in the space below.
 71.
What are three ways to express the probability of an event that occurs 500 times out of 2,000 total trials? Write your answer in the space below.
 72.
Describe how genotype and phenotype are related, and give an example. Write your answer in the space below.
 73.
Explain what is meant by homozygous and heterozygous, and give an example of each. Write your answer in the space below.
 74.
All of the offspring resulting from a cross between a red snapdragon and a white snapdragon are pink. What is a possible explanation for this? Write your answer in the space below.

 
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Taxonomy Study Guide

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Taxonomy Quiz

 

 

Modified True/False
Indicate whether the statement is true or false.  If false, change the identified word or phrase to make the statement true.
 1.
Scientists use taxonomy to determine the evolutionary history of organisms. _________________________
 2.
Taxonomy provides consistent ways to name organisms. _________________________
 3.
Scientific names of organisms consist of two English terms. _________________________
 4.
Two different organisms cannot have the same scientific name. _________________________
 5.
Genus is the basic biological unit in the Linnaean system of classification. _________________________
 6.
A genus is a taxonomic category that contains several families. _________________________
 7.
Under the Linnaean system of classification, organisms are grouped on the basis of similarities in structure. _________________________
 8.
Linnaeus devised eight levels of classification categories for living things. _________________________
 9.
The least inclusive group to which an organism can be assigned is its kingdom. _________________________
 10.
Kingdoms are subgroups of phyla. _________________________
 11.
A species is a larger taxonomic group than a genus. _________________________
 12.
Bird wings and insect wings are examples of analogous structures. _________________________
 13.
Organisms that have similar traits but evolved independently are the result of convergent evolution. _________________________
 14.
Cladistics is used to determine the sequence in which different groups of organisms evolved. _________________________
 15.
In modern systematics, studies of the changes in the skeletons of vertebrates have helped researchers to estimate the time at which each species began to evolve. _________________________
 16.
Comparing the sequence of DNA bases in the genes of several organisms is used to determine the order in which the organisms evolved. _________________________
 17.
All organisms in the kingdom Animalia are multicellular heterotrophs whose cells lack cell walls. _________________________
 18.
Archaea are eukaryotes that are characterized by several unique biochemical characteristics. _________________________
 19.
Traditionally, bacteria have been classified on the basis of their shape, cell wall composition, and metabolism. _________________________
 20.
Most organisms in the kingdoms Plantae and Animalia are multicellular. _________________________
 

Multiple Choice
Identify the choice that best completes the statement or answers the question.
 21.
Taxonomy is
a.
 the study of life.
b.
 the science of naming and classifying organisms.
c.
 the evolutionary history of a species.
d.
 the sequence in which different groups evolved.
 22.
An advantage of our scientific naming system is that
a.
 common names mean the same in all countries.
b.
 Latin names are easy to pronounce.
c.
 biologists can communicate regardless of their native languages.
d.
 organisms all have the same scientific name.
 23.
All scientific names of organisms must be
a.
 unique and have two Latin words.
b.
 general and use the species name.
c.
 different and repeat the phylum name.
d.
 similar and include the common name.
 24.
Linnaeus’s two-word system for naming organisms is called
a.
 taxonomic evolution.
c.
 Greek polynomials.
b.
 Genus species.
d.
 binomial nomenclature.
 25.
In the Linnaean system of classification, the level that identifies one unique organism is the
a.
 kingdom.
c.
 genus.
b.
 family.
d.
 species.
 26.
The largest division that a group of organisms can belong to is a
a.
 domain.
c.
 genus.
b.
 class.
d.
 kingdom.
 27.
Placement in each level of classification is based on
a.
 specific characteristics.
c.
 shared characteristics.
b.
 general characteristics.
d.
 different characteristics.
 28.
Similar genera are grouped into a(n)
a.
 phylum.
c.
 family.
b.
 class.
d.
 order.
 29.
Analogous structures
a.
 have a common size in organisms.
b.
 perform the same function in organisms.
c.
 have the same structure in organisms.
d.
 evolve from a common ancestor.
 30.
Traditional systematics emphasizes the importance of
a.
 derived characteristics.
c.
 similar characteristics.
b.
 unique characteristics.
d.
 compared characteristics.
 31.
Similar features that evolve through convergent evolution are called
a.
 analogous characters.
c.
 environmental characters.
b.
 homologous characters.
d.
 genetic characters.
 32.
Convergent evolution produces analogous characters in different species as the result of
a.
 similar environments.
c.
 sharing a common ancestor.
b.
 different environments.
d.
 shared derived characters.
 33.
A phylogenetic tree differs from a cladogram in that a phylogenetic tree
a.
 hypothesizes the time at which each group of organisms evolved.
b.
 also indicates the new characteristics that evolved with each group of organisms
c.
 only illustrates hypothesized relationships among groups of organisms.
d.
 predicts the next group of organisms that is expected to evolve.
 34.
Studies of fossils of dinosaurs and birds show that
a.
 feathers may not be an important difference between dinosaurs and birds.
b.
 dinosaurs can be considered to be modern descendents of birds.
c.
 the anatomies of the dinosaurs and birds are unrelated.
d.
 dinosaurs and birds share many analogous characters.
 35.
A model used by biologists to represent evolutionary history among species is called a
a.
 phylogram.
c.
 histogram.
b.
 cladogram.
d.
 parallelogram.
 36.
Derived characters are traits
a.
 that are shared by all species.
b.
 that originated in a common ancestor.
c.
 found in closely related species.
d.
 found in distantly related species.
 37.
During Linnaeus’ time, scientists divided all living organisms into
a.
 five phyla.
c.
 three domains.
b.
 four families.
d.
 two kingdoms.
 38.
Sponges are animals that were once classified as
a.
 bacteria.
c.
 plants.
b.
 fungi.
d.
 protists.
 39.
Which of the following characteristics was used to reclassify sponges?
a.
 body type
c.
 cell walls
b.
 cell type
d.
 nutrition
 40.
The kingdoms Eubacteria and Archaebacteria were once grouped in a kingdom called
a.
 Protista.
c.
 Monera.
b.
 Animalia.
d.
 Plantae.
 41.
Four of the kingdoms include eukaryotes and the other two include
a.
 plants.
c.
 animals.
b.
 fungi.
d.
 prokaryotes.
 42.
Which of the following is not a characteristic used to differentiate kingdoms?
a.
 cell type
c.
 nutrition
b.
 root system
d.
 body type
 43.
Protista is an example of a
a.
 kingdom.
c.
 genus.
b.
 class.
d.
 species.
 44.
Which two kingdoms contain both unicellular and multicellular organisms?
a.
 Archaea and Animalia
c.
 Animalia and Fungi
b.
 Protists and Bacteria
d.
 Protista and Fungi
 45.
One difference between plants and animals is that plants are
a.
 prokaryotic and animals are eukaryotic.
b.
 eukaryotic and animals are prokaryotic.
c.
 autotrophs and animals are heterotrophs.
d.
 heterotrophs and animals are autotrophs.
 

Completion
Complete each statement.
 46.
The current system used for naming organisms was developed by ____________________.
 47.
The two-word system for naming organisms is called _________________________.
 48.
The scientific name of an organism gives biologists a common way of ____________________ regardless of their native languages.
 49.
All names assigned to organisms under the Linnaean system are in the ____________________ language.
 50.
The unique two-word name for a species is its ____________________ name.
 51.
All living things are grouped into one of three ____________________.
 52.
There are ____________________ levels of classification in the modern classification system.
 53.
A kingdom contains many ____________________.
 54.
Classes with similar characteristics are assigned to a(n) ____________________.
 55.
Each level of classification is based on ____________________ shared by all the organisms it contains.
 56.
Homo habilis, Homo erectus, and Homo sapiens all belong to the same ____________________.
 57.
Traditionally, scientists have used differences in appearance and ____________________ to classify organisms.
 58.
Unlike cladistics, traditional systematics places more ____________________ on some traits than on others.
 59.
Analogous structures are found in ____________________ taxa as a result of similar environmental conditions.
 60.
The type of evolution that results in similar characteristics found in different organisms as the result of selection within similar environments is called ____________________ evolution.
 61.
The evolutionary history of a species is called its ____________________.
 62.
Shared derived characters are found in organisms that once shared a(n) ____________________ ancestor.
 63.
A method of analysis that reconstructs phylogenies by inferring relationships based on shared characteristics is called ____________________.
 64.
A model developed by systematists that uses shared derived characters to show the evolutionary history of different organisms is called a(n) ____________________.
 65.
Cladistics is used to determine the ____________________ in which different groups of organisms evolved.
 66.
Animals that appear early on a cladogram do not share as many of the same ____________________ traits as the animals that appear later on the cladogram.
 67.
Modern systematic biologists use the ____________________ rate of DNA mutations like a “molecular clock.”
 68.
Bacteria have strong exterior cell walls made of ____________________.
 69.
An organism made of many cells that are permanently associated and that coordinate their activities is called a(n) ____________________ organism.
 70.
Eukaryotes that are not fungi, plants, or animals are called ____________________.


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Quiz Protein Synthesis

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Name: 

Protein Synthesis

 

 

Completion
Complete each sentence or statement.
1.
In eukaryotes, gene expression is related to the coiling and uncoiling of ____________________.
2.
A DNA subunit composed of a phosphate group, a five-carbon sugar, and a nitrogen-containing base is called a(n) ____________________.
3.
The name of the five-carbon sugar that makes up a part of the backbone of molecules of DNA is ____________________.
4.
Knowing the order of the bases in a gene permits scientists to determine the exact order of the amino acids in the expressed ____________________.
5.
Due to the strict pairing of nitrogen base pairs in DNA molecules, the two strands are said to be ____________________ to each other.
6.
According to base-pairing rules, adenine pairs with ____________________ and guanine pairs with ____________________.
7.
The enzyme that is responsible for replicating molecules of DNA by attaching complementary bases in the correct sequence is ____________________.
8.
Enzymes called ____________________ are responsible for unwinding the DNA double helix by breaking the hydrogen bonds that hold the complementary strands together.
9.
The process by which DNA copies itself is called ____________________.
10.
Molecules of ____________________ carry instructions for protein synthesis from the nucleus to the cytoplasm.
11.
The nitrogen-containing base that is found only in RNA is ____________________.
12.
The enzyme responsible for making RNA is called ____________________.
13.
The form of ribonucleic acid that carries genetic information from the DNA to the ribosomes is ____________________.
14.
A ____________________ is a sequence of DNA at the beginning of a gene that signals RNA polymerase to begin transcription.
15.
Messenger RNA is produced during the process of ____________________.
16.
Of the 64 codons of mRNA, 61 code for ____________________, 3 are ____________________ signals, and one is a ____________________ signal.
17.
Nucleotide sequences of tRNA that are complementary to codons on mRNA are called ____________________.
18.
The sequence of three nucleotides that code for specific amino acids or stop signals in the synthesis of protein is called a(n) ____________________.
19.
The information contained in a molecule of messenger RNA is used to make protein during the process of ____________________.
20.
During translation, amino acids are brought to the ribosomes by molecules of ____________________.

 
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Seed Plants

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Name: 

Seed Plants

 

 

True/False
Indicate whether the sentence or statement is true or false.
1.
Tracheids and sieve tubes make up a xylem vessel.
2.
The main function of ground tissue is to conduct water and minerals.
3.
Vascular tissue is found within ground tissue, which makes up the outside of the plant.
4.
The outer protective layer of tissue on a vascular plant is known as the meristem.
5.
Monocot stems cannot become large in diameter because they lack lateral meristems.
6.
The loss of water by transpiration at the leaves helps pull water into the plant at the roots.
7.
The blade of a compound leaf is divided into leaflets.
8.
Many gymnosperms, such as pine, spruce, and fir trees, produce their seeds in cones.
9.
The flowers of angiosperms are ornamental and have no reproductive function.
10.
Brightly colored petals, scents, and nectar are all adaptations of flowers that help ensure pollination.
11.
Plants with colorful flowers are pollinated most commonly by wind.
 

Multiple Choice
Identify the letter of the choice that best completes the statement or answers the question.
12.
The conducting cells of phloem are called
a.
tracheids.
c.
sieve plates.
b.
sieve tube members.
d.
vessel elements.
13.
Plants grow in regions of active cell division called
a.
meristems.
c.
phloem.
b.
xylem.
d.
dermal tissue.
14.
The lengthening of plant roots and shoots is called
a.
secondary growth.
c.
primary growth.
b.
germination.
d.
vascular growth.
seed_plants_files/i0170000.jpg
15.
Refer to the illustration above. The structure indicated at “f”
a.
supports the anther.
b.
produces pollen.
c.
has tiny structures that look like leaves.
d.
develops into a fruit.
16.
Refer to the illustration above. The structure labeled “c”
a.
produces pollen.
c.
is sticky to the touch.
b.
contains sperm cells.
d.
contains meristematic tissue.
17.
The process of transferring pollen from a male cone to a female cone in gymnosperms is called
a.
fertilization.
c.
pollination.
b.
seed formation.
d.
asexual reproduction.
18.
If a plant’s flowers are very colorful and produce nectar, the plant is probably pollinated by
a.
water.
c.
insects.
b.
wind.
d.
self-pollination.
19.
Fertilization
a.
involves the union of the egg and sperm.
b.
may not follow pollination at all.
c.
may not occur until weeks or months after pollination has taken place.
d.
All of the above
20.
After an egg has been fertilized, a fruit develops from the
a.
style.
c.
ovule.
b.
ovary.
d.
sepal.

 
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