Author: Biology Junction Team

Introduction and Chemistry

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Introduction and Chemistry
 

True/False
Indicate whether the statement is true or false.
 1.
The study of biology can help you better understand human reproduction.
 2.
Almost all organisms ultimately get their energy for survival from the sun.
 3.
All living things are composed of chemicals.
      nar001-1.jpg      nar001-2.jpg
 4.
Refer to the illustration above. Both species are multicellular.
 5.
Refer to the illustration above. Both species have DNA in their cells.
 6.
Refer to the illustration above. Reproduction ensures the ongoing success of both species.
 7.
Refer to the illustration above. The sand dollar and paramecium both show organization.
 8.
Refer to the illustration above. Unlike the sand dollar, the paramecium does not have to maintain a stable internal environment.
 9.
Scientists have not discovered any new species on Earth in more than 20 years.
 10.
A scientist who performs an experiment has no idea what the outcome of the experiment is going to be.
 11.
A theory is a hypothesis that has been proven true.
 12.
A theory is an assumption made by scientists and implies a lack of certainty.
 13.
Publication of the results of scientific investigations enables other scientists to verify these results.
 14.
Scientific investigations always follow a series of rigidly defined steps.
 15.
Resolution is a microscope’s power to increase an object’s apparent size.
 16.
The resolution power of an electron microscope is limited by the physical characteristics of light.
 17.
Units of time are not measured in metric units, so time measurements are not accepted for use with SI units.
 18.
The types of particles that are located in the nucleus of an atom are protons and neutrons, and the types of particles that are located in the energy levels surrounding the nucleus are electrons.
 19.
The atomic number of carbon is 6, so it must contain 12 electrons.
 20.
Most elements are stable if their outermost energy level contains an even number of electrons.
 21.
Atoms in a gas move more rapidly than atoms in a liquid or a solid do.
 22.
The products of an endergonic chemical reaction possess more energy than the reactants from which they are produced.
 23.
The amount of energy needed to cause a chemical reaction to start is called activation energy.
 24.
When an enzyme binds with its substrate, the activation energy needed for the chemical reaction to occur is raised.
 25.
Enzymes speed up a chemical reaction by increasing the activation energy of the reaction.
 26.
Without enzymes, chemical reactions necessary for life would not occur at a rate sufficient to sustain life.
 27.
Free hydrogen ions can react with water molecules and form a positively charged ion, the hydronium ion.
 28.
Bases tend to have a sour taste, while acids tend to have a bitter taste.
 29.
Buffers can neutralize acids, but they do not affect bases.
 

Multiple Choice
Identify the choice that best completes the statement or answers the question.
 30.
Biology is the study of
a.
 minerals.
c.
 the weather.
b.
 life.
d.
 energy.
 31.
Instructions for development that are passed from parents to offspring are known as
a.
 a species plan.
c.
 genes.
b.
 organ codes.
d.
 natural selections.
 32.
Homeostasis means
a.
 a change over long periods of time.
c.
 rapid change.
b.
 keeping things the same.
d.
 the same thing as evolution.
 33.
Which of the following is a means by which heterotrophs can obtain energy?
a.
 using water, carbon dioxide, and energy from the sun to produce sugars
b.
 using water and carbon dioxide to produce energy-rich compounds
c.
 consuming autotrophs
d.
 consuming simple chemicals from the environment and using them to assemble complex chemicals and structures needed by the organism
 34.
Which of the following is not necessarily a distinct property of living things?
a.
 homeostasis
c.
 complexity
b.
 metabolism
d.
 reproduction
 35.
All organisms are composed of
a.
 diatoms.
c.
 cells.
b.
 cellulose.
d.
 None of the above
 36.
Scientific hypotheses are most often tested by the process of
a.
 communicating.
c.
 experimenting.
b.
 inferring.
d.
 analyzing data.
 37.
A unifying explanation for a broad range of observations is a
a.
 hypothesis.
c.
 prediction.
b.
 theory.
d.
 controlled experiment.
 38.
Most typically, the order in which the steps of the scientific method are applied is
a.
 observations, predictions, hypothesis, controlled testing, theory, verification.
b.
 predictions, observations, hypothesis, theory, controlled testing, verification.
c.
 observations, hypothesis, predictions, controlled testing, theory, verification.
d.
 observations, hypothesis, predictions, controlled testing, verification, theory.
 39.
Atoms are composed of
a.
 protons with a positive charge.
c.
 electrons with a negative charge.
b.
 neutrons with no charge.
d.
 All of the above
 40.
Which of the following states of matter contain(s) particles that are tightly linked together in a definite shape?
a.
 solid
c.
 gas
b.
 liquid
d.
 solid and liquid
 41.
The bond formed when two atoms share a pair of electrons is called a
a.
 hydrogen bond.
c.
 covalent bond.
b.
 nonpolar bond.
d.
 water bond.
 42.
An atom that has gained or lost electrons is called a(n)
a.
 molecule.
c.
 ion.
b.
 nucleon.
d.
 element.
 43.
Which of the following statements most accurately describes the difference between an ionic bond and a covalent bond?
a.
 Atoms held together by ionic bonds separate when placed in water while atoms held together by covalent bonds do not separate in water.
b.
 Ionic bonds hold together atoms of two different types, while covalent bonds hold together atoms of the same type.
c.
 Electrons are exchanged between atoms held together by an ionic bond, but they are shared between atoms held together by a covalent bond.
d.
 Ionic bonds form between atoms that carry opposite charges, while covalent bonds form between uncharged atoms.
 44.
A reaction in which the products have less energy than the reactants is
a.
 an endergonic reaction.
c.
 a filamentous reaction.
b.
 an exergonic reaction.
d.
 impossible.
nar002-1.jpg
 45.
Refer to the graph above. Which of these statements is true regarding the graph?
a.
 Reaction “2” occurs faster than Reaction “3” because Reaction “2” requires more energy than Reaction “3.”
b.
 The difference in the graphs shown for Reaction “2” and Reaction “3” is due to a difference in the activation energy needed for these reactions.
c.
 Reactant “A” contains more energy at the beginning of the reaction than Product “C” has after the reaction.
d.
 All of the above
nar003-1.jpg
 46.
Refer to the graphs above. Which graph illustrates what happens during an exergonic reaction?
a.
 Graph “A”
b.
 Graph “B”
c.
 Both graphs; they each show a different stage of an exergonic reaction.
d.
 Neither graph shows an exergonic reaction.
 47.
Refer to the graphs above. Which graph illustrates a reaction during which reaction energy is released into the environment?
a.
 Graph “A”
b.
 Graph “B”
c.
 Both graphs, since all chemical reactions release energy into the environment
d.
 Neither graph, since chemical reactions do not involve energy
 48.
Enzymes
a.
 are able to heat up molecules so that they can react.
b.
 provide CO2 for chemical reactions.
c.
 are biological catalysts.
d.
 absorb excess heat so that reactions occur at low temperatures.
 49.
A neutral solution has an equal number of
a.
 hydrogen and hydronium ions.
c.
 hydrogen and hydroxide ions.
b.
 hydroxide and hydronium ions.
d.
 oxygen and hydrogen ions.
 50.
Buffers
a.
 are of relatively little importance in living things.
b.
 are formed when a large number of hydroxide ions are released in a solution.
c.
 are formed when a large number of hydronium ions are released in a solution.
d.
 tend to prevent great fluctuations in pH.

 
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Introduction to Biology Quiz 2

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Introduction to Biology

 

 

True/False
Indicate whether the sentence or statement is true or false.
1.
Only multicellular organisms use energy for growth and maintenance.
2.
Scientific investigations always follow a series of rigidly defined steps.
3.
Communicating scientific information may result in the development of new hypotheses.
4.
All living things are composed of cells.
5.
In a carefully planned experiment, the variable being studied is omitted from the experimental group.
6.
Scientific understanding is based on observations.
7.
Reproduction is essential for the survival of individual organisms.
8.
The processes of observing, measuring, and organizing data generally lead to the formulation of questions.
9.
Observing is the use of one or more of the senses to perceive objects or events.
10.
The study of biology can help you better understand human reproduction.
11.
Almost all organisms ultimately get their energy for survival from the sun.
12.
A scientist who performs an experiment has no idea what the outcome of the experiment is going to be.
13.
Units of time are not measured in metric units, so time measurements are not accepted for use with SI units.
 

Multiple Choice
Identify the letter of the choice that best completes the statement or answers the question.
14.
The step in a scientific method that is most likely to take the form of an IF_THEN statement is called:
a.
prediciton
c.
experimenting
b.
inference
d.
modeling
15.
The number of frogs in a pond increases each year due to:
a.
homeostasis
c.
organization
b.
reproduction
d.
the food chain
16.
When an experiment gives an important result, these results should not be
a.
published.
c.
replicated.
b.
withheld.
d.
confirmed.
17.
When a hypothesis is tested and confirmed often enough that it is unlikely to be disproved the hypothesis may become a
a.
theory.
c.
replication.
b.
prediction.
d.
scientific method.
18.
Generally, the order in which a scientist uses the scientific method is
a.
observations, predictions, hypothesis, verifying prediction,theory, verification.
b.
observations, hypothesis, making predictions, verifying predictions, performing control
experiments,theory.
c.
predictions, observations, hypothesis, theory, controlled testing,verification.
d.
observations, hypothesis, predictions, verification, theory.
19.
Generally the first process a scientist uses to obtain knowledge about nature is:
a.
collecting
c.
predicting
b.
observing
d.
measuring
20.
Which of the following steps in scientific method is most likely to directly follow
hypothesizing?
a.
communicating
c.
experimenting
b.
inferring
d.
predicting
21.
The part of the scientific method in which journal articles are prepared is called:
a.
communicating
c.
organizing
b.
observing
d.
classifying
22.
A control
a.
is when a lead scientist controls a group of scientists conducting an experiment.
b.
is always registered with the Food and Drug Administration (FDA).
c.
is the part of an experiment in which a key factor is not allowed to change.
d.
provides the answer to a problem posed by a theory.
23.
Biology is the study of
a.
minerals.
c.
the weather
b.
life.
d.
energy.
24.
Which of the following shows the most complex level of organization?
a.
red blood cells
c.
nerve
b.
stomach
d.
muscle
25.
In the scientific method, the step that follows observing and stating a  problem is
a.
recording data.
c.
forming a hypothesis.
b.
analyzing data.
d.
testing a hypothesis.
26.
The splitting in two of a bacterium is called:
a.
inheritance
c.
development
b.
sexual reproduction
d.
asexual reproduction
27.
Plants and algae use energy that comes from
a.
the sun.
b.
the movement of the Earth.
c.
the moon.
d.
heat created deep within the interior of the Earth.
28.
The first living organism on earth was probably a:
a.
single cell
c.
dinosaur
b.
fish
d.
plant
29.
In the scientific method, a possible explanation is called:
a.
hypothesis
c.
an observation
b.
an inference
d.
an analysis
30.
Cell membranes
a.
are only found on a small number of cells.
c.
are made of DNA
b.
contain genes.
d.
are thin coverings that surround cells.
31.
The combining of genetic information from two individuals to produce offspring is called:
a.
inheritance
c.
sexual reproduction
b.
development
d.
asexual reproduction
32.
All organisms possess DNA. DNA
a.
creates energy for the cells.
b.
allows sensitivity to environmental stimuli.
c.
contains information for growth and development.
d.
captures energy from the sun.
33.
Instructions for development that are passed from parents to offspring are known as
a.
a species plan.
c.
genes.
b.
organ codes.
d.
natural selections.
34.
Which of the following is not necessarily a distinct property of living things?
a.
homeostasis
c.
complexity
b.
metabolism
d.
reproduction
35.
Living things
a.
need energy for life processes.
c.
are composed of cells.
b.
have the ability to reproduce.
d.
All of the above
36.
All living things maintain a balance within their cells and the environment through the process of
a.
growth.
c.
homeostasis.
b.
development.
d.
evolution.
37.
Which of the following is not a partial explanation for our lack of understanding of many of the living things on Earth?
a.
Many organisms are microscopic in size and therefore difficult to observe.
b.
Many organisms are so different from other organisms that it is difficult to understand them.
c.
Many organisms live in areas of the world that are difficult to explore.
d.
Tropical rain forests contain many species, and it is difficult to find all of them in these dense forests.
38.
Which example of scientific methodology is incorrect?
a.
Observation—A number of people in Zaire dying of a disease outbreak
b.
Measurement—A record of the number of people with symptoms of the disease and the number of people who had died from the disease
c.
Analysis of data—Comparison of the effects of mixing monkey cells with virus-containing blood in test tubes and the effects of mixing of liquid from these test tubes with fresh monkey cells
d.
Inference making—Identification of the Ebola virus as the cause of the disease by taking electron micrographs of substances found in the blood of persons affected with the disease
39.
The word theory used in a scientific sense means
a.
that of which the scientist is most certain.
b.
a guess made with very little knowledge to support it.
c.
an absolute scientific certainty.
d.
None of the above
40.
A light microscope that has an objective lens of 10´ and an ocular lens of 20´ has a magnification of
a.
30´.
c.
300´.
b.
200´.
d.
2000´.

 
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Introduction, Chemistry, & Nature of Science Test

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Introduction, Chemistry, & Nature of Science Test
 

Multiple Choice
Identify the choice that best completes the statement or answers the question.
 1.
Biology is the study of
a.
 minerals.
c.
 the weather.
b.
 life.
d.
 energy.
 2.
All organisms possess DNA. DNA
a.
 creates energy for cells.
b.
 allows sensitivity to environmental stimuli.
c.
 contains information for growth and development.
d.
 captures energy from the sun.
 3.
Instructions for traits that are passed from parents to offspring are known as
a.
 a species plan.
c.
 genes.
b.
 organ codes.
d.
 natural selections.
 4.
Homeostasis means
a.
 a change over long periods of time.
b.
 keeping things the same.
c.
 rapid change.
d.
 the same thing as evolution.
 5.
Ecology
a.
 refers to change in species over time.
b.
 refers to a delicate internal balance within organisms.
c.
 is inconsistent with evolution.
d.
 is the study of communities or organisms in relation to their environment.
 6.
Which of the following is not necessarily a characteristic of living things?
a.
 homeostasis
c.
 complexity
b.
 metabolism
d.
 reproduction
 7.
The smallest units that can carry on all the functions of life are called
a.
 molecules.
c.
 organelles.
b.
 cells.
d.
 species.
 8.
Living things
a.
 need energy for life processes.
b.
 have the ability to reproduce.
c.
 are composed of cells.
d.
 All of the above
 9.
All organisms are composed of
a.
 diatoms.
c.
 cells.
b.
 cellulose.
d.
 None of the above
 10.
Which of the following is a characteristic of all living things?
a.
 movement
c.
 development
b.
 photosynthesis
d.
 cellular organization
 11.
Which of the following is not a partial explanation for our lack of understanding of many of the living things on Earth?
a.
 Many organisms are microscopic in size and therefore difficult to observe.
b.
 Many organisms are so different from other organisms that it is difficult to understand them.
c.
 Many organisms live in areas of the world that are difficult to explore.
d.
 Tropical rain forests contain many species, and it is difficult to find all of them in these dense forests.
 12.
A scientist noticed that in acidic pond water some salamanders developed with curved spines. This was a(n)
a.
 hypothesis.
c.
 observation.
b.
 theory.
d.
 control.
 13.
Which example of scientific methodology is incorrect?
a.
 observation—a number of people in a certain place dying of a disease outbreak
b.
 measurement—a record of the number of people with symptoms of a disease and the number of people who had died from the disease
c.
 analysis of data—comparison of the effects of mixing monkey cells with virus-containing blood in test tubes and the effects of mixing liquid from these test tubes with fresh monkey cells
d.
 inference making—identification of the Ebola virus as the cause of a disease by taking electron micrographs of substances found in the blood of persons affected with the disease
 14.
The English physician Ronald Ross wanted to try to find the cause of malaria. Based on his observations, Dr. Ross suggested that the Anopheles mosquito might spread malaria from person to person. This suggestion was a
a.
 prediction.
c.
 theory.
b.
 hypothesis.
d.
 scientific “truth.”
 15.
The English physician Ronald Ross knew that the parasite Plasmodium was always found in the blood of malaria patients. He thought that if the Anopheles mosquitoes were responsible for spreading malaria, then Plasmodium would be found in the mosquitoes. This idea was a
a.
 prediction.
c.
 theory.
b.
 hypothesis.
d.
 scientific “truth.”
 16.
Scientific hypotheses are most often tested by the process of
a.
 communicating.
c.
 experimenting.
b.
 inferring.
d.
 analyzing data.
 17.
A unifying explanation for a broad range of observations is a
a.
 hypothesis.
c.
 prediction.
b.
 theory.
d.
 controlled experiment.
 18.
A hypothesis that does not explain an observation
a.
 is known as an inaccurate forecast.
b.
 often predicts a different observation.
c.
 is rejected.
d.
 None of the above
 19.
Scientists usually design experiments
a.
 with a good idea of the expected experimental results.
b.
 based on wild guesses.
c.
 in order to develop new laboratory tools.
d.
 All of the above
 20.
A scientific theory
a.
 is absolutely certain.
b.
 is unchangeable.
c.
 may be revised as new evidence is presented.
d.
 is a controlled experiment.
 21.
The word theory used in a scientific sense means
a.
 a highly tested, generally accepted principle.
b.
 a guess made with very little knowledge to support it.
c.
 an absolute scientific certainty.
d.
 None of the above
 22.
observation : hypothesis ::
a.
 theory : observation
c.
 hypothesis : experiment
b.
 guess : hypothesis
d.
 theory : control
 23.
Which of the following components of a scientific investigation would benefit from communication between scientists?
a.
 observing
c.
 analyzing data
b.
 measuring
d.
 All of the above
 24.
Typically, the order in which the steps of the scientific method are applied is
a.
 observations, predictions, hypothesis, controlled testing, theory, verification.
b.
 predictions, observations, hypothesis, theory, controlled testing, verification.
c.
 observations, hypothesis, predictions, controlled testing, theory, verification.
d.
 observations, hypothesis, predictions, controlled testing, verification, theory.
 25.
A light microscope that has an objective lens of 10 and an ocular lens of 20 has a magnification of
a.
 30.
c.
 300.
b.
 200.
d.
 2000.
 26.
Which of the following is not a correct association between an SI base unit abbreviation and its base quantity?
a.
 A—area
b.
 m—length
c.
 s—time
d.
 mol—amount of a substance
 27.
Atoms are composed of
a.
 protons with a positive charge.
b.
 neutrons with no charge.
c.
 electrons with a negative charge.
d.
 All of the above
 28.
The smallest particle of carbon that can retain the chemical properties of carbon is
a.
 a carbon molecule.
b.
 a carbon macromolecule.
c.
 a carbon atom.
d.
 the nucleus of a carbon atom.
 29.
A substance that is composed of only one type of atom is called a(n)
a.
 nucleus.
c.
 element.
b.
 cell.
d.
 molecule.
 30.
All matter in the universe is composed of
a.
 cells.
c.
 atoms.
b.
 molecules.
d.
 carbon.
 31.
The electrons of an atom
a.
 are found in the nucleus along with the protons.
b.
 orbit the nucleus in various energy levels.
c.
 have a positive charge.
d.
 are attracted to the positive charge of neutrons.
 32.
Atoms that have gained energy
a.
 have protons and neutrons that move farther apart.
b.
 lose neutrons from the nucleus.
c.
 have electrons that move to higher energy levels.
d.
 absorb electrons into the nucleus.
 33.
Which of the following states of matter contain(s) particles that are tightly linked together in a definite shape?
a.
 solid
c.
 gas
b.
 liquid
d.
 solid and liquid
 34.
Because carbon has four electrons in its outer energy level,
a.
 it can form bonds with carbon atoms only.
b.
 these atoms are naturally chemically stable.
c.
 it can react with up to four other atoms to form covalent bonds.
d.
 it cannot react with anything other than organic molecules.
 35.
The bond formed when two atoms share a pair of electrons is called a
a.
 hydrogen bond.
c.
 covalent bond.
b.
 nonpolar bond.
d.
 water bond.
 36.
Sharing of electrons between atoms of two or more elements
a.
 results in the formation of an ion.
b.
 results in the formation of a compound.
c.
 results in the formation of noble gases.
d.
 results in destabilization of the atoms involved.
 37.
Which of the following statements most accurately describes the difference between an ionic bond and a covalent bond?
a.
 Atoms held together by ionic bonds separate when placed in water, while atoms held together by covalent bonds do not separate in water.
b.
 Ionic bonds hold together atoms of two different types, while covalent bonds hold together atoms of the same type.
c.
 Electrons are exchanged between atoms held together by an ionic bond, but they are shared between atoms held together by a covalent bond.
d.
 Ionic bonds form between atoms that carry opposite charges, while covalent bonds form between uncharged atoms.
nar001-1.jpg
 38.
Refer to the graph above. Reaction 1 in the graph
a.
 is an energy-storing reaction.
b.
 requires a greater activation energy than reaction 2.
c.
 may use the same initial reactant condition needed to form product Y.
d.
 All of the above
 39.
Refer to the graph above. Which of these statements regarding the graph is true?
a.
 Reaction 2 occurs faster than reaction 3 because reaction 2 requires more energy than reaction 3.
b.
 The difference in the graphs shown for reaction 2 and reaction 3 is due to a difference in the activation energy needed for these reactions.
c.
 Reactant X contains more energy at the beginning of the reaction than product Z has after the reaction.
d.
 All of the above
 40.
Changing the course or pathway of a chemical reaction so that it requires less activation energy
a.
 is a violation of the laws of nature.
b.
 requires higher temperatures than those found within cells.
c.
 occurs only when reactants are quickly added to the reaction mixture.
d.
 is accomplished by the action of catalysts on reactants.
 41.
When a molecule gains an electron, it has been
a.
 oxidized.
c.
 digested.
b.
 reduced.
d.
 inactivated.
 42.
The concentration of a solution is
a.
 the number of particles of a substance in a solvent.
b.
 the amount of a solvent that is dissolved in a fixed amount of a solution.
c.
 the amount of a solute that is dissolved in a fixed amount of a solution.
d.
 the ratio of solute to solvent in a solution.
 43.
A neutral solution has an equal number of
a.
 hydrogen and hydronium ions.
b.
 hydroxide and hydronium ions.
c.
 hydrogen and hydroxide ions.
d.
 oxygen and hydrogen ions.
 44.
A solution with a pH of 11 is
a.
 acidic.
c.
 neutral.
b.
 alkaline.
d.
 a buffer.
 45.
Acidic solutions have a pH that is
a.
 less than 7.
c.
 a negative number.
b.
 between 0 and 14.
d.
 more than 7.
 46.
Buffers
a.
 are of relatively little importance in living things.
b.
 are formed when a large number of hydroxide ions are released in a solution.
c.
 are formed when a large number of hydronium ions are released in a solution.
d.
 tend to prevent great fluctuations in pH.
 47.
Atoms become more stable when they form compounds because
a.
 they always lose electrons when they form compounds.
b.
 their outer orbitals become filled when they form compounds.
c.
 they always gain electrons when they form compounds.
d.
 their nucleus loses extra protons when they form compounds.
 48.
A water molecule is polar because its hydrogen and oxygen atoms
a.
 both lose electrons.
b.
 become ions.
c.
 both gain electrons.
d.
 do not share the electrons equally.
 49.
Water molecules break up other polar substances
a.
 such as salts.
b.
 because of the uneven charge distribution that exists in water molecules.
c.
 thus freeing ions in these substances for use by the body.
d.
 All of the above
 50.
Which of the following characteristics of water is not a result of hydrogen bonding?
a.
 adhesive strength
b.
 capillarity
c.
 cohesive strength
d.
 All of the above are a result of hydrogen bonding.


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Insects

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Insects

 

 

True/False
Indicate whether the sentence or statement is true or false.
1.
A flying insect carries pollen from one flower to pollinate other flowers of different species.
2.
Insects comprise the only group of invertebrates whose members are primarily terrestrial.
3.
Insects were the first animals to evolve wings.
4.
Flight enabled insects to search Earth’s surface for food, mates, and nesting sites.
5.
A major factor in the evolutionary success of insects is their ability to move to and survive in new environments.
6.
Insects destroy not only crops but also wood buildings and clothing.
7.
Butterflies undergo incomplete metamorphosis.
8.
Insects use pheromones, sounds, and light to attract mates.
9.
The honeybee’s round dance gives complete location information about a food source.
 

Multiple Choice
Identify the letter of the choice that best completes the statement or answers the question.
10.
From fossils, we know that insects were the first animals to evolve
a.
pincers on their front legs.
c.
jointed legs.
b.
stingers at the end of their tails.
d.
wings.
11.
The most diverse group of animals on Earth are the
a.
reptiles.
c.
insects.
b.
mammals.
d.
amphibians.
12.
Which of the following is not a characteristic of most insects?
a.
wings
c.
small size
b.
three body regions
d.
abdomen with three pairs of legs
13.
While insects destroy crops grown for human consumption, they also contribute to crop production by
a.
serving as food for many animals.
b.
pollinating crop plants.
c.
dying in the soil, and leaving behind nutrients.
d.
stimulating crop plants to grow faster.
14.
Malpighian tubules in insects
a.
remove wastes.
c.
carry Malpighian fluid.
b.
carry blood.
d.
are important in respiration.

      insects_files/i0140000.jpg
15.
Refer to the illustration above. Which of the organisms in the diagrams has a chitinous exoskeleton?
a.
Organism “A”
c.
Organism “C”
b.
Organism “B”
d.
Organism “D”

      insects_files/i0160000.jpg
16.
Refer to the illustration above. Mandibles are attached to the structure labeled
a.
“A.”
c.
“C.”
b.
“B.”
d.
“D.”
17.
Refer to the illustration above. The structure labeled “C” is called the
a.
diptera.
c.
boll.
b.
thorax.
d.
abdomen.
18.
Pheromones are used by ants to
a.
guide members of a colony back to their own nest.
b.
determine which ants will become queens of future colonies.
c.
ensure that females mate with only one male.
d.
warn members of a colony of adverse environmental conditions.
19.
Which of the following are the reproductive members of a honeybee colony?
a.
drones
c.
workers
b.
queen
d.
a and b
20.
Which of the following is the accepted explanation for the existence of sterile female worker bees?
a.
Because they are sterile, they do not have to use energy to produce eggs and therefore can use energy to collect food for other bees.
b.
Workers become sterile when they leave the nest to obtain food and are exposed to toxic substances.
c.
Workers pass on a lot of their own genes by helping their fertile sisters to survive and reproduce.
d.
Workers can become fertile females if they are fed queen factor.

 
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True/False
Indicate whether the sentence or statement is true or false.
1.
Hemophilia is a recessive, sex-linked disorder.
2.
An autosomal trait will occur with equal frequency in both males and females.
3.
Sex-linkd traits appear more often in females than in males.
4.
An individual who expresses a genetic disorder is called a carrier.
5.
A male can produce sperm that contains either an X or a Y chromosome.
6.
Mutations are always harmful.
7.
A pedigree is a family record that shows how a trait is inherited over several generations.
 

Multiple Choice
Identify the letter of the choice that best completes the statement or answers the question.
8.
Hemophilia is a genetic disorder that is
a.
sex-linked.
c.
fairly common.
b.
sex-influenced.
d.
more common in women than in men.
9.
Parents of a color blind female could have the genotypes
a.
XCXc and XCY
c.
XCXc and XcY
b.
XcXc and XCY
d.
XCXC and XcY
10.
People who are heterozygous for sickle cell anemia are
a.
partially resistant to the effect of ultraviolet radiation.
b.
totally resistant to the effect of ultraviolet radiation.
c.
partially resistant to malaria.
d.
totally resistant to malaria.
11.
Both sickle cell anemia and hemophilia
a.
are caused by genes coding for defective proteins.
b.
are seen in homozygous dominant individuals.
c.
provide resistance to malaria infections.
d.
are extremely common throughout the world.
12.
This genetic disease occurs most frequently in the black population.
a.
cystic fibrosis
c.
sickle-cell anemia
b.
Tay-Sachs disease
d.
hemophilia
13.
The trait for skin color in humans is cause by
a.
crossing-over
c.
nondisjunction
b.
multiple genes
d.
mutations
14.
A hereditary disease in which the red blood cells have an abnormal shape is
a.
galactosemia
c.
polydactyly
b.
Tay-Sachs disease
d.
sickle-cell anemia
15.
Sex-linked traits appear more often in males than in females because
a.
males are produced in greater numbers
b.
females with a sex-linked trait will die
c.
males have only one X chromosome
d.
sex-linked traits are carried on the Y chromosome
16.
A diagram in which several generations of a family and the occurrence of certain genetic characteristics are shown is called a
a.
Punnett square.
c.
pedigree.
b.
monohybrid cross.
d.
family karyotype.
17.
What is the percentage of chance that two people who carry a sickle-cell gene will have a child having the disease?
a.
0
c.
50
b.
25
d.
100
18.
Which genetic trait is most influenced by the environment?
a.
blood type
c.
baldness
b.
eye color
d.
weight
19.
Very dark-skinned people have alleles at all gene positions for skin color that code for
a.
red-green colorblindness.
c.
the production of Rh antigens.
b.
albinism.
d.
the production of melanin.
20.
Sex-linked traits such as color blindness
a.
are never carried by females
c.
occur more frequently in males
b.
occur more frequently in females
d.
never occur in males
21.
What would be the blood type of a person who inherited an A allele from one parent and an O allele from the other?
a.
type A
c.
type AB
b.
type B
d.
type O.
22.
Genetic counseling is a process that
a.
helps identify parents at risk for having children with genetic defects.
b.
assists parents in deciding whether or not to have children.
c.
uses a family pedigree.
d.
All of the above
23.
If both parents carry the recessive allele that causes cystic fibrosis, the chance that their child will develop the disease is
a.
one in two.
c.
two in five.
b.
one in four.
d.
100 percent.
24.
People with Down syndrome have
a.
45 chromosomes.
c.
47 chromosomes.
b.
46 chromosomes.
d.
no X chromosomes.
25.
If nondisjunction occurs,
a.
there will be too many gametes produced.
b.
no gametes will be produced.
c.
a gamete will receive too many or too few homologues of a chromosome.
d.
mitosis cannot take place.
26.
A human female inherits
a.
one copy of every gene located on each of the X chromosomes.
b.
twice as many sex chromosomes as a human male inherits.
c.
one copy of every gene located on the Y chromosome.
d.
all of the same genes that a human male inherits.
27.
A pedigree CANNOT be used to
a.
determine whether a trait is inherited.
b.
show how a trait is passed from one generation to the next.
c.
determine whether an allele is dominant or recessive.
d.
none of the above
28.
If a man with blood type A and a woman with blood type B produce an offspring, what might be the offspring’s blood type?
a.
AB or O
b.
A, B, or O
c.
A, B, AB, or O
d.
AB only
29.
Sickle cell disease is caused by a
a.
change in one DNA base.
b.
change in the size of a chromosome.
c.
change in two genes.
d.
change in the number of chromosomes in a cell.
30.
Many sex-linked genes are located on
a.
the autosomes.
b.
the X chromosome only.
c.
the Y chromosome only.
d.
both the X chromosome and the Y chromosome.

 
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