Author: Biology Junction Team

Metabolism of Cells

Javascript not enabled

Name: 

 

Metabolism of Cells

 

 

Multiple Choice
Identify the choice that best completes the statement or answers the question.
 1.
The ultimate source of energy for almost all living organisms is:
a.
 heat.
b.
 glucose.
c.
 carbohydrates.
d.
 lipids.
e.
 the sun.
 2.
Energy stored within the molecules of ATP is in the form of ____________ energy.
a.
 kinetic
b.
 heat
c.
 potential
d.
 nuclear
e.
 light
 3.
Most components of energy conversion systems evolved very early; thus, the most fundamental aspects of energy metabolism tend to be:
a.
 quite different among a diverse group of organisms.
b.
 very different among plants and animals.
c.
 the same among the autotrophs but different among heterotrophs.
d.
 the same among prokaryotes but different among eukaryotes.
e.
 very similar in a wide range of different organisms.
 4.
Kilojoules are:
a.
 units of heat energy.
b.
 units of matter.
c.
 units of work.
d.
 units of kinetics.
e.
 units of mechanical change.
 5.
The life and death of cells are governed by:
a.
 the laws of thermodynamics.
b.
 only the first law of thermodynamics.
c.
 only the second law of thermodynamics.
d.
 only the third law of thermodynamics.
e.
 the laws of dynamic equilibrium.
 6.
In order for a cell to maintain a high degree of order it must:
a.
 constantly release energy.
b.
 constantly produce energy.
c.
 constantly destroy energy.
d.
 constantly use energy.
e.
 constantly increase energy.
 7.
Select the false statement:
a.
 Matter is anything that has mass and takes up space.
b.
 Energy is the capacity to do work.
c.
 Work is any change in the state or motion of matter.
d.
 Mass is a form of energy.
e.
 All of the above statements are true.
 8.
Which of the following statements is contrary to the first law of thermodynamics?
a.
 When gasoline is burned, its energy is destroyed.
b.
 Energy can be transferred or converted from one form to another.
c.
 Matter can be converted into energy.
d.
 The amount of energy in the universe is constant.
e.
 All of the above statements are not contrary to the first law of thermodynamics.
 9.
Only 20% to 30% of the energy stored in the chemical bonds of gasoline molecules is transformed into mechanical energy; the other 70% to 80% is dissipated as waste heat. Which statement explains this phenomenon?
a.
 The first law of thermodynamics.
b.
 The second law of thermodynamics.
c.
 When energy is converted from one form to another, some of the energy is converted into heat.
d.
 Both A and B.
e.
 Both B and C.
 10.
An organism can exchange matter and energy with its surroundings. Thus, any change in an organism’s energy content must be balanced by a corresponding change in the energy content of the surroundings. As such, an organism is referred to as:
a.
 a closed system.
b.
 an open system.
c.
 a dynamic system.
d.
 a thermally reactive system.
e.
 a potential system.
 11.
Catabolic reactions involve the:
a.
 breakdown of large organic molecules to simple building blocks.
b.
 breakdown of life sustaining processes within cells.
c.
 building up of complex organic molecules from simple building blocks.
d.
 anabolic production of complex molecules.
e.
 expenditure of energy.
 12.
Pathways that have an overall energy requirement are referred to as:
a.
 catabolic reactions.
b.
 anabolic reactions.
c.
 energy-releasing reactions.
d.
 energetically feasible reactions.
e.
 reactions that will proceed spontaneously.
 13.
Every type of chemical bond contains a certain amount of energy. The total bond energy, which is essentially equivalent to the total potential energy of the system, is a quantity known as:
a.
 entropy.
b.
 kinetic energy.
c.
 thermodynamic energy.
d.
 enthalpy.
e.
 free energy.
 14.
Which of the following accurately represents the relationship between the terms anabolism, catabolism, and metabolism?
a.
 anabolism = catabolism
b.
 metabolism = catabolism
c.
 catabolism = anabolism + metabolism
d.
 anabolism = catabolism + metabolism
e.
 metabolism = catabolism + anabolism
 15.
The sum of all chemical activities taking place in an organism is:
a.
 anabolism.
b.
 catabolism.
c.
 metabolism.
d.
 dehydration synthesis.
e.
 condensation reactions.
 16.
Which word is defined by this statement: a measure of this disorder, or randomness?
a.
 energy
b.
 entropy
c.
 enthalpy
d.
 mass
e.
 catabolism
 17.
The equation, G = H – TS, predicts that:
a.
 as entropy increases, the amount of free energy decreases.
b.
 as enthalpy increases, the amount of free energy increases.
c.
 as enthalpy decreases, the amount of entropy also decreases.
d.
 metabolism decreases proportionately to anabolism.
e.
 metabolism increases proportionately to catabolism.
 18.
A reaction with a negative value of DG is referred to as an _________________ reaction.
a.
 endergonic
b.
 entropy
c.
 exergonic
d.
 enthalpy
e.
 activation
 19.
Which of the following statements is true of spontaneous reactions?
a.
 The amount of free energy after the reaction is less than before the reaction.
b.
 The amount of disorder after the reaction is less than before the reaction.
c.
 The amount of free energy after the reaction is more than before the reaction.
d.
 The amount of disorder is the same before and after the reaction.
e.
 The amount of enthalpy is more after the reaction than before the reaction.
 20.
An exergonic reaction is considered to be:
a.
 spontaneous.
b.
 potentially spontaneous.
c.
 endergonic.
d.
 non-spontaneous.
e.
 energy requiring.
 21.
When the free energy of the reactants is greater than the free energy of the products, such a reaction is referred to as:
a.
 an entropic reaction.
b.
 an endergonic reaction.
c.
 an exergonic reaction.
d.
 an enthalpic reaction.
e.
 an activation reaction.
Figure 06-01
Use the figure below to answer the corresponding questions.

nar001-1.jpg
 22.
Which of the following statements about Figure 06-01 is true?
a.
 The reactants have more free energy than the products.
b.
 The products have more free energy than the reactants.
c.
 The figure represents a spontaneous reaction.
d.
 The figure represents an endergonic reaction.
e.
 B and D
 23.
Which of the following conclusions can be accurately derived from Figure 06-01?
a.
 DS is positive.
b.
 DH equals zero.
c.
 DG is positive.
d.
 DG is negative.
e.
 DT is negative.
 24.
An endergonic reaction can proceed only if it absorbs:
a.
 more free energy than is released by a coupled exergonic reaction.
b.
 less free energy than was released by a coupled endergonic reaction.
c.
 less free energy than is released by a coupled exergonic reaction.
d.
 the same amount of free energy that is absorbed by the enzymatic breakdown of proteins.
e.
 energy from ADP, forming ATP.
 25.
In a reaction in which the rate of the reverse reaction is equal to the rate of the forward reaction, a state of ____________ is attained.
a.
 total entropy
b.
 enthalpy
c.
 thermodynamics
d.
 dynamic equilibrium
e.
 product reversibility
 26.
The ATP molecule is said to have a high group transfer potential because its terminal phosphate group and some of its energy is readily transferred to other:
a.
 organisms.
b.
 cells.
c.
 organelles.
d.
 molecules.
e.
 sources of energy.
 27.
The reaction ATP + H2O ® ADP + Pi is classified as an:
a.
 endergonic reaction.
b.
 enthalpy reaction.
c.
 entropy reaction.
d.
 exergonic reaction.
e.
 intermediate phosphorylation reaction.
 28.
The maintenance of a high ATP to ADP ratio within cells ensures that:
a.
 the hydrolysis of ADP to ATP will be strongly exergonic.
b.
 the hydrolysis of ATP to ADP will be strongly exergonic.
c.
 the hydrolysis of ATP to ADP will be strongly endergonic.
d.
 the hydrolysis of ADP to ATP will be an energy releasing reaction.
e.
 the conversion of ADP to ATP will proceed spontaneously.
 29.

Consider the following two chemical equations:

A) glucose + fructose ® sucrose + H2O, DG = +27kJ/mole (or +6.5 kcal/mole)
B) glucose + fructose + ATP ® sucrose + ADP + Pi, DG = -5kJ/mole (or -1.2 kcal/mole)

The free energy change difference between the chemical equations (A) and (B) above is accomplished by:

a.
 a decrease in activation energy.
b.
 combining two endergonic reactions.
c.
 combining an endergonic and an exergonic reaction.
d.
 combining two exergonic reactions.
e.
 measuring the reaction rate.
 30.
The transfer of electrons from one compound to another is equivalent to _______________ transfer.
a.
 heat
b.
 oxygen
c.
 enzymatic
d.
 phosphorus
e.
 energy
 31.
____________ is a process where energy (as electrons) is released, whereas ____________ is a process where energy (as electrons) is accepted.
a.
 Reduction; oxidation
b.
 Enthalpy; entropy
c.
 Entropy; enthalpy
d.
 Oxidation; reduction
e.
 Anabolism; catabolism
 32.
XH2 + NAD+ ® X + NADH + H+. In the preceding equation, NAD+ is said to be:
a.
 an enzyme.
b.
 storing two hydrogen atoms.
c.
 reduced.
d.
 oxidized.
e.
 a catalyst.
 33.
Select the compound that contains the most energy:
a.
 AMP
b.
 ADP
c.
 ATP
d.
 P
e.
 Cannot determine using the information provided.
 34.
Select the phosphorylation reaction:
a.
 glucose + fructose ® sucrose + H2O
b.
 glucose + ATP ® glucose-P + ADP
c.
 glucose-P + fructose ® sucrose + Pi
d.
 glucose + glucose ® maltose
e.
 None of the reactions are phosphorylation reactions.
 35.
Select the hydrogen acceptor molecule that stores electrons in the process of photosynthesis:
a.
 nicotinamide adenine dinucleotide (NAD+)
b.
 nicotinamide adenine dinucleotide phosphate (NADP+)
c.
 flavin adenine dinucleotide (FAD)
d.
 adenine triphosphate (ATP)
e.
 adenine diphosphate (ADP)
 36.
Select the reduced molecule:
a.
 NAD+
b.
 FAD
c.
 NADH
d.
 H-
e.
 None of the molecules are reduced.
 37.
FAD and cytochromes are classified as:
a.
 hydrogen or electron acceptors.
b.
 phosphate oxidizers.
c.
 phosphate reducers.
d.
 proteins that donate hydrogens or electrons.
e.
 redox intermediate catalysts.
 38.
Enzymes are important biological catalysts because they:
a.
 supply the energy to initiate a biochemical reaction.
b.
 increase the free energy of a biochemical reaction.
c.
 lower the entropy of a biochemical reaction.
d.
 decrease the enthalpy of a biochemical reaction.
e.
 lower the activation energy of a biochemical reaction.
 39.
Because enzymes affect the speed of chemical reactions without being consumed, they are referred to as:
a.
 hydrogen acceptors.
b.
 activation energy.
c.
 catalysts.
d.
 cytochromes.
e.
 transformation proteins.
Figure 06-02
Use the figure below to answer the corresponding questions.

nar002-1.jpg
 40.
In Figure 06-02 the line on the graph labeled B represents the:
a.
 activation energy with an enzyme.
b.
 activation energy without an enzyme.
c.
 free energy of the reactants.
d.
 change in entropy.
e.
 change in enthalpy.
 41.
In Figure 06-02 the line on the graph labeled C represents the:
a.
 activation energy with an enzyme.
b.
 activation energy without an enzyme.
c.
 change in free energy.
d.
 change in entropy.
e.
 change in enthalpy.
 42.
Parts of the enzyme molecule that interact with a substrate are called:
a.
 cofactors.
b.
 active sites.
c.
 induced-fit models.
d.
 orientation sites.
e.
 reaction sites.
 43.
Hydrolases are one important class of enzyme that function to catalyze:
a.
 splitting a molecule using water.
b.
 conversions between isomers.
c.
 reactions in which double bonds are formed.
d.
 oxidation-reduction reactions.
e.
 None of the above.
 44.
Which of the following does not represent a method by which cells regulate enzyme activity?
a.
 controlling the intracellular concentration of the enzyme
b.
 feedback inhibition of enzymes
c.
 the binding of allosteric regulators to allosteric sites on the enzyme
d.
 differential gene expression of the genes that produce enzymes
e.
 heat denaturation of the enzyme
 45.
Competitive inhibitors inhibit biochemical reactions in such a way as to seemingly:
a.
 increase the concentration of substrate.
b.
 reduce the concentration of enzyme.
c.
 increase the concentration of enzyme.
d.
 reduce the concentration of substrate.
e.
 denature the enzyme.
 46.
Penicillin is a drug that acts by:
a.
 irreversibly inhibiting transpeptidase.
b.
 reversibly inhibiting transpeptidase.
c.
 competitively inhibiting transpeptidase.
d.
 noncompetitively inhibiting transpeptidase.
e.
 None of the above.
 47.
An allosteric enzyme:
a.
 has an active site that binds to the substrate and an allosteric site that binds to the product.
b.
 allows the movement of molecules and ions from one part of the cell to another.
c.
 catalyzes both oxidation and reduction reactions.
d.
 raises a reaction’s activation energy so that the rate of the reaction declines.
e.
 allows a substance other than the substrate to bind to the enzyme, thereby activating or inactivating it.
 48.
If one continues to increase the temperature in an enzyme-catalyzed reaction, the rate of the reaction:
a.
 does not change.
b.
 increases and then levels off.
c.
 decreases and then levels off.
d.
 increases and then decreases rapidly.
e.
 decreases and then increases rapidly.
 49.
Select the false statement regarding activation energy:
a.
 Exergonic reactions have an energy of activation.
b.
 Endergonic reactions have an energy of activation.
c.
 Enzymes lower a reaction’s activation energy.
d.
 Catalysts raise a reaction’s activation energy.
e.
 All of the statements are true.
 50.
The substance on which an enzyme acts:
a.
 substrate
b.
 product
c.
 ATP
d.
 free energy
e.
 None of the above.
 51.
Select the name of the concept of the binding of a substrate to the enzyme causing a change in the enzyme’s shape, facilitating an enzymes function.
a.
 active site
b.
 cofactor
c.
 activation energy
d.
 induced fit
e.
 None of the above.
 52.
Select the enzyme that does not match the substrate or reaction:
a.
 sucrase: splits sucrose into glucose and fructose.
b.
 lysozyme: breaks down bacterial cell walls.
c.
 pepsin: breaks peptide bonds.
d.
 trypsin: breaks peptide bonds.
e.
 All of the enzymes match the substrates or reactions.
 53.
The reaction rate an enzyme catalyzed chemical reaction would not likely be affected by:
a.
 pH
b.
 substrate concentration
c.
 temperature
d.
 Both A and B.
e.
 A, B, and C.
 54.
An organic, nonpolypeptide compound that binds to the apoenzyme and serves as a cofactor:
a.
 coenzyme
b.
 catalyst
c.
 substrate
d.
 mineral
e.
 pH
 55.
Cell respiration is most accurately described as a ______________ process.
a.
 anabolic
b.
 catabolic
c.
 metabolic
d.
 endergonic
e.
 fermentative
 56.
Select the anaerobic pathway:
a.
 aerobic respiration
b.
 citric acid cycle
c.
 electron transport chain
d.
 fermentation
e.
 None of the choices are anaerobic.
 57.
The transfer of electrons from glucose to oxygen during aerobic respiration takes place in a stepwise fashion through a number of intermediates rather than by direct transfer. This is because:
a.
 it is chemically impossible to transfer electrons directly from glucose to oxygen.
b.
 the chemical intermediates donate some of their electrons in order to increase the electron pool.
c.
 the energy of the electrons can be used to make ADP.
d.
 the energy of the electrons can be used to make ATP.
e.
 None of the above.
 58.
The splitting of molecules into smaller components is referred to as:
a.
 anabolism.
b.
 metabolism.
c.
 catabolism.
d.
 redox.
e.
 photosynthesis.
 59.
Anabolic reactions:
a.
 are generally endergonic.
b.
 usually require ATP.
c.
 are part of metabolism.
d.
 may produce polysaccarides from monosaccharides.
e.
 All of the above.
 60.
Aerobic respiration is classified as:
a.
 a synthesis reaction.
b.
 a hydrolysis reaction.
c.
 a redox process.
d.
 a polymerization reaction.
e.
 an anabolic process.
 61.
Aerobic respiration, anaerobic respiration, and fermentation:
a.
 are endergonic pathways.
b.
 release free energy.
c.
 require oxygen.
d.
 are also known as organismic respiration.
e.
 are anabolic pathways.
 62.
During chemiosmosis, ____________ are transferred from NADH and FADH2 to electron acceptor molecules, and the energy released is used to create a(an) ____________ gradient across the inner mitochondrial membrane.
a.
 protons; electron
b.
 electrons; proton
c.
 ATP molecules; ADP molecule
d.
 ADP molecules; ATP molecule
e.
 water molecules; oxygen
 63.
The overall reaction for the aerobic respiration of glucose is summarized as:
a.
 C6H12O6 + 6 O2 + 6 H2O ® 6 CO2 + 12 H2O + Energy.
b.
 C4H12O4 + 12 H2O + 6 CO2 ® 6 O2 + ATP + Energy.
c.
 C4H12O4 + 6 O2 + 6 H2O ® 6 CO2 + ATP + Energy.
d.
 C4H12O2 + 6 O2 + ATP ® 6 CO2 + 12 H2O + Energy.
e.
 C6H12O6 + 6 H2O ® 6 CO2 + 12 H2 + Energy.
 64.
In aerobic respiration, glucose is completely:
a.
 reduced to ATP.
b.
 reduced to energy.
c.
 oxidized to water.
d.
 oxidized to carbon dioxide.
e.
 oxidized and reduced simultaneously.
 65.
Which of the following is not one of the stages of the aerobic respiration of glucose?
a.
 glycolysis
b.
 formation of acetyl CoA
c.
 hydrolysis
d.
 citric acid cycle
e.
 electron transport
 66.
Which process does not match the products?
a.
 electron transport and chemiosmosis—ATP, H2O, NAD+, FAD
b.
 citric acid cycle—CO2, NADH, FADH2, ATP
c.
 formation of acetyl CoA—Acetyl CoA, CO2, NADH
d.
 glycolysis—pyruvate, ATP, NADH
e.
 All of the processes match the products.
 67.
Which process does not match the starting materials?
a.
 electron transport and chemiosmosis—NADH, FADH2, O2, ADP, Pi
b.
 glycolysis—glucose, ATP, NAD+, ADP, Pi
c.
 citric acid cycle—acetyl CoA, H2O, NAD+, FAD, ADP, Pi
d.
 formation of acetyl CoA—citric acid, CO2, NADH
e.
 All of the processes match the starting materials.
 68.
Which process does not match the location in skeletal muscle?
a.
 glycolysis—mitochondrian
b.
 formation of acetyl coenzyme A—mitochondrian
c.
 citric acid cycle—mitochondrian
d.
 electron transport and chemiosmosis—mitochondrian
e.
 All of the processes are matched to the correct location.
 69.
Decarboxylations:
a.
 occur as part of the citric acid cycle.
b.
 produce CO2 that is then exhaled via breathing.
c.
 involve the removal of a carboxyl group (-COOH) from a substrate.
d.
 are one type of general reaction that occurs during aerobic respiration.
e.
 All of the above.
 70.
In aerobic respiration, the electrons associated with the hydrogen atoms in glucose are transferred to:
a.
 carbon in a series of steps.
b.
 oxygen in a series of steps.
c.
 NADH in a series of steps.
d.
 the mitochondrial membranes.
e.
 hydrogen ions.
 71.
In eukaryotes, glycolysis occurs in the:
a.
 mitochondrial inner membrane.
b.
 lysosomes.
c.
 Golgi complex.
d.
 cytosol.
e.
 mitochondrial matrix.
 72.
In glycolysis, a six-carbon glucose molecule is converted to two three-carbon molecules of:
a.
 pyruvate.
b.
 acetate.
c.
 coenzyme A.
d.
 oxaloacetate.
e.
 citrate.
 73.
Substrate-level phosphorylation involves the transfer of a phosphate group from:
a.
 ATP.
b.
 ADP.
c.
 NADH.
d.
 1,3-bisphosphoglycerate.
e.
 glucose.
 74.
In glycolysis, fructose-1, 6-bisphosphate splits, forming two molecules of:
a.
 ADP.
b.
 citric acid.
c.
 G3P.
d.
 glucose.
e.
 acetyl CoA.
 75.
Glycolysis yields a net energy profit of _______ ATP molecules per molecule of glucose.
a.
 0
b.
 1
c.
 2
d.
 4
e.
 6
 76.
The chemical reaction illustrated in the figure is:

mc076-1.jpg

a.
 the first step in the citric acid cycle.
b.
 the energy producing step of glycolysis.
c.
 fermentation.
d.
 part of the electron transport chain.
e.
 None of the above.
 77.
In glycolysis, glucose receives two phosphate groups from ____________, thus forming fructose-1, 6-bisphosphate.
a.
 ADP
b.
 ATP
c.
 a bisphosphate group
d.
 fructose-1, 6-bisphosphate
e.
 G3P
 78.
NADH and FADH2 are the products of:
a.
 decarboxylation reactions.
b.
 reduction reactions.
c.
 glycolysis.
d.
 formation of acetyl coenzyme A.
e.
 chemiosmosis.
 79.
NADH is formed when NAD+ accepts:
a.
 a proton.
b.
 a hydrogen atom.
c.
 a pair of protons and an electron.
d.
 a proton and a pair of electrons.
e.
 two hydrogen atoms.
 80.
In chemiosmosis, ATP is produced as hydrogen ions (protons) pass through:
a.
 the outer mitochondrial membrane.
b.
 ATP synthase.
c.
 ATP dehydrogenase.
d.
 ATP decarboxylase.
e.
 a series of electron carriers.
 81.
Oxidative decarboxylation of two pyruvates yields:
a.
 two glucose molecules.
b.
 two ATP + four CO2 + two NADH.
c.
 two G3P.
d.
 two acetyl CoA + two CO2 + 2 NADH.
e.
 one fructose-1, 6-bisphosphate.
 82.
Considering only glycolysis and the conversion of pyruvate molecules to acetyl CoA molecules, how many NADH molecules will be produced from one glucose molecule?
a.
 one
b.
 two
c.
 three
d.
 four
e.
 five
 83.
During the citric acid cycle, each acetyl group entering the cycle yields:
a.
 1 ATP, 2 NADH, and 3 FADH2.
b.
 1 ATP, 3 NADH, and 1 FADH2.
c.
 3 ATP, 2 NADH, and 1 FADH2.
d.
 4 ATP, 2 NADH, and 1 FADH2.
e.
 1 ATP, 2 NADH, and 4 FADH2.
 84.
One product of the initial (first) reaction of the citric acid cycle is:
a.
 ATP.
b.
 NADH.
c.
 citrate.
d.
 oxaloacetate.
e.
 acetyl-CoA.
 85.
In the citric acid cycle, two acetyl CoA molecules are metabolized to:
a.
 2 CO2 + 2 ATPs + 2 NADH + 2 FADH.
b.
 4 CO2 + 6 NADH + 2 FADH2 + 2 ATP.
c.
 fructose-1, 6-bisphosphate.
d.
 glucose + 2 CO2 + 2 NADH + 2 FADH2 + 2 ATPs.
e.
 2 G3P.
 86.
Which of the following steps in the Kreb’s cycle directly produces a molecule of ATP (or GTP)?
a.
 citrate ® isocitrate
b.
 isocitrate ®·-ketoglutarate
c.
 succinyl CoA ® succinate
d.
 succinate ® fumarate
e.
 malate ® oxaloacetate
 87.
A glucose molecule that is metabolized via aerobic respiration has been completely broken down and released as CO2 by the end of:
a.
 fermentation.
b.
 the electron transport chain.
c.
 glycolysis.
d.
 ATP synthesis in the mitochondria.
e.
 the citric acid cycle.
 88.
Which of the following statements about the electron transport chain is true?
a.
 Protons are pumped out of the mitochondria by the complexes of the electron transport chain.
b.
 The proton gradient established during electron transport is a form of potential energy.
c.
 The electron transport chain can be found in the mitochondria of aerobic bacteria and other cells.
d.
 The movement of protons down a concentration gradient is an endergonic process.
e.
 ATP synthesis associated with the electron transport chain is an example of substrate level phosphorylation.
 89.
When hydrogen ions (protons) are pumped across the inner mitochondrial membrane, they form a proton gradient. ATP is then formed by a process known as:
a.
 glycolysis.
b.
 the citric acid cycle.
c.
 chemiosmosis.
d.
 pyruvate synthesis.
e.
 substrate-level phosphorylation.
 90.
Chemiosmosis allows exergonic redox processes to drive the endergonic reaction in which:
a.
 ADP is produced by dephosphorylation of ATP.
b.
 glucose is produced from phosphorylation of ADP.
c.
 G3P is produced from phosphorylation of ADP.
d.
 ATP is produced by phosphorylation of ADP.
e.
 pyruvate is converted to acetyl CoA.
 91.
Coenzyme Q:
a.
 transfers electrons.
b.
 oxidizes glucose.
c.
 is the ultimate source of energy in the citric acid cycle.
d.
 transfers phosphate to ATP.
e.
 reduces glucose.
 92.
The role of the oxygen molecules required for aerobic respiration is:
a.
 to accept the low energy electrons at the end of the electron transport chain.
b.
 to form ATP.
c.
 to produce CO2.
d.
 to store high energy electrons to pass to complex I of the electron transport chain.
e.
 to accept electrons directly from either NADH or FAHD2.
 93.
During aerobic respiration, oxygen is:
a.
 formed.
b.
 reduced.
c.
 oxidized.
d.
 catabolized.
e.
 decarboxylated.
 94.
In the skeletal muscle cells of vertebrates, as many as ____________ molecules of ATP are produced from one molecule of glucose. This is less than might be expected, because electrons from NADH produced during glycolysis must be shuttled through the ____________ mitochondrial membrane at a cost.
a.
 2; outer
b.
 2; inner
c.
 38; inner
d.
 6; outer
e.
 36; inner
 95.
Organismal body heat is a:
a.
 byproduct of endergonic reactions.
b.
 product of glucose synthesis.
c.
 byproduct of exergonic reactions.
d.
 product of anabolism.
e.
 product of ATP synthesis.
 96.
Select the processes that are matched with the incorrect amount of ATP produced by that process per glucose molecule.
a.
 glycolysis—2 ATP (net)
b.
 citric acid cycle—4 ATP
c.
 electron transport chain—32 ATP
d.
 alcohol fermentation—2 ATP
e.
 lactate fermentation—2 ATP
 97.
Select the incorrect match between the molecule and the amount of ATP produced if that particular molecule is completely oxidized in aerobic respiration:
a.
 FAD—2 ATP
b.
 NAD—2 ATP
c.
 glucose—36 to 38 ATP
d.
 pyruvic acid—34 to 36 ATP
e.
 All of the answer choices are correctly matched.
 98.
A drowning death would be most directly due to:
a.
 The unavailability of glucose to feed into glycolysis.
b.
 The accumulation of lactate in the muscle tissue due to anaerobic respiration.
c.
 The breakdown of pyruvate into ethyl alcohol.
d.
 The lack of oxygen to accept hydrogen.
e.
 There is not sufficient information to determine which answer is correct.
 99.
Select the statement that does not support the endosymbiosis theory:
a.
 Bacteria, mitochondria, and chloroplasts have circular DNA.
b.
 To produce ATP bacteria, cell membranes utilize an electron transport chain similar to mitochondrial membranes.
c.
 Mitochondria and chloroplasts reproduce independently of the eukaryotic cells that house them.
d.
 Bacteria, mitochondria, and chloroplasts all use glucose for fuel.
e.
 All of the statements support endosymbiosis.
 100.
Peter Mitchell demonstrated ATP production by aerobic bacteria by placing the bacteria in:
a.
 an acidic environment.
b.
 a basic environment.
c.
 an aqueous environment.
d.
 a buffered environment.
e.
 None of the answer choices are correct.
 101.
One gram of ____________ contains more than twice the amount of energy of a gram of glucose.
a.
 amino acids
b.
 lipids
c.
 ATP
d.
 protein
e.
 starch
 102.
Which of the following molecules can be used as a substrate for cellular respiration?
a.
 glucose
b.
 fats
c.
 proteins
d.
 polysaccharides
e.
 All of the above.
 103.
Deamination of amino acids in mammals yields amino groups that are converted to ____________, which is(are) excreted, and ____________, which is(are) converted to one of the reactants of glycolysis or the citric acid cycle.
a.
 urea; carbon chains
b.
 amino acids; ATP
c.
 amino groups; ADP
d.
 carbon chains; amino acids
e.
 amines; ATP
 104.
Saturated fatty acids store more energy than unsaturated fatty acids because saturated fatty acids:
a.
 are more highly reduced.
b.
 are deaminated.
c.
 lack phosphate.
d.
 contain more ester linkages.
e.
 contain more ATP.
 105.
Select the molecule that contains the most stored chemical energy:
a.
 ethyl alcohol.
b.
 water.
c.
 carbon dioxide.
d.
 lactate.
e.
 oxygen.
 106.
Which of the following processes or molecules concerning anaerobic respiration is not correctly matched?
a.
 terminal electron acceptor-inorganic substances such as O2.
b.
 immediate fate of electrons in NADH-transferred to electron transport chain.
c.
 reduced product(s) formed-relatively reduced inorganic substances.
d.
 mechanism of ATP synthesis-oxidative phosphorylation/chemiosmosis and substrate level phosphorylation.
e.
 All of the choices are correct.
 107.
Select the molecule that contains the least stored chemical energy:
a.
 ethyl alcohol.
b.
 pyruvate.
c.
 glucose.
d.
 lactate.
e.
 oxygen.
 108.
One important regulation point in the aerobic respiration of mammals occurs in glycolysis at the site of the enzyme phosphofructokinase, which is:
a.
 inhibited by high levels of ATP.
b.
 inhibited by low levels of ATP.
c.
 inhibited by high levels of AMP.
d.
 activated by the presence of O2.
e.
 activated by the introduction of glucose.
 109.
The production of alcohol or lactate from pyruvate during ____________ occurs as a means of regenerating ____________ from ____________.
a.
 aerobic respiration; NAD+; NADH
b.
 fermentation; NAD+; NADH
c.
 fermentation; NADH; NAD+
d.
 fermentation; ADP; ATP
e.
 aerobic respiration; ATP; ADP
 110.
The ability of some bacteria to produce lactate is exploited by humans to make:
a.
 cheese and ethyl alcohol.
b.
 insulin and antibodies.
c.
 yogurt and sauerkraut.
d.
 ethyl alcohol and carbonic acid.
e.
 carbon dioxide and water.
 111.
Which of the following statements is not correct about lactic acid fermentation?
a.
 It is inefficient compared to aerobic respiration.
b.
 It uses glucose as a substrate.
c.
 It produces two ATP molecules for every glucose molecule.
d.
 Oxygen is the final electron acceptor of this pathway.
e.
 Glycolysis is the only energy-yielding step of this pathway.
 112.
During fermentation, the immediate fate of the electrons in NADH is that they:
a.
 are transferred to the electron transport chain.
b.
 are transferred to an organic molecule.
c.
 are transferred to O2.
d.
 are used to make CO2.
e.
 are used to form H2O.
 113.
Which of the following metabolic pathways is common to all cells?
a.
 photosynthesis
b.
 electron transport chain
c.
 citric acid cycle
d.
 glycolysis
e.
 None of the above.
 114.
The process by which light energy is converted into the stored chemical energy of organic molecules is:
a.
 photosynthesis.
b.
 respiration.
c.
 diffusion.
d.
 fermentation.
e.
 None of the above.
 115.
Which term is not correctly matched with the appropriate energy source or carbon source?
a.
 heterotroph—organic energy sources
b.
 chemotroph—chemical energy sources
c.
 phototroph—light energy sources
d.
 autotroph—carbon fixation.
e.
 All of the choices are correct.
 116.
All organisms are classified into two general trophic groups. These two groups are:
a.
 organic and inorganic.
b.
 consumers and decomposers.
c.
 autotrophs and producers.
d.
 autotrophs and heterotrophs.
e.
 anaerobic autotrophs and aerobic autotrophs.
 117.
Animals, fungi, and many bacteria that use organic molecules as a source of both energy and carbon are:
a.
 photoautotrophs.
b.
 catabolic autotrophs.
c.
 chemoheterotrophs.
d.
 photoheterotrophs.
e.
 chemoautotrophs.
 118.
Plants, algae, and certain bacteria are:
a.
 inorganic synthesizers.
b.
 consumers.
c.
 chemosynthetic.
d.
 independent trophs.
e.
 producers.
 119.
What is the correct sequence of wavelengths (beginning with the shortest)?
a.
 gamma rays, UV, x-rays, infrared, visible light, TV and radio waves, and microwaves
b.
 TV and radio waves, microwaves, visible light, UV, infrared, x-rays, and gamma rays
c.
 microwaves, gamma rays, UV, visible light, infrared, TV, radio waves, and x-rays
d.
 gamma rays, x-rays, UV, visible light, infrared, microwaves, TV and radio waves
e.
 gamma rays, x-rays, UV, infrared, visible light, microwaves, and TV and radio waves
 120.
Light behaves not only as waves, but also as particles, which are referred to as:
a.
 electrons.
b.
 protons.
c.
 photons.
d.
 radiation.
e.
 neutrons.
 121.
An electron absorbs a photon of light energy and becomes energized; the electron shifts from a ____________ atomic orbital to a _____________ atomic orbital.
a.
 high energy; low energy
b.
 fluorescing; ground state
c.
 ground state; low energy
d.
 low energy; high energy
e.
 None of the answer choices are correct.
Figure 08-01
Use the figure below to answer the corresponding questions.

nar003-1.jpg
 122.
Chloroplasts will be found in the greatest density in the area of Figure 08-01 labeled:
a.
 1.
b.
 3.
c.
 4.
d.
 6.
e.
 7.
 123.
The primary function of the leaf structure labeled 5 in Figure 08-01 is:
a.
 food storage.
b.
 photosynthesis.
c.
 water transportation.
d.
 gas exchange.
e.
 nutrient absorption.
 124.
The overall reactions of photosynthesis are best summarized as:
a.
 12 CO2 + 6 H2O ® C6H12O6 + 12 O2 + 6 H2O.
b.
 C6H12O6 + 6 O2 + 6 H2O ® 6 CO2 + 12 H2O.
c.
 6 CO2 + 12 H2O ® C6H12O6 + 6 O2 + 6 H2O.
d.
 6 CO2 + 12 H2O ® C6H12O6 + 12 O2.
e.
 6 H2CO3 + 6 H2O ® C6H12O6 + C6H12O6 + 6 H2O + 6 O2.
 125.
The ____________________ of a chlorophyll molecule is (are) responsible for absorbing light.
a.
 carbon atoms
b.
 porphyrin ring
c.
 methyl group
d.
 magnesium ion
e.
 long hydrophobic tail
 126.
Chlorophyll consists of a porphyrin ring that contains a single atom of:
a.
 manganese.
b.
 magnesium.
c.
 phosphorus.
d.
 nitrogen.
e.
 iron.
 127.
Chlorophyll molecules are attached to thylakoid membranes by:
a.
 a long hydrophobic tail.
b.
 the porphyrin ring.
c.
 the methyl group.
d.
 a magnesium ion.
e.
 a hydroxide group.
 128.
Chlorophyll and accessory photosynthetic pigments are associated with the:
a.
 stroma.
b.
 thylakoid membranes.
c.
 mesophyll membranes.
d.
 light reaction centers of the stroma lamellae.
e.
 stroma grana.
 129.
The action spectrum of photosynthesis best matches the absorption spectrum of:
a.
 NADPH.
b.
 carotenoids.
c.
 chlorophyll.
d.
 xanthophylls.
e.
 anthocyanin.
 130.
Red and blue light support the highest rates of photosynthesis because:
a.
 these are the only wavelengths reaching Earth from the sun.
b.
 these are the only wavelengths that carotenoids cannot absorb.
c.
 these wavelengths have the highest energy in the visible spectrum.
d.
 chlorophyll absorbs these wavelengths more than other wavelengths.
e.
 these wavelengths activate the ATP sythetase enzyme.
 131.
Substances that absorb visible light:
a.
 ATP.
b.
 NADP.
c.
 RuBP.
d.
 pigment.
e.
 photon.
 132.
Chlorophyll absorbs primarily _____ and _____ regions of the visible spectrum.
a.
 blue; red
b.
 green; yellow
c.
 red; green
d.
 red; yellow
e.
 blue; yellow
 133.
The most important photosynthetic pigment(s) is(are):
a.
 carotenoids.
b.
 xanthophylls.
c.
 chlorophyll a.
d.
 chlorophyll b.
e.
 All are equally important for photosynthesis.
 134.
Accessory photosynthetic pigment that expands the spectrum of light that provides energy for photosynthesis:
a.
 carotenoids.
b.
 chlorophyll a.
c.
 chlorophyll b.
d.
 Both A and B.
e.
 Both A and C.
 135.
Engelmann concluded that chlorophyll in the chloroplasts is responsible for photosynthesis based on the following results:
a.
 Spirogyra cells each contain a long, spiral-shaped, emerald-green chloroplast embedded in the cytoplasm.
b.
 The action spectrum of photosynthesis matched the maximum production of oxygen by Spirogyra, observed by the greatest accumulation of bacteria in the blue and red regions of the spectrum.
c.
 Bacteria exposed to the action spectrum for photosynthesis showed no preference to any particular color of light.
d.
 Accessory pigments transfer some of the energy of excitation produced by green light to chlorophyll molecules.
e.
 None of the answer choices are correct.
Figure 08-02
Use the figure below to answer the corresponding questions.

nar004-1.jpg
 136.
According to the graph in Figure 08-02, chlorophyll absorbs light most strongly in the:
a.
 red and blue wavelengths.
b.
 blue and green wavelengths.
c.
 green and yellow wavelengths.
d.
 UV and red wavelengths.
e.
 UV and infrared wavelengths.
 137.
The graph in Figure 08-02 represents the:
a.
 electromagnetic spectrum.
b.
 action spectrum of photosynthesis.
c.
 absorption spectra for chlorophylls a and b.
d.
 Z scheme for photosynthesis.
e.
 None of the above.
 138.
During the reactions of photosynthesis, ____________ is reduced and ____________ is oxidized.
a.
 O2; C6H12O6
b.
 CO2; C6H12O6
c.
 H2O; C6H12O6
d.
 O2; H2O
e.
 CO2; H2O
 139.
In the overall reactions of photosynthesis, it appears that hydrogen atoms are transferred from water to carbon dioxide to form a carbohydrate. This type of reaction is classified as:
a.
 a redox reaction.
b.
 an anaerobic reaction.
c.
 a catabolic reaction.
d.
 an oxidation reaction.
e.
 a hydrolytic reaction.
 140.
A group of thylakoid discs make up:
a.
 the stroma.
b.
 a granum.
c.
 a chloroplast.
d.
 a vacuole.
e.
 the mesophyll layer.
 141.
In a chloroplast, there is an outer and an inner membrane. The inner membrane encloses a fluid filled region called the;
a.
 grana.
b.
 stroma.
c.
 thylakoid.
d.
 pigment.
e.
 electron acceptor.
 142.
Thylakoid sacs are sometimes arranged in stacks called:
a.
 grana.
b.
 stroma.
c.
 lumen.
d.
 pigment.
e.
 electron acceptor.
 143.
Thylakoid membranes are involved in __________ synthesis.
a.
 glucose
b.
 NADP
c.
 ATP
d.
 RuBP
e.
 PEP
 144.
Which of the following is not associated with the thylakoid membranes?
a.
 photosystems I and II
b.
 the Calvin-Bensen cycle
c.
 electron transport systems
d.
 ATP synthetase
e.
 antenna complex
 145.
The reactions of photosynthesis are divided into two categories:
a.
 light-independent reactions and carbon fixation reactions.
b.
 carbon fixation reactions and oxygen fixation reactions.
c.
 light-dependent reactions and carbon fixation reactions.
d.
 light-dependent reactions and citric acid cycle.
e.
 chemiosmosis and photochemical reactions.
 146.
During the light-dependent reactions of photosynthesis, a constant supply of electrons is provided by:
a.
 water.
b.
 oxygen.
c.
 the sun.
d.
 chlorophyll.
e.
 carotenoids.
 147.
ATP is formed when __________________ the thylakoid lumen.
a.
 hydrogen ions enter
b.
 hydrogen ions leave
c.
 electrons enter
d.
 electrons leave
e.
 water is split in
 148.
The reactions that occur in the thylakoid membranes are:
a.
 the energy-releasing reactions.
b.
 the photorespiration reactions.
c.
 the sugar-producing reactions.
d.
 the carbon fixation reactions.
e.
 the light-dependent reactions.
 149.
The electron transport chain of photosynthesis is located in:
a.
 the cristae.
b.
 the mitochondria.
c.
 the outer chloroplast membrane.
d.
 the chloroplast stroma.
e.
 the thylakoid membrane.
Figure 08-03
Use the figure below to answer the corresponding questions.

nar005-1.jpg
 150.
Carbon is fixed in which part of the diagram in Figure 08-03?
a.
 A
b.
 G
c.
 4
d.
 2
e.
 1
 151.
Where in Figure 08-03 is NADPH formed?
a.
 F
b.
 4
c.
 3
d.
 2
e.
 B
 152.
In photosynthesis, ATP and NADPH are produced during:
a.
 the carbon fixation reactions.
b.
 the light-dependent phase.
c.
 the light-independent phase.
d.
 glycolysis.
e.
 photolysis.
 153.
12 H2O + 12 NADP+ + 18 ADP + Pi ® 6 O2 + 12 NADPH + 18 ATP summarizes the ____________ reactions of photosynthesis.
a.
 carbon fixation
b.
 light-dependent
c.
 light-independent
d.
 CAM
e.
 electron transport
 154.
Reaction center complexes of the light-dependent reactions contain ____________ and ____________, which receive energy from ____________.
a.
 accessory pigments; chlorophyll; antenna complexes
b.
 carotenoids; proteins; chlorophyll
c.
 chlorophyll; antenna complexes; carotenoid
d.
 proteins; antenna complexes; carotenoid
e.
 chlorophyll; proteins; antenna complexes
 155.
How many electrons are needed to reduce one molecule of NADP+ to NADPH?
a.
 1
b.
 2
c.
 3
d.
 4
e.
 5
 156.
Electrons that are excited to a higher energy level may be transferred to an electron acceptor or may return to a ground state. If the latter occurs, energy will be released in a process known as:
a.
 photoelectron degradation.
b.
 fluorescence.
c.
 photoelectron hydrolysis.
d.
 porphyrin.
e.
 photoelectron deconfiguration.
 157.
The electrons lost by the P680 reactive center are replaced from:
a.
 a water molecule.
b.
 solar energy.
c.
 ATP.
d.
 NADP+.
e.
 Photosystem II.
 158.
Chlorophyll:
a.
 reflects red and blue light, and absorbs green light.
b.
 transmits red and blue light, and absorbs green light.
c.
 transmits red and blue light, and reflects green light.
d.
 absorbs red and blue light, and reflects green light.
e.
 absorbs red, blue, and green light.
 159.
The synthesis of ATP as a result of the light-dependent reactions of photosynthesis is an ____________ reaction that is coupled to the diffusion of ____________ down their concentration gradient.
a.
 endergonic; protons
b.
 energy-releasing; hydrogen ions
c.
 exergonic; electrons
d.
 energy-acquiring; electrons
e.
 oxidation; water
 160.
The synthesis of ATP during photosynthesis or respiration occurs as a result of:
a.
 phosphorylation of AMP.
b.
 phosphorylation of ATP.
c.
 phosphorylation of ADP.
d.
 phosphorylation of G3P.
e.
 oxidation of NADPH.
 161.
Ribulose phosphate is synthesized from:
a.
 NADP+.
b.
 pyruvate.
c.
 G3P.
d.
 RuBP.
e.
 CO2.
 162.
The first step in the Calvin-Bensen cycle is the attachment of carbon dioxide to:
a.
 Rubisco.
b.
 glyceraldehyde 3-phosphate (G3P).
c.
 phosphoglycerate
d.
 RuBP (ribulose bisphosphate).
e.
 None of the above.
 163.
Which of the following is not one of the intermediates or products of the carbon fixation reactions?
a.
 NADPH
b.
 phosphogylcerate (PGA)
c.
 glyceraldehyde 3-phosphate
d.
 glucose
e.
 ribulose bisphosphate
 164.
The reactants of the light-dependent reactions are:
a.
 H2O, ADP, and NADP+.
b.
 CO2, ADP, and NADP+.
c.
 H2O, ATP, and NADPH.
d.
 CO2, ADP, and NADPH.
e.
 H2O, CO2, and NADP+.
 165.
The reactants of the Calvin-Benson cycle are:
a.
 H2O, ATP, and NADPH.
b.
 CO2, ADP, and NADP+.
c.
 CO2, ATP, and NADPH.
d.
 H2O, ATP, and NADPH.
e.
 CO2, H2O, and ATP.
 166.
Noncyclic electron transport needs a constant supply of electrons. These are obtained from:
a.
 light.
b.
 CO2.
c.
 glucose.
d.
 H2O.
e.
 ATP.
 167.
Oxygen produced by photosynthesis comes directly from:
a.
 light.
b.
 CO2.
c.
 glucose.
d.
 H2O.
e.
 ATP.
 168.
Which of the following is not common to both photosynthesis and aerobic respiration?
a.
 ATP synthesis
b.
 electron transport chain
c.
 oxidation
d.
 terminal electron acceptor
e.
 None of the above, all are shared by both processes.
 169.
Which of the following is common to both photosynthesis and aerobic respiration?
a.
 NADP+ and NADPH
b.
 glycolysis
c.
 chemiosmosis
d.
 CO2 and O2 as end products
e.
 thylakoids
 170.
In C4 plants, reactions that fix CO2 into four-carbon compounds occur in:
a.
 guard cells.
b.
 epidermal cells.
c.
 bundle sheath cells.
d.
 mesophyll cells.
e.
 xylem cells.
 171.
The ______________ in leaves are typically closed at night and open during the daytime to allow for gas exchange.
a.
 stomata
b.
 epidermis
c.
 spongy mesophyll
d.
 grana
e.
 cuticles
 172.
At night, CAM plants incorporate CO2 into ____________, which is stored in the ____________ of their cells.
a.
 fructose; vacuoles
b.
 acetyl CoA; mitochondria
c.
 glucose; starch granules
d.
 pyruvate; starch granules
e.
 malate; vacuoles


Check Your Work     Start Over

Lights Out

%CODE1%

Lights Out!

Try to eliminate all the boxes to win. When you check a box, all the squares around it ( one above, one below, and one to each side) are selected. You  win whenever all boxes on the grid are selected! You can play at 5 levels of difficulty. Beware — this game is addictive so don’t forget to do your biology homework!!

 

 

level 1 level 2
level 3 level 4
level 5

 

  BACK

 

The JavaScript Source

Introduction to Plants Study Guide

%CODE1%

Javascript not enabled

Name: 

Introduction to Plants Quiz

 

 

Modified True/False
Indicate whether the statement is true or false.  If false, change the identified word or phrase to make the statement true.
 1.
Plants are multicellular prokaryotes. _________________________
 2.
The plant life cycle includes a diploid gamete and a haploid spore. _________________________
 3.
Mosses are most often found in dry environments. _________________________
 4.
Mosses and liverworts lack a vascular system for transporting water and nutrients. _________________________
 5.
Water must be present for fertilization to take place in mosses. _________________________
 6.
In mosses and liverworts, eggs are formed through mitosis in the antheridia. _________________________
 7.
Gametophytes of conifers are physically much larger than their sporophytes. _________________________
 8.
One important difference between mosses and ferns is that mosses have a vascular system. _________________________
 9.
Shoots, stems, and roots characterize the bodies of vascular plant sporophytes. _________________________
 10.
Ferns are characterized by fronds and fiddleheads. _________________________
 11.
Haploid fern spores are produced by gametophytes. _________________________
 12.
In ferns, a large sporophyte with leaves called fronds alternates with a heart-shaped gametophyte. _________________________
 13.
Ferns need water to reproduce because their sperm must swim to eggs. _________________________
 14.
Both mosses and ferns require a thin film of water for gametes to meet. _________________________
 15.
In both mosses and ferns, eggs are formed through mitosis in the antheridia. _________________________
 16.
Gymnosperm seeds are enclosed in a fruit. _________________________
 17.
Gametophytes of seed plants are large and easily viewed with the unaided eye. _________________________
 18.
Sexual reproduction in seed plants involves the transfer of pollen from the male reproductive structures of a plant to the female reproductive structures. _________________________
 19.
Seed plants cannot reproduce without a film of water for transferring of gametes. _________________________
 20.
A seed is a structure that contains a plant embryo. _________________________
 21.
A plant embryo is a new sporophyte. _________________________
 22.
In flowering plants, the embryos of monocots have two cotyledons. _________________________
 23.
Pollen is produced in the tip of the stamen, a structure called the sepal. _________________________
 24.
The lower portion of the pistil produces pollen. _________________________
 25.
Gametophytes develop within flowers. _________________________
 26.
Pollen tubes grow through the style toward the ovule. _________________________
 27.
Many seeds have appendages that aid in dispersal. _________________________
 28.
Asexual reproduction produces new plants that are genetically different from the parent plant. _________________________
 29.
Vegetative reproduction does require a plant to have flowers. _________________________
 30.
In vegetative reproduction, new plants may be generated from stems or roots. _________________________
 

Multiple Choice
Identify the choice that best completes the statement or answers the question.
 31.
The ancestors of today’s land plants were probably
a.
 brown algae.
c.
 green algae.
b.
 red algae.
d.
 lichens.
 32.
Among the challenges that faced early land plants were
a.
 eliminating excess water.
b.
 obtaining sunlight for photosynthesis.
c.
 absorbing minerals from the rocky surface.
d.
 avoiding being eaten by grazing mammals.
 33.
The waxy protective covering of a land plant is called a
a.
 cuticle.
c.
 rhizome.
b.
 capsule.
d.
 stoma.
 34.
Some land plants developed an internal system of interconnected tubes and vessels called
a.
 cuticles.
c.
 a circulatory system.
b.
 nonvascular canals.
d.
 vascular tissue.
 35.
sporophytes : spores ::
a.
 sporophytes : gametophytes
c.
 gametes : gametophytes
b.
 gametophytes : gametes
d.
 sporophytes : gametes
 36.
The diploid form in a plant’s life cycle is called the
a.
 sporophyte.
c.
 parental generation.
b.
 gametophyte.
d.
 alternate generation.
 37.
The haploid form in a plant’s life cycle is called the
a.
 sporophyte.
c.
 parental generation.
b.
 gametophyte.
d.
 alternate generation.
 38.
A haploid stage following a diploid stage in a plant’s life cycle is called
a.
 generational recycling.
c.
 alternating forms.
b.
 periodic gametogenesis.
d.
 alternation of generations.
 39.
In plants, haploid gametes are produced as a result of
a.
 fertilization.
c.
 encapsulation.
b.
 meiosis.
d.
 mitosis.
 40.
sporophytes : meiosis ::
a.
 sporophytes : spores
c.
 gametophytes : gametes
b.
 gametophytes : mitosis
d.
 sporophytes : gametes
 41.
Mosses, hornworts, and liverworts all possess
a.
 fibrous roots.
c.
 tap roots.
b.
 spore capsules.
d.
 green leaves.
 42.
In nonvascular plants, structures in which spores are produced are known as
a.
 meristems.
c.
 cones.
b.
 pollen grains.
d.
 sporangia.
 43.
Which of the following statements about moss spores is not true?
a.
 They are produced by the sporophyte.
b.
 They are dispersed and then germinate.
c.
 They are produced in a capsule-like top.
d.
 They are diploid.
 44.
The sporophyte generation in mosses produces spores by
a.
 meiosis.
c.
 sexual reproduction.
b.
 mitosis.
d.
 asexual reproduction.
 45.
The most noticeable form of a moss life cycle is the
a.
 sporophyte.
c.
 rhizoid.
b.
 gametophyte.
d.
 zygote.
 46.
In which of the following structures do seedless plants produce eggs?
a.
 antheridia
c.
 archegonia
b.
 capsules
d.
 cones
 47.
antheridia : sperm ::
a.
 rhizoids : gametes
c.
 archegonia : eggs
b.
 seeds : gametophytes
d.
 sperm : megaspores
 48.
Both mosses and ferns produce
a.
 seeds.
c.
 flowers.
b.
 fruit.
d.
 spores.
 49.
Fern sporophytes consist of rhizomes,
a.
 large leaves, and flowers.
c.
 pollen grains, and ovules.
b.
 cones, and stems.
d.
 roots, and fronds.
 50.
Unlike mosses, ferns possess
a.
 spore capsules.
c.
 antheridia.
b.
 archegonia.
d.
 vascular tissue.
 51.
Fiddleheads are produced by
a.
 whisk ferns.
c.
 ferns.
b.
 club mosses.
d.
 horsetails.
 52.
Both mosses and ferns produce gametes through
a.
 mitosis.
c.
 osmosis.
b.
 meiosis.
d.
 diffusion.
 53.
vascular plants : sporophytes ::
a.
 sporophytic plants : gametophytes
c.
 spores : gametes
b.
 gametes : sporophytes
d.
 nonvascular plants : gametophytes
The diagram below shows the plant life cycle.

nar001-1.jpg
 54.
Refer to the diagram above. At which point in the life cycle does fertilization take place?
a.
 1
c.
 3
b.
 2
d.
 4
 55.
Refer to the diagram above. The structures produced at 3 are called
a.
 sporangia.
c.
 spores.
b.
 archegonia.
d.
 antheridia.
 56.
Which of the following were the first land plants to evolve seeds?
a.
 angiosperms
c.
 mosses
b.
 gymnosperms
d.
 horsetails
 57.
liverworts, hornworts, and mosses : nonvascular plants ::
a.
 gymnosperms and angiosperms : bryophytes
b.
 ferns : mosses
c.
 gymnosperms and angiosperms : seed plants
d.
 bryophytes and liverworts : vascular plants
 58.
gymnosperms : naked seeds ::
a.
 pollen : mosses
c.
 liverwort : vascular tissue
b.
 liverwort : pollen
d.
 angiosperms : enclosed seeds
 59.
In seed plants, female gametophytes produce
a.
 sperm.
c.
 cells.
b.
 eggs.
d.
 spores.
 60.
A male gametophyte of a seed plant develops into a
a.
 pollen grain.
c.
 pollen tube.
b.
 spore capsule.
d.
 seed coat.
 61.
The partially developed plant found in seeds is known as a(n)
a.
 gametophyte.
c.
 embryo.
b.
 spore capsule.
d.
 sporophyte.
 62.
A typical seed contains all of the following except a(n)
a.
 seed coat.
c.
 embryo.
b.
 nutritious tissue.
d.
 spore case.
 63.
The tallest trees in the world are a species of
a.
 conifers.
c.
 liverworts.
b.
 dicots.
d.
 angiosperms.
 64.
The process of transferring pollen from a male cone to a female cone in gymnosperms is called
a.
 fertilization.
c.
 pollination.
b.
 seed formation.
d.
 asexual reproduction.
 65.
In conifers, the diploid condition is resumed following
a.
 pollination.
c.
 respiration.
b.
 fertilization.
d.
 sporulation.
 66.
The seeds of monocots have
a.
 one embryo and two cotyledons.
c.
 one embryo and one cotyledon.
b.
 two embryos and two cotyledons.
d.
 two embryos and one cotyledon.
 67.
Flowering plants are classified as monocots or dicots according to the number of their
a.
 leaves.
c.
 meristems.
b.
 flowers.
d.
 cotyledons.
 68.
Monocots and dicots are subdivisions of
a.
 angiosperms.
c.
 ferns.
b.
 gymnosperms.
d.
 mosses.
nar002-1.jpg
 69.
Refer to the diagram above. The structure labeled f
a.
 supports the anther.
c.
 supports the pistil.
b.
 produces pollen.
d.
 develops into a fruit.
 70.
Refer to the diagram above. The structure labeled c
a.
 produces pollen.
b.
 contains sperm cells.
c.
 is the area where pollen lands and sticks.
d.
 contains meristematic tissue.
 71.
Removing a flower’s stigma would initially affect
a.
 fertilization.
c.
 pollination.
b.
 seed production.
d.
 seed dispersal.
 72.
Pollen is produced in a structure called the
a.
 anther.
c.
 ovary.
b.
 stigma.
d.
 pistil.
 73.
In angiosperms, immediately following pollination,
a.
 the seed develops.
c.
 fertilization occurs.
b.
 an egg cell is formed.
d.
 the pollen tube begins to form.
 74.
During fertilization in flowering plants, one sperm fuses with an egg to form an embryo, and another fuses with two nuclei to form nutritive tissue. This event is called
a.
 self-pollination.
c.
 maximization.
b.
 adaptation.
d.
 double fertilization.
 75.
fruit : mature ovary
a.
 gametophyte : sporophyte
c.
 cotyledon : food reserve
b.
 gymnosperm : angiosperm
d.
 vascular plant : nonvascular plant
 76.
If a plant’s flowers are very colorful and produce nectar, the plant is probably pollinated by
a.
 water.
c.
 insects.
b.
 wind.
d.
 self-pollination.
 77.
One way that flowers produced by angiosperms help ensure the transfer of gametes is by
a.
 traveling in the air currents.
b.
 bursting open and projecting gametes onto the landscape.
c.
 attracting animals that carry pollen from one flower to another.
d.
 producing tasty fruits that animals depend on for food.
 78.
What function do all fruits produced by angiosperms perform?
a.
 produce nutrients for the plant
b.
 nourish the embryos
c.
 disperse the seeds
d.
 ensure pollination
 79.
Which structure allows plants to reproduce asexually?
a.
 tuber
c.
 archegonium
b.
 flower
d.
 antheridium
 80.
The production of offspring genetically identical to the parent plant is the result of
a.
 sexual reproduction.
c.
 alternation of generations.
b.
 asexual reproduction.
d.
 double fertilization.
 

Completion
Complete each statement.
 81.
The surface of a vascular plant is covered by a waxy, waterproof layer called a(n) ____________________.
 82.
One of the first environmental challenges that early land plants had to overcome was developing a way to conserve ____________________.
 83.
The sporophyte generation produces spores by the process of ____________________.
 84.
The haploid form of a plant is known as the ____________________ generation.
 85.
Nonvascular plants transport materials within their bodies through the process of ____________________.
 86.
A green, hornlike sporophyte growing upward from the gametophyte is typical of plants known as ____________________.
 87.
In mosses and liverworts, the ____________________ generation is the dominant generation.
 88.
The very tiny liverwort ____________________ grow from the archegonia under the caps of female stalks.
 89.
The gametophytes of ____________________ plants are larger and more noticeable than the sporophytes.
 90.
The seedless plants produce sperm within the ____________________.
 91.
True roots, stems, and leaves are associated with ____________________ plants.
 92.
A fern is an example of a(n) ____________________ vascular plant.
 93.
Both mosses and ferns produce eggs within structures called ____________________.
 94.
Like the nonvascular plants, the seedless vascular plants can reproduce sexually only when a film of ____________________ covers the gametophyte.
 95.
Unlike mosses, ferns have sporophytes that are much ____________________ than their gametophytes.
 96.
Seed plants whose seeds do not develop within a sealed container (fruit) are called ____________________.
 97.
Fruit is a characteristic associated only with the flowering plants, or ____________________.
 98.
A male gametophyte of a seed plant develops into a(n) ____________________.
 99.
The ____________________ is the protective cover that surrounds a seed.
 100.
The seed coat prevents the embryo from drying out, from mechanical injury, and from ____________________.
 101.
A(n) ____________________ is a specialized structure that develops from an ovule and serves to protect a plant embryo from harsh conditions.
 102.
The four major groups of gymnosperms are gnetophytes, cycads, ginkgoes, and ____________________.
 103.
A mature pine tree produces both male and female ____________________.
 104.
Gymnosperms are pollinated by ____________________, which makes sexual reproduction possible even during dry conditions.
 105.
The life cycle of a conifer is characterized by a large ____________________ generation.
 106.
In conifers, seeds form on the ____________________ of cones.
 107.
A plant that has flower parts that occur in fours or fives or multiples of four or five is a member of a subgroup called a(n) ____________________.
nar002-1.jpg
 108.
Refer to the diagram above. The structure labeled f is called the ____________________.
 109.
Refer to the diagram above. The structure labeled b is called the ____________________.
 110.
Refer to the diagram above. A flower like this one has all four basic flower parts and thus is an example of a(n) ____________________ flower.
 111.
The transfer of pollen grains from an anther to a stigma is known as ____________________.
 112.
In angiosperms, seeds develop from the ____________________ inside a(n) ____________________ after an egg has been fertilized.
 113.
The event in which one sperm fertilizes an egg and a second sperm fuses with two nuclei is called _________________________.
 114.
A flower is a(n) ____________________ structure that produces pollen and seeds.
 115.
Flowers are a source of ____________________ for pollinators.
 116.
The seeds of angiosperms are enclosed in ____________________.
 117.
Because flowering plants are rooted in the ground and cannot move from place to place, they must disperse their ____________________ so that their offspring can grow in new environments.
 118.
Many fruits are spread by ____________________ that are attracted to sweet, fleshy fruits, which they use for food.
 119.
Many of the structures by which plants reproduce vegetatively are modified ____________________.
 120.
Bulbs, stolons, and tubers are examples of modified stems that allow plants to reproduce ____________________.

 
Check Your Work     Start Over

Nucleic Acids and Genetics Study Guide

Javascript not enabled

Name: 

 

Nucleic Acids and Genetics Study Guide

 

 

Multiple Choice
Identify the choice that best completes the statement or answers the question.
 1.
Mendel verified true-breeding pea plants for certain traits before undertaking his experiments. The term "true-breeding" refers to:
a.
 genetically pure lines.
b.
 organisms that have a high rate of reproduction.
c.
 organisms that will produce identical copies of themselves upon reproduction.
d.
 organisms that are heterozygous for a given trait.
e.
 organisms that are homozygous for all possible traits.
 2.
Mating a true-breeding pink rose plant with a true-breeding pink rose plant will produce:
a.
 plants with pink, red, and white roses.
b.
 only plants with pink roses.
c.
 plants with red or white roses in a 3:1 ratio.
d.
 plants with white or red roses in a 3:1 ratio.
e.
 None of the above.
 3.
The term "dominant" means that:
a.
 both alleles can be expressed in a hybrid.
b.
 all members of the F2 generation of a hybrid cross exhibit the dominant phenotype.
c.
 one allele can mask the expression of another in a hybrid.
d.
 the dominant phenotype shows up in 100% of the offspring in all generations.
e.
 the dominant phenotype is more beneficial than the recessive phenotype.
 4.
Mendel's principle of segregation states that:
a.
 alleles from one parent mask the expression of alleles from the other parent.
b.
 alleles separate from each other before forming gametes.
c.
 hybrids will express a phenotype intermediate between the two parental phenotypes.
d.
 true-breeding parents produce offspring of the same phenotype.
e.
 different loci separate from each other.
 5.
A pear plant with the genotype Aa can produce gametes containing:
a.
 either A or Aa.
b.
 only the dominant A.
c.
 only the recessive a.
d.
 either A or a.
e.
 either AA, Aa or aa.
 6.
The physical appearance of an organism for a given trait is termed:
a.
 genetics.
b.
 dominance.
c.
 synapsis.
d.
 genotype.
e.
 phenotype.
 7.
The physical location of a particular gene on a chromosome is called:
a.
 an allele.
b.
 a locus.
c.
 a trait.
d.
 a chromatid.
e.
 None of the above.
 8.
____________ are alternative forms of a gene that govern the same feature, such as eye color, and occupy corresponding positions on homologous chromosomes.
a.
 Alleles
b.
 Loci
c.
 Homozygotes
d.
 Coupled traits
e.
 None of the above.
 9.
Using standard conventions for naming alleles, which of the following pairs is correct?
a.
 Tt—recessive phenotype
b.
 TT—heterozygous
c.
 tt—homozygous
d.
 tt—dominant phenotype
e.
 All of the above.
 10.
The separation of alleles of a gene takes place during:
a.
 anaphase of mitosis.
b.
 cytokinesis of mitosis.
c.
 anaphase I of meiosis.
d.
 telophase II of meiosis.
e.
 cytokinesis of meiosis.
 11.
Which of the following represents the possible genotype(s) resulting from a cross between an individual homozygous (BB) and one heterozygous (Bb) individual?
a.
 BB and Bb
b.
 BB, Bb, and bb
c.
 BB only
d.
 Bb only
e.
 bb only
 12.
Which of the following represents the possible genotype(s) resulting from a cross between two individuals that are heterozygous (Bb)?
a.
 BB and Bb
b.
 BB, Bb, and bb
c.
 BB only
d.
 Bb only
e.
 bb only
 13.
Which of the following represents the possible genotype(s) resulting from a cross between an individual heterozygous (Bb) and one that is homozygous (bb)?
a.
 BB and Bb
b.
 Bb, and bb
c.
 BB only
d.
 Bb only
e.
 bb only
 14.
Mating an individual expressing a dominant phenotype, but whose genotype is unknown, with an individual expressing the corresponding recessive phenotype is an example of:
a.
 a heterozygous cross.
b.
 an F1 cross.
c.
 an F2 cross.
d.
 a parental cross.
e.
 a test cross.
 15.
The genotype for a pea plant that is homozygous recessive for both height and pea color would be:
a.
 tt.
b.
 YY.
c.
 TtYy.
d.
 ttyy.
e.
 TTYY.
 16.
In peas, Mendel found that tall plants and yellow peas are dominant. The phenotype for a pea plant with the genotype TTyy would be:
a.
 heterozygous.
b.
 Ty.
c.
 short with yellow peas.
d.
 tall with green peas.
e.
 tall with yellow peas.
 17.
In peas, Mendel found that tall plants and yellow peas are dominant. The phenotype for a pea plant with the genotype TtYy would be:
a.
 heterozygous.
b.
 Ty.
c.
 short with yellow peas.
d.
 tall with green peas.
e.
 tall with yellow peas.
 18.
The height of pea plants from a cross between parent plants heterozygous for height, in which tall is dominant, would be:
a.
 all short.
b.
 all tall.
c.
 1 tall : 3 short.
d.
 2 short : 2 tall.
e.
 3 tall : 1 short.
 19.
Which of the following represents the possible genotype(s) resulting from a cross between an individual homozygous for black hair (BB) and an individual homozygous for blonde hair (bb)?
a.
 BB and Bb
b.
 BB, Bb, and bb
c.
 BB only
d.
 Bb only
e.
 bb only
 20.
What is the probability that two lizards that are heterozygous for stripes on their tails (Ss) will produce an offspring that is homozygous for no stripes (ss)?
a.
 1
b.
 1/2
c.
 1/4
d.
 1/8
e.
 0
 21.
In humans, assume that brown eyes is dominant and blue eyes is recessive. If two brown-eyed individuals have a child with blue eyes, that means:
a.
 both parents are homozygous for brown eyes.
b.
 both parents are heterozygous for eye color.
c.
 there is a 1/4 chance that their second child will have brown eyes.
d.
 there is a 50/50 chance that their second child will have blue eyes.
e.
 None of the above.
 22.
If a couple is planning on having two children, what is the probability that both will be male?
a.
 0
b.
 1/4
c.
 1/2
d.
 3/4
e.
 1
 23.
If a couple is planning on having three children, what is the probability that only one will be male?
a.
 0
b.
 1/4
c.
 3/8
d.
 1/2
e.
 3/4
 24.
A brown-eyed couple already has a child with blue eyes. What is the probability that their next child will have blue eyes, assuming that brown eyes is dominant and blue eyes is recessive?
a.
 0
b.
 1/4
c.
 1/2
d.
 3/4
e.
 1
 25.
A couple has already had 3 girls with cystic fibrosis, and were hoping to have a normal child for their fourth. What are the chances that the fourth child will be a normal male?
a.
 0
b.
 1/8
c.
 1/4
d.
 3/8
e.
 1/2
 26.
A brown-eyed couple heterozygous for eye color are planning on having two children. What is the probability that both children will have blue eyes, assuming brown eyes is dominant and blue eyes is recessive?
a.
 0
b.
 1/32
c.
 1/16
d.
 1/4
e.
 1/2
 27.
Two Martians fall in love and marry. One Martian is homozygous for red eyes and the other is heterozygous. The recessive eye color is purple. What is the probability that they will have a child with purple eyes?
a.
 1/1
b.
 1/2
c.
 1/4
d.
 3/4
e.
 0
 28.
Two Martians fall in love and marry. One Martian is homozygous for red eyes and the other is heterozygous. The recessive eye color is purple. What are the chances that the alien couple will have a child with red eyes?
a.
 1
b.
 1/2
c.
 1/4
d.
 3/4
e.
 0
 29.
Two Martians fall in love and marry. One Martian is homozygous for red eyes and the other is heterozygous. The recessive eye color is purple. What is the probability that the alien couple will have a child that is heterozygous for eye color?
a.
 1
b.
 1/2
c.
 1/4
d.
 3/4
e.
 0
 30.
The principle of independent assortment is not true for:
a.
 incomplete dominance.
b.
 mutations.
c.
 heterozygotes.
d.
 homozygotes.
e.
 X-linked genes.
 31.
The probability that two genes will be separated by crossing-over is related to:
a.
 the phenotype that they control.
b.
 how far the two genes are from the centromere.
c.
 the distance between the two genes on the chromosome.
d.
 whether the two genes are located on a sex chromosome.
e.
 how far the genes are from the kinetochore.
 32.
Genes that tend to be inherited together are said to be:
a.
 associated.
b.
 related.
c.
 similar.
d.
 linked.
e.
 alleles.
 33.
A ______________ is best used to demonstrate the linkage of two genes.
a.
 monohybrid cross
b.
 dihybrid cross
c.
 monohybrid test cross
d.
 two-allele test cross
e.
 two-point test cross
 34.
In genetics, map units express the distance between:
a.
 chromosomes during metaphase.
b.
 two loci on a chromosome.
c.
 alleles.
d.
 polar bodies.
e.
 homologous chromosomes.
 35.
In a two-point test cross, 36 of the offspring were recombinant types. The remaining 64 offspring were parental types. How many map units separate the two loci?
a.
 28
b.
 36
c.
 64
d.
 78
e.
 100
 36.
The sex of most mammals, birds, and insects is determined by:
a.
 the temperature.
b.
 the environment.
c.
 sex chromosomes.
d.
 chance.
e.
 None of the above.
 37.
The sex of a human is determined by:
a.
 the number of chromosomes.
b.
 the number of autosomes.
c.
 the presence of only one X chromosome.
d.
 the number of sex chromosomes.
e.
 the presence of Y chromosome.
 38.
The offspring of two heterozygous gray-bodied, normal-winged flies should be 50% gray-bodied/normal wings (BbRr) and 50% black-bodied/vestigial wings (bbrr) because these alleles are linked. If a small number, say 15%, of the offspring are instead black-bodied with normal wings, this is most likely the result of:
a.
 crossing-over.
b.
 incomplete dominance.
c.
 codominance.
d.
 an error in meiosis.
e.
 mutation.
 39.
An organism with the genotype of AaXx can produce gametes containing _________ if the two genes are unlinked.
a.
 either Aa or Xx
b.
 either AX, Ax, aX, ax
c.
 AaXx
d.
 AX or ax
e.
 None of the above.
 40.
A lizard with a striped tail is crossed with one having a spotted head, producing normal looking (no stripes or spots) lizard progeny. What progeny would be expected to be produced by mating these progeny with each other, if the genes conferring stripes and spots were on different chromosomes?
a.
 equal numbers of normal, striped, spotted and striped and spotted
b.
 3 striped : 1 spotted
c.
 9 striped and spotted : 3 spotted : 3 striped : 1 normal
d.
 9 striped : 3 spotted : 1 striped or spotted
e.
 9 normal : 3 striped : 3 spotted : 1 striped and spotted
 41.
A lizard with striped tails is crossed with one having a spotted head, producing normal looking (no stripes or spots) progeny. What progeny would be expected to be produced by mating one of these lizards with another that had a striped tail and spotted head, if the genes conferring stripes and spots were close together on the same chromosome?
a.
 equal numbers of normal, striped, spotted and striped and spotted
b.
 3 striped : 1 spotted
c.
 mostly progeny that are striped or spotted
d.
 mostly progeny that are normal or striped and spotted
e.
 9 normal : 3 striped : 3 spotted : 1 striped and spotted
 42.
Why is color-blindness more common in males than in females?
a.
 Because females would have to receive two copies of the recessive color blindness gene to actually express the trait.
b.
 Because a male only needs to receive the recessive gene from his mother to be color-blind.
c.
 Because color-blindness is an X-linked trait.
d.
 All of the above.
e.
 None of the above.
 43.

What are the possible phenotypes of the children if the mother has Type A blood and the father has type AB blood? (Use the Punnett square to verify your answer.)

 

a.
 all AB
b.
 A, B
c.
 A, AB
d.
 A, B, AB
e.
 A, B, O
 44.

What are the possible phenotypes of the children if the mother's genotype is IAi for blood type and the father is IBi? (Use the Punnett square to verify your answer.)

 

a.
 all AB
b.
 A, B
c.
 A, AB
d.
 A, B, O
e.
 A, B, AB, O
 45.

What are the predicted phenotypes of the male children from the union of a woman who is heterozygous for hemophilia and a man who has normal blood clotting characteristics? (Use the Punnett square to verify your answer.)

 

a.
 all normal
b.
 3 normal : 1 hemophilia
c.
 1 hemophilia : 1 normal
d.
 1 hemophilia : 3 normal
e.
 all hemophiliacs
 46.

What are the predicted phenotypes of the female children from the union of a woman who is heterozygous for hemophilia and a man who has normal blood clotting characteristics? (Use the Punnett square to verify your answer.)

 

a.
 all carriers
b.
 3 homozygous normal : 1 carrier
c.
 1 homozygous normal : 1 carrier
d.
 1 hemophilia: 2 homozygous normal : 1 carrier
e.
 all hemophiliacs
 47.
What are the possible genotypes of a female child from the union of a woman who is heterozygous for hemophilia and a man who has normal blood clotting characteristics?
a.
 XHXH or XHXh
b.
 XHXh
c.
 XHYH
d.
 Hh
e.
 HH
 48.
A Barr body in a mammalian female cell represents:
a.
 an inactivated oocyte.
b.
 a polar body.
c.
 a degenerate nucleus.
d.
 an inactivated X chromosome.
e.
 an inactivated Y chromosome.
 49.
Calico cats are never male because:
a.
 recessive genes are not usually expressed on their X chromosome.
b.
 male hormones prevent expression of the calico phenotype.
c.
 two different X chromosomes are needed for the expression of the calico phenotype.
d.
 two different Y chromosomes are needed for the expression of the calico phenotype.
e.
 one X chromosome and one Y chromosome are needed for the expression of the calico phenotype.
 50.
A diploid individual has a maximum of ____________ different alleles for a particular locus.
a.
 one
b.
 two
c.
 three
d.
 four
e.
 more than four
 51.
A particular gene that controls seed coat color in peas also determines the susceptibility of these peas to a particular disease. This situation is referred to as:
a.
 variegation.
b.
 additive dominance.
c.
 codominance.
d.
 pleiotropy.
e.
 incomplete dominance.
 52.
When certain medium height hybrid plants were crossed, they produced offspring that were dwarf, medium, and tall in a ratio of 1 : 2 : 1. This is an example of:
a.
 variegation.
b.
 hybrid vigor.
c.
 incomplete dominance.
d.
 epistasis.
e.
 a polygenic trait.
 53.
Breeding a yellow dog with a brown dog produced puppies with both yellow and brown hairs intermixed. This is an example of:
a.
 variegation.
b.
 codominance.
c.
 incomplete dominance.
d.
 epistasis.
e.
 a polygenic trait.
 54.
A gene that affects, prevents, or masks the expression of a gene at another locus is a(n) _________ gene.
a.
 recessive
b.
 dominant
c.
 epistatic
d.
 codominant
e.
 plieotropic
 55.
The range of phenotypic possibilities that can develop from a certain dog genotype under different environmental conditions is called the:
a.
 epistatic interaction.
b.
 norm of reaction.
c.
 nurture limit.
d.
 genotype range.
e.
 maximum phenotype.
 56.
________________________ refers to multiple independent pairs of genes having similar and additive effects on the same characteristic.
a.
 Codominance
b.
 Epistasis
c.
 Polygenic inheritance
d.
 Complete dominance
e.
 Additive dominance
 57.
In the experiments of Griffith, the conversion of non-lethal R-strain bacteria to lethal S-strain bacteria:
a.
 was the result of genetic mutation.
b.
 was an example of the genetic exchange known as transformation.
c.
 supported the case for proteins as the genetic material.
d.
 could not be reproduced by other researchers.
e.
 was an example of conjugation.
 58.
The first experimenters to use Griffith's transformation assay to identify the genetic material were:
a.
 Meselson and Stahl.
b.
 Watson and Crick.
c.
 Franklin and Wilkins.
d.
 Avery, MacLeod, and McCarty.
e.
 Hershey and Chase.
 59.
The bacteriophages used in Alfred Hershey's and Martha Chase's experiments showed that:
a.
 DNA was injected into bacteria.
b.
 DNA and protein were injected into bacteria.
c.
 DNA remained on the outer coat of bacteria.
d.
 proteins were injected into bacteria.
e.
 proteins were responsible for the production of new viruses within the bacteria.
 60.
The main reason scientists thought that proteins, rather than DNA, were the carriers of genetic material in the cell was:
a.
 their presence within the nucleus.
b.
 their abundance within the cell.
c.
 the large number of possible amino acid combinations.
d.
 their ability to self replicate within the cytoplasm.
e.
 their ability to be exported from the cell.
 61.
Which of the following statements about DNA is false?
a.
 DNA is capable of forming many different sequences.
b.
 DNA contains thymine instead of uracil.
c.
 DNA is double-stranded rather than single-stranded.
d.
 DNA is only found in eukaryotic cells.
e.
 DNA contains the sugar deoxyribose.
 62.
The information carried by DNA is incorporated in a code specified by the:
a.
 phosphodiester bonds of the DNA strand.
b.
 number of separate strands of DNA.
c.
 size of a particular chromosome.
d.
 specific nucleotide sequence of the DNA molecule.
e.
 number of bases in a DNA strand.
 63.
X-ray diffraction studies are used to determine:
a.
 the sequence of amino acids in protein molecules.
b.
 the sequence of nucleic acids in nucleic acid molecules.
c.
 the distances between atoms of molecules.
d.
 the type of chemical under investigation.
e.
 the wavelength of light emitted by chemicals.
 64.
The two molecules that alternate to form the backbone of a polynucleotide chain are:
a.
 adenine and thymine.
b.
 cytosine and guanine.
c.
 sugar and phosphate.
d.
 base and sugar.
e.
 base and phosphate.
 65.
______________________ used x-ray diffraction to provide images of DNA.
a.
 Watson and Crick
b.
 Crick and Wilkins
c.
 Franklin
d.
 Franklin and Crick
e.
 Watson and Wilkins
 66.
______________________ determined the structure of the molecule DNA.
a.
 Crick and Wilkins
b.
 Watson and Crick
c.
 Franklin and Crick
d.
 Franklin
e.
 Watson, Crick, and Wilkins
 67.
Chargaff determined that DNA from any source contains about the same amount of guanine as __________.
a.
 uracil
b.
 thymine
c.
 adenine
d.
 cytosine
e.
 guanine
 68.
X-ray crystallography showed that DNA:
a.
 had the bases in the center of the molecule.
b.
 had the sugars and phosphates on the outside of the molecule.
c.
 was a very long molecule.
d.
 was made of 2 strands.
e.
 was a helix.
 69.
Why is DNA able to store large amounts of information?
a.
 It contains a large number of different nucleotides.
b.
 Its nucleotides can be arranged in a large number of possible sequences.
c.
 It is capable of assuming a wide variety of shapes.
d.
 The sugar and phosphates can be arranged in many different sequences.
e.
 The nucleotides can be altered to form many different letters in the sequence.
 70.
In DNA, the genetic information:
a.
 is contained in each strand.
b.
 is contained in only one of the strands.
c.
 is contained in both strands together.
d.
 is contained in the differences between the 2 strands.
e.
 None of the above.
 71.
Two chains of DNA must run in ____________ direction(s) and must be ____________ if they are to bond with each other.
a.
 the same; uncomplementary
b.
 opposite; uncomplementary
c.
 parallel; uncomplementary
d.
 parallel; complementary
e.
 antiparallel; complementary
 72.
Hydrogen bonds can form between guanine and ____________, and between adenine and ____________.
a.
 phosphate; sugar
b.
 thymine; cytosine
c.
 cytosine; thymine
d.
 sugar; phosphate
e.
 adenine; guanine
Figure 11-01
Use the figure below to answer the corresponding questions.nar001-1.jpg
 73.
The portion of the molecule in box 5 of Figure 11-01 is:
a.
 a hydrogen bond.
b.
 a phosphate.
c.
 a nucleotide.
d.
 a pyrimidine.
e.
 a protein.
 74.
In Figure 11-01, the portion of the molecule in box _________ is a pyrimidine.
a.
 1
b.
 3
c.
 4
d.
 1 and 3
e.
 3 and 4
 75.
The portion of the molecule in box 3 of Figure 11-01 is:
a.
 a sugar.
b.
 a protein.
c.
 a pyrimidine.
d.
 a purine.
e.
 a nucleotide.
 76.
Which of the following nucleotide sequences represents the complement to the DNA strand 5´ - AGATCCG- 3´?
a.
 5´ – AGATCCG- 3´
b.
 3´ – AGATCCG- 5´
c.
 5´ – CTCGAAT- 3´
d.
 3´ – CTCGAAT- 5´
e.
 3´ – TCTAGGC- 5´
 77.
How is a single strand of DNA able to serve as a template for the synthesis of another strand?
a.
 Nucleotides pair with those of the original strand to form a new strand.
b.
 Hydrogen bonds holding the two strands together are easy to break, allowing one strand to be a template.
c.
 A single strand of DNA is not able to serve as a template.
d.
 One strand of DNA directs the synthesis of a new strand on its partner.
e.
 Both A and B.
 78.
Which of the following best describes semiconservative replication?
a.
 The translation of a DNA molecule into a complementary strand of RNA.
b.
 A DNA molecule consists of one parental strand and one new strand.
c.
 The number of DNA molecules is doubled with every other replication.
d.
 The replication of DNA never takes place with 100% accuracy.
e.
 The replication of DNA takes place at a defined period in the cell cycle.
 79.
Who first confirmed that the replication of DNA was semiconservative?
a.
 Chargaff and Hershey
b.
 Watson and Crick
c.
 Avery and Griffith
d.
 Meselson and Stahl
e.
 Watson, Crick, and Wilkins
 80.
If DNA replication rejoined the 2 parental strands, it would be termed:
a.
 dispersive.
b.
 gradient.
c.
 semiconservative.
d.
 parental.
e.
 conservative.
 81.
Meselson and Stahl separated DNA from different generations using:
a.
 density gradient centrifugation.
b.
 gel electrophoresis.
c.
 an electron microscope.
d.
 differential radioisotope labeling.
e.
 None of the above.
 82.
When a DNA molecule containing a wrong base at one location in one strand is replicated:
a.
 the mutation is corrected by the DNA polymerase enzyme.
b.
 the mutation is ignored by the DNA polymerase enzyme.
c.
 the mutation is copied into one of the two daughter molecules.
d.
 the mutation is copied into both of the daughter molecules.
e.
 the replication is stopped.
 83.
What prevents knot formation in replicating DNA?
a.
 protosomes
b.
 topoisomerases
c.
 scaffolding proteins
d.
 chromatin
e.
 histones
 84.
Why does DNA synthesis only proceed in the 5´to 3´ direction?
a.
 Because DNA polymerases can only add nucleotides to the 3´ end of a polynucleotide strand.
b.
 Because the 3´ end of the polynucleotide molecule is more electronegative than the 5´ end.
c.
 Because that is the direction in which the two strands of DNA unzip.
d.
 Because that is the only direction that the polymerase can be oriented.
e.
 Because the chromosomes are always aligned in the 5´ to 3´ direction in the nucleus.
 85.
How is the chromosome of a bacterial cell replicated?
a.
 The linear DNA molecule is replicated from multiple origins of replication bidirectionally.
b.
 The linear DNA molecule is replicated from one origin of replication bidirectionally.
c.
 The circular DNA molecule is replicated from multiple origins of replication bidirectionally.
d.
 The circular DNA molecule is replicated from one origin of replication bidirectionally.
e.
 The circular DNA molecule is replicated from one origin of replication unidirectionally.
 86.
How are the chromosomes of a eukaryote cell replicated?
a.
 The linear DNA molecules are replicated from multiple origins of replication bidirectionally.
b.
 The linear DNA molecules are replicated from one origin of replication bidirectionally.
c.
 The circular DNA molecules are replicated from multiple origins of replication bidirectionally.
d.
 The circular DNA molecules are replicated from one origin of replication bidirectionally.
e.
 The linear DNA molecules are replicated from one origin of replication unidirectionally.
 87.
Which of the following adds new nucleotides to a growing DNA chain?
a.
 DNA polymerase
b.
 DNA helicase
c.
 RNA primer
d.
 primase
e.
 RNA polymerase
 88.
Which of the following cause the unwinding of the DNA double helix?
a.
 DNA polymerase
b.
 DNA helicase
c.
 RNA primer
d.
 primosome
e.
 RNA polymerase
 89.
In DNA replication, the lagging strand:
a.
 is synthesized as a series of Okazaki fragments.
b.
 is synthesized as a complementary copy of the leading strand.
c.
 pairs with the leading strand by complementary base pairing.
d.
 is made up entirely of RNA primers.
e.
 is not synthesized until the synthesis of the leading strand is completed.
Figure 11-02
Use the figure below to answer the corresponding questions.nar002-1.jpg
 90.
The correct designation for the DNA strand labeled C in Figure 11-02 is:
a.
 the leading strand.
b.
 3´.
c.
 Okazaki fragments.
d.
 polymerase.
e.
 None of the above.
 91.
The segments labeled F in Figure 11-02 are responsible for:
a.
 linking short DNA segments.
b.
 synthesizing the leading strand.
c.
 forming the replication fork.
d.
 initiating DNA synthesis.
e.
 unwinding the DNA double helix.
 92.
The enzyme represented by the letter D in Figure 11-02 is responsible for:
a.
 linking short DNA segments.
b.
 synthesizing the leading strand.
c.
 forming the replication fork.
d.
 forming nucleosomes.
e.
 unwinding the DNA double helix.
 93.
The structures represented by the letter E in Figure 11-02 are called:
a.
 leading fragments
b.
 Okazaki fragments.
c.
 replication forks.
d.
 nucleosomes.
e.
 DNA polymerases.
 94.
In replication, once the DNA strands have been separated, reformation of the double helix is prevented by:
a.
 DNA helicase enzyme.
b.
 helix-destabilizing proteins.
c.
 DNA polymerases.
d.
 ATP.
e.
 GTP.
 95.
Enzymes called ____________ form nicks in the DNA molecules to prevent the formation of knots in the DNA helix during replication.
a.
 topoisomerases
b.
 helix-destabilizing enzymes
c.
 DNA polymerases
d.
 RNA polymerases
e.
 DNA ligases
 96.
The DNA strand that is replicated smoothly and continuously is called the:
a.
 primary strand.
b.
 first strand.
c.
 leading strand.
d.
 alpha strand.
e.
 lagging strand.
 97.
The final product of DNA replication is:
a.
 mRNA, tRNA, and rRNA molecules.
b.
 a wide variety of proteins.
c.
 DNA fragments.
d.
 two DNA molecules, each of which contains one new and one old DNA strand.
e.
 the enzymes needed for further processes, such as DNA polymerase.
 98.
A replication fork:
a.
 is only seen in prokaryotic chromosomes.
b.
 is only seen in bacterial cells.
c.
 is a Y-shaped structure where both DNA strands are replicated simultaneously.
d.
 is a site where one DNA strand serves as a template, but the other strand is not replicated.
e.
 is created by the action of the enzyme RNA polymerase.
 99.
The 5´ end of each Okazaki fragment begins with:
a.
 the same RNA primer that began synthesis on the leading strand.
b.
 a DNA primer binding to the template DNA.
c.
 DNA polymerase binding to the template DNA.
d.
 a separate RNA primer.
e.
 a small DNA primer.
 100.
Okazaki fragments are joined together by:
a.
 RNA polymerase.
b.
 DNA ligase.
c.
 DNA polymerase.
d.
 RNA ligase.
e.
 primase.
 101.
Primase is the enzyme responsible for:
a.
 unwinding the DNA double strand to allow DNA polymerase access to the template DNA.
b.
 introducing nicks into the DNA double strand in order to prevent the formation of knots.
c.
 hydrolyzing ATP to facilitate DNA unwinding.
d.
 making short strands of RNA at the site of replication initiation.
e.
 forming a replication fork in the DNA double helix.
 102.
____________, the ends of eukaryotic chromosomes, shorten with every cell replication event.
a.
 Centromeres
b.
 Telomeres
c.
 Kinetochores
d.
 Primosomes
e.
 Nucleosomes
 103.
The ends of eukaryotic chromosomes can be lengthened by:
a.
 apoptosis.
b.
 reverse transcriptase.
c.
 primase.
d.
 telomerase.
e.
 DNA polymerase.
 104.
Cancer cells differ from noncancerous cells in that:
a.
 they have elevated levels of telomerase.
b.
 they are virtually immortal.
c.
 they have the ability to resist apoptosis.
d.
 they can maintain telomere length as they divide.
e.
 All of the above.
 105.
In 1998, Bodnar and her colleagues found that by introducing genes coding for telomeres into cultured human cells:
a.
 the cells underwent more cell divisions than normal.
b.
 the cells underwent fewer cell divisions than normal.
c.
 the cells all lived indefinitely.
d.
 the cells underwent gene expression more vigorously.
e.
 the cell cycle shortened.
 106.
Which of the following is not a reason why Neurospora is an ideal organism to study the effects of genetic mutations?
a.
 Neurospora is easy to grow.
b.
 Neurospora grows as a haploid organism.
c.
 Neurospora is easy to genetically manipulate.
d.
 Neurospora reproduces both sexually and asexually.
e.
 Neurospora contains homologous chromosomes that are easily viewed with a light microscope.
 107.
Garrod first proposed that:
a.
 metabolic defects were due to a lack of an enzyme.
b.
 metabolic defects were due to excess enzyme.
c.
 metabolic defects were due to chromosomal changes.
d.
 mutations were inheritable.
e.
 metabolic defects did not occur in humans.
 108.
Why was it important in the studies of Beadle and Tatum that Neurospora is haploid?
a.
 Because it is easier to grow haploid molds in the laboratory.
b.
 Because haploid molds have simpler nutritional requirements than do diploid molds.
c.
 Because a mutation that arises is not masked by a normal allele on a homologous chromosome.
d.
 Because haploid Neurospora will always mutate.
e.
 Because diploid Neurospora will always mutate.
 109.
Beadle and Tatum began their studies with wild-type Neurospora, which is:
a.
 Neurospora that only grows in the wild.
b.
 a mutant strain that will only grow in the lab on complete medium.
c.
 a strain that will not grow in the lab.
d.
 a virulent strain of Neurospora.
e.
 a normal phenotype that will grow on minimal medium.
 110.
Beadle and Tatum irradiated Neurospora and initially grew the mutant strains on complete medium. How were they able to determine what type of mutation each strain had?
a.
 By growing the mold on a complete medium with extra vitamins and nutrients.
b.
 By growing the mold on minimal media supplemented with different combinations of amino acids, vitamins, etc.
c.
 By growing the mold in its diploid form to see which traits were masked.
d.
 By comparing Neurospora to other species of mold.
e.
 By observing the marked differences in morphology between the different strains.
 111.
What conclusions did Beadle and Tatum reach with their studies of Neurospora?
a.
 Each mutant gene affected several enzymes.
b.
 Each mutant gene affected a pair of enzymes.
c.
 Each mutant gene affected only one enzyme.
d.
 Mutant genes had no effect on the enzymes produced by the cells.
e.
 None of the above.
 112.
Linus Pauling demonstrated that:
a.
 the structure of hemoglobin was altered by a mutation of a single gene.
b.
 mutations only caused defects in enzymes.
c.
 mutations alter the structure of RNA, but not proteins.
d.
 mutations were inherited.
e.
 the structure of hemoglobin was altered by mutations in any of a dozen genes.
Figure 12-01
Use the figure below to answer the corresponding questions.nar003-1.jpg
 113.
The experimental design in Figure 12-01 was used to examine:
a.
 the relationship between genetic changes and metabolic enzymes.
b.
 the mutation rate of Neurospora.
c.
 resistance of Neurospora to genetic poisons.
d.
 toxicity of arginine metabolites.
e.
 growth of Neurospora in the presence of different antibiotics.
 114.
The conclusion associated with mutant strain III in Figure 12-01 was that:
a.
 it contained all the enzymes needed for normal metabolism.
b.
 it was missing all the enzymes for metabolism of amino acids.
c.
 it was missing an enzyme for metabolism and could not synthesize arginine.
d.
 it was missing an enzyme for metabolism and could not synthesize citrulline.
e.
 it was missing an enzyme for metabolism and could not synthesize ornithine.
 115.
One of the mRNA codons specifying the amino acid leucine is 5´-CUA-3´. Its corresponding anticodon is:
a.
 5´-GAT-3´.
b.
 3´-AUC-5´.
c.
 3´-GAU-5´.
d.
 3´-GAT-5´.
e.
 5´-GAU-3´.
 116.
Which of the following is a characteristic of uracil?
a.
 The ability to bond with adenine.
b.
 The ability to bond with guanine.
c.
 It is a purine.
d.
 The ability to bond with cytosine.
e.
 It contains two nitrogenous rings.
 117.
RNA differs from DNA in all the following except:
a.
 RNA is single stranded and DNA is double stranded.
b.
 RNA is a larger molecule than DNA.
c.
 RNA contains uracil and DNA contains thymine.
d.
 RNA contains ribose and DNA contains deoxyribose.
e.
 None of the above.
 118.
Ribose differs from deoxyribose by having:
a.
 two attached bases.
b.
 one less oxygen.
c.
 an extra hydroxyl group.
d.
 an extra carbon in the ring.
e.
 None of the above.
 119.
Uracil forms a complementary pair with ____________ in RNA and _____________ in DNA.
a.
 adenine; adenine
b.
 adenine; thymine
c.
 thymine; thymine
d.
 uracil; adenine
e.
 adenine; uracil
 120.
RNA synthesis is also known as:
a.
 elongation.
b.
 reverse transcription.
c.
 termination.
d.
 translation.
e.
 transcription.
 121.
All RNA except for _________ is made from DNA.
a.
 tRNA
b.
 mRNA
c.
 rRNA
d.
 snRNA
e.
 None of the above.
 122.
The total number of different three-base combinations of the four nucleic acid bases is:
a.
 12.
b.
 16.
c.
 20.
d.
 64.
e.
 256.
 123.
During protein synthesis, ribosomes:
a.
 attach to the mRNA molecule and travel along its length.
b.
 attach to the DNA molecule and travel along its length to produce an mRNA molecule.
c.
 translate mRNA into tRNA.
d.
 transcribe mRNA to tRNA.
e.
 translate mRNA into DNA.
 124.
How is the four-letter language of nucleic acids converted into the 20-word language of amino acids?
a.
 The 4 nucleic acid bases combine in 2-letter combinations that define different amino acids.
b.
 The 4 nucleic acid bases combine in 3-letter sequences that define different amino acids.
c.
 Triplets of the 2-letter nucleic acid bases are translated into the 20 different amino acids.
d.
 The 4 bases each specify 1 amino acid, which give rise to the remaining 16 amino acids.
e.
 The 4 bases are first converted into tRNA molecules, which can each attach to 5 amino acids.
 125.
Why is only one strand of DNA transcribed into mRNA?
a.
 Because mRNA is only required in small quantities.
b.
 Because transcribing both DNA strands would produce different amino acid sequences.
c.
 Because the other strand would produce the same amino acid sequence in reverse order.
d.
 Because all genes are located on the same DNA strand, while the other strand acts as protection.
e.
 Because the other strand is transcribed directly into amino acids.
 126.
Initiation of transcription requires:
a.
 a promoter sequence.
b.
 DNA polymerase.
c.
 an RNA primer.
d.
 a DNA primer.
e.
 Okazaki fragments.
 127.
A sequence of bases located upstream from a reference point occurs:
a.
 towards the 3´ end of the amino acid sequence.
b.
 towards the 5´ end of the mRNA sequence.
c.
 towards the 3´ end of the mRNA sequence.
d.
 towards the 5´ end of the transcribed DNA strand.
e.
 towards the carboxyl end of the amino acid sequence.
 128.
How does the first nucleotide at the 5´ end of a new mRNA chain differ from the other nucleotides in the chain?
a.
 The first nucleotide is always a uracil.
b.
 The first nucleotide is always a cytosine.
c.
 The first nucleotide retains its triphosphate group, while the others do not.
d.
 The first nucleotide does not retain its triphosphate group, while the others in the chain do.
e.
 The first nucleotide is always a modified cytosine.
Figure 12-02
Use the figure below to answer the corresponding questions.nar004-1.jpg
 129.
In Figure 12-02, the transcription process begins at the area labeled:
a.
 A.
b.
 D.
c.
 E.
d.
 G.
e.
 None of the above.
 130.
The component labeled B in Figure 12-02 is:
a.
 DNase.
b.
 DNA polymerase.
c.
 RNA primase.
d.
 RNA polymerase.
e.
 reverse transcriptase.
 131.
The transcript in Figure 12-02 is labeled:
a.
 D.
b.
 C.
c.
 G.
d.
 H.
e.
 A.
 132.
The process illustrated in Figure 12-02 is:
a.
 DNA synthesis.
b.
 translation.
c.
 transcription.
d.
 a frame shift mutation.
e.
 protein synthesis.
 133.
Leader sequences contain signals that:
a.
 prevent enzymes from degrading the newly synthesized mRNA.
b.
 inhibit ribosome binding until the appropriate time.
c.
 initiate chain termination.
d.
 allow the ribosomes to be properly positioned to translate the message.
e.
 allow tRNA molecules to successfully bind to mRNA.
 134.
Aminoacyl-tRNA synthetases ________ link ________ to their respective tRNA molecules.
a.
 ionically; mRNAs
b.
 loosely; mRNAs
c.
 terminally; codons
d.
 covalently; amino acids
e.
 enzymatically; codons
 135.

Which of the following numbered terms represents the correct order of sequences in a prokaryotic mRNA molecule as it was synthesized?

1. 3´ trailing sequences
2. coding sequences
3. leader sequences
4. termination signals
a.
 1 ® 2 ® 3 ® 4
b.
 3 ® 2 ® 4 ® 1
c.
 2 ® 1 ® 4 ® 3
d.
 4 ® 2 ® 1 ® 3
e.
 3 ® 4 ® 2 ® 1
 136.
Which of the following serves as an "adapter" in protein synthesis and bridges the gap between mRNA and proteins?
a.
 tRNA
b.
 cDNA
c.
 rRNA
d.
 promoter sequences
e.
 DNA
 137.
The codon is found in the:
a.
 template strand of DNA.
b.
 non-template strand of DNA.
c.
 mRNA.
d.
 tRNA.
e.
 rRNA.
 138.
The tRNA:
a.
 must be recognized by ribosomes.
b.
 must have an anticodon.
c.
 must have an attachment site for the amino acid.
d.
 must be recognized by a specific aminoacyl-tRNA synthetase that adds the correct amino acid.
e.
 All of the above.
 139.

Which of the following numbered events represents the correct sequence of events of prokaryotic translation initiation?

1. large ribosomal subunit binds to initiation complex
2. initiation tRNA binds small ribosomal subunit
3. initiation complex binds to ribosome recognition sequence on mRNA
a.
 1 ® 2 ® 3
b.
 1 ® 3 ® 2
c.
 2 ® 1 ® 3
d.
 2 ® 3 ® 1
e.
 3 ® 2 ® 1
 140.
Where is the amino-acid binding site located on the tRNA molecule?
a.
 in the middle of the loop
b.
 at the end of a "stem" that is the 3´ end of the molecule
c.
 in the first loop
d.
 along the longest stretch of base pairing in the molecule
e.
 on the 5´ end of the molecule
Figure 12-03
Use the figure below to answer the corresponding questions.nar005-1.jpg
 141.
In Figure 12-03, the portion of the molecule in the figure that contains the anti-codon is:
a.
 1.
b.
 2.
c.
 3.
d.
 4.
e.
 5.
 142.
In Figure 12-03, the portion of the molecule labeled 5 is:
a.
 the attached amino acid.
b.
 a double-stranded region.
c.
 a single-stranded region.
d.
 the anti-codon.
e.
 the codon.
 143.
The enzyme peptidyl transferase, which catalyzes the transfer of the polypeptide chain attached to the tRNA in the ____________ site to the aminoacyl-tRNA in the ____________ site, is thought to be a(an) ____________ molecule and not a protein.
a.
 A; P; rDNA
b.
 P; A; tRNA
c.
 A; P; mRNA
d.
 P; A; rRNA
e.
 P; A; sugar
 144.
Translocation is the process whereby the __________ moves in order to place the tRNA bound to the growing polypeptide chain in the __________ site, thereby freeing the __________ site for a new aminoacyl-tRNA.
a.
 mRNA; A; P
b.
 ribosome; P; A
c.
 tRNA; P; A
d.
 ribosome; A; P
e.
 tRNA; A; P
 145.
Following peptide bond formation between the amino acid in the A site on the ribosome and the growing polypeptide chain, the tRNA in the A site:
a.
 releases the growing polypeptide chain.
b.
 picks up another amino acid to add to the chain.
c.
 moves to the P site of the ribosome.
d.
 forms a peptide bond with A site of the ribosome.
e.
 forms a covalent bond with the P site of the ribosome.
 146.
If a human gene mRNA were placed into a cell of yeast, it would be:
a.
 degraded immediately.
b.
 translated into a repeating amino acid chain.
c.
 translated into a chain of random amino acids not resembling the protein in humans.
d.
 translated into the protein that is found in humans.
e.
 integrated into the genome of the yeast.
 147.
In all organisms, the AUG codon codes for:
a.
 the initiation of translation.
b.
 the termination of transcription.
c.
 the termination of chain elongation.
d.
 the amino acid valine.
e.
 a termination tRNA molecule.
 148.
A polyribosomes is:
a.
 a complex of many ribosome and an mRNA.
b.
 a complex of many ribosomes in eukaryotes.
c.
 an initiation complex in eukaryotes.
d.
 an elongation complex in eukaryotes.
e.
 a complex of a ribosome with its two subunits and several mRNAs.
 149.
Introns in pre mRNA are known to:
a.
 code for specific protein domains.
b.
 undergo excision, whereby they are spliced out of the message.
c.
 be able to move within the mRNA, thereby giving rise to new exon combinations.
d.
 protect pre mRNA from enzyme degradation.
e.
 code for important amino acid sequences.
 150.
Proteins synthesized in E. coli have which of the following at their amino terminal end?
a.
 N-formyl-methionine
b.
 N-acetyl-adenine
c.
 adenine triphosphate
d.
 the AUG codon
e.
 the UUU codon
 151.
The wobble hypothesis states that:
a.
 more than one ribosome can bind to an mRNA molecule.
b.
 some amino acids are coded for by more than one codon.
c.
 there is more than one stop codon in the genetic code.
d.
 a particular amino acid may be linked to more than one type of tRNA molecule.
e.
 certain tRNA anticodons can pair with more than one codon sequence.
 152.
Binding of the appropriate aminoacyl-tRNA to the A site requires:
a.
 no additional energy.
b.
 the input of two ATP molecules to supply the needed energy.
c.
 energy supplied by GTP.
d.
 activation of the A site.
e.
 phosphorylation of the tRNA molecule.
 153.
Translocation in translation requires:
a.
 no additional energy.
b.
 activation of the P site.
c.
 the input of two ATP molecules to supply the needed energy.
d.
 energy supplied by GTP.
e.
 phosphorylation of the mRNA molecule.
 154.
Interrupted coding sequences include long sequences of bases that do not code for amino acids. These noncoding sequences, called ____________, are found in ____________ cells.
a.
 exons; prokaryotic
b.
 introns; prokaryotic
c.
 exons; eukaryotic
d.
 introns; eukaryotic
e.
 None of the above.
 155.
An mRNA "5´ cap":
a.
 prevents translation.
b.
 facilitates binding of ribosomes.
c.
 marks the mRNA for degradation.
d.
 decreases the half-life of the mRNA.
e.
 protects newly synthesized mRNA from degradation.
 156.
The 3´ end of eukaryotic pre-mRNAs are changed by:
a.
 removing the last phosphate group.
b.
 adding a "cap."
c.
 copying the last few bases so that it can form a duplex structure.
d.
 cutting and adding 100-250 adenine nucleotides.
e.
 phosphorylation of the mRNA molecule.
 157.
Walter Gilbert proposed that exons are:
a.
 remnants of older life forms.
b.
 sequences that code for protein domains that are shuffled to form new proteins.
c.
 the result of mutation of introns.
d.
 not present in prokaryotes.
e.
 sequences that interrupt the coding sequences of proteins.
 158.
Retroviruses or RNA tumor viruses use __________ to make DNA:
a.
 DNA polymerase
b.
 DNA-dependent RNA polymerase
c.
 RNA polymerase
d.
 primase
e.
 reverse transcriptase
 159.
Substitution of one base pair for another can result in a ____________ mutation that results in the conversion of an amino acid specifying codon to a termination codon.
a.
 nonsense
b.
 frameshift
c.
 chromosomal
d.
 missense
e.
 None of the above.
 160.
A mutation that replaces one amino acid in a protein with another is called a ____________ mutation.
a.
 frameshift
b.
 recombinant
c.
 nonsense
d.
 missense
e.
 neutral
 161.
Frameshift mutations result from:
a.
 the substitution of one base pair for another.
b.
 the substitution of more than one base pair.
c.
 the insertion or deletion of one or two base pairs.
d.
 the substitution of a stop codon for an amino acid-specifying codon.
e.
 the substitution of a start codon for an amino acid codon.
 162.
A gene can now be defined as:
a.
 a DNA sequence that carries information to produce a specific RNA or protein product.
b.
 a DNA nucleotide sequence that carries information to produce a specific polypeptide.
c.
 a DNA or RNA sequence that carries information to produce a single polypeptide.
d.
 a DNA nucleotide sequence that carries information to produce an enzyme.
e.
 a DNA or RNA sequence that carries information to produce a specific polypeptide.

 
Check Your Work     Start Over

Mendel Quiz

%CODE1% Mendel Quiz

 

 

 

1. If a heterozygous yellow pea is crossed with a green pea, what proportion of the offspring will be green?

a. none
b. 1/4
c. 1/2
d. 3/4

 

2. If you cross two plants with blue flowers and get both blue and white-flowered plants in the next generation, you can conclude that

a. both parents are heterozygotes
b. blue is the dominant trait (B)
c. white should be symbolized b
d. all of the above

 

3. Albinism is a recessive trait. If a brown mouse whose father was albino is mated with an albino mouse, what proportion of the offspring would be expected to be brown?

a. none
b. 1/4
c. 1/2
d. 3/4

 

4. A monohybrid cross is carried out between parents of genotype Aa. What proportion of the offspring will look like their parents?

a. none
b. 1/4
c. 1/2
d. 3/4

 

5. The genotype of a homozygote would be

a. aa
b. Aa
c. AB
d. bB

 

6. Alternative forms of a gene that influence a given trait are

a. chromosomes
b. gametes
c. alleles
d. cistrons

 

7. A red flower (RR) and a red flower (Rr) have the same

a. alleles
b. genotype
c. haplotype
d. phenotype

 

8. If plants with orange berries (OO) are crossed with plants with yellow berries (oo), what kinds of offspring will result?

a. homozygous orange-fruited plants
b. homozygous yellow-fruited plants
c. heterozygous yellow-fruited plants
d. heterozygous orange-fruited plants

 

9. In an organism of genotype Aa, half the reproductive cells carry ‘A’ and half carry ‘a’. Mendel called this phenomenon

a. segregation
b. dominance
c. recessiveness
d. independent assortment

 

10. A homozygous brown rabbit is crossed to a homozygous white rabbit. If brown is the dominant trait, they should produce

a. all white rabbits
b. all brown rabbits
c. brown and white spotted rabbits
d. a litter of brown and white rabbits in a 1:1 ratio