Author: Biology Junction Team

Dihybrid Crosses Quiz

%CODE1% Dihybrid Crosses Quiz

 

 

 

1. An organism of genotype AaBb can make gametes of all the following kinds except:

a. AB
b. Bb
c. aB
d. ab

 

2. If AaBb is crossed with aabb, what proportion of the offspring would be expected to be aabb?

a. 9/16
b. 1/8
c. 1/4
d. 1/16

 

3. If the offspring of a cross show a 9/16 to 3/16 to 3/16 to 1/16 ratio (9:3:3:1), the parents of the cross have the genotypes

a. AaBb x AaBb
b. AaBb x aaBB
c. aaBb x aabb
d. aaBb x Aabb

 

4. Whenever a capital letter is present, a red color is produced. In a cross of AaBb x AaBb, how many red offspring would you expect out of 16?

a. 1
b. 3
c. 9
d. 15

 

5. Assume that you mated two individuals heterozygous for each of two traits and obtained 80 offspring. How many of them would be expected to look like their parents?

a. 25
b. 45
c. 60
d. 80

 

6. Genes that assort independently are

a. located on different chromosomes
b. located on the same chromosome
c. alleles of each other
d. dominant

 

7. If W = purple flower and w = white, and D = tall plants and d = short plants, a wwDd plant would be

a. purple and tall
b. purple and short
c. white and tall
d. white and short

 

8. If two true-breeding parents are crossed with each other and all the offspring have their mother’s ears and their father’s tail, the parents in the cross would be

a. EETT x eett
b. eeTT x EEtt
c. EeTt x EeTt
d. eeTt x Eett

 

9. If aaBb is crossed with AAbb, what proportion of the offspring will be AAbb?

a. 0
b. 3/16
c. 9/16
d. 1/4

 

10. If AaBb is crossed with AaBb, what proportion of the offspring will be dominant for the ‘A/a’ trait and recessive for the ‘B/b’ trait (i.e. A-bb)?

a. 9/16
b. 3/16
c. 1/16
d. 0

 

 

Echinoderm

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Name: 

Echinoderm

 

 

True/False
Indicate whether the sentence or statement is true or false.
1.
Chordates and echinoderms have a common ancestor.
2.
None of the echinoderms living in the oceans today is sessile.
3.
In addition to radial symmetry, echinoderms have a water-vascular system.
4.
The hard, spiny skin of an echinoderm is called an exoskeleton.
5.
All echinoderms except the sand dollar display a five-part radial symmetry.
6.
The adult form of all echinoderms exhibits radial symmetry.
7.
Sea stars are carnivores and are among the most important predators in many marine ecosystems.
8.
In some echinoderms, respiration and waste removal are performed by skin gills.
9.
A separated piece of a sea star can regenerate the rest of its body as long as the piece contains part of the central region of the animal.
 

Multiple Choice
Identify the letter of the choice that best completes the statement or answers the question.
10.
Embryological evidence suggests that the echinoderms are closely related to the
a.
vertebrates.
c.
annelids.
b.
arthropods.
d.
arachnids.
11.
The first organisms to develop a hardened endoskeleton were the
a.
echinoderms.
c.
arthropods.
b.
annelids.
d.
chordates.
12.
Echinoderms
a.
are radially symmetrical as larvae and as adults.
b.
have an exoskeleton as adults.
c.
are bilaterally symmetrical as larvae and radially symmetrical as adults.
d.
are radially symmetrical as larvae and bilaterally symmetrical as adults.
13.
The symmetry exhibited by echinoderms is
a.
bilateral.
c.
radial.
b.
spherical.
d.
mirror image.
14.
In echinoderms and chordates, all the cells of the early embryo
a.
are controlled by molecules within the egg.
b.
form the “first mouth.”
c.
fall into four different categories.
d.
are identical.
15.
The skeleton of an echinoderm is composed of individual plates called
a.
ocelli.
c.
odonata.
b.
ossicles.
d.
isopods.
16.
sea cucumbers : a fused skeleton ::
a.
sea urchins : a five-part body plan
c.
sand dollars : endoskeletons
b.
sea urchins : distinct arms
d.
sea urchins : endoskeletons
17.
Vertebrates, tunicates, and lancelets
a.
are all members of the phylum Chordata.
b.
all have a backbone in the adult stage.
c.
are all marine fish.
d.
are all terrestrial heterotrophs.
18.
Which embryonic chordate characteristics do lancelets retain as adults?
a.
notochord
b.
notochord and dorsal nerve cord
c.
notochord, dorsal nerve cord, and postanal tail
d.
notochord, dorsal nerve cord, postanal tail, and pharyngeal pouches
19.
tunicates : in shallow- and deep-water environments ::
a.
lancelets : buried in mud or sand
b.
lancelets : swimming near the water’s surface
c.
tentacles : in sea urchin mouths
d.
ossicles : in lancelets
20.
Some scientists have hypothesized that the first vertebrates, which were fish, may have evolved from an ancestral tunicate that became sexually mature in the larval form. They suggest that these reproducing larvae were successful and natural selection reinforced the absence of metamorphosis to the adult. Which of the following statements does not support the hypothesis that vertebrates evolved from a sexually mature larval tunicate?
a.
Many invertebrates, tunicate larvae and adults, and the earliest vertebrates are or were filter feeders.
b.
Adult tunicates are sessile and larval tunicates are free-swimming.
c.
The vertebral column of adult vertebrates replaces the notochord present in embryonic vertebrates.
d.
Some living urochordates exist only as free-swimming larvae.


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Flat and Round Worms

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Name: 

Flat and Round Worms

 

 

True/False
Indicate whether the sentence or statement is true or false.
1.
Planarians have a branched digestive tract with both a mouth and an anus.
2.
Most flatworms are not parasitic.
3.
Tapeworms absorb food from their host’s intestine directly through their skin.
4.
Humans can avoid trichinosis by wearing shoes when they walk through fields.
5.
Rotifers have a distinct head end with a mouth and a distinct tail end that has an opening through which substances from the digestive, reproductive, and excretory systems exit the body.
 

Multiple Choice
Identify the letter of the choice that best completes the statement or answers the question.
6.
Flatworms can reproduce asexually by
a.
fission.
c.
producing polyps.
b.
forming larvae.
d.
exchanging both sperm and eggs.
7.
Which of the following is not found in flatworms?
a.
a head
c.
bilateral symmetry
b.
a circulatory system
d.
a nervous system
8.
Flatworms have no need for circulatory and respiratory systems because
a.
the digestive system performs these functions.
b.
their cells are close to the animal’s exterior surface.
c.
the spherical body shape allows diffusion of materials into tissues.
d.
the coelom is bathed in blood and oxygen.
9.
Schistosomiasis is a disease caused by a
a.
roundworm.
c.
cestode.
b.
trematode.
d.
planarian.
10.
turbellarians : free living ::
a.
planaria : parasitic
c.
cestodes : free living
b.
tapeworms : free living
d.
flukes : parasitic
11.
Which of the following statements about tapeworms is false?
a.
They can infect a person who eats improperly cooked beef.
b.
They belong to the genus Schistosoma.
c.
They can grow to be large in human intestines.
d.
These flatworms do not have a digestive system.
12.
To which phylum do roundworms belong?
a.
Annelida
c.
Platyhelminthes
b.
Nematoda
d.
Arthropoda
13.
Roundworms have a fluid-filled cavity between the gut and body wall called a
a.
coelom.
c.
digestive system.
b.
pseudocoelom.
d.
None of the above
14.
Pseudocoelomates
a.
must move rapidly to enhance diffusion of nutrients.
b.
must be very small or have body shapes with short distances between organs and the body surface.
c.
must have a circulatory system.
d.
All of the above
15.
The first organisms to develop an internal body cavity were the
a.
flatworms.
c.
mollusks.
b.
nematodes.
d.
arthropods.
16.
All of the following groups of invertebrates are coelomates, except
a.
annelids.
c.
mollusks.
b.
echinoderms.
d.
nematodes.
17.
The evolution of body cavities was important because
a.
fluids within the body cavity aid in circulation of materials from one part of the body to another.
b.
fluids in the cavity make the body rigid and offer resistance to muscles, aiding in movement.
c.
organs are better able to function if they can move freely within the body cavity.
d.
All of the above
18.
The nematode Ascaris lumbricoides infects humans, spending most of its adult life inside the intestines of its host. To be infected, a person must
a.
consume the nematode’s eggs.
c.
sit on an infested toilet seat.
b.
walk barefoot on infested soil.
d.
All of the above
19.
A type of roundworm that lives a parasitic life is
a.
Ascaris.
c.
Trichinella.
b.
Necator.
d.
All of the above
20.
Rotifers eliminate excess water that they collect from their freshwater environment by
a.
diffusion.
c.
flame cells and excretory tubules.
b.
kidneys.
d.
a mastax.

 
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Internal Anatomy of the Fetal Pig Exam

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Internal Anatomy of the Fetal Pig Exam

1. What does the letter L refer to in the figure of the internal anatomy of the fetal pig?

Answer:

 

2. In the figure of the internal anatomy of the fetal pig, what letter refers to the thyroid gland?

Answer:

 

3. In the figure of the internal anatomy of the fetal pig, what letter refers to the left lung?

Answer:

 

4. What does the letter C refer to in the figure of the internal anatomy of the fetal pig?

Answer:

5. What does the letter J refer to in the figure of the internal anatomy of the fetal pig?

Answer:

 

6. In the figure of the internal anatomy of the fetal pig, what letter refers to the urinary bladder?

Answer:

 

7. What does the letter M refer to in the figure of the internal anatomy of the fetal pig?

Answer:

 

8. What does the letter A refer to in the figure of the internal anatomy of the fetal pig?

Answer:

 

9. In the figure of the internal anatomy of the fetal pig, what letter refers to the diaphragm?

Answer:

10. What does the letter F refer to in the figure of the internal anatomy of the fetal pig?

Answer:

 

11. In the figure of the internal anatomy of the fetal pig, what letter refers to the liver?

Answer:

 

12. In the figure of the internal anatomy of the fetal pig, what letter refers to the right common carotid artery?

Answer:

 

13. What does the letter N refer to in the figure of the internal anatomy of the fetal pig?

Answer:

 

14. What does the letter G refer to in the figure of the internal anatomy of the fetal pig?

Answer:

15. What does the letter E refer to in the figure of the internal anatomy of the fetal pig?

Answer:

 

16. In the figure of the internal anatomy of the fetal pig, what letter refers to the small intestine?

Answer:

 

17. In the figure of the internal anatomy of the fetal pig, what letter refers to the heart?

Answer:

 

18. In the figure of the internal anatomy of the fetal pig, what letter refers to the umbilical vein?

Answer:

 

19. What does the letter B refer to in the figure of the internal anatomy of the fetal pig?

Answer:

20. In the figure of the internal anatomy of the fetal pig, what letter refers to the larynx?

Answer:

 

21. What does the letter K refer to in the figure of the internal anatomy of the fetal pig?

Answer:

 

22. In the figure of the internal anatomy of the fetal pig, what letter refers to the left common carotid artery?

Answer:

 

23. In the figure of the internal anatomy of the fetal pig, what letter refers to the umbilical arteries?

Answer:

 

24. In the figure of the internal anatomy of the fetal pig, what letter refers to the large intestine?

Answer:

25. What does the letter H refer to in the figure of the internal anatomy of the fetal pig?

Answer:

 

26. What does the letter I refer to in the figure of the internal anatomy of the fetal pig?

Answer:

 

27. What does the letter D refer to in the figure of the internal anatomy of the fetal pig?

Answer:

 

28. In the figure of the internal anatomy of the fetal pig, what letter refers to the right lung?

Answer:

 

This is the end of the test. When you have completed all the questions and reviewed your answers, press the button below to grade the test.

Chemistry Quiz

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Name: 

Chemistry

 

True/False
Indicate whether the sentence or statement is true or false.
1.
Two atoms having the same number of protons and electrons but different numbers of neutrons are called isotopes.
2.
The nucleus of an atom contains protons and electrons.
3.
A compound consists of atoms of two or more elements joined by chemical bonds.
4.
Energy can be converted from one form to another.
5.
The scale used for measuring the relative concentrations of hydrogen   ions and hydroxide ions in a solution is called the pH scale.
6.
Iron atoms and silver atoms have the same number of protons.
7.
An atom containing nine electrons can have three in its first energy level.
8.
Stable atoms need electrons to fill their outer energy levels.
9.
The types of particles that are located in the nucleus of an atom are protons and neutrons, and the types of particles that are located in the energy levels surrounding the nucleus are electrons.
10.
Buffers can neutralize acids, but they do not affect bases.
 

Multiple Choice
Identify the letter of the choice that best completes the statement or answers the question.
11.
A solution that contains equal concentrations of hydrogen ions and hydroxide ions is a(n):
a.
neutral solution
c.
base
b.
acid
d.
compound
12.
The type of bond formed when two atoms share electrons is a(n):
a.
covalent bond
c.
elemental bond
b.
ionic bond
d.
homogeneous bond
13.
Carbon has an atomic number of 6. The number of energy levels in carbon is:
a.
1
c.
3
b.
2
d.
6
14.
In most elements, how many electrons are in the outer energy level of stable atoms?
a.
3
c.
8
b.
5
d.
12
15.
A solution with a pH of 9 has:
a.
an equal concentration of hydrogen and hydroxide ions
b.
a greater concentration of hydroxide ions than hydrogen ions
c.
a greater concentration of hydrogen ions than hydroxide ions
d.
a greater concentration of hydroxide ions than a solution with a pH of 10
16.
Carbon 12 and carbon 14 have the same number of protons and electrons, but they differ in the number of neutrons.  Therefore, they are:
a.
isometric
c.
icicles
b.
isotopes
d.
two different elements
17.
How many protons are in an atom that has a mass number of 23 and an atomic number of 11?
a.
11
c.
23
b.
12
d.
34
18.
Which of the following is matter?
a.
oxygen
c.
heat
b.
light
d.
all of these
19.
The subscript ‘2’ in H2 represents the number of:
a.
electrons
c.
ions
b.
molecules
d.
atoms
20.
The smallest unit of a compound that still retains the compound’s unique chemical properties is the:
a.
sol
c.
atom
b.
bond
d.
molecule
21.
Which of the following best describes a compound?
a.
atoms of one element that are chemically combined
b.
two or more elements combined chemically in a definite proportion
c.
atoms of the same element that have different mass numbers
d.
two or more atoms that are not combined chemically
22.
In a covalent bond, electrons are:
a.
shared
c.
lost
b.
gained
d.
transferred
23.
Which of the following pH values represents the most acidic condition?
a.
3
c.
10
b.
6
d.
14
24.
The main difference between covalent bonds and ionic bonds is that electrons:
a.
are shared in covalent bonds, but not in ionic bonds
b.
are shared in ionic bonds, but not in covalent bonds
c.
are shared in both, but at different times
d.
are involved only in covalent bonds
25.
Which of the following is the most common solvent in organisms?
a.
alcohol
c.
water
b.
lipids
d.
amino acids
26.
The bond formed when two atoms share a pair of electrons is called a
a.
hydrogen bond.
c.
covalent bond.
b.
nonpolar bond.
d.
water bond.
27.
The smallest particle of matter that can retain the chemical properties of carbon is
a.
a carbon molecule.
c.
a carbon atom.
b.
a carbon macromolecule.
d.
an element.
28.
All matter in the universe is composed of
a.
cells.
c.
atoms.
b.
molecules.
d.
carbon.
29.
Which of the following statements most accurately describes the difference between an ionic bond and a covalent bond?
a.
Atoms held together by ionic bonds separate when placed in water while atoms held together by covalent bonds do not separate in water.
b.
Ionic bonds hold together atoms of two different types, while covalent bonds hold together atoms of the same type.
c.
Electrons are exchanged between atoms held together by an ionic bond, but they are shared between atoms held together by a covalent bond.
d.
Ionic bonds form between atoms that carry opposite charges, while covalent bonds form between uncharged atoms.
      chp2_files/i0320000.jpg
30.
Refer to the graph above. Reaction “3” in the graph
a.
probably occurred in the presence of a catalyst.
b.
requires a greater activation energy than Reaction “2.”
c.
is the same as Reaction “1,” but faster.
d.
takes longer than Reaction “2.”
31.
Changing the course or pathway of a chemical reaction so that it requires less activation energy
a.
is a violation of the laws of nature.
b.
requires higher temperatures than those found within cells.
c.
occurs only when reactants are quickly added to the reaction mixture.
d.
is accomplished by the action of catalysts on reactants.
32.
A cell contains
a.
thousands of different kinds of enzymes, each promoting a different chemical reaction.
b.
one kind of enzyme that promotes thousands of different chemical reactions.
c.
approximately 100 kinds of enzymes, each promoting a different chemical reaction.
d.
one enzyme that promotes photosynthesis and one enzyme that promotes cellular respiration.
33.
The terms base and alkaline refer to solutions that
a.
contain dissolved sodium hydroxide.
b.
contain more hydronium ions than hydroxide ions.
c.
contain more hydroxide ions than hydronium ions.
d.
contain more hydroxide ions than hydrogen ions.
34.
Acidic solutions have a pH that is
a.
less than 7.
c.
a negative number.
b.
between 0 and 14.
d.
more than 7.
35.
Buffers
a.
are of relatively little importance in living things.
b.
are formed when a large number of hydroxide ions are released in a solution.
c.
are formed when a large number of hydronium ions are released in a solution.
d.
tend to prevent great fluctuations in pH.

 
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