Author: Biology Junction Team

Biochemistry PCC

%CODE1%

Javascript not enabled

Name: 

 

Biochemistry PCC

 

 

Multiple Choice
Identify the choice that best completes the statement or answers the question.
 1.
At what temperature is water most dense?
a.
 0 degrees Celsius
b.
 1 degrees Celsius
c.
 4 degrees Celsius
d.
 10 degrees Celsius
e.
 100 degrees Celsius
 2.
Which property of water enables living things to survive in it?
a.
 high heat of vaporization
b.
 high specific heat
c.
 degree of surface tension
d.
 cohesion
e.
 density of ice
 3.
Which characteristic of water makes the existence of pH possible?
a.
 ionization
b.
 polarity
c.
 adhesion
d.
 cohesion
e.
 None of the above.
 4.
Which of the following types of biologist would need an understanding of chemistry?
a.
 molecular biologist
b.
 ecologist
c.
 evolutionary biologist
d.
 botanist
e.
 All of the above.
 5.
All of the following are inorganic compounds except:
a.
 glucose.
b.
 hydrochloric acid.
c.
 sodium chloride.
d.
 sodium hydroxide.
e.
 water.
 6.
An element is defined as a substance that:
a.
 is composed of more than one kind of atom.
b.
 is held together by covalent bonds.
c.
 cannot be broken into simpler substances by chemical reactions.
d.
 cannot burn.
e.
 is soluble in both acid and water.
 7.
Which of the following determines the type of element?
a.
 the number of electrons
b.
 the number of protons
c.
 the number of neutrons
d.
 the number of valence electrons
e.
 the number of energy levels
 8.
Which of the following elements is not responsible for a significant portion of the mass of living organisms?
a.
 O
b.
 S
c.
 N
d.
 H
e.
 C
 9.
An element found in minute quantities in living organisms is called:
a.
 a heavy element.
b.
 a vitamin.
c.
 an organic compound.
d.
 an isotope.
e.
 a trace element.
 10.
Select the incorrectly matched pair:
a.
 The 1st principal energy level contains 1 orbital.
b.
 The 2nd principal energy level contains 4 orbitals.
c.
 The 1st principal energy level contains a maximum of 2 electrons.
d.
 The 2nd energy level contains a maximum of 10 electrons.
e.
 All of the above are correctly matched.
 11.
Chlorine has seven electrons in its valence shell. The number of electrons it must gain to complete its valence shell is:
a.
 one.
b.
 two.
c.
 three.
d.
 seven.
e.
 eight.
 12.
An atom has six protons and eight neutrons. Its atomic mass is ____________ atomic mass units.
a.
 two
b.
 four
c.
 six
d.
 eight
e.
 fourteen
 13.
This determines the chemical properties of an element:
a.
 the atomic number.
b.
 the atomic weight.
c.
 the number of energy levels.
d.
 the number of valence electrons.
e.
 orbitals.
 14.
The difference between an electrically neutral atom and an ion is that:
a.
 an ion has an unequal number of protons and electrons, while an atom has an equal number.
b.
 an ion has an equal number of protons and electrons, while an atom has an unequal number.
c.
 an atom has an unequal number of neutrons and protons, while an ion has an equal number.
d.
 an atom has its electrons in orbitals, while an ion has its electrons in its nucleus.
e.
 an atom must have an equal number of neutrons and electrons, while an ion does not.
 15.
The difference between a stable isotope and a radioisotope is that:
a.
 the stable isotope emits radiation.
b.
 the radioisotope emits radiation.
c.
 the stable isotope emits light.
d.
 the stable isotope absorbs radiation.
e.
 the radioisotope has an unequal number of protons and electrons.
Figure 02-01
Use the figure below to answer the corresponding questions.nar001-1.jpg
 16.
Figure 02-01 represents:
a.
 two isotopes of the same element.
b.
 two different elements.
c.
 two different ions.
d.
 an acid and a base.
e.
 a cation and an anion.
 17.
The atomic mass of the atom identified as A in Figure 02-01 is:
a.
 2.
b.
 6.
c.
 8.
d.
 12.
e.
 18.
 18.
The difference between the two atoms in Figure 02-01 is:
a.
 pH.
b.
 the number of electrons.
c.
 the number of protons.
d.
 the number of neutrons.
e.
 electric charge.
 19.
Radioisotopes are used in all of the following scientific applications except:
a.
 dating fossils.
b.
 determining the sequence of genetic information in DNA.
c.
 localization of a drug, such as marijuana.
d.
 the treatment of cancer.
e.
 monitoring changes in the salinity of an estuary.
 20.
Isotopes differ from each other with respect to the number of:
a.
 protons.
b.
 electrons.
c.
 neutrons.
d.
 protons and electrons.
e.
 neutrons and protons.
 21.
When a chemical reaction is at equilibrium:
a.
 the forward reaction is going faster.
b.
 the reverse reaction is going faster.
c.
 the forward and reverse reactions are proceeding at equal rates.
d.
 the forward reaction stops.
e.
 the reverse reaction stops.
 22.
Any chemical interaction between atoms:
a.
 involves neutrons.
b.
 may potentially involve any electron.
c.
 involves protons.
d.
 involves only valence electrons.
e.
 involves only the nuclear subatomic particles.
 23.
The molecular mass of C6H12O6 is 180 amu. 0.25 moles of this substance contain:
a.
 180 daltons.
b.
 45 g.
c.
 1.8 g.
d.
 45 daltons.
e.
 180 g.
 24.
How many molecules are present in one mole of C6H12O6?
a.
 1.7 ´ 10-10 molecules
b.
 1.3 ´ 1010 molecules
c.
 5 molecules
d.
 1.7 ´ 1022 molecules
e.
 6.02 ´ 1023 molecules
Figure 02-02
Use the figure below to answer the corresponding questions.nar002-1.jpg
 25.
Figure 02-02 represents:
a.
 elemental helium.
b.
 molecular hydrogen.
c.
 molecular helium.
d.
 a water molecule.
e.
 molecular oxygen.
 26.
The type of bond illustrated in Figure 02-02 is:
a.
 an ionic bond.
b.
 a polar bond.
c.
 a single covalent bond.
d.
 a hydrogen bond.
e.
 a double covalent bond.
 27.
Select the covalent bond that involves 2 electrons:
a.
 single
b.
 double
c.
 triple
d.
 Both A and B.
e.
 Both A and C.
 28.
The representation H – O – H is known as:
a.
 a structural formula.
b.
 a simplest formula.
c.
 a molecular formula.
d.
 a Lewis structure.
e.
 an orbital diagram.
 29.
Which of the following choices correctly identifies a reactant in the following chemical equation? CO2 + H2O « H2CO3
a.
 carbonic acid
b.
 oxygen
c.
 water
d.
 sugar
e.
 carbon monoxide
 30.
In a chemical reaction, the product is:
a.
 generally written on the right side of the equation.
b.
 always in equilibrium with the reactants.
c.
 the substance that is generated by the reaction.
d.
 only joined by an ionic bond.
e.
 Both A and C.
 31.
A covalent bond:
a.
 can form only between identical atoms.
b.
 involves a sharing of only one pair of electrons.
c.
 is always polar.
d.
 may be polar or nonpolar depending on the atoms involved.
e.
 always forms between identical molecules.
 32.
In a water molecule, because oxygen is more electronegative than hydrogen, the shared electrons are more commonly found around the ____________ nucleus than the ____________ nucleus.
a.
 oxygen; hydrogen
b.
 hydrogen; oxygen
c.
 hydrogen; other hydrogen
d.
 oxygen; nitrogen
e.
 nitrogen; oxygen
 33.
The covalent bond between a hydrogen atom and the oxygen atom in water is formed when:
a.
 hydrogen gains an electron from oxygen.
b.
 hydrogen and oxygen share an electron pair.
c.
 hydrogen and oxygen both lose electrons from their outer shells.
d.
 hydrogen and oxygen both gain electrons in their outer shells.
e.
 hydrogen gains an electron from oxygen.
 34.
Covalently bonded atoms with similar electronic negativities are:
a.
 ionic.
b.
 polar.
c.
 nonpolar.
d.
 partially positive.
e.
 partially negative.
 35.
An atom becomes a cation if:
a.
 it gains one or more electron.
b.
 it loses one or more electron.
c.
 it shares electrons.
d.
 one or more of its electrons changes energy levels.
e.
 it emits radiation.
 36.
In the formation of common table salt, sodium and chlorine interact because:
a.
 sodium and chlorine share a pair of electrons.
b.
 sodium and chlorine share two pairs of electrons.
c.
 chlorine donates seven electrons to sodium.
d.
 there is no electron exchange.
e.
 sodium donates one electron to chlorine.
 37.
Table salt dissolves easily in water because:
a.
 water can form covalent linkages with salt molecules.
b.
 water can remove electrons from the chloride ion, which causes the latter to dissociate from the sodium and dissolve.
c.
 water can add electrons to the sodium ion.
d.
 water is polar and salt is nonpolar. Nonpolar compounds are more soluble in polar solvents because they are able to form strong covalent bonds that result in a breaking up of the molecule being dissolved.
e.
 the partial positive charge of the hydrogens in the water molecule can associate with the negative charge of the chloride ion, and the partial negative charge of the oxygen of the water molecule can associate with the positive charge of the sodium atom.
 38.
Which one of the following atoms would most likely be involved in an ionic bond?
a.
 hydrogen
b.
 oxygen
c.
 sodium
d.
 Both A and B.
e.
 Both A and C.
 39.
The process whereby water molecules surround ions during the process of dissolving is called:
a.
 reduction.
b.
 hydration.
c.
 buffering.
d.
 oxidation.
e.
 vaporization.
 40.
Which component becomes oxidized in the following chemical reaction?
4 Fe + 3 O2 ® 2 Fe2O3
a.
 water
b.
 iron
c.
 oxygen
d.
 rust
e.
 hydrogen
 41.
Which component is the oxidizing agent in the following chemical reaction?
4 Fe + 3 O2 ® 2 Fe2O3
a.
 water
b.
 iron
c.
 oxygen
d.
 rust
e.
 hydrogen
 42.
Which of the following statements is not correct?
a.
 Water heats up and cools down very quickly.
b.
 The amount of heat required to raise the temperature of 1 g of water 1 °C is one calorie.
c.
 Due to hydrogen bonds, water has a high surface tension.
d.
 Large bodies of water have relatively constant temperatures.
e.
 When one gram of water evaporates, it removes heat.
 43.
It takes one calorie of heat to raise the temperature of one gram of water one degree Celsius at sea level. This is referred to as the _______________________ of water.
a.
 heat of fusion
b.
 heat of vaporization
c.
 specific heat
d.
 heat of transformation
e.
 heat of homeostasis
 44.

Which characteristic of water molecules directly contributes to the remarkable “water walking” success of the aquatic insects pictured in the accompanying figure?

mc044-1.jpg

a.
 hydrogen bonds
b.
 capillary action
c.
 nonpolar covalent bonds
d.
 ionic bonds
e.
 adhesive forces
 45.
The cohesiveness between water molecules is due largely to:
a.
 hydrogen bonds.
b.
 polar covalent bonds.
c.
 nonpolar covalent bonds.
d.
 ionic bonds.
e.
 hydrophobic interactions.
 46.
A stalk of celery is placed in a solution of blue colored dye. After one hour, the leaves have blue fluid in their veins. Which property of water is being demonstrated?
a.
 adhesion and cohesion
b.
 evaporation and cooling
c.
 lower density as a solid than as a liquid
d.
 high specific heat
e.
 surface tension
 47.
Evaporative cooling is a process whereby ____________ moving ____________ molecules vaporize, thus ____________ large amounts of heat.
a.
 slow; water; adding
b.
 fast; water; removing
c.
 slow; oxygen; adding
d.
 fast; oxygen; removing
e.
 fast; carbon dioxide; removing
 48.
In a mixture, which one would be present in the least amount?
a.
 solvent
b.
 solute
c.
 water
d.
 Both A and B.
e.
 Both A and C.
 49.
This characteristic of a molecule determines the ability of hydrogen bonds to form between it and hydrogen:
a.
 A non polar atom
b.
 An atom with a partial positive charge
c.
 An atom with a partial negative charge
d.
 None of the above.
e.
 All of the above.
 50.
A pH of 4 is ____________ times more ____________ than a pH of 7.
a.
 3; basic
b.
 3; acidic
c.
 1000; neutral
d.
 1000; basic
e.
 1000; acidic
 51.
What is the OH- concentration of a solution having a pH of 2?
a.
 1 ´ 10-12
b.
 1 ´ 10-10
c.
 1 ´ 10-7
d.
 1 ´ 10-2
e.
 1 ´ 10-1
 52.
When a small amount of hydrochloric acid (HCl) is added to a solution of Na2HPO4, the pH of the solution does not change markedly. The pH also does not change drastically when a small amount of sodium hydroxide (NaOH) is added to this same solution. Based on these observations, the compound Na2HPO4 is:
a.
 able to donate hydrogen atoms to HCl.
b.
 able to remove hydrogen ions from the OH- of NaOH.
c.
 acting as a buffer.
d.
 an enzyme facilitating the reaction between HCl and NaOH.
e.
 All of the above.
 53.
A salt is a compound in which the hydrogen ion of _________________ is replaced by some other cation.
a.
 a base
b.
 an acid
c.
 an anion
d.
 a hydroxide ion
e.
 water
 54.
Which concentration(s) results in a pH of 7?
a.
 higher concentrations of hydrogen ions than hydroxide ions
b.
 higher concentrations of hydroxide ions than hydrogen ions
c.
 equal concentrations of hydroxide ions than hydrogen ions
d.
 Both A and B.
e.
 None of the above.
 55.
Identify the chemical(s) that act(s) as a buffer in human blood:
a.
 bicarbonate
b.
 hydrogen ions
c.
 carbon dioxide
d.
 water
e.
 None of the above.
 56.
Identify the hydrogen ion concentration that represents the lowest pH from the following list:
a.
 1 ´ 10-3
b.
 1 ´ 10-4
c.
 1 ´ 10-7
d.
 1 ´ 10-11
e.
 1 ´ 10-14
 57.
Which of the following has a pH closest to that of human blood?
a.
 beer
b.
 coffee
c.
 rain water
d.
 sea water
e.
 oven cleaner
 58.
Which of the following would most likely form electrolytes in water?
a.
 glucose
b.
 ethanol
c.
 An organic compound
d.
 An inorganic compound
e.
 None of the above.
 59.
Which of the following is not a property of carbon?
a.
 Carbon-to-carbon bonds are limited to single bonds.
b.
 Carbon has four valence electrons.
c.
 Carbon can form bonds to various other atoms.
d.
 Two carbon atoms can share three electron pairs with each other.
e.
 Carbon-to-carbon bonds are strong.
 60.
What aspect of long carbon chains makes them ideal for forming the backbones of long biomolecules?
a.
 The carbon atom itself is strong and hard to split.
b.
 Carbon can form a maximum of five covalent bonds with other atoms.
c.
 Carbons can form a maximum of three covalent bonds with other atoms.
d.
 Carbon-to-carbon covalent bonds are strong.
e.
 Carbon-to-carbon hydrogen bonds are weak and transitory.
 61.
The highly polarized nature of compounds containing carboxyl groups can be attributed to:
a.
 the presence of two highly electronegative carbon atoms.
b.
 the presence of two highly electropositive carbon atoms.
c.
 the presence of two highly electronegative oxygen atoms.
d.
 the presence of two highly electropositive oxygen atoms.
e.
 None of the above.
 62.

The number of electron pairs shared between carbon 2 and 3 in the accompanying figure is:

mc062-1.jpg

a.
 one.
b.
 one and a half.
c.
 two.
d.
 three.
e.
 None of the above.
 63.

The two molecules in the following figure represent:

mc063-1.jpg

a.
 ionized structures.
b.
 enantiomers.
c.
 secondary structures.
d.
 geometric isomers.
e.
 polymers.
 64.
This functional group is weakly basic because it can accept an H+ ion:
a.
 hydroxyl
b.
 carbonyl
c.
 amino
d.
 phosphate
e.
 sulfhydryl
 65.
This functional group forms cross bridges that help stabilize protein tertiary structure:
a.
 hydroxyl
b.
 carbonyl
c.
 amino
d.
 phosphate
e.
 sulfhydryl
 66.
The chemical interactions of large hydrocarbons are largely determined by:
a.
 their solubility in water.
b.
 their functional groups.
c.
 their polar nature.
d.
 isomerization of these hydrocarbons into other forms.
e.
 the hydrogens bonded to the carbon atoms.
 67.
Hydrocarbons are hydrophobic because:
a.
 the covalent bonds between hydrogen and carbon are nonpolar.
b.
 they contain functional groups.
c.
 they exist as isomers.
d.
 Both A and B.
e.
 Both A and C.
 68.
Which pair is mismatched?
a.
 monsaccharide:maltose
b.
 disaccharide:sucrose
c.
 polysaccharide:cellulose
d.
 None of these pairs are correctly matched.
e.
 All of these pairs are correctly matched.
 69.
Which of these terms is most inclusive?
a.
 monosaccharide
b.
 starch
c.
 polysaccharide
d.
 disaccharide
e.
 carbohydrate
 70.
Glucose dissolves in water because:
a.
 it ionizes.
b.
 it is a polysaccharide.
c.
 it has polar hydroxyl groups that interact with polar water molecules.
d.
 it has a very reactive primary structure.
e.
 it is hydrophobic.
 71.
Carbohydrate molecules:
a.
 serve as structural components of human cell walls.
b.
 form the regulatory compounds known as enzymes.
c.
 are a source of energy.
d.
 help protect vital organs from damage.
e.
 contain the genetic information of a cell.
 72.
A chemical reaction in which organic compounds are synthesized from their building blocks is called:
a.
 hydrolysis.
b.
 condensation.
c.
 oxidation.
d.
 reduction.
e.
 dissociation.
Figure 03-01
Use the figure below to answer the corresponding questions.nar003-1.jpg
 73.
The process illustrated in Figure 03-01 is called:
a.
 condensation.
b.
 protein synthesis.
c.
 hydrolysis.
d.
 dehydration synthesis.
e.
 denaturation.
 74.
The products of the process in Figure 03-01 are:
a.
 amino acids.
b.
 molecules of glycerol.
c.
 representative of a glycoside linkage.
d.
 enzymes.
e.
 monosaccharides.
 75.
Which one of the following carbohydrates is the most structurally complex?
a.
 sucrose
b.
 fructose
c.
 cellulose
d.
 glucose
e.
 a disaccharide
 76.
In which of the following reactions must the equivalent of a water molecule be added in order to break a bond?
a.
 fatty acids + glycerol ® fat
b.
 glucose + fructose ® sucrose
c.
 glycogen ® glucose
d.
 alanine + glycine ® dipeptide
e.
 glucose ® cellulose
 77.
Which of the following illustrates hydrolysis?
a.
 the reaction of two monosaccharides to form a disaccharide
b.
 the reaction of two amino acids to form a dipeptide
c.
 the reaction of a hydrogen atom and a hydroxide ion to form water
d.
 the reaction of a fat to form glycerol and fatty acids
e.
 the formation of ATP from ADP and inorganic phosphate
 78.
The difference between a hexose and a pentose is that:
a.
 a hexose is saturated, and a pentose is undersaturated.
b.
 a hexose is hydrophilic, and a pentose is hydrophobic.
c.
 a hexose always has six hydroxyl groups, and a pentose always has five.
d.
 a hexose always has six carbons, but a pentose always has five carbons.
e.
 a hexose can be polymerized, but a pentose cannot.
 79.
Monosaccharides are water soluble because:
a.
 they contain a large number of methyl groups.
b.
 they have a large number of polar hydroxyl groups.
c.
 they have at least one double bond between adjacent carbons.
d.
 they have large numbers of nonpolar carbons in their backbones.
e.
 they can form ring structures.
 80.
A carbohydrate energy storage molecule found in animal liver and muscle cells is:
a.
 starch.
b.
 glycogen.
c.
 cellulose.
d.
 fatty acids.
e.
 cholesterol.
 81.
Amyloplasts are organelles that store:
a.
 fat.
b.
 starch.
c.
 protein.
d.
 lipids.
e.
 DNA.
 82.
The major function(s) of lipids includes:
a.
 storing energy.
b.
 serving as structural components of cellular membranes.
c.
 serving as hormones.
d.
 Both A and B.
e.
 A, B, and C are correct.
 83.
The hydrolysis of triacylglycerol will yield:
a.
 three fatty acids and one glycerol.
b.
 three glycerols and one fatty acid.
c.
 two fatty acids and three glycerols.
d.
 one fatty acid, one amino acid, and one glucose.
e.
 one fatty acid, one phosphate, and one glycerol.
 84.
A molecule of a saturated triacylglycerol contains:
a.
 the maximum number of double bonds between carbons in the fatty acid chains.
b.
 the maximum number of triple bonds between carbons in the fatty acid chains.
c.
 the maximum number of hydrogen atoms in the fatty acid chains.
d.
 fatty acid chains with both amino and carboxyl groups.
e.
 alternating single and double bonds between carbons in the fatty acid chains.
 85.
Which of the following statements concerning unsaturated fats is correct?
a.
 They are more common in animals.
b.
 They have no double bonds in the carbon chains of their fatty acids.
c.
 They are generally liquids at room temperature.
d.
 They contain more hydrogen than do saturated fats having the same number of carbon atoms.
e.
 They have fewer fatty acids per fat molecule than do saturated fats.
 86.
The major difference between a structural lipid, such as those in cell membranes, and a storage fat is the fact that the structural lipid:
a.
 most commonly contains phosphate.
b.
 does not contain glycerol.
c.
 has four fatty acids attached to glucose.
d.
 is entirely hydrophobic.
e.
 is nonpolar.
 87.
An amphipathic molecule has:
a.
 two polar ends.
b.
 two hydrophobic ends.
c.
 a hydrophobic and a hydrophilic portion.
d.
 only one hydrophobic end.
e.
 only one hydrophilic end.
 88.

The most abundant molecules in this structure are:

mc088-1.jpg

a.
 structural proteins.
b.
 polysaccharides.
c.
 triacylglycerols.
d.
 phospholipids.
e.
 polypeptides.
 89.
Which of the following molecules is not grouped with the lipids?
a.
 prostaglandins
b.
 steroids
c.
 cholesterol
d.
 carotenoids
e.
 None of the above, all are lipids.
 90.
The hydrogenation process used to make margarine from cooking oil produces fatty acids that:
a.
 are known to increase the risk of cardiovascular disease.
b.
 contain fewer double bonds.
c.
 can contain rearrange double bonds to the cis configuration.
d.
 Both A and B are correct.
e.
 A, B, and C are correct.
 91.
Which statement is false?
a.
 Trans fatty acids are unsaturated.
b.
 Trans fatty acids are more solid at room temperature than cis fatty acids.
c.
 Unsaturated fatty acids are liquid at room temperature.
d.
 Saturated fatty acids are solid at room temperature.
e.
 All of these statements are true.
 92.
The major function(s) of proteins includes:
a.
 catalyzing chemical reactions.
b.
 controlling the expression of genes.
c.
 strengthening and protecting cells and tissues.
d.
 Both A and B.
e.
 A, B, and C are correct.
 93.
There are 20 different amino acids in the proteins that make up the tissues of living organisms. The primary difference between these amino acids is in their:
a.
 R or variable groups.
b.
 number of potassium groups.
c.
 number of phosphate groups.
d.
 number of carbonyl groups.
e.
 number of asymmetric carbons.
Figure 03-02
Use the figure below to answer the corresponding questions.nar004-1.jpg
 94.
In Figure 03-02, ionic attractions would form between the R groups of which amino acids?
a.
 1 and 3
b.
 2 and 4
c.
 3 and 5
d.
 4 and 6
e.
 None of the above.
 95.
Hydrophobic interactions would occur between the R groups of which two amino acids in Figure 03-02?
a.
 1 and 4
b.
 2 and 5
c.
 3 and 6
d.
 2 and 4
e.
 3 and 5
 96.
Which of the following is responsible for the alpha-helical structure of proteins?
a.
 hydrophobic interactions
b.
 nonpolar covalent bonds
c.
 ionic interactions
d.
 hydrogen bonds
e.
 polar covalent bonds
 97.
At which level of protein structure are peptide bonds most important?
a.
 primary
b.
 secondary
c.
 tertiary
d.
 quaternary
e.
 globular
 98.
Proteins with alpha helical forms exhibit this property:
a.
 strength
b.
 elasticity
c.
 heat stability
d.
 rigidity
e.
 All of the above.
 99.
Which of the following would help stabilize a protein the most?
a.
 alpha helix
b.
 beta pleated sheet
c.
 hydrogen bonds
d.
 hydrophobic interactions
e.
 disulfide bonds
 100.
Some proteins are important biological buffers because:
a.
 they react with water to produce carbon dioxide, which neutralizes acids.
b.
 they contain weakly acidic and weakly basic groups.
c.
 they are able to absorb great amounts of carbon dioxide during condensation reactions.
d.
 they produce carbonic acid upon hydrolysis.
e.
 All of the above.
 101.
The tertiary structure of proteins is typified by the:
a.
 association of several polypeptide chains by weak bonds.
b.
 order in which amino acids are joined in a peptide chain.
c.
 bonding of two amino acids to form a dipeptide.
d.
 folding of a peptide chain to form an alpha helix.
e.
 three-dimensional shape of an individual polypeptide chain.
 102.

All of the following types of chemical bonds are responsible for maintaining the tertiary structure of this polypeptide except:

mc102-1.jpg

a.
 ionic bonds.
b.
 hydrogen bonds.
c.
 hydrophobic interactions.
d.
 disulfide bonds.
e.
 peptide bonds.
 103.
Regulatory proteins:
a.
 defend against foreign invaders.
b.
 store nutrients.
c.
 catalyze a specific chemical reaction.
d.
 control the expression of specific genes.
e.
 strengthen and protect cells and tissues.
 104.
Molecular chaperones are proteins that mediate the folding process of:
a.
 other proteins.
b.
 amino acids.
c.
 lipids.
d.
 DNA.
e.
 sugars.
 105.

The following amino acid would be characterized as __________ based on the chemical properties of its side chain.

mc105-1.jpg

a.
 nonpolar
b.
 acidic
c.
 basic
d.
 hydrophilic
e.
 electrically charged
 106.
Which of the following statements is true of proteins?
a.
 Proteins lose some or all of their normal activity if their three-dimensional structure is disrupted.
b.
 Proteins are composed of ribose, phosphate, and a nitrogen-containing base.
c.
 The activity of proteins is independent of temperature and pH.
d.
 Denaturation is usually reversible.
e.
 All proteins are enzymes.
 107.

If the differently shaded portions of this molecule represent different polypeptide chains, then this figure is representative of:

mc107-1.jpg

a.
 an amino acid.
b.
 the quaternary structure of a protein.
c.
 a steroid hormone.
d.
 cellulose.
e.
 a carotenoid.
 108.
Which of the following statements is false?
a.
 DNA is usually composed of two nucleotide strands.
b.
 DNA contains deoxyribose.
c.
 DNA does not normally contain uracil.
d.
 The nucleotides of DNA are linked by phosphodiester linkages.
e.
 DNA does not normally contain a phosphate group.
 109.
ATP is important in living organisms because:
a.
 like all other nucleic acids, it stores hereditary information.
b.
 like RNA, it acts as a source code for the formation of proteins.
c.
 it can transfer some of its energy to other chemicals.
d.
 it is an important structural component of cell membranes.
e.
 it is easily converted to starch for long-term storage.
 110.
Which of the following statements best summarizes the differences between RNA and DNA?
a.
 RNA is a protein and DNA is a nucleic acid.
b.
 DNA is a polymer and RNA is a monomer.
c.
 DNA comprises the genes, while RNA is a direct participant in the process of protein synthesis.
d.
 RNA is a single-stranded form of DNA.
e.
 DNA is the primary energy currency of all cells.
 111.
Analysis of a certain complex compound shows that it contains phosphate groups, ribose groups, and pyrimidines. Based on this information, which of the following is the best description of this compound?
a.
 It is most likely ribonucleic acid.
b.
 It is DNA.
c.
 It is an inorganic compound.
d.
 It contains thymine.
e.
 It is a polypeptide.
 112.
Which of the following are most directly arranged from DNA structure?
a.
 polysaccharides
b.
 polypeptides
c.
 nucleotides
d.
 triglycerides
e.
 fatty acids
 113.
This molecule transmits heredity information:
a.
 cholesterol
b.
 adenosine triphosphate
c.
 nucleic acid
d.
 fatty acid
e.
 polysaccharide
Figure 03-03
Use the figure to answer the corresponding questions.
nar005-1.jpg
 114.
The molecular fragment represented in Figure 03-03 is:
a.
 ATP.
b.
 RNA.
c.
 a protein.
d.
 a nucleotide.
e.
 a polysaccharide.
 115.
The type of connection between the atoms at the point labeled 1 in Figure 03-03 is:
a.
 a peptide bond.
b.
 a glycoside linkage.
c.
 a disulfide bond.
d.
 a phosphodiester linkage.
e.
 a hydrogen bond.
 116.

Which portion of the following molecule is easily transferred and therefore responsible for the energy transfer property of this molecule?

mc116-1.jpg

a.
 1
b.
 2
c.
 3
d.
 1 and 2
e.
 None of the above.
 117.
Ester linkages would not be formed during condensation reactions that produce:
a.
 polysaccahrides.
b.
 triacylglycerols.
c.
 polypeptides.
d.
 nucleic acids.
e.
 All of the above contain ester linkages that are formed during condensation reactions.
 118.
Which monomer is incorrectly matched with the corresponding polymer?
a.
 Amino acids are used to build proteins.
b.
 Monosaccharides are used to build polysaccharides.
c.
 Fatty acids are used to build nucleic acids.
d.
 Glucose molecules are used to build starches.
e.
 All of these monomers are correctly matched with the corresponding polymer.

 
Check Your Work     Start Over

Chapter 1 Introduction Study Guide

%CODE1%

Javascript not enabled

Name: 

Chapter 1 Introduction Study Guide

 

 

Modified True/False
Indicate whether the statement is true or false.  If false, change the identified word or phrase to make the statement true.
 1.
Accepting ideas is the cornerstone of scientific thought. _________________________
 2.
Skepticism is a habit of mind in which a person accepts the validity of accepted ideas. _________________________
 3.
The law of gravity and the law of conservation of energy are national laws. _________________________
 4.
Scientific investigations require ethical behavior. _________________________
 5.
Most scientific investigations begin with observations that lead to universal laws. _________________________
 6.
A hypothesis is a possible explanation that can be tested by observation or experimentation. _________________________
 7.
The control group and the experimental group are identical except for one variable. _________________________
 8.
A hypothesis is a general explanation for a broad range of data. _________________________
 9.
International System of Units (SI) is the official name of the metric system. _________________________
 10.
A centimeter is equal to 10 millimeters. _________________________
 11.
Light and electron autoclaves help magnify objects. _________________________
 12.
A technique is a way of doing something. _________________________
 13.
In the event of a lab accident, one thing you should always do is remain calm. _________________________
 14.
Biology is the study of nonliving things. _________________________
 15.
A student who wants to study bacteria would take microbiology classes. _________________________
 16.
Reproduction insures ongoing generations of both one-celled organisms and frogs. _________________________
 17.
Homeostasis is the maintenance of a stable internal environment in spite of changes in the external environment. _________________________
 18.
The bacterium that causes cholera is an example of a pathogen. _________________________
 19.
Scientists discovered that predicting the spread of cholera involves understanding reproductive behavior of plankton. _________________________
 20.
The study of all the factors in the spread of cholera in human populations is an example of ecology. _________________________
 21.
Scientists in the 21st century are better able to prevent disease because of their improved understanding of biology. _________________________
 22.
The completion of the Human Genome Project was one minor contribution to the ability to cure disease. _________________________
 23.
Scientists expect people to live longer lives because of advances in the science of biology. _________________________
 24.
The application of technology to medicine has greatly increased the ability of people to live healthy lives. _________________________
 25.
Genetic engineering is the only practical application of biotechnology. _________________________
 26.
Genetic engineering is widely used in agriculture to produce crops that are pest-resistant. _________________________
 27.
Surrounding a drug compound with a layer of atoms that allows for the slow release of the drug is an example of genetic engineering. _________________________
 28.
Making a new kind of fastener modeled on the way an aquatic animal fastens onto rocks on the ocean floor is an example of nanotechnology. _________________________
 29.
Biometrics involves analyzing large amounts of data on biological characteristics. _________________________
 30.
Unique genetic traits, such as hair color, are the most important source of data for biometrics. _________________________
 31.
Advances in biotechnology have been slowed by ethical concerns. _________________________
 32.
The ethics of different kinds of biotechnology will be decided by individuals and scientists. _________________________
 33.
One good way to protect the environment is to learn more about it. _________________________
 34.
Environmental science involves neither the study of organisms nor their physical surroundings. _________________________
 35.
One reason that wildlife biologists collect DNA samples from endangered species is the hope that these species can be cloned if they become extinct. _________________________
 36.
Genetic engineering is used to track the movements of animals in the wild. _________________________
 37.
Community environmental groups make problems for environmental research. _________________________
 

Multiple Choice
Identify the choice that best completes the statement or answers the question.
 38.
Which of the following do scientists not use to support ideas?
a.
 opinions
c.
 experiments
b.
 evidence
d.
 investigations
 39.
Which of the following applies to all branches of science?
a.
 cell organization
c.
 gravity
b.
 earthquakes
d.
 reproduction
 40.
Which of the following is unethical behavior in scientific investigations?
a.
 allowing peers to review investigations
b.
 following guidelines for medical experiments
c.
 reporting inaccurate data
d.
 basing investigations on someone else’s work
 41.
Scientific thinking can be used
a.
 only by scientists.
c.
 by all living things.
b.
 only in experiments.
d.
 by everyone in daily life.
 42.
A scientist noticed that the number of salamanders in ponds in the Rocky Mountains was declining. This was a(n)
a.
 hypothesis.
c.
 observation.
b.
 theory.
d.
 control.
 43.
A hypothesis is a
a.
 definite answer to a given problem.
b.
 testable possible explanation of an observation.
c.
 proven statement.
d.
 concluding statement.
 44.
observation : hypothesis ::
a.
 theory : observation
c.
 certainty : prediction
b.
 guess : hypothesis
d.
 hypothesis : investigation
 45.
Most typically, the order in which the steps of scientific investigations are applied is
a.
 controlled experiment, hypothesis, analysis of results, observations, questions, conclusions.
b.
 observations, controlled experiment, hypothesis, analysis of results, conclusions, questions.
c.
 observations, questions, hypothesis, controlled experiment, analysis of results, conclusions.
d.
 questions, observations, analysis of results, controlled experiment, conclusions, hypothesis.
 46.
If experiments are not possible or ethical, scientists
a.
 cannot test a hypothesis.
b.
 test more than one variable at a time.
c.
 do not use a control group.
d.
 look for connections in data gathered.
 47.
Scientific hypotheses are most often tested by the process of
a.
 communicating.
c.
 experimenting.
b.
 inferring.
d.
 analyzing data.
 48.
A planned procedure to test a hypothesis is called a(n)
a.
 prediction.
c.
 control.
b.
 experiment.
d.
 variable.
 49.
The variable that is measured in an experiment is the _____ variable.
a.
 dependent
c.
 control
b.
 independent
d.
 experimental
 50.
A general explanation for a broad range of data is called a
a.
 hypothesis.
c.
 prediction.
b.
 theory.
d.
 controlled experiment.
 51.
A scientific theory is
a.
 absolutely certain and never questioned.
b.
 unchangeable.
c.
 revised as new evidence is presented.
d.
 a controlled experiment.
 52.
Scientists build theories from many
a.
 experiments that support hypotheses.
b.
 hypotheses that are rejected.
c.
 experiments with different variables.
d.
 untested ideas.
 53.
The metric system of measurement is based on powers of
a.
 1.
c.
 100.
b.
 10.
d.
 1000.
 54.
A specialized tool used to magnify organisms so that they can be observed is a
a.
 pipet.
c.
 satellite.
b.
 microscope.
d.
 laminar-flow hood.
 55.
Which of the following would scientists use to prevent contamination in an experiment?
a.
 electron microscope
c.
 remote collection of data
b.
 light microscope
d.
 sterile technique
 56.
Which of the following is the most recent tool available to scientists?
a.
 remote tracking devices
c.
 autoclaves
b.
 microscopes
d.
 sterilized pipets
 57.
You can work safely in the science lab by
a.
 taking shortcuts in procedures.
b.
 waiting until the end of experiments to clean area.
c.
 estimating measurements of chemicals.
d.
 following all instructions.
 58.
All of the following are important for working safely in a science laboratory except
a.
 tasting chemicals.
c.
 working cautiously.
b.
 measuring chemicals precisely.
d.
 wearing safety goggles.
 59.
Biology is the study of
a.
 life.
c.
 weather.
b.
 minerals.
d.
 energy.
 60.
The branch of biology that is the study of the human body is
a.
 ecology.
c.
 cell biology.
b.
 evolutionary theory.
d.
 physiology.
 61.
Which of the following is not one of the seven properties of life?
a.
 metabolism
c.
 responsiveness
b.
 homeostasis
d.
 photosynthesis
 62.
As a characteristic of all living things, homeostasis relates most directly to which of the following biological themes?
a.
 interacting systems
c.
 stability
b.
 scale and structure
d.
 evolution
 63.
chemical reactions : metabolism ::
a.
 cells : an organism
c.
 reproduction : living
b.
 heredity : homeostasis
d.
 experimentation : observation
 64.
All living things maintain a balance within their cells and with the environment through the process of
a.
 growth.
c.
 homeostasis.
b.
 development.
d.
 evolution.
 65.
The energy that drives metabolism in animals comes from
a.
 homeostasis.
c.
 water.
b.
 food.
d.
 heredity.
 66.
Children tend to resemble their parents due to
a.
 heredity.
c.
 metabolism.
b.
 responsiveness.
d.
 homeostasis.
 67.
A field of sunflowers facing the sun is an example of
a.
 metabolism.
c.
 responsiveness.
b.
 growth.
d.
 heredity.
 68.
The changes in human babies during their first year of life is an example of
a.
 heredity.
c.
 evolution.
b.
 responsiveness.
d.
 development.
 69.
Filtering contaminated water through a sari is
a.
 an ineffective way to reduce cases of cholera.
b.
 the best way to prevent the spread of cholera.
c.
 a low-tech solution to reducing cases of cholera.
d.
 another factor that causes cholera to spread rapidly.
 70.
All of the following should be researched in studying the epidemiology of waterborne diseases except the
a.
 genomes of the pathogens.
b.
 habitat of pathogens.
c.
 food chain of the pathogens.
d.
 environmental factors that affect pathogens.
 71.
One of the most important tools in preventing the spread of disease is
a.
 computer modeling.
c.
 genetic engineering.
b.
 DNA fingerprinting.
d.
 giving vaccinations.
 72.
computer modeling : epidemiology ::
a.
 genetics : DNA fingerprinting
b.
 cloning : biotechnology
c.
 genome : vaccination
d.
 human health : disease prevention
 73.
Which of the following terms is used to refer to a piece of equipment made for a specific use?
a.
 process
c.
 device
b.
 cure
d.
 treatment
 74.
Which of the following is least likely to help humans live longer?
a.
 epidemiology
c.
 genetics
b.
 medicine
d.
 DNA fingerprinting
 75.
knowledge of biology : human potential ::
a.
 assistive technologies : everyday lives
b.
 human potential : epidemiology
c.
 populations : disease outbreaks
d.
 genomes : genetics
 76.
The technology of changing the genetic material of a living cell is called
a.
 biometrics.
c.
 genetics.
b.
 genetic engineering.
d.
 DNA fingerprinting.
 77.
Planting Bt corn helps farmers decrease the use of
a.
 fertilizers.
c.
 pesticides.
b.
 herbicides.
d.
 cultivators.
 78.
All of the following are known advantages of planting Bt corn except it
a.
 adds some bacterial genes to food supplies.
b.
 lowers a farmer’s cost of production.
c.
 improves a farmer’s crop yield.
d.
 reduces chemical contaminants in the environment.
 79.
The application of a biological structure or process to solve design problems is called
a.
 adaptation.
c.
 cloning.
b.
 biomimetics.
d.
 decoding.
 80.
Which of these biotechnologies has the potential to repair tissues inside the body?
a.
 biometrics
c.
 epidemiology
b.
 biomimetics
d.
 nanotechnology
 81.
clam shell formation : ceramics ::
a.
 CAT scanning : modeling fossils
b.
 strong fabrics : spider silk
c.
 spider silk : strong fabrics
d.
 modeling fossils : CAT scanning
 82.
The analysis of biological traits to identify people is called
a.
 arithmetics.
c.
 genetics.
b.
 biometrics.
d.
 statistics.
 83.
Which of the following traits of an individual would be most useful for identifying a victim in a forensic investigation?
a.
 eye color
c.
 blood type
b.
 hair color
d.
 DNA fingerprint
 84.
The ethical concerns about biotechnology must be addressed by
a.
 scientists only.
c.
 both individuals and scientists.
b.
 societies only.
d.
 both individuals and societies.
 85.
All of the following biotechnologies are considered by some to be unethical except
a.
 biomimetic products.
c.
 human stem cell research.
b.
 biometrics data bases.
d.
 genetically modified foods.
 86.
Which of the following would be an unethical use of biometric data and methods?
a.
 linking criminals to crime scenes
b.
 eliminating innocent people from a list of criminal suspects
c.
 excluding people with certain genes from getting jobs
d.
 protecting citizens from bioterrorism
 87.
Which of the following is considered to be one of the most important applications of biology?
a.
 biometrics
c.
 environmental science
b.
 genetic engineering
d.
 assistive technologies
 88.
In order to make wise decisions about the use of natural resources, citizens will need to have a better understanding of
a.
 biomimetics.
c.
 environmental science.
b.
 genetics.
d.
 genetic engineering.
 89.
ecology : environmental science ::
a.
 biomolecules : strong glues
c.
 forensics : biometrics
b.
 genetics : genetic engineering
d.
 spider silk : clam shells
 90.
What do the initials GIS stand for?
a.
 geological inference standard
c.
 geographic information system
b.
 genetic improvement survey
d.
 global investigation society
 91.
Satellite tagging is a technology that is most likely to be used in
a.
 assisting the disabled.
c.
 developing maps of the world.
b.
 conservation of wildlife.
d.
 tracking the spread of disease.
 92.
Each of the following is a part of a GIS program except
a.
 access to data from different sources.
b.
 computer mapping.
c.
 environmental databases.
d.
 genetic analysis tools.
 93.
Which of the following must be done before an environmental study is begun locally?
a.
 contact several scientists
c.
 identify a problem
b.
 buy a GIS program
d.
 gather up volunteers
 94.
At the Raptor Rehabilitation Center, students in an environmental club help take care of injured and orphaned birds of prey. Based on this information, what does the term raptor refer to?
a.
 a bird of prey
c.
 orphaned wildlife
b.
 the environment
d.
 debilitating injury
 

Completion
Complete each statement.
 95.
The medical treatment for ulcers changed after scientists discovered that ____________________ cause stomach ulcers.
 96.
The questioning and often doubtful attitude required for scientific thought is called ____________________.
 97.
The truths that govern science and are valid everywhere in the universe are universal ____________________.
 98.
____________________ are a system of moral principles and values.
 99.
Most scientific investigations begin with ____________________ that lead to questions.
 100.
A reason to set up an experiment is to test a ____________________.
 101.
A(n) ____________________ experiment is a procedure that tests one factor at a time and that uses a(n) ____________________ group and an experimental group.
 102.
In a controlled experiment, the ____________________ group is the group that has one variable changed.
 103.
In an experiment, the ____________________ group receives no experimental treatment.
 104.
Factors that may change as a result of experimental treatment are ____________________ variables.
 105.
A(n) ____________________ is a specific, testable prediction for a limited set of conditions, and a(n) ____________________ is a general explanation for a broad range of data.
 106.
Scientists use the ______________________________ system to make measurements.
 107.
SI is the abbreviation for the ____________________ System of Units.
 108.
The SI base unit for length is the ____________________.
 109.
A kilogram is equal to ____________________ grams.
 110.
In a light microscope, light passes through one or more ____________________ to produce an enlarged image of an object.
 111.
Scientists use ____________________ techniques to minimize the risk of contamination.
 112.
The study of the interactions of living organisms with one another and with the nonliving part of their environment is called ____________________.
 113.
The branch of biology that studies the changes in types of organisms over time is called ___________________ theory.
 114.
Scientists who study whales, bats, or bears in their natural habitat are called ____________________ biologists.
 115.
The process of _________________ traits changing over time is called evolution.
 116.
Every living organism is composed of one or more ____________________.
 117.
All cells have the same basic ____________________.
 118.
The sum of all chemical reactions carried out in an organism is ____________________.
 119.
The energy used by living organisms originates from the ____________________.
 120.
The study of ____________________ involves finding out how diseases are spread.
 121.
Cholera bacteria can cause the disease only when ____________________ increases.
 122.
A ____________________ is a medical procedure that allows a person to resist infection by a certain disease.
 123.
Many new tools for studying and treating diseases caused by problems in genes have come from the study of ____________________.
 124.
In developed countries, the length of human lives has nearly ____________________ in the past century.
 125.
One example of an assistive technology that helps people in everyday life is ____________________.
 126.
The gene that was added to Bt corn came from a(n) ____________________.
 127.
Bt corn contains a gene that produces a ____________________ that kills the European core borer.
 128.
The robotic items produced through nanotechnology often resemble tiny ____________________.
 129.
Imitating biological structures, processes, and systems to solve engineering problems is called ____________________.
 130.
Because of ____________________, dissection is no longer needed to determine the shapes and locations of internal organs.
 131.
Fingerprints and iris patterns are useful in identification because they are ____________________ to individuals.
 132.
Material used in ____________________ is obtained from hair and skin cells.
 133.
Research that involves human stem cells is limited because many people think that such research is ____________________.
 134.
The study of living organisms and their environments is called _________________________.
 135.
The existence of undiscovered resources is an important reason to study and ____________________ natural environments.
 136.
The movements of wildlife can be studied through the technology of ____________________.
 137.
Wildlife agents use the technology of ____________________ to identify the remains of endangered animals and to identify who killed them.
 138.
The people in communities who make contributions to environmental research are called ____________________.
 139.
Students make contributions to environmental conservation by helping to care for ____________________ or ____________________ wildlife.
 

Short Answer
 140.
What universal law applies in a study of the flight of birds? How does it apply?
 141.
How could you use scientific thought to investigate a claim about a product?
 142.
Write a hypothesis to explain why the water level in an aquarium is going down.
 143.
What two groups are part of a controlled experiment?
 144.
What is the difference between an independent variable and dependent variables in a controlled experiment?
 145.
How does a scientist verify the conclusions of an experiment?
 146.
What is the difference between a hypothesis and a theory?
 147.
What makes SI easy to use?
 148.
What are the base SI units for volume, length, and mass?
 149.
What are two common kinds of microscopes. How do they differ?
 150.
What is sterile technique? What are four tools of sterile technique?
 151.
Suppose you are a scientist who studies sharks in their natural habitat. What are two names that describe the kind of biologist you are?
 152.
What is heredity?
 153.
Name the seven properties of life.
 154.
How are data from weather and climate satellites used in epidemiology?
 155.
How does a vaccination help people and animals resist disease?
 156.
How will the completion of the Human Genome Project contribute to biological research in the 21st Century?
 157.
List two examples of assistive technologies that will improve the lives of people with injuries and diseases.
 158.
How does genetic engineering that produced Bt corn help to increase the yield in a farmer’s corn field?
 159.
List two practical applications of biotechnology other than genetic engineering.
 160.
How has genetic engineering improved the treatment of people who have diabetes?
 161.
From what biological structure did engineers get the idea for a submarine?
 162.
What makes iris scans an effective technology for identifying people?
 163.
List two biological characteristics of individuals, besides fingerprints and iris patterns, that can be analyzed by computers to identify people.
 164.
List two concerns that people have expressed about the ethics of biotechnology.
 165.
List three important resources that all living things get from the environment.
 166.
What do the initials GIS stand for?
 167.
What is satellite tagging?
 168.
List three steps that students could take to get involved in environmental research.
 

Essay
 169.
Explain why accurate data and peer review are important in science.
 170.
The results of an experiment do not support the hypothesis that the experiment was designed to test. Was the experiment a waste of time? Explain your answer.
 171.
Explain the difference between an independent variable and a dependent variable in a controlled experiment. Also indicate whether or not each kind of variable would be found in a control group and an experimental group.
 172.
Summarize the steps in the development of a theory.
 173.
Before doing experiments, what should you know about lab safety? What procedure should you follow if an accident occurs during an experiment in your class?
 174.
List and describe the seven properties of life shared by all living organisms.
 175.
Toads that live in hot, dry regions bury themselves in the soil during the day. How might this be important to toads?
nar001-1.jpg
 176.
Refer to the map above. West Nile Virus is a virus that attacks the nervous system of birds, humans, and many other mammals. The virus first appeared in the United States in 1999, when an outbreak was reported in the New York City area. Based on this background and the information shown in the map, write a paragraph that summarizes the state of West Nile Virus incidence in the United States as of 2006.
 177.
Explain how increased understanding of biology and science in general should enable humans to live longer and healthier lives.
 178.
Compare and contrast fingerprints and DNA fingerprints as a means of identifying individuals.
 179.
Ethics is the study of whether human actions are moral (right or wrong, acceptable or unacceptable). Summarize the role of ethics in guiding the future of biotechnology.
 180.
What important lesson can be learned from the recent discovery of new kinds of organisms in a remote area of New Guinea?

 
Check Your Work     Start Over

Cells and Their Functions

%CODE1%

Javascript not enabled

Name: 

 

Cells and Their Functions

 

 

Multiple Choice
Identify the choice that best completes the statement or answers the question.
 1.
The smallest unit that can carry out all activities we associate with life is:
a.
 atom.
b.
 organelle.
c.
 cell.
d.
 tissue.
e.
 organ.
 2.
What characteristic of cells could be used to determine the presence or absence of life?
a.
 presence of organic molecules
b.
 presence of inorganic molecules
c.
 alteration of concentrations of organic and/or inorganic molecules
d.
 relatively constant concentrations of organic and/or inorganic molecules
e.
 None of the above would be useful in determining the presence or absence of life.
 3.
Which of the following is not found in single celled organisms?
a.
 atoms
b.
 cells
c.
 tissues
d.
 Neither A nor B is found in single celled organisms.
e.
 Neither A, nor B, nor C is found in single celled organisms.
 4.
Evidence that all living cells have a common origin is provided by:
a.
 the cell theory, which states that the cell is the basic unit of life.
b.
 the fact that all new cells come from previously existing cells.
c.
 the fact that cells are the building blocks of the most complex plants.
d.
 basic similarities in cell structure and chemistry.
e.
 the fact that cells are the smallest units that can carry out all life activities.
 5.
As biologists continue to unlock the secrets of ________, many new doors are opening to development of medical treatments.
a.
 proteins
b.
 mitochondria
c.
 cell membranes
d.
 DNA
e.
 ribosomes
 6.
The function of the plasma membrane is to:
a.
 serve as a highly selective barrier.
b.
 completely isolate the cell from the external environment.
c.
 equalize the chemical composition inside and outside the cell.
d.
 allow cells to accumulate materials and energy.
e.
 Both A and D.
 7.
It is advantageous for cells to be small because:
a.
 a small cell size prevents a cell from weighing too much.
b.
 a small cell size occupies less space in nature where space is limited.
c.
 a small cell has a small volume relative to surface area, thereby increasing efficient transport.
d.
 a small cell has a small surface area relative to volume, thereby facilitating ion balance.
e.
 a small cell is better able to conserve energy than a larger cell.
Figure 04-01
Use the figure below to answer the corresponding questions.

nar001-1.jpg
 8.
Which of the following statements about Figure 04-01 is true?
a.
 Figure B has a greater surface area than Figure A.
b.
 Figure B has a greater volume than Figure A.
c.
 Figure B has a smaller volume than Figure A.
d.
 Figure B has a greater surface area to volume ratio than Figure A.
e.
 Figure B has a smaller surface area to volume ratio than Figure A.
 9.
Based on your knowledge of basic geometric relationships, the actual surface area to volume ratio for Figure B in Figure 04-01 is:
a.
 0.01.
b.
 0.06.
c.
 100.
d.
 1,000.
e.
 This cannot be determined from the information provided.
 10.
One strategy that allows larger cells to have an effective surface area to volume ratio is:
a.
 having a completely spherical shape.
b.
 being short and fat.
c.
 having thin, finger-like projections.
d.
 having a thinner plasma membrane.
e.
 locomotion.
 11.
Which of the following is not an example of homeostasis?
a.
 A cell maintains a constant pH.
b.
 A cell maintains a constant glucose concentration.
c.
 A cell maintains a constant salt concentration.
d.
 A cell maintains a constant water concentration.
e.
 All of the above are examples of homeostasis.
 12.
Which of the following descriptions or structures does not match the cell type?
a.
 Sperm cells have flagella.
b.
 Nerve cells have long, thin extensions.
c.
 Epithelial cells are rectangular.
d.
 White blood cells can change shape.
e.
 All of the above are correct.
 13.
Which scientist first viewed living cells?
a.
 Robert Hooke
b.
 Matthias Schleiden
c.
 Theodor Schwann
d.
 Anton van Leeuwenhoek
e.
 August Weismann
 14.
The ratio of the size of the image seen with the microscope to the actual size of the object is:
a.
 magnification.
b.
 resolution.
c.
 resolving power.
d.
 centrifugation.
e.
 None of the above.
 15.
Electron microscopes have a much higher resolution than either the human eye or any light microscope because:
a.
 of their higher magnification.
b.
 the lenses used are of much higher quality.
c.
 of the very short (nanometer) wavelengths of electrons.
d.
 the images are viewed on screens, rather than directly using an eyepiece or ocular lens.
e.
 All of the above.
 16.
The advantage of studying cells using a phase contrast microscope is that:
a.
 the magnification is greater.
b.
 the resolving power is greater.
c.
 it is faster.
d.
 it permits us to view internal structures of live cells.
e.
 it uses a beam of electrons to allow us to see the organelles enclosed by the plasma membrane.
 17.
The accompanying figure is the product of a:

mc017-1.jpg

a.
 phase-contrast light microscope.
b.
 Nomarski differential interference microscope.
c.
 transmission electron microscope.
d.
 scanning electron microscope.
e.
 confocal fluorescence microscope.
 18.
The scanning electron microscope differs from the transmission electron microscope in that the scanning electron microscope:
a.
 can view a live specimen.
b.
 relies on the detection of electrons from the beam after contact with the specimens.
c.
 can view the internal structure of a cell.
d.
 utilizes a beam of light that passes through the specimen.
e.
 gives a three dimensional image of the object being studied.
 19.
Differential centrifugation is a process that:
a.
 separates different components of the cell that function differently.
b.
 separates components of the cell that have a different chemical makeup.
c.
 analyzes the chemical components of the cell.
d.
 separates components of the cell that have different densities.
e.
 allows researchers to view the contents of the cells.
 20.
Which cell structure would not be in a eukaryotic cell, but would be found in a prokaryotic cell?
a.
 cell wall
b.
 flagellum
c.
 ribosomes
d.
 Gogli complex
e.
 DNA
 21.
Membrane-bounded organelles facilitate faster chemical reactions because:
a.
 reactants are within close proximity to each other.
b.
 membranes lower the activation energy of biochemical reactions.
c.
 membrane-bounded organelles act as catalysts for biochemical reactions.
d.
 reactants move faster within membrane-bounded organelles.
e.
 reactants are less likely to encounter each other within membrane-bounded organelles.
 22.
A eukaryotic cell:
a.
 is usually smaller than a prokaryotic cell.
b.
 has its DNA concentrated in one area of the cell without a nuclear membrane.
c.
 typically has a cell wall, in addition to a plasma membrane.
d.
 is a bacteria-like organism.
e.
 has a variety of membranous organelles.
 23.
Membranes facilitate all of the following except:
a.
 facilitating the formation of energy-yielding gradients.
b.
 acting as barriers to ions.
c.
 acting as important “work benches” within cells.
d.
 directing the synthesis of proteins.
e.
 maintaining the identity of different cellular compartments.
 24.
Which of the following structures would not be found in cells of a plant’s roots?
a.
 mitochondria
b.
 chloroplasts
c.
 endoplasmic reticulum
d.
 nucleus
e.
 All of the above would be found in cells of a plant’s root.
 25.
Select the cell type that is not correctly matched with the type of predominate organelle it would need to perform its unique function:
a.
 Sperm cells have many mitochondria to provide energy for the flagellum.
b.
 Pancreas cells have many ribosomes to produce the protein insulin.
c.
 Liver cells have many ribosomes to produce detoxifying protein enzymes.
d.
 Plant leaf cells have many chloroplasts to produce sugar by using energy from sunlight.
e.
 All of the cells above are correctly matched with the predominate type of organelle they would need to perform their unique function.
 26.
Which of the following structures or activities is not directly part of the endomembrane system?
a.
 budding
b.
 lysosomes
c.
 ribosomes
d.
 peroxisomes
e.
 Golgi complex
 27.
DNA is associated with proteins, forming a complex known as:
a.
 chromosomes.
b.
 nucleoli.
c.
 nucleus.
d.
 genes.
e.
 chromatin.
 28.
In the classic experiments by Bracht and Hammerling, the nucleus of Acetabularia was removed, the cap was cut off, a nucleus of a different species was inserted, and the cap was allowed to regenerate. The new cap was then removed. After the second regeneration, the cap was observed, and the following conclusion was made:
a.
 The shape of the cap was controlled by the nucleus, thus, the nucleus was the control center of the cell.
b.
 The shape of the cap was under the control of the stalk, which produced a control substance.
c.
 The shape of the cap was independent of both the stalk and the holdfast.
d.
 The “cren” caps were defective due to some mutation in the cap. Thus, “cren” caps are independent of control from both the base and the holdfast.
e.
 At the time no conclusion could be made because in the early 20th century, biologists did not know about the composition of DNA.
 29.
Nucleoli contain chromosomal regions that specialize in making:
a.
 proteins.
b.
 RNA.
c.
 ribosomes.
d.
 lipids.
e.
 hormones.
 30.
If a toxin, such as a bacterial toxin, destroys ribosomes, what cellular activity will be affected first?
a.
 protein synthesis
b.
 DNA synthesis
c.
 movement
d.
 energy storage
e.
 active transport
 31.
Proteins made on ribosomes may be further modified within the:
a.
 lysosomes.
b.
 nucleus.
c.
 mitochondria.
d.
 Golgi complex.
e.
 peroxisomes.
 32.
The smooth endoplasmic reticulum:
a.
 is absent in most plant cells.
b.
 synthesizes proteins.
c.
 provides structural support.
d.
 synthesizes lipids.
e.
 is required for ribosome synthesis.
Figure 04-02
Use the figure below to answer the corresponding questions.

nar002-1.jpg
 33.
The cellular structure indicated by the arrow in Figure 04-02 is responsible for:
a.
 lipid and fatty acid metabolism.
b.
 protein synthesis.
c.
 digestion of unused organelles.
d.
 replication.
e.
 None of the above.
 34.
Which of the following statements about the structure surrounded by the box in Figure 04-02 is true?
a.
 This structure is only found in plant cells.
b.
 This structure is characteristic of both prokaryotic and eukaryotic cells.
c.
 This structure plays a central role in the process of transcription.
d.
 This structure typically represents a significant portion of the overall cell volume.
e.
 This structure represents the main storage area for the cell.
 35.
Which of the following pairs is correctly matched?
a.
 chloroplast – storage of enzymes
b.
 lysosome – powerhouse of the cell
c.
 nucleolus – site of ribosomal subunit synthesis
d.
 plastids – structural support of the cell
e.
 Golgi complex – production of energy
 36.
Which of the following organelles plays an important role in apoptosis, or programmed cell death?
a.
 ribosomes
b.
 mitochondria
c.
 chloroplasts
d.
 vacuoles
e.
 peroxisomes
 37.
One function of peroxisomes involves the process of:
a.
 cell death.
b.
 water storage.
c.
 protein synthesis.
d.
 DNA replication.
e.
 detoxification.
 38.
During an infection, white blood cells travel to the infected site and phagocytize the pathogens. After phagocytosis, primary lysosomes fuse with the phagocytic vesicle to form a larger vesicle called a secondary lysosome. The reason for this is:
a.
 to introduce antibodies to the phagocytic vesicles.
b.
 to wrap the pathogen in additional membrane, rendering them harmless.
c.
 to coat the bacteria in lipids derived from the Golgi complex, which cover and smother them.
d.
 to mix the pathogens with strong hydrolytic enzymes and destroy them.
e.
 to prepare the bacteria for export from the body.
 39.
All of the following functions are performed by plant vacuoles except:
a.
 maintaining hydrostatic (turgor) pressure.
b.
 waste storage and recycling.
c.
 storage of proteins.
d.
 breakdown of unneeded cellular materials.
e.
 storage of nucleic acids.
 40.
The theory that chloroplasts and mitochondria had their evolutionary beginnings in eukaryotic cells as endosymbionts is supported by all of the following except:
a.
 chloroplasts and mitochondria are completely autonomous within eukaryotic cells.
b.
 chloroplasts and mitochondria have DNA.
c.
 chloroplasts and mitochondria have small ribosomes for protein synthesis.
d.
 chloroplasts and mitochondria are approximately the same size as prokaryotic cells.
e.
 chloroplasts and mitochondria have the same shape as prokaryotic cells.
 41.
A cellular structure found in plant but not animal cells is the:
a.
 chloroplast.
b.
 ribosome.
c.
 endoplasmic reticulum.
d.
 microtubule.
e.
 microfilament.
Figure 04-03
Use the figure below to answer the corresponding questions.

nar003-1.jpg
 42.
Refer to Figure 04-03. The formation of ATP occurs in the portion of the chloroplast labeled:
a.
 structure A.
b.
 structure B.
c.
 structure C.
d.
 structure D.
e.
 structure E.
 43.
The formation of carbohydrates from carbon dioxide and water occurs in the portion of the chloroplast in Figure 04-03 labeled:
a.
 structure A.
b.
 structure B.
c.
 structure C.
d.
 structure D.
e.
 structure E.
 44.
Which of the following is a key component of the cytoskeleton?
a.
 membranes
b.
 cytoskeleton
c.
 DNA
d.
 ribosomes
e.
 None of the above.
 45.
The force necessary to cause microtubules of cilia and flagella to slide alongside one another is provided through the action of _________ proteins, which derive the energy to perform their work directly from ______ molecules.
a.
 kinesin; ADP
b.
 kinesin; glucose
c.
 tubulin; ATP
d.
 dynein; ATP
e.
 dynein; ADP
 46.
The structures in the micrograph could be:

mc046-1.jpg

a.
 chloroplasts.
b.
 cilia.
c.
 RER.
d.
 flagella.
e.
 B and D
Figure 04-04
Use the figure below to answer the corresponding questions.

nar004-1.jpg
 47.
The organelle featured in Figure 04-04:
a.
 is present in a few prokaryotes.
b.
 is the major site of protein synthesis in the cell.
c.
 plays a vital role in packaging materials to be secreted.
d.
 plays a central role in energy metabolism.
e.
 is located in the nucleus.
 48.
The structures indicated by the arrows in Figure 04-04 are:
a.
 thylakoid lamellae.
b.
 grana.
c.
 cristae.
d.
 matrices.
e.
 plastids.
 49.
The main process that occurs at the site of the structures marked by arrows in Figure 04-04 is:
a.
 protein synthesis.
b.
 photosynthesis.
c.
 conversion of food molecules to ATP.
d.
 processing and packaging of proteins.
e.
 transcription.
 50.
A single cell in a smoker’s lung has become cancerous. It doubles its DNA and divides much faster than a normal lung cell. The most likely change that would have caused this condition took place in the:
a.
 nucleus.
b.
 nucleolus.
c.
 microtubule.
d.
 mitochondria.
e.
 lysosome.
 51.
Cells have internal structures called organelles. Which is not a function of organelles?
a.
 Store genetic information.
b.
 Convert energy to more usable forms.
c.
 Synthesize polymers.
d.
 Manufacture membranes.
e.
 All of the above are organelle functions.
 52.
Which of the following is not a cell covering or part of a cell covering?
a.
 glycocalyx
b.
 extracellular matrix
c.
 cristae
d.
 cell wall
e.
 integrins
 53.
The principle cell adhesion molecules in vertebrates and in many invertebrates are cadherins. These are important in:
a.
 preventing the invasiveness of some malignant tumors.
b.
 calcium-dependent adhesion between cells that form multicellular sheets.
c.
 embryonic development.
d.
 cell adhesion in vertebrates and in many invertebrates.
e.
 All of the above.
 54.
All of the following are functions of the cell membrane except:
a.
 transmitting signals.
b.
 participating in energy transfer.
c.
 being freely permeable.
d.
 regulating the passage of materials.
e.
 participating in chemical reactions.
 55.
Which of the following structures is composed of two layers of phospholipids associated with proteins integrated within or attached to these layers?
a.
 cell wall
b.
 plasma membrane
c.
 microfilaments
d.
 flagellum
e.
 ribosomes
 56.
Phospholipids can form bilayer structures because of their:
a.
 rectangular shapes.
b.
 amphipathic nature.
c.
 ability to dissolve well in water.
d.
 inability to associate with other phospholipids.
e.
 lack of fatty acids.
 57.
Phospholipids can form bilayers because the molecules:
a.
 have two distinct regions, one strongly hydrophobic and the other strongly hydrophilic.
b.
 are amphipathic molecules.
c.
 have cylindrical shapes that allow them to associate with water most easily as a bilayer structure.
d.
 Both A and B.
e.
 A, B, and C.
 58.
A key discovery that weakened the Davson-Danielli “sandwich” model of cell membranes was that:
a.
 membrane proteins form a solid sheet on either side of the phospholipid bilayer.
b.
 membrane proteins form a solid sheet separating the phospholipid layer.
c.
 the phospholipids do not associate with each other in the hydrophobic region of membranes.
d.
 membrane proteins were not uniform and did not form flattened sheets.
e.
 membrane proteins occurred in regular organized patterns on the surface of membranes.
 59.
Proposed the fluid mosaic model of cell membrane structure in 1972:
a.
 S. Jonathan Singer.
b.
 Garth Nicolson.
c.
 Hugh Davson.
d.
 Both A and B.
e.
 A, B, and C.
 60.
Which of the following is a typical component of eukaryotic cell membranes?
a.
 DNA
b.
 glucose
c.
 cholesterol
d.
 water
e.
 All of the above.
 61.
Cholesterol within membranes functions as a(an) ____________ through its interactions with both hydrophobic and hydrophilic parts of phospholipids.
a.
 water blocker
b.
 pH buffer
c.
 energy source
d.
 temperature controller
e.
 fluidity buffer
 62.
In a lipid bilayer, ___________ fatty acid tails face each other within the bilayer and form a region that excludes water.
a.
 hypertonic
b.
 hyperosmotic
c.
 hypotonic
d.
 hydrophilic
e.
 hydrophobic
 63.
Which of the following functions best explains the reason for the asymmetrically oriented structure of the proteins in the cell membrane?
a.
 These proteins are manufactured by free ribosomes.
b.
 Each type of protein has its own function.
c.
 These proteins pass through the ER membrane into the ER lumen.
d.
 Enzymes are needed to modify the carbohydrate chains on these proteins.
e.
 These proteins are initially formed by ribosomes on the rough ER.
 64.
Which of the following is not a function associated with membrane proteins?
a.
 Recognition of surface antigens of bacterial cells.
b.
 Forming junctions between adjacent cells.
c.
 Identify the cell as belonging to a particular individual.
d.
 Serve as anchoring points for networks of cytoskeletal elements.
e.
 All of the above are functions associated with membrane proteins.
 65.
Which of the following is not a function of the transmembrane proteins called aquaporins?
a.
 Transmembrane proteins
b.
 Facilitate the rapid transport of water through the plasma membrane
c.
 Located in mammalian kidney tubules
d.
 Respond to specific hormones
e.
 All of the above are functions associated with aquaporins.
 66.
Catalysts are reusable. Enzymes are protein catalysts, and are reusable. Select the protein(s) below that is (are) not used up by the process carried out:
a.
 Sodium-potassium pump carrier proteins
b.
 Aquaporins
c.
 Proteins involved in facilitated diffusion
d.
 Both A and B.
e.
 A, B, and C.
 67.
Integral proteins:
a.
 are weakly bound to the surface of the membrane.
b.
 are strongly bound to the cytosolic surface of the membrane.
c.
 have no hydrophobic portions.
d.
 are completely embedded within the lipid bilayer.
e.
 are amphipathic.
 68.
What is meant by the term “fluid mosaic model”?
a.
 It is the diffusion of lipid-soluble substances through the lipid bilayer.
b.
 It is the movement of lipids and integral proteins within the lipid bilayer.
c.
 It is the solubility of water in the membrane.
d.
 It is the method of substance transport across the membrane.
e.
 It is the movement of surface proteins through the membrane.
 69.
A transmembrane protein differs from other membrane proteins because it:
a.
 is covalently linked to the outer surface of the plasma membrane.
b.
 is a glycoprotein with carbohydrates attached.
c.
 is attached to the inside of the membrane by an ionic bond.
d.
 completely extends through the membrane.
e.
 is completely embedded within the membrane.
 70.
Peripheral proteins are linked to either surface of the plasma membrane by:
a.
 covalent disulfide bonds.
b.
 associating with fatty acids through hydrophobic interactions.
c.
 embedding in one side of the membrane and, thus, not extending through to the other side.
d.
 associating with glycoproteins on the inner membrane surface.
e.
 bonding to integral proteins through weak linkages.
 71.
Which of the following statements explaining the differences in number and types of peripheral proteins found on the inner and outer surfaces of cell membranes is correct?
a.
 The functions of the membrane differ on the inside and outside of the cell.
b.
 Not all proteins can pass through the membrane and, thus, more accumulate on the inside.
c.
 Proteins on the outside of the membrane are synthesized at a slower rate than proteins on the inside of the membrane.
d.
 Proteins on the outside of membrane are made extracellularly and are unable to penetrate the phospholipid bilayer and enter the cell.
e.
 The external peripheral proteins are weakly attached to the membrane and are readily washed away.
 72.
Proteins that are destined to become associated with the inner surface of the plasma membrane are:
a.
 manufactured in the same way as protein hormones.
b.
 manufactured in the same way as proteins destined to become external peripheral proteins.
c.
 made on free ribosomes in the cytoplasm.
d.
 made on ribosomes located on the rough endoplasmic reticulum.
e.
 transported to the plasma membrane within a secretory vesicle.
 73.
Biological membranes are normally permeable to:
a.
 large, hydrophilic molecules.
b.
 small, hydrophilic molecules.
c.
 large, hydrophobic molecules.
d.
 small, hydrophobic molecules.
e.
 None of the above.
 74.
A bottle of perfume is opened on the opposite side of the room and within minutes you begin to smell the perfume. This phenomenon is a classic example of:
a.
 dialysis.
b.
 osmosis.
c.
 active transport.
d.
 facilitated diffusion.
e.
 diffusion.
 75.
Which of the following molecules is least likely to cross a cellular membrane by simple diffusion?
a.
 carbon dioxide
b.
 nitrogen
c.
 oxygen
d.
 potassium ion
e.
 water
 76.
The passive movement of a substance along its concentration gradient is termed:
a.
 active transport.
b.
 dialysis.
c.
 diffusion.
d.
 exocytosis.
e.
 osmosis.
 77.
Simple diffusion may involve the movement of ______________________ through the plasma membrane down a concentration gradient.
a.
 small polar molecules
b.
 small nonpolar molecules
c.
 large polar molecules
d.
 large nonpolar molecules
e.
 water
 78.
The difference between dialysis and osmosis is that:
a.
 in osmosis, the solute moves through a selectively permeable membrane.
b.
 in dialysis, the solvent moves through a selectively permeable membrane.
c.
 in osmosis, the solute moves from a region of high concentration to a region of low concentration.
d.
 in dialysis, the solute moves from a region of high concentration to a region of low concentration.
e.
 in dialysis, the solvent moves from a region of high concentration to a region of low concentration through a selectively permeable membrane.
 79.
If the concentration of solutes in a cell is less than the concentration of solutes in the surrounding fluid, then the extracellular fluid is said to be:
a.
 hypertonic.
b.
 hypotonic.
c.
 isotonic.
d.
 stable.
e.
 amphipathic.
 80.
The higher the concentration of solute in a solution, the _________ the effective water concentration and the ________ the osmotic pressure.
a.
 lower; lower
b.
 lower; higher
c.
 higher; higher
d.
 higher; lower
e.
 Answer cannot be determined from the information provided.
Figure 05-01
Use the figure below to answer the corresponding questions.

nar005-1.jpg
 81.
Which of the following statements about the red blood cells in Figure 05-01 Sample B is true?
a.
 These red blood cells have been placed in an isotonic solution.
b.
 These red blood cells have swollen in response to a hypertonic external solution.
c.
 These red blood cells have swollen in response to a hypotonic external solution.
d.
 These red blood cells have shrunken in response to a hypertonic external solution.
e.
 These red blood cells have shrunken in response to a hypotonic external solution.
 82.
Which of the following statements about the red blood cells in Figure 05-01 Sample A is true?
a.
 There has been no net water movement.
b.
 There has been a net flow of water out of the cell.
c.
 There has been a net flow of water into the cell.
d.
 Pinocytosis has occurred.
e.
 Plasmolysis has occurred.
 83.
A patient who has had a severe hemorrhage accidentally receives a large transfusion of distilled water directly into a major blood vessel. You would expect this mistake to:
a.
 have no unfavorable effect as long as the water is free of bacteria.
b.
 have serious, perhaps fatal consequences because there would be too much fluid to pump.
c.
 have serious, perhaps fatal consequences because the red blood cells could shrink.
d.
 have serious, perhaps fatal consequences because the red blood cells could swell and burst.
e.
 have no serious effect because the kidney could quickly eliminate excess water.
 84.
A plant cell placed in a hypertonic solution will:
a.
 remain unchanged.
b.
 undergo lysis.
c.
 undergo plasmolysis.
d.
 swell slightly.
e.
 become crenated.
 85.
Penicillin is toxic to certain dividing bacterial cells because it prevents cell wall formation, causing the cells to burst. This indicates that the bacteria live in:
a.
 a hypotonic medium.
b.
 a hypertonic medium.
c.
 an isotonic medium.
d.
 a medium with higher osmotic pressure than the cell.
e.
 Both B and D.
 86.
A wilted flower placed in a vase of water for several hours became stiff and stood erect. When it was placed in a salt solution, it wilted. From this information we can say that the cells of the flower are:
a.
 hypotonic to both fresh water and the salt solution.
b.
 hypertonic to both the fresh water and the salt solution.
c.
 hypertonic to fresh water but hypotonic to the salt solution.
d.
 hypotonic to fresh water but hypertonic to the salt solution.
e.
 isotonic to fresh water but hypotonic to the salt solution.
 87.
Which of the following membrane activities does not require the expenditure of energy by the cell?
a.
 active transport
b.
 osmosis
c.
 endocytosis
d.
 exocytosis
e.
 synthesis of more membrane
 88.
Facilitated diffusion:
a.
 requires a transmembrane protein.
b.
 requires ATP.
c.
 can move molecules against a concentration gradient.
d.
 is typically used to transport small nonpolar molecules.
e.
 All of the above.
 89.
A bacterium containing sodium ions at a concentration of 0.1 mM lives in a pond that contains sodium ions at 0.005 mM. Evidently, sodium ions are entering the cell by:
a.
 active transport.
b.
 endocytosis.
c.
 diffusion.
d.
 facilitated diffusion.
e.
 osmosis.
 90.
The energy-requiring movement of materials against a concentration gradient is termed:
a.
 active transport.
b.
 dialysis.
c.
 facilitated diffusion.
d.
 osmosis.
e.
 plasmolysis.
 91.
Although glucose molecules constantly diffuse into a cell along their concentration gradient, equilibrium is never reached and glucose continues to enter the cell. This is a direct result of:
a.
 the very fast turnover rate of glucose metabolism.
b.
 the continuous excretion of glucose from other parts of the cell.
c.
 the rapid and continuous intracellular formation of glucose-6-P.
d.
 the active transport of glucose.
e.
 the ability of the cell to engulf glucose by pinocytosis.
 92.
Which of the following statements about the sodium-potassium pump is true?
a.
 It transports hydrogen ions out of the cell.
b.
 It transports 3 sodium ions out of the cell in exchange for 2 potassium ions.
c.
 It transports 2 sodium ions out of the cell in exchange for 2 potassium ions.
d.
 It transports 2 sodium ions out of the cell in exchange for 3 potassium ions.
e.
 It transports water directly out of the cell.
 93.
A person has a genetic disease that prevents the phospholipids in the plasma membrane of the white blood cells from freely fusing with the other membranes within the cell. How would this disease affect phagocytosis?
a.
 Lysosomes would not be formed.
b.
 Facilitated diffusion would not occur.
c.
 Lysosomes would be formed lacking hydrolytic enzymes.
d.
 The phagocytic vacuole would not fuse with the lysosome.
e.
 Endocytosis would not occur.
 94.
Which of the following are forms of carrier-mediated transport?
a.
 Facilitated diffusion.
b.
 Carrier-mediated active transport.
c.
 Osmosis.
d.
 Both A and B.
e.
 A, B, and C.
 95.
Which of the following describes how facilitated diffusion is powered?
a.
 Facillitated diffusion is “free of cost.”
b.
 Energy is required to do the work of establishing and maintaining a concentration gradient.
c.
 ATP is required directly.
d.
 Both A and B.
e.
 A, B, and C.
 96.
Pinocytosis:
a.
 is engulfment of large particles by the cell.
b.
 occurs in protozoans and algae but not in more complex organisms.
c.
 involves the specific binding of molecules to receptors on the cell surface.
d.
 is the nonspecific uptake of fluids by an invagination of the cell membrane.
e.
 is movement of molecules against the concentration gradient through a permeable membrane.
 97.
Receptor-mediated endocytosis:
a.
 is a passive process.
b.
 involves only membrane transport proteins.
c.
 brings about the selective uptake of materials by enclosing them in membranous vesicles.
d.
 does not require energy.
e.
 is most likely to be found in cells that release large amounts of hormones.
 98.
A human white blood cell engulfs a bacterial cell by:
a.
 carrier-mediated facilitated diffusion.
b.
 exocytosis.
c.
 phagocytosis.
d.
 pinocytosis.
e.
 the sodium-potassium pump.
 99.
Select the receptor mediated endocytosis events that are in the correct (before, after) order:
a.
 Endosome fuses with lysosome; receptors are transported to plasma membrane and recycled.
b.
 Ligand binds to receptors; coated vesicle forms by endocytosis.
c.
 Contents are digested and released in the cytosol; ligand separates from its receptor.
d.
 Endosome fuses with lysosome; receptors are transported to plasma membrane and recycled.
e.
 None of the events are listed in the correct order.
 100.
In cells that are constantly involved in secretion, an equivalent amount of membrane must be returned to the interior of the cell for each vesicle that fuses with the plasma membrane; if this does not occur, then what would happen?
a.
 The ratio of cell surface would decrease, compared to cell volume.
b.
 The cell surface would shrivel.
c.
 The surface area would remain constant.
d.
 The number of membrane receptor proteins would decrease.
e.
 The cell surface will keep expanding.
Figure 05-02
Use the figure below to answer the corresponding questions.

nar006-1.jpg
 101.
The process illustrated in Figure 05-02 is called:
a.
 facilitated diffusion.
b.
 pinocytosis.
c.
 cotransport.
d.
 lysis.
e.
 exocytosis.
 102.
The process illustrated in Figure 05-02 would most likely be used to transport:
a.
 glucose.
b.
 hormones.
c.
 potassium ions.
d.
 carbon dioxide.
e.
 bacteria.
 103.
One difference between tight junctions and desmosomes is that tight junctions:
a.
 are regions where the plasma membrane from two neighboring cells are in actual contact.
b.
 occur only in plants.
c.
 involve connective microfilaments that traverse the space between adjacent cells.
d.
 are anchored by microfilaments on the insides of the cell membranes of adjacent cells.
e.
 contain a 24 nm space between two adjacent membranes.
 104.
Plasmodesmata of plant cells are functionally equivalent to ____________ of animal cells.
a.
 gap junctions
b.
 desmosomes
c.
 tight junctions
d.
 cell surface receptors
e.
 microvilli
 105.
The structures in this figure:

mc105-1.jpg

a.
 provide anchorage points between adjacent cells.
b.
 allow the transport of small molecules and ions between adjacent cells.
c.
 allow passage of materials through intercellular spaces.
d.
 prevent the passage of materials through intercellular spaces.
e.
 can only be found in plants.
 106.
Which of the following is not part of the process of cell signaling?
a.
 Synthesis and release of signaling molecules.
b.
 Facilitated transport.
c.
 Transport to target cells.
d.
 Response by the cell.
e.
 Termination of signaling.
 107.
The process in which cells convert and amplify an extracellular signal into an intracellular signal:
a.
 Synthesis and release of signaling molecules.
b.
 Transport to target cells.
c.
 Signal transduction.
d.
 Response by the cell.
e.
 Termination of signaling.
 108.
In a signaling pathway, the second messenger is often:
a.
 GTP.
b.
 GDP.
c.
 cyclic AMP.
d.
 cyclic ADP.
e.
 ATP.


Check Your Work     Start Over

Chapter 5 Homeostasis and Transport RETEST

%CODE1%

Javascript not enabled

Name:     ID: 

Email: 

Chapter 5 Homeostasis and Transport RETEST
 

Multiple Choice
Identify the choice that best completes the statement or answers the question.
 1.
As a result of diffusion, the concentration of many types of substances
a.
 always remains greater inside a membrane.
b.
 eventually becomes balanced on both sides of a membrane.
c.
 always remains greater on the outside of a membrane.
d.
 becomes imbalanced on both sides of a membrane.
 2.
Diffusion takes place
a.
 only through a lipid bilayer membrane.
b.
 from an area of low concentration to an area of high concentration.
c.
 only in liquids.
d.
 from an area of high concentration to an area of low concentration.
            Concentration of Water and Solutes in Four Adjacent Cells

nar001-1.jpg
 3.
Refer to the illustration above. Which cell is most likely to lose both water molecules and solute molecules as the system approaches equilibrium?
a.
 cell “A”
c.
 cell “C”
b.
 cell “B”
d.
 cell “D”
 4.
Refer to the illustration above. In this system, solute molecules in cell “B” are most likely to
a.
 remain in cell “B.”
c.
 diffuse into cell “A.”
b.
 adhere to cell “B’s” membrane.
d.
 diffuse into cell “D”
 5.
Refer to the illustration above. In this system, water molecules are most likely to diffuse in which direction?
a.
 from “A” to “B”
c.
 from “D” to “C”
b.
 from “B” to “D”
d.
 from “C” to “A”
 6.
The dispersal of ink in a beaker of water is an example of
a.
 diffusion.
c.
 active transport.
b.
 osmosis.
d.
 endocytosis.
 7.
heavy rains : flooding ::
a.
 osmosis : proton pumping
b.
 high solute concentration : isotonic solution
c.
 active transport : ATP
d.
 concentration difference : osmosis
 8.
Sugar molecules can enter cells through the process of
a.
 exocytosis.
c.
 osmosis.
b.
 facilitated diffusion.
d.
 ion pumps.
 9.
Channels utilizing facilitated diffusion
a.
 work in two directions.
b.
 require an electrical signal to function.
c.
 Both a and b
d.
 None of the above
 10.
Which of the following is not characteristic of facilitated diffusion?
a.
 It requires a carrier protein.
b.
 It moves substances against a concentration gradient.
c.
 It requires no energy input.
d.
 It involves a change in the shape of its carrier.
 11.
Which of the following is true of ions and their transport across cell membranes?
a.
 The “gates” for ion channels are always open.
b.
 Ions are very small and thus can cross cell membranes readily.
c.
 Electrical or chemical signals may control the movement of ions across cell membranes.
d.
 Because they are charged particles, the movement of ions across cell membranes requires energy input.
 12.
Which of the following does not expend energy?
a.
 diffusion
c.
 active transport
b.
 chemiosmosis
d.
 a sodium-potassium pump
 13.
Which of the following enters a cell by active transport?
a.
 glucose
c.
 sodium ion
b.
 water
d.
 potassium ion
 14.
The process by which water passes into or out of a cell is called
a.
 solubility.
c.
 selective transport.
b.
 osmosis.
d.
 endocytosis.
nar002-1.jpg
 15.
Refer to the illustration above. The process shown is called
a.
 osmosis.
c.
 active transport.
b.
 facilitated diffusion.
d.
 diffusion.
 16.
The sodium-potassium pump usually pumps
a.
 potassium out of the cell.
b.
 sodium into the cell.
c.
 potassium into the cell.
d.
 only a potassium and sugar molecule together.
 17.
proton pump : protons ::
a.
 ATP : protons
c.
 sodium-potassium pump : ATP
b.
 channel : protons
d.
 sodium-potassium pump : sodium
 18.
Ridding the cell of material by discharging it from sacs at the cell surface is called
a.
 chemiosmosis.
c.
 exocytosis.
b.
 exorcism.
d.
 endocytosis.
 19.
Molecules that are too large to be moved across a cell membrane can be removed from the cell by
a.
 diffusion.
c.
 lipid carriers.
b.
 exocytosis.
d.
 osmosis.
 20.
Molecules that are too large to be moved through the membrane can be transported into the cell by
a.
 osmosis.
c.
 lipid carriers.
b.
 endocytosis.
d.
 diffusion.
 21.
endocytosis : exocytosis ::
a.
 phagocytosis : bacteria
c.
 cold : hot
b.
 secrete : exocytosis
d.
 white blood cell : bacteria

 
         Start Over

Cell Membrane & Transport Study Guide

%CODE1%

Javascript not enabled

Name: 

Cell membrane & Transport Quiz

 

 

True/False
Indicate whether the statement is true or false.
 1.
During diffusion, molecules diffuse from a region where their concentration is low to a region where their concentration is higher, until the particles are evenly dispersed.
 2.
When the concentration of dissolved particles outside a cell is equal to the concentration of dissolved particles inside the cell, the cell solution is isotonic.
 3.
Membranes are selectively permeable if they allow only certain substances to move across them.
 4.
A cell placed in a strong salt solution would probably burst because of osmosis.
 5.
Water will diffuse out of a cell when the cell is placed in a hypertonic solution.
 6.
Osmosis is the diffusion of starch molecules through a selectively permeable membrane.
 7.
The binding of specific molecules to ion channels controls the ability of particular ions to cross the cell membrane.
 8.
To pass through a cell membrane, water requires carrier proteins.
 9.
In facilitated diffusion, carrier proteins require energy to transport substances across the cell membrane.
 10.
The transport of specific particles down their concentration gradient through a membrane by carrier proteins is known as facilitated diffusion.
 11.
Diffusion is an active process that requires a cell to expend a great deal of energy.
 12.
Diffusion through ion channels is a form of active transport.
 13.
Facilitated diffusion moves molecules and ions against their concentration gradient, while active transport moves molecules and ions down their concentration gradient.
 14.
Passive transport uses ATP to move molecules against their concentration gradient.
 15.
In active transport, energy is required to move a substance across a cell membrane.
 16.
The sodium-potassium pump requires energy to move ions across the cell membrane.
 17.
The sodium-potassium pump moves sodium ions and potassium ions against their concentration gradient.
 18.
The sodium-potassium pump transports sodium ions out of a cell while causing potassium ions to move into the cell.
 19.
The sodium-potassium pump uses ATP.
 20.
Exocytosis is a process that uses vesicles to capture substances and bring them into a cell.
 21.
Exocytosis helps the cell rid itself of wastes.
 22.
During the process of exocytosis, the cell membrane extends to engulf substances that are too big to pass through the cell membrane.
 23.
Exocytosis does not use energy to expel proteins from the cell.
 24.
Receptor proteins pump sodium ions into a cell.
 25.
Receptor proteins may cause the formation of a second messenger molecule inside a cell.
 26.
A receptor protein sends signals into a cell by transporting a specific molecule through the cell membrane.
 

Modified True/False
Indicate whether the statement is true or false.  If false, change the identified word or phrase to make the statement true.
 27.
One way that cells maintain homeostasis is by controlling the movement of substances across the cell membrane. _________________________
 28.
The cell membrane is made up of a double layer called the DNA bilayer. _________________________
 29.
A phospholipid is made up of a lipid “head” and two fatty acid “tails.” _________________________
 30.
The nonpolar tails of a phospholipid are attracted to water. _________________________
 31.
Cell-surface markers face the inside of the cell. _________________________
 32.
A concentration gradient exists when one area has a higher concentration of a substance than another area does. _________________________
 33.
The movement down a concentration gradient is called diffusion. _________________________
 34.
When the solute concentration outside a cell is equal to the solute concentration inside the cell, the cell’s environment is hypotonic. _________________________
 35.
A cell placed in a high salt solution would swell because of osmosis. _________________________
 36.
Osmosis is the diffusion of starch molecules through a selectively permeable membrane. _________________________
 37.
To pass through a cell membrane, water requires carrier proteins. _________________________
 38.
Facilitated diffusion is an active process that requires a cell to expend a great deal of energy. _________________________
 39.
Passive transport uses ATP to move molecules against their concentration gradient. _________________________
 40.
Exocytosis is a process that uses vesicles to capture substances and bring them into a cell. _________________________
 41.
Cells use exocytosis to export proteins modified by the Golgi apparatus. _________________________
 42.
Cells communicate by sending chemical signals that carry information to other cells. _________________________
 43.
Receptor proteins bind only to signals that match the specific color of the binding site. _________________________
 44.
Receptor proteins may cause the formation of a second messenger molecule inside the cell. _________________________
 

Multiple Choice
Identify the choice that best completes the statement or answers the question.
 45.
As a result of diffusion, the concentration of many types of substances
a.
 always remains greater inside a membrane.
b.
 eventually becomes balanced on both sides of a membrane.
c.
 always remains greater outside of a membrane.
d.
 becomes imbalanced on both sides of a membrane.
nar001-1.jpg
 46.
Refer to the illustration above. The process shown is called
a.
 osmosis.
c.
 active transport.
b.
 facilitated diffusion.
d.
 diffusion.
 47.
Refer to the illustration above. The process shown is called
a.
 osmosis.
c.
 active transport.
b.
 facilitated diffusion.
d.
 diffusion.
 48.
Diffusion is the movement of a substance
a.
 only through a lipid bilayer membrane.
b.
 from an area of low concentration to an area of higher concentration.
c.
 only in liquids.
d.
 from an area of high concentration to an area of lower concentration.
 49.
The dispersal of ink in a beaker of water is an example of
a.
 diffusion.
c.
 active transport.
b.
 osmosis.
d.
 endocytosis.
 50.
The diffusion of water into or out of a cell is called
a.
 solubility.
c.
 selective transport.
b.
 osmosis.
d.
 endocytosis.
 51.
Osmosis is a type of
a.
 active transport.
c.
 facilitated diffusion.
b.
 passive transport.
d.
 endocytosis.
 52.
A cell will swell when it is placed in a(n)
a.
 hypotonic solution.
c.
 isotonic solution.
b.
 hypertonic solution.
d.
 None of the above
 53.
The interior portion of a cell membrane forms a nonpolar zone that
a.
 allows polar molecules to pass through the membrane.
b.
 allows food to pass through the membrane.
c.
 prevents ions and most large molecules from passing through the membrane.
d.
 None of the above
 54.
Ions move through ion channels by
a.
 endocytosis.
c.
 passive transport.
b.
 diffusion.
d.
 active transport.
 55.
Ion channel gates close the pores of some ion channels in response to
a.
 stretching of the cell membrane.
b.
 a change in electrical charge.
c.
 the binding of specific molecules to the channel.
d.
 All of the above
 56.
Proteins that act like selective passageways in the cell membrane are known as
a.
 marker proteins.
c.
 receptor proteins.
b.
 channel proteins.
d.
 None of the above
 57.
Transport proteins that allow ions to pass through the cell membrane are called
a.
 receptor proteins.
c.
 ion channels.
b.
 marker proteins.
d.
 None of the above
 58.
Sugar molecules cross the cell membrane by
a.
 active transport.
c.
 osmosis.
b.
 facilitated diffusion.
d.
 gated channels.
 59.
Proteins involved in facilitated diffusion are
a.
 carrier proteins.
c.
 Both (a) and (b)
b.
 receptor proteins.
d.
 None of the above
 60.
Sugar molecules can enter cells through the process of
a.
 exocytosis.
c.
 osmosis.
b.
 facilitated diffusion.
d.
 ion pumps.
 61.
Which of the following does not require energy?
a.
 diffusion
c.
 active transport
b.
 endocytosis
d.
 sodium-potassium pump
 62.
Unlike passive transport, active transport
a.
 requires energy.
b.
 moves substances down their concentration gradient.
c.
 does not involve carrier proteins.
d.
 All of the above
 63.
Both active transport and facilitated diffusion involve
a.
 ATP.
b.
 movement against a concentration gradient.
c.
 carrier proteins.
d.
 All of the above
 64.
Which of the following is a form of active transport?
a.
 osmosis
c.
 facilitated diffusion
b.
 diffusion
d.
 sodium-potassium pump
 65.
The sodium-potassium pump
a.
 is a carrier protein
c.
 is located in the cytoplasm of a cell.
b.
 uses passive transport.
d.
 transports sugar molecules.
 66.
The sodium-potassium pump usually pumps
a.
 potassium ions out of the cell.
b.
 sodium ions into the cell.
c.
 potassium ions into the cell.
d.
 only potassium ions and sugar molecules.
 67.
The sodium-potassium pump
a.
 increases the concentration of sodium ions inside a cell.
b.
 decreases the concentration of sodium ions inside a cell.
c.
 increases the concentration of potassium ions inside a cell.
d.
 Both (b) and (c)
 68.
Proteins and polysaccharides that are too large to move into a cell through diffusion or active transport move in by
a.
 exocytosis.
c.
 the sodium-potassium pump.
b.
 endocytosis.
d.
 None of the above
 69.
Molecules that are too large to be moved through the membrane can be transported into the cell by
a.
 osmosis.
c.
 exocytosis.
b.
 endocytosis.
d.
 diffusion.
 70.
Molecules that are too large to be moved across a cell membrane can be removed from the cell by
a.
 diffusion.
c.
 endocytosis.
b.
 exocytosis.
d.
 osmosis.
 71.
Ridding the cell of materials by discharging the materials in vesicles is called
a.
 osmosis.
c.
 exocytosis.
b.
 diffusion.
d.
 endocytosis.
nar002-1.jpg
 72.
Refer to the illustration above. What happens when the structure labeled A binds to the structure labeled B?
a.
 Information is sent into the cell.
c.
 The cell begins to undergo mitosis.
b.
 Proteins enter the cell.
d.
 None of the above
 73.
Refer to the illustration above. What happens when the structure labeled A binds to the structure labeled B?
a.
 Information is sent into the cell.
c.
 The cell begins to swell.
b.
 Proteins enter the cell.
d.
 Ions enter the cell.
 74.
Refer to the illustration above. The structure labeled B in the diagram is an example of a(n)
a.
 channel protein.
c.
 receptor protein.
b.
 signal molecule.
d.
 ion pump.
 75.
Signal molecules bind to
a.
 carbohydrates.
c.
 receptor proteins.
b.
 marker proteins.
d.
 transport proteins.
 76.
When a signal molecule binds to a receptor protein, the receptor protein may
a.
 change the permeability of the membrane.
b.
 cause the formation of a second messenger molecule.
c.
 catalyze certain chemical reactions in the cell.
d.
 All of the above
 77.
Which of the following transmit information into a cell by binding to signal molecules?
a.
 channel proteins
c.
 marker proteins
b.
 receptor proteins
d.
 end proteins
 78.
cell membrane : cell ::
a.
 window : house
c.
 door : house
b.
 roof : house
d.
 wall : house
 79.
Which type of molecule forms the cell membrane?
a.
 protein
c.
 nucleic acid
b.
 phospholipid
d.
 carbohydrate
 80.
Phospholipids are molecules that have
a.
 one polar phosphate head and two polar fatty acid tails.
b.
 one polar phosphate head and two nonpolar fatty acid tails.
c.
 one polar phosphate head and one polar fatty acid tail.
d.
 one nonpolar phosphate head and two polar fatty acid tails.
 81.
The interior of the lipid bilayer of a cell membrane forms a nonpolar zone that
a.
 allows most polar molecules to pass through the membrane.
b.
 allows food to pass through the membrane.
c.
 repels ions and most polar molecules.
d.
 makes the membrane permeable to most molecules.
nar004-1.jpg
 82.
Refer to the illustration above. The structure labeled A is composed of
a.
 lipids.
c.
 proteins.
b.
 carbohydrates.
d.
 DNA.
 83.
Refer to the illustration above. The structure labeled D is a(n)
a.
 cell-surface marker.
c.
 enzyme.
b.
 receptor protein.
d.
 transport protein.
 84.
Refer to the illustration above. The structure labeled C is a(n)
a.
 cell-surface marker.
c.
 enzyme.
b.
 receptor protein.
d.
 transport protein.
 85.
Proteins in the cell membrane that identify the cell are called
a.
 cell-surface markers.
c.
 enzymes.
b.
 receptor proteins.
d.
 transport proteins.
 86.
As a result of diffusion, the concentration of many types of substances
a.
 always remains greater inside a membrane.
b.
 eventually becomes balanced on both sides of a membrane.
c.
 always remains greater outside of a membrane.
d.
 becomes imbalanced on both sides of a membrane.
 87.
Diffusion is the movement of a substance
a.
 only through a lipid bilayer membrane.
b.
 from an area of low concentration to an area of higher concentration.
c.
 only in liquids.
d.
 from an area of high concentration to an area of lower concentration.
 88.
The dispersal of ink in a beaker of water is an example of
a.
 diffusion.
c.
 active transport.
b.
 osmosis.
d.
 endocytosis.
 89.
Proteins that serve as tunnels for specific substances through the lipid bilayer are
a.
 cell-surface markers.
c.
 receptor proteins.
b.
 channel proteins.
d.
 enzymes.
 90.
Sugar molecules cross the cell membrane by
a.
 active transport.
c.
 osmosis.
b.
 facilitated diffusion.
d.
 simple diffusion.
 91.
Which of the following does not require energy?
a.
 diffusion
c.
 active transport
b.
 endocytosis
d.
 sodium-potassium pump
 92.
Ions move through ion channels by
a.
 endocytosis.
c.
 passive transport.
b.
 simple diffusion.
d.
 active transport.
 93.
The diffusion of water into or out of a cell is called
a.
 solubility.
c.
 selective transport.
b.
 osmosis.
d.
 endocytosis.
 94.
Osmosis is a type of
a.
 active transport.
c.
 simple diffusion.
b.
 passive transport.
d.
 endocytosis.
 95.
How does water pass through the cell membrane?
a.
 directly through the lipid bilayer
b.
 through a water ion pump
c.
 through water carrier proteins
d.
 through channel proteins just for water
 96.
Which of the following statements about an isotonic solution and a cell is correct?
a.
 The solution has the same solute concentration that the cytoplasm does.
b.
 The solution has a higher solute concentration than the cytoplasm does.
c.
 A cell in the solution will lose water.
d.
 A cell in the solution will gain water.
 97.
Unlike passive transport, active transport
a.
 requires energy.
b.
 moves substances down their concentration gradient.
c.
 does not involve carrier proteins.
d.
 moves water across the cell membrane.
 98.
Both active transport and facilitated diffusion involve
a.
 ATP.
b.
 movement against a concentration gradient.
c.
 carrier proteins.
d.
 channel proteins.
 99.
Which of the following is a form of active transport?
a.
 osmosis
c.
 facilitated diffusion
b.
 simple diffusion
d.
 sodium-potassium pump
 100.
The sodium-potassium pump
a.
 is a carrier protein.
c.
 is located in the cytoplasm of a cell.
b.
 uses passive transport.
d.
 transports sugar molecules.
 101.
The sodium-potassium pump usually pumps
a.
 potassium ions out of the cell.
b.
 sodium ions into the cell.
c.
 potassium ions into the cell.
d.
 only potassium ions and sugar molecules.
 102.
How many potassium ions does the sodium-potassium pump move into a cell if it moves six sodium ions out of the cell?
a.
 two
c.
 six
b.
 four
d.
 eight
 103.
Proteins and polysaccharides that are too large to move into a cell through diffusion or active transport move in by
a.
 exocytosis.
c.
 the sodium-potassium pump.
b.
 endocytosis.
d.
 channel proteins.
 104.
Molecules that are too large to be moved across a cell membrane can be removed from the cell by
a.
 diffusion.
c.
 endocytosis.
b.
 exocytosis.
d.
 osmosis.
 105.
Removing materials from a cell in vesicles is called
a.
 osmosis.
c.
 exocytosis.
b.
 diffusion.
d.
 endocytosis.
 106.
Which of the following descriptions of hormones is correct?
a.
 signal molecules distributed throughout the body
b.
 signal molecules that affect all cells in the body
c.
 target molecules that communicate through direct contact
d.
 target molecules that originate outside the body
 107.
Signal molecules bind to
a.
 carbohydrates.
c.
 receptor proteins.
b.
 marker proteins.
d.
 transport proteins.
 108.
Which of the following transmit information into a cell by binding to signal molecules?
a.
 channel proteins
c.
 marker proteins
b.
 receptor proteins
d.
 signal proteins
 109.
What change takes place in the cell membrane if a signal molecule causes a transport protein to open?
a.
 permeability change
c.
 formation of a second messenger
b.
 activation of an enzyme
d.
 change in chemical reactions
 

Completion
Complete each statement.
 110.
The random motion of particles of a substance that causes the substance to move from an area of high concentration to an area of lower concentration is called ____________________.
 111.
The diffusion of ____________________ through cell membranes is called osmosis.
 112.
Substances always flow from an area of high concentration to an area of ____________________ concentration.
 113.
When the concentration of free water molecules is higher outside a cell than inside the cell, water will diffuse ____________________ the cell.
 114.
If a cell is placed in a(n) ____________________ solution, water will flow out of the cell.
 115.
If a cell is placed in a(n) ____________________ solution, water will flow into the cell.
 116.
If a cell is placed in a(n) ____________________ solution, water flows into the cell at a rate that is equal to the rate at which water flows out of the cell.
 117.
Diffusion of ions through ion channels is a form of ____________________ transport.
 118.
If the interior of a typical cell is negatively charged, ____________________ charged ions will not require energy to diffuse into the cell using an ion channel.
 119.
In facilitated diffusion, ____________________ proteins are used to transport substances down their concentration gradient.
 120.
In ____________________ ____________________, carrier proteins do not require energy to transport amino acids into a cell.
 121.
Carrier proteins ____________________ shape to transport sugars to the interior of cells.
 122.
A cell does not expend ____________________ when diffusion takes place.
 123.
Active transport requires the use of ____________________ by a cell.
 124.
The ____________________-____________________ pump transports ions against their concentration gradients.
 125.
The sodium-potassium pump uses energy supplied by ____________________.
 126.
The sodium-potassium pump prevents the accumulation of ____________________ ions inside the cell.
 127.
The movement of a substance into a cell by a vesicle is called ____________________.
nar003-1.jpg
A
B
 128.
Refer to the illustration above. The process shown in figure B is called ____________________.
 129.
Refer to the illustration above. Cells often engulf extracellular particles and fluid, as shown in figure A. This is called ____________________.
 130.
Refer to the illustration above. The process shown in figure B is called ____________________.
 131.
Refer to the illustration above. The process shown in figure A is called ____________________.
 132.
Receptor proteins can change the ____________________ of the cell membrane.
 133.
Receptor proteins may act as ____________________, catalyzing certain chemical reactions inside the cell.
 134.
In the cell membrane, proteins that transmit information into the cell by responding to signal molecules are called ____________________.
 135.
One way cells maintain homeostasis is by controlling the movement of substances across the cell ____________________.
 136.
A(n) ____________________ is a specialized lipid made of a phosphate head and two fatty acid tails.
 137.
The phosphate head of a phospholipid is attracted to water because it is ____________________.
 138.
The fatty acid tails of a phospholipid are repelled by water because they are ____________________.
 139.
The phospholipids form a barrier through which only small, ____________________ substances can pass.
 140.
Ions and most polar molecules are repelled by the ____________________ interior of the lipid bilayer.
 141.
____________________ – ____________________ markers are attached to the cell surface and have sugars attached to their protein.
 142.
Proteins that aid in moving substances into and out of cells are called ____________________ proteins.
 143.
____________________ are proteins in the cell membrane that help with important biochemical reactions inside the cell.
 144.
____________________ proteins enable a cell to sense its surroundings by binding to certain substances outside the cell.
 145.
To reach equilibrium, substances always flow from an area of high concentration to an area of ____________________ concentration.
 146.
When one area has a higher concentration than another area does, a concentration ____________________ exists.
 147.
Substances diffuse through a cell membrane either through the lipid bilayer or through ____________________ proteins.
 148.
Oxygen and carbon dioxide pass through the lipid bilayer by ____________________ diffusion.
 149.
Diffusion of ions through ion channels is a form of ____________________ transport.
 150.
Carrier proteins change ____________________ to transport substances to the interior of cells.
 151.
A cell does not expend ____________________ when diffusion takes place.
 152.
The diffusion of ____________________ through cell membranes is called osmosis.
 153.
When the concentration of free water molecules is higher outside a cell than inside the cell, water will diffuse ____________________ the cell.
 154.
If a cell is placed in a(n) ____________________ solution, water will flow out of the cell.
 155.
If a cell is placed in a(n) ____________________ solution, water will flow into the cell.
 156.
If a cell is placed in a(n) ____________________ solution, water flows into the cell at a rate that is equal to the rate at which water flows out of the cell.
 157.
Active transport requires the use of ____________________ by a cell.
 158.
The ____________________ – ____________________ pump transports ions against their concentration gradients.
 159.
The sodium-potassium pump uses energy supplied by ____________________.
 160.
The sodium-potassium pump prevents the accumulation of ____________________ ions inside the cell.
 161.
The movement of a substance into a cell by a vesicle is called ____________________.
 162.
A signaling cell produces a signal that is detected by a ____________________ cell.
 163.
Light is an environmental ____________________ for the flowering of some plants.
 164.
In the cell membrane, proteins that bind to specific signal molecules and respond are called ____________________ proteins.
 165.
Receptor proteins can change the ____________________ of the cell membrane.
 166.
Receptor proteins may act as ____________________, triggering certain chemical reactions inside the cell.
 

Short Answer
 167.
In addition to its function as a gatekeeper, what are three other functions of the cell membrane?
 168.
What makes up the lipid bilayer?
 169.
In the lipid bilayer, what causes one layer of polar heads to face the cell’s cytoplasm and the other layer of heads to face the cell’s surroundings?
 170.
What characteristic of membrane proteins causes them to be held in the cell membrane?
 171.
What are four types of proteins in cell membranes?
 172.
What exists across a cell membrane if equilibrium is not reached?
 173.
What is the difference between how a molecule crosses the cell membrane in simple diffusion and in facilitated diffusion?
 174.
What are two types of transport proteins?
 175.
Why are some water molecules not free to move across the cell membrane?
 176.
Explain why osmosis is a form of facilitated diffusion.
 177.
What specific carrier protein moves sodium ions out of a cell and potassium ions into a cell?
 178.
What is the function of the cell membrane during endocytosis?
 179.
What are hormones, how are they distributed, and what cells do they affect?
 180.
What happens to a receptor protein once it binds to a signal molecule?
 181.
How can the cell’s response to a signal cause a permeability change?

 
Check Your Work     Start Over