Author: Biology Junction Team

Flat and Round Worms

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Flat and Round Worms

 

 

True/False
Indicate whether the sentence or statement is true or false.
1.
Planarians have a branched digestive tract with both a mouth and an anus.
2.
Most flatworms are not parasitic.
3.
Tapeworms absorb food from their host’s intestine directly through their skin.
4.
Humans can avoid trichinosis by wearing shoes when they walk through fields.
5.
Rotifers have a distinct head end with a mouth and a distinct tail end that has an opening through which substances from the digestive, reproductive, and excretory systems exit the body.
 

Multiple Choice
Identify the letter of the choice that best completes the statement or answers the question.
6.
Flatworms can reproduce asexually by
a.
fission.
c.
producing polyps.
b.
forming larvae.
d.
exchanging both sperm and eggs.
7.
Which of the following is not found in flatworms?
a.
a head
c.
bilateral symmetry
b.
a circulatory system
d.
a nervous system
8.
Flatworms have no need for circulatory and respiratory systems because
a.
the digestive system performs these functions.
b.
their cells are close to the animal’s exterior surface.
c.
the spherical body shape allows diffusion of materials into tissues.
d.
the coelom is bathed in blood and oxygen.
9.
Schistosomiasis is a disease caused by a
a.
roundworm.
c.
cestode.
b.
trematode.
d.
planarian.
10.
turbellarians : free living ::
a.
planaria : parasitic
c.
cestodes : free living
b.
tapeworms : free living
d.
flukes : parasitic
11.
Which of the following statements about tapeworms is false?
a.
They can infect a person who eats improperly cooked beef.
b.
They belong to the genus Schistosoma.
c.
They can grow to be large in human intestines.
d.
These flatworms do not have a digestive system.
12.
To which phylum do roundworms belong?
a.
Annelida
c.
Platyhelminthes
b.
Nematoda
d.
Arthropoda
13.
Roundworms have a fluid-filled cavity between the gut and body wall called a
a.
coelom.
c.
digestive system.
b.
pseudocoelom.
d.
None of the above
14.
Pseudocoelomates
a.
must move rapidly to enhance diffusion of nutrients.
b.
must be very small or have body shapes with short distances between organs and the body surface.
c.
must have a circulatory system.
d.
All of the above
15.
The first organisms to develop an internal body cavity were the
a.
flatworms.
c.
mollusks.
b.
nematodes.
d.
arthropods.
16.
All of the following groups of invertebrates are coelomates, except
a.
annelids.
c.
mollusks.
b.
echinoderms.
d.
nematodes.
17.
The evolution of body cavities was important because
a.
fluids within the body cavity aid in circulation of materials from one part of the body to another.
b.
fluids in the cavity make the body rigid and offer resistance to muscles, aiding in movement.
c.
organs are better able to function if they can move freely within the body cavity.
d.
All of the above
18.
The nematode Ascaris lumbricoides infects humans, spending most of its adult life inside the intestines of its host. To be infected, a person must
a.
consume the nematode’s eggs.
c.
sit on an infested toilet seat.
b.
walk barefoot on infested soil.
d.
All of the above
19.
A type of roundworm that lives a parasitic life is
a.
Ascaris.
c.
Trichinella.
b.
Necator.
d.
All of the above
20.
Rotifers eliminate excess water that they collect from their freshwater environment by
a.
diffusion.
c.
flame cells and excretory tubules.
b.
kidneys.
d.
a mastax.

 
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Internal Anatomy of the Fetal Pig Exam

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Internal Anatomy of the Fetal Pig Exam

1. What does the letter L refer to in the figure of the internal anatomy of the fetal pig?

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2. In the figure of the internal anatomy of the fetal pig, what letter refers to the thyroid gland?

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3. In the figure of the internal anatomy of the fetal pig, what letter refers to the left lung?

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4. What does the letter C refer to in the figure of the internal anatomy of the fetal pig?

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5. What does the letter J refer to in the figure of the internal anatomy of the fetal pig?

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6. In the figure of the internal anatomy of the fetal pig, what letter refers to the urinary bladder?

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7. What does the letter M refer to in the figure of the internal anatomy of the fetal pig?

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8. What does the letter A refer to in the figure of the internal anatomy of the fetal pig?

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9. In the figure of the internal anatomy of the fetal pig, what letter refers to the diaphragm?

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10. What does the letter F refer to in the figure of the internal anatomy of the fetal pig?

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11. In the figure of the internal anatomy of the fetal pig, what letter refers to the liver?

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12. In the figure of the internal anatomy of the fetal pig, what letter refers to the right common carotid artery?

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13. What does the letter N refer to in the figure of the internal anatomy of the fetal pig?

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14. What does the letter G refer to in the figure of the internal anatomy of the fetal pig?

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15. What does the letter E refer to in the figure of the internal anatomy of the fetal pig?

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16. In the figure of the internal anatomy of the fetal pig, what letter refers to the small intestine?

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17. In the figure of the internal anatomy of the fetal pig, what letter refers to the heart?

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18. In the figure of the internal anatomy of the fetal pig, what letter refers to the umbilical vein?

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19. What does the letter B refer to in the figure of the internal anatomy of the fetal pig?

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20. In the figure of the internal anatomy of the fetal pig, what letter refers to the larynx?

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21. What does the letter K refer to in the figure of the internal anatomy of the fetal pig?

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22. In the figure of the internal anatomy of the fetal pig, what letter refers to the left common carotid artery?

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23. In the figure of the internal anatomy of the fetal pig, what letter refers to the umbilical arteries?

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24. In the figure of the internal anatomy of the fetal pig, what letter refers to the large intestine?

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25. What does the letter H refer to in the figure of the internal anatomy of the fetal pig?

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26. What does the letter I refer to in the figure of the internal anatomy of the fetal pig?

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27. What does the letter D refer to in the figure of the internal anatomy of the fetal pig?

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28. In the figure of the internal anatomy of the fetal pig, what letter refers to the right lung?

Answer:

 

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Fish

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Fish

 

 

True/False
Indicate whether the sentence or statement is true or false.
1.
Lobe-finned fishes were the ancestors of amphibians.
2.
Small, jawed fishes are the first vertebrates for which there is fossil evidence.
3.
Fishes and amphibians first appeared on Earth during the Cambrian period, about 550 million years ago.
4.
A fish’s gills would collapse on land.
5.
Since they live in salt water, marine fishes do not have a problem maintaining the proper balance of water and salt in their body.
6.
The first fishes to develop jaws were called spiny fishes, members of the class Acanthodia.
7.
Sharks have good vision and can detect electromagnetic fields coming from prey animals.
8.
Members of the class Osteichthyes have skeletons of cartilage.
9.
Bony fishes have a swim bladder.
10.
In order to fill their swim bladders, bony fishes have to come to the surface to gulp air.
 

Multiple Choice
Identify the letter of the choice that best completes the statement or answers the question.
11.
Which of the following would not be an advantage of the endoskeleton found in all vertebrates?
a.
It protects internal body structures.
b.
It aids in movement.
c.
It helps prevent desiccation in terrestrial vertebrates.
d.
It provides structural support in terrestrial vertebrates.
12.
The urinary bladder and kidneys make up the ____ of a fish.
a.
respiratory system.
c.
excretory system.
b.
digestive system.
d.
circulatory system.
13.
The first vertebrates
a.
were jawless fishes.
b.
had thick, bony plates that covered their bodies.
c.
had no well-developed vertebral column.
d.
All of the above
14.
placoderms : armor ::
a.
bony fishes : cartilaginous skeleton
b.
sharks : no teeth
c.
lampreys : jaws
d.
sharks and bony fishes : streamlined bodies
15.
bony fishes : stronger muscles ::
a.
bony fishes : lungs
c.
sharks : ray fins
b.
sharks : bony skeleton
d.
sharks : rows of teeth
16.
Which of the following senses is not used by sharks to detect prey?
a.
olfaction
c.
lateral-line system
b.
vision
d.
touch
17.
The eggs of many species of sharks
a.
are released from the mother’s body before fertilization.
b.
are released from the mother’s body after fertilization.
c.
are released from the mother’s body after developing into young embryos.
d.
hatch inside the mother’s body, where the young sharks continue to grow.
18.
Members of the class Osteichthyes
a.
have skeletons made of bone.
c.
include the rays and skates.
b.
do not have jaws.
d.
All of the above
19.
A collection chamber that reduces the resistance of blood flow into the heart of a fish is called the
a.
sinus venosus.
c.
conus arteriosus.
b.
ventricle.
d.
atrium.
20.
The countercurrent flow of water and blood found in the gills of fishes
a.
allows blood and water to flow in the same direction.
b.
ensures that oxygen diffuses into the blood over the whole length of the blood vessels in the gills.
c.
results in an uneven supply of oxygen reaching the blood vessels in the gills.
d.
hampers the diffusion of oxygen and carbon dioxide between the blood and the water.

 
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Chemistry Quiz

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Chemistry

 

True/False
Indicate whether the sentence or statement is true or false.
1.
Two atoms having the same number of protons and electrons but different numbers of neutrons are called isotopes.
2.
The nucleus of an atom contains protons and electrons.
3.
A compound consists of atoms of two or more elements joined by chemical bonds.
4.
Energy can be converted from one form to another.
5.
The scale used for measuring the relative concentrations of hydrogen   ions and hydroxide ions in a solution is called the pH scale.
6.
Iron atoms and silver atoms have the same number of protons.
7.
An atom containing nine electrons can have three in its first energy level.
8.
Stable atoms need electrons to fill their outer energy levels.
9.
The types of particles that are located in the nucleus of an atom are protons and neutrons, and the types of particles that are located in the energy levels surrounding the nucleus are electrons.
10.
Buffers can neutralize acids, but they do not affect bases.
 

Multiple Choice
Identify the letter of the choice that best completes the statement or answers the question.
11.
A solution that contains equal concentrations of hydrogen ions and hydroxide ions is a(n):
a.
neutral solution
c.
base
b.
acid
d.
compound
12.
The type of bond formed when two atoms share electrons is a(n):
a.
covalent bond
c.
elemental bond
b.
ionic bond
d.
homogeneous bond
13.
Carbon has an atomic number of 6. The number of energy levels in carbon is:
a.
1
c.
3
b.
2
d.
6
14.
In most elements, how many electrons are in the outer energy level of stable atoms?
a.
3
c.
8
b.
5
d.
12
15.
A solution with a pH of 9 has:
a.
an equal concentration of hydrogen and hydroxide ions
b.
a greater concentration of hydroxide ions than hydrogen ions
c.
a greater concentration of hydrogen ions than hydroxide ions
d.
a greater concentration of hydroxide ions than a solution with a pH of 10
16.
Carbon 12 and carbon 14 have the same number of protons and electrons, but they differ in the number of neutrons.  Therefore, they are:
a.
isometric
c.
icicles
b.
isotopes
d.
two different elements
17.
How many protons are in an atom that has a mass number of 23 and an atomic number of 11?
a.
11
c.
23
b.
12
d.
34
18.
Which of the following is matter?
a.
oxygen
c.
heat
b.
light
d.
all of these
19.
The subscript ‘2’ in H2 represents the number of:
a.
electrons
c.
ions
b.
molecules
d.
atoms
20.
The smallest unit of a compound that still retains the compound’s unique chemical properties is the:
a.
sol
c.
atom
b.
bond
d.
molecule
21.
Which of the following best describes a compound?
a.
atoms of one element that are chemically combined
b.
two or more elements combined chemically in a definite proportion
c.
atoms of the same element that have different mass numbers
d.
two or more atoms that are not combined chemically
22.
In a covalent bond, electrons are:
a.
shared
c.
lost
b.
gained
d.
transferred
23.
Which of the following pH values represents the most acidic condition?
a.
3
c.
10
b.
6
d.
14
24.
The main difference between covalent bonds and ionic bonds is that electrons:
a.
are shared in covalent bonds, but not in ionic bonds
b.
are shared in ionic bonds, but not in covalent bonds
c.
are shared in both, but at different times
d.
are involved only in covalent bonds
25.
Which of the following is the most common solvent in organisms?
a.
alcohol
c.
water
b.
lipids
d.
amino acids
26.
The bond formed when two atoms share a pair of electrons is called a
a.
hydrogen bond.
c.
covalent bond.
b.
nonpolar bond.
d.
water bond.
27.
The smallest particle of matter that can retain the chemical properties of carbon is
a.
a carbon molecule.
c.
a carbon atom.
b.
a carbon macromolecule.
d.
an element.
28.
All matter in the universe is composed of
a.
cells.
c.
atoms.
b.
molecules.
d.
carbon.
29.
Which of the following statements most accurately describes the difference between an ionic bond and a covalent bond?
a.
Atoms held together by ionic bonds separate when placed in water while atoms held together by covalent bonds do not separate in water.
b.
Ionic bonds hold together atoms of two different types, while covalent bonds hold together atoms of the same type.
c.
Electrons are exchanged between atoms held together by an ionic bond, but they are shared between atoms held together by a covalent bond.
d.
Ionic bonds form between atoms that carry opposite charges, while covalent bonds form between uncharged atoms.
      chp2_files/i0320000.jpg
30.
Refer to the graph above. Reaction “3” in the graph
a.
probably occurred in the presence of a catalyst.
b.
requires a greater activation energy than Reaction “2.”
c.
is the same as Reaction “1,” but faster.
d.
takes longer than Reaction “2.”
31.
Changing the course or pathway of a chemical reaction so that it requires less activation energy
a.
is a violation of the laws of nature.
b.
requires higher temperatures than those found within cells.
c.
occurs only when reactants are quickly added to the reaction mixture.
d.
is accomplished by the action of catalysts on reactants.
32.
A cell contains
a.
thousands of different kinds of enzymes, each promoting a different chemical reaction.
b.
one kind of enzyme that promotes thousands of different chemical reactions.
c.
approximately 100 kinds of enzymes, each promoting a different chemical reaction.
d.
one enzyme that promotes photosynthesis and one enzyme that promotes cellular respiration.
33.
The terms base and alkaline refer to solutions that
a.
contain dissolved sodium hydroxide.
b.
contain more hydronium ions than hydroxide ions.
c.
contain more hydroxide ions than hydronium ions.
d.
contain more hydroxide ions than hydrogen ions.
34.
Acidic solutions have a pH that is
a.
less than 7.
c.
a negative number.
b.
between 0 and 14.
d.
more than 7.
35.
Buffers
a.
are of relatively little importance in living things.
b.
are formed when a large number of hydroxide ions are released in a solution.
c.
are formed when a large number of hydronium ions are released in a solution.
d.
tend to prevent great fluctuations in pH.

 
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Darwinian Evolution – PreAP Biology

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Darwinian Evolution – PreAP Biology
  

Multiple Choice
Identify the choice that best completes the statement or answers the question.
 
 1.
Which of the following are examples of fossils?
a.
 shells or old bones
b.
 any traces of dead organisms
c.
 insects trapped in tree sap
d.
 All of the above
 
 2.
Animal fossils may form when
a.
 an animal is buried by sediment.
b.
 an animal is buried on the ocean floor, in swamps, in mud, or in tar pits.
c.
 an animal’s tissue is replaced by harder minerals.
d.
 All of the above
 
 3.
Darwin drew ideas for his theory from observations of organisms on
a.
 the Samoan Islands.
b.
 Manhattan Island.
c.
 the Hawaiian Islands.
d.
 the Galápagos Islands.
 
 4.
The species of finches that Darwin observed differed in the shape of their beaks. According to Darwin, all of these species probably
a.
 had a common ancestor.
b.
 had migrated from Africa.
c.
 had descended from similar birds in Africa.
d.
 ate the same diet.
 
 5.
Darwin thought that the animals of the Galápagos Islands were similar to those of the nearby coast of South America because
a.
 the animals’ ancestors had migrated from South America to the Galápagos Islands.
b.
 the animals had all been brought to the islands by humans.
c.
 the islands had slowly drifted away from the mainland.
d.
 the animals in both places had evolved in nearly identical environments
 
 6.
According to Darwin, evolution occurs
a.
 only through artificial selection.
b.
 during half-life periods of 5,715 years.
c.
 because of natural selection.
d.
 so rapidly that it can be observed easily.
 
 7.
When Darwin published his first book about evolution, he included all of the following ideas except
a.
 the idea that species change slowly over time.
b.
 the idea that some organisms reproduce at a greater rate than others.
c.
 the idea that species are permanent and unchanging.
d.
 the idea that some species become better suited to their environment than others.
 
 8.
The major idea that Darwin presented in his book The Origin of Species was that
a.
 species change over time and never compete with each other.
b.
 animals change, but plants remain the same over time.
c.
 species may change in small ways but cannot give rise to new species.
d.
 species change over time by natural selection.
 
 9.
Natural selection is the process by which
a.
 the age of selected fossils is calculated.
b.
 organisms with traits well suited to their environment survive and reproduce more successfully than organisms less suited to the same environment.
c.
 acquired traits are passed on from one generation to the next.
d.
 All of the above
 
 10.
Populations of the same species living in different places
a.
 do not vary.
b.
 always show balancing selection.
c.
 are genetically identical to each other.
d.
 become increasingly different as each population becomes adapted to its own environment.
 
 11.
Scarcity of resources and a growing population are most likely to result in
a.
 decreased homology.
b.
 increased genetic variation.
c.
 increased competition.
d.
 convergent evolution.
 
   
 
nar001-1.jpg
 
 12.
Refer to the illustration above. An analysis of DNA from these organisms would indicate that
a.
 they have identical DNA.
b.
 they all have the same number of bones.
c.
 their nucleotide sequences show many similarities.
d.
 they all have the same number of chromosomes.
 
 13.
Refer to the illustration above. The similarity of these structures is one form of evidence that the organisms
a.
 share a common ancestor.
b.
 all grow at different rates.
c.
 evolved instantaneously.
d.
 live for a long time.
 
 14.
Refer to the illustration above. The bones labeled “X” can be referred to as
a.
 vestigial structures.
b.
 sequential structures.
c.
 homologous structures.
d.
 fossil structures.
 
 15.
Which of the following is most likely a vestigial structure?
a.
 the human tailbone
c.
 flower color
b.
 the beak of a finch
d.
 a fossil of a snail
 
 16.
Homologous structures in organisms provide evidence that the organisms
a.
 share a common ancestor.
b.
 must have lived at different times.
c.
 have a skeletal structure.
d.
 are now extinct.
 
 17.
Anatomical structures that appear to be derived from a functional structure in an ancestor, but that currently do not serve an important function, are called
a.
 inorganic.
c.
 fossilized.
b.
 mutated.
d.
 vestigial.
 
 18.
The beak of a bird and the beak of a giant squid evolved independently and serve the same function. The beaks are
a.
 divergent structures.
c.
 analogous structures.
b.
 homologous structures.
d.
 hybrid structures.
 
 19.
Evidence that evolution occurs includes all of the following except
a.
 acquired characteristics.
b.
 similarities and differences in proteins and DNA sequences between organisms.
c.
 the fossil record.
d.
 homologous structures among different organisms.
 
 20.

Cytochrome c is a protein that is involved in cellular respiration in all eukaryotic organisms. Human cytochrome c contains 104 amino acids. The following table compares human cytochrome c with cytochrome c from a number of other organisms.

 

Organism		 Number of cytochrome c amino acids
that differ from human cytochrome c amino acids
Chickens
18
Chimpanzees
0
Dogs
13
Rattlesnakes
20
Rhesus monkeys
1
Yeasts
56
   

Which of the following is not a valid inference from these data?

a.
 Chimpanzees are more closely related to humans than yeasts are.
b.
 The cytochrome c of chimpanzees differs from that of rhesus monkeys by only one amino acid.
c.
 Dogs are more closely related to humans than chickens are.
d.
 All of the proteins produced by chimpanzees and humans are identical.
 
 21.
The accumulation of differences between populations that once formed a single population is called
a.
 coevolution.
b.
 adaptation.
c.
 divergent evolution.
d.
 cumulative differentiation.
 
 22.
Over millions of years, plants and their pollinators have
a.
 coevolved.
c.
 become parasites.
b.
 crossbred.
d.
 become competitive.
 
 23.

mc023-1.jpg

Refer to the illustration above. While the shark and dolphin are similar in appearance, dolphins evolved from ancestors that were very different from sharks. The current similarity between sharks and dolphins is an example of

a.
 coevolution.
c.
 convergent evolution.
b.
 biogeography.
d.
 divergent evolution.
 
 24.
What is the idea developed by Charles Lyell which states that the geologic processes that shaped Earth in the past continue to operate in the same way today?
a.
 inheritance of acquired characteristics
b.
 catastrophism
c.
 uniformitarianism
d.
 descent with modification
 
 25.
The idea of inheritance of acquitted characteristics was proposed by
a.
 Charles Darwin.
c.
 Jean-Baptiste Lamarck.
b.
 George Cuvier.
d.
 Charles Lyell.
 
 26.
Which of the following describes a population?
a.
 dogs and cats living in Austin, Texas
b.
 four species of fish living in a pond
c.
 dogwood trees in Middletown, Connecticut
d.
 roses and tulips in a garden
 
 27.
The movement of alleles into or out of a population due to migration is called
a.
 mutation.
c.
 nonrandom mating.
b.
 gene flow.
d.
 natural selection.
 
 28.
What type of population is most susceptible to loss of genetic variability as a result of genetic drift?
a.
 large populations
b.
 medium-sized populations
c.
 small populations
d.
 populations that fluctuate in size
 
 29.
A change in the frequency of a particular gene in one direction in a population is called
a.
 directional selection.
b.
 acquired variation.
c.
 chromosome drift.
d.
 stabilizing selection.
 
 30.
The type of selection that may eliminate intermediate phenotypes is
a.
 direction selection.
b.
 disruptive selection.
c.
 polygenic selection.
d.
 stabilizing selection.
 
 31.
Directional selection tends to eliminate
a.
 both extremes in a range of phenotypes.
b.
 one extreme in a range of phenotypes.
c.
 intermediate phenotypes.
d.
 None of the above; it causes new phenotypes to form.
 
 32.
The large, brightly colored tail feathers of the male peacock are valuable to him because
a.
 they attract potential predators.
b.
 they warn off potential competitors for mates.
c.
 they attract potential mates.
d.
 they attract people who provide them with food.
 
 33.
The hypothesis that evolution occurs at an irregular rate through geologic time is known as
a.
 directional evolution.
b.
 directional equilibrium.
c.
 punctuated equilibrium.
d.
 punctuated evolution.
 

 

 
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