Author: Biology Junction Team

Ecology Quiz

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Ecology Quiz

 

Test your knowledge of Ecology!

1. A cold biome characterized by permafrost under the surface?
a) Taiga
b) Tundra
c) Deciduous forest
d) Savanna2. An organism that feeds on plants and animals?
a) Carnivore
b) Omnivore
c) Epiphyte
d) Herbivore

3. All of the following are abiotic factors except:
a) Tree
b) Temperature
c) pH
d) Sunlight

4. Corals would be found in which zone:
a) Oceanic
b) Estuary
c) Neritic
d) Benthic

5. Which of the following is not part of the nitrogen cycle:
a) Ammonification
b) Transpiration
c) Nitrification
d) Rhizobacteria

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Chapter 5 Homeostasis and Transport RETEST

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Chapter 5 Homeostasis and Transport RETEST
 

Multiple Choice
Identify the choice that best completes the statement or answers the question.
 1.
As a result of diffusion, the concentration of many types of substances
a.
 always remains greater inside a membrane.
b.
 eventually becomes balanced on both sides of a membrane.
c.
 always remains greater on the outside of a membrane.
d.
 becomes imbalanced on both sides of a membrane.
 2.
Diffusion takes place
a.
 only through a lipid bilayer membrane.
b.
 from an area of low concentration to an area of high concentration.
c.
 only in liquids.
d.
 from an area of high concentration to an area of low concentration.
            Concentration of Water and Solutes in Four Adjacent Cells

nar001-1.jpg
 3.
Refer to the illustration above. Which cell is most likely to lose both water molecules and solute molecules as the system approaches equilibrium?
a.
 cell “A”
c.
 cell “C”
b.
 cell “B”
d.
 cell “D”
 4.
Refer to the illustration above. In this system, solute molecules in cell “B” are most likely to
a.
 remain in cell “B.”
c.
 diffuse into cell “A.”
b.
 adhere to cell “B’s” membrane.
d.
 diffuse into cell “D”
 5.
Refer to the illustration above. In this system, water molecules are most likely to diffuse in which direction?
a.
 from “A” to “B”
c.
 from “D” to “C”
b.
 from “B” to “D”
d.
 from “C” to “A”
 6.
The dispersal of ink in a beaker of water is an example of
a.
 diffusion.
c.
 active transport.
b.
 osmosis.
d.
 endocytosis.
 7.
heavy rains : flooding ::
a.
 osmosis : proton pumping
b.
 high solute concentration : isotonic solution
c.
 active transport : ATP
d.
 concentration difference : osmosis
 8.
Sugar molecules can enter cells through the process of
a.
 exocytosis.
c.
 osmosis.
b.
 facilitated diffusion.
d.
 ion pumps.
 9.
Channels utilizing facilitated diffusion
a.
 work in two directions.
b.
 require an electrical signal to function.
c.
 Both a and b
d.
 None of the above
 10.
Which of the following is not characteristic of facilitated diffusion?
a.
 It requires a carrier protein.
b.
 It moves substances against a concentration gradient.
c.
 It requires no energy input.
d.
 It involves a change in the shape of its carrier.
 11.
Which of the following is true of ions and their transport across cell membranes?
a.
 The “gates” for ion channels are always open.
b.
 Ions are very small and thus can cross cell membranes readily.
c.
 Electrical or chemical signals may control the movement of ions across cell membranes.
d.
 Because they are charged particles, the movement of ions across cell membranes requires energy input.
 12.
Which of the following does not expend energy?
a.
 diffusion
c.
 active transport
b.
 chemiosmosis
d.
 a sodium-potassium pump
 13.
Which of the following enters a cell by active transport?
a.
 glucose
c.
 sodium ion
b.
 water
d.
 potassium ion
 14.
The process by which water passes into or out of a cell is called
a.
 solubility.
c.
 selective transport.
b.
 osmosis.
d.
 endocytosis.
nar002-1.jpg
 15.
Refer to the illustration above. The process shown is called
a.
 osmosis.
c.
 active transport.
b.
 facilitated diffusion.
d.
 diffusion.
 16.
The sodium-potassium pump usually pumps
a.
 potassium out of the cell.
b.
 sodium into the cell.
c.
 potassium into the cell.
d.
 only a potassium and sugar molecule together.
 17.
proton pump : protons ::
a.
 ATP : protons
c.
 sodium-potassium pump : ATP
b.
 channel : protons
d.
 sodium-potassium pump : sodium
 18.
Ridding the cell of material by discharging it from sacs at the cell surface is called
a.
 chemiosmosis.
c.
 exocytosis.
b.
 exorcism.
d.
 endocytosis.
 19.
Molecules that are too large to be moved across a cell membrane can be removed from the cell by
a.
 diffusion.
c.
 lipid carriers.
b.
 exocytosis.
d.
 osmosis.
 20.
Molecules that are too large to be moved through the membrane can be transported into the cell by
a.
 osmosis.
c.
 lipid carriers.
b.
 endocytosis.
d.
 diffusion.
 21.
endocytosis : exocytosis ::
a.
 phagocytosis : bacteria
c.
 cold : hot
b.
 secrete : exocytosis
d.
 white blood cell : bacteria

 
         Start Over

Cells and Their Functions

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Cells and Their Functions

 

 

Multiple Choice
Identify the choice that best completes the statement or answers the question.
 1.
The smallest unit that can carry out all activities we associate with life is:
a.
 atom.
b.
 organelle.
c.
 cell.
d.
 tissue.
e.
 organ.
 2.
What characteristic of cells could be used to determine the presence or absence of life?
a.
 presence of organic molecules
b.
 presence of inorganic molecules
c.
 alteration of concentrations of organic and/or inorganic molecules
d.
 relatively constant concentrations of organic and/or inorganic molecules
e.
 None of the above would be useful in determining the presence or absence of life.
 3.
Which of the following is not found in single celled organisms?
a.
 atoms
b.
 cells
c.
 tissues
d.
 Neither A nor B is found in single celled organisms.
e.
 Neither A, nor B, nor C is found in single celled organisms.
 4.
Evidence that all living cells have a common origin is provided by:
a.
 the cell theory, which states that the cell is the basic unit of life.
b.
 the fact that all new cells come from previously existing cells.
c.
 the fact that cells are the building blocks of the most complex plants.
d.
 basic similarities in cell structure and chemistry.
e.
 the fact that cells are the smallest units that can carry out all life activities.
 5.
As biologists continue to unlock the secrets of ________, many new doors are opening to development of medical treatments.
a.
 proteins
b.
 mitochondria
c.
 cell membranes
d.
 DNA
e.
 ribosomes
 6.
The function of the plasma membrane is to:
a.
 serve as a highly selective barrier.
b.
 completely isolate the cell from the external environment.
c.
 equalize the chemical composition inside and outside the cell.
d.
 allow cells to accumulate materials and energy.
e.
 Both A and D.
 7.
It is advantageous for cells to be small because:
a.
 a small cell size prevents a cell from weighing too much.
b.
 a small cell size occupies less space in nature where space is limited.
c.
 a small cell has a small volume relative to surface area, thereby increasing efficient transport.
d.
 a small cell has a small surface area relative to volume, thereby facilitating ion balance.
e.
 a small cell is better able to conserve energy than a larger cell.
Figure 04-01
Use the figure below to answer the corresponding questions.

nar001-1.jpg
 8.
Which of the following statements about Figure 04-01 is true?
a.
 Figure B has a greater surface area than Figure A.
b.
 Figure B has a greater volume than Figure A.
c.
 Figure B has a smaller volume than Figure A.
d.
 Figure B has a greater surface area to volume ratio than Figure A.
e.
 Figure B has a smaller surface area to volume ratio than Figure A.
 9.
Based on your knowledge of basic geometric relationships, the actual surface area to volume ratio for Figure B in Figure 04-01 is:
a.
 0.01.
b.
 0.06.
c.
 100.
d.
 1,000.
e.
 This cannot be determined from the information provided.
 10.
One strategy that allows larger cells to have an effective surface area to volume ratio is:
a.
 having a completely spherical shape.
b.
 being short and fat.
c.
 having thin, finger-like projections.
d.
 having a thinner plasma membrane.
e.
 locomotion.
 11.
Which of the following is not an example of homeostasis?
a.
 A cell maintains a constant pH.
b.
 A cell maintains a constant glucose concentration.
c.
 A cell maintains a constant salt concentration.
d.
 A cell maintains a constant water concentration.
e.
 All of the above are examples of homeostasis.
 12.
Which of the following descriptions or structures does not match the cell type?
a.
 Sperm cells have flagella.
b.
 Nerve cells have long, thin extensions.
c.
 Epithelial cells are rectangular.
d.
 White blood cells can change shape.
e.
 All of the above are correct.
 13.
Which scientist first viewed living cells?
a.
 Robert Hooke
b.
 Matthias Schleiden
c.
 Theodor Schwann
d.
 Anton van Leeuwenhoek
e.
 August Weismann
 14.
The ratio of the size of the image seen with the microscope to the actual size of the object is:
a.
 magnification.
b.
 resolution.
c.
 resolving power.
d.
 centrifugation.
e.
 None of the above.
 15.
Electron microscopes have a much higher resolution than either the human eye or any light microscope because:
a.
 of their higher magnification.
b.
 the lenses used are of much higher quality.
c.
 of the very short (nanometer) wavelengths of electrons.
d.
 the images are viewed on screens, rather than directly using an eyepiece or ocular lens.
e.
 All of the above.
 16.
The advantage of studying cells using a phase contrast microscope is that:
a.
 the magnification is greater.
b.
 the resolving power is greater.
c.
 it is faster.
d.
 it permits us to view internal structures of live cells.
e.
 it uses a beam of electrons to allow us to see the organelles enclosed by the plasma membrane.
 17.
The accompanying figure is the product of a:

mc017-1.jpg

a.
 phase-contrast light microscope.
b.
 Nomarski differential interference microscope.
c.
 transmission electron microscope.
d.
 scanning electron microscope.
e.
 confocal fluorescence microscope.
 18.
The scanning electron microscope differs from the transmission electron microscope in that the scanning electron microscope:
a.
 can view a live specimen.
b.
 relies on the detection of electrons from the beam after contact with the specimens.
c.
 can view the internal structure of a cell.
d.
 utilizes a beam of light that passes through the specimen.
e.
 gives a three dimensional image of the object being studied.
 19.
Differential centrifugation is a process that:
a.
 separates different components of the cell that function differently.
b.
 separates components of the cell that have a different chemical makeup.
c.
 analyzes the chemical components of the cell.
d.
 separates components of the cell that have different densities.
e.
 allows researchers to view the contents of the cells.
 20.
Which cell structure would not be in a eukaryotic cell, but would be found in a prokaryotic cell?
a.
 cell wall
b.
 flagellum
c.
 ribosomes
d.
 Gogli complex
e.
 DNA
 21.
Membrane-bounded organelles facilitate faster chemical reactions because:
a.
 reactants are within close proximity to each other.
b.
 membranes lower the activation energy of biochemical reactions.
c.
 membrane-bounded organelles act as catalysts for biochemical reactions.
d.
 reactants move faster within membrane-bounded organelles.
e.
 reactants are less likely to encounter each other within membrane-bounded organelles.
 22.
A eukaryotic cell:
a.
 is usually smaller than a prokaryotic cell.
b.
 has its DNA concentrated in one area of the cell without a nuclear membrane.
c.
 typically has a cell wall, in addition to a plasma membrane.
d.
 is a bacteria-like organism.
e.
 has a variety of membranous organelles.
 23.
Membranes facilitate all of the following except:
a.
 facilitating the formation of energy-yielding gradients.
b.
 acting as barriers to ions.
c.
 acting as important “work benches” within cells.
d.
 directing the synthesis of proteins.
e.
 maintaining the identity of different cellular compartments.
 24.
Which of the following structures would not be found in cells of a plant’s roots?
a.
 mitochondria
b.
 chloroplasts
c.
 endoplasmic reticulum
d.
 nucleus
e.
 All of the above would be found in cells of a plant’s root.
 25.
Select the cell type that is not correctly matched with the type of predominate organelle it would need to perform its unique function:
a.
 Sperm cells have many mitochondria to provide energy for the flagellum.
b.
 Pancreas cells have many ribosomes to produce the protein insulin.
c.
 Liver cells have many ribosomes to produce detoxifying protein enzymes.
d.
 Plant leaf cells have many chloroplasts to produce sugar by using energy from sunlight.
e.
 All of the cells above are correctly matched with the predominate type of organelle they would need to perform their unique function.
 26.
Which of the following structures or activities is not directly part of the endomembrane system?
a.
 budding
b.
 lysosomes
c.
 ribosomes
d.
 peroxisomes
e.
 Golgi complex
 27.
DNA is associated with proteins, forming a complex known as:
a.
 chromosomes.
b.
 nucleoli.
c.
 nucleus.
d.
 genes.
e.
 chromatin.
 28.
In the classic experiments by Bracht and Hammerling, the nucleus of Acetabularia was removed, the cap was cut off, a nucleus of a different species was inserted, and the cap was allowed to regenerate. The new cap was then removed. After the second regeneration, the cap was observed, and the following conclusion was made:
a.
 The shape of the cap was controlled by the nucleus, thus, the nucleus was the control center of the cell.
b.
 The shape of the cap was under the control of the stalk, which produced a control substance.
c.
 The shape of the cap was independent of both the stalk and the holdfast.
d.
 The “cren” caps were defective due to some mutation in the cap. Thus, “cren” caps are independent of control from both the base and the holdfast.
e.
 At the time no conclusion could be made because in the early 20th century, biologists did not know about the composition of DNA.
 29.
Nucleoli contain chromosomal regions that specialize in making:
a.
 proteins.
b.
 RNA.
c.
 ribosomes.
d.
 lipids.
e.
 hormones.
 30.
If a toxin, such as a bacterial toxin, destroys ribosomes, what cellular activity will be affected first?
a.
 protein synthesis
b.
 DNA synthesis
c.
 movement
d.
 energy storage
e.
 active transport
 31.
Proteins made on ribosomes may be further modified within the:
a.
 lysosomes.
b.
 nucleus.
c.
 mitochondria.
d.
 Golgi complex.
e.
 peroxisomes.
 32.
The smooth endoplasmic reticulum:
a.
 is absent in most plant cells.
b.
 synthesizes proteins.
c.
 provides structural support.
d.
 synthesizes lipids.
e.
 is required for ribosome synthesis.
Figure 04-02
Use the figure below to answer the corresponding questions.

nar002-1.jpg
 33.
The cellular structure indicated by the arrow in Figure 04-02 is responsible for:
a.
 lipid and fatty acid metabolism.
b.
 protein synthesis.
c.
 digestion of unused organelles.
d.
 replication.
e.
 None of the above.
 34.
Which of the following statements about the structure surrounded by the box in Figure 04-02 is true?
a.
 This structure is only found in plant cells.
b.
 This structure is characteristic of both prokaryotic and eukaryotic cells.
c.
 This structure plays a central role in the process of transcription.
d.
 This structure typically represents a significant portion of the overall cell volume.
e.
 This structure represents the main storage area for the cell.
 35.
Which of the following pairs is correctly matched?
a.
 chloroplast – storage of enzymes
b.
 lysosome – powerhouse of the cell
c.
 nucleolus – site of ribosomal subunit synthesis
d.
 plastids – structural support of the cell
e.
 Golgi complex – production of energy
 36.
Which of the following organelles plays an important role in apoptosis, or programmed cell death?
a.
 ribosomes
b.
 mitochondria
c.
 chloroplasts
d.
 vacuoles
e.
 peroxisomes
 37.
One function of peroxisomes involves the process of:
a.
 cell death.
b.
 water storage.
c.
 protein synthesis.
d.
 DNA replication.
e.
 detoxification.
 38.
During an infection, white blood cells travel to the infected site and phagocytize the pathogens. After phagocytosis, primary lysosomes fuse with the phagocytic vesicle to form a larger vesicle called a secondary lysosome. The reason for this is:
a.
 to introduce antibodies to the phagocytic vesicles.
b.
 to wrap the pathogen in additional membrane, rendering them harmless.
c.
 to coat the bacteria in lipids derived from the Golgi complex, which cover and smother them.
d.
 to mix the pathogens with strong hydrolytic enzymes and destroy them.
e.
 to prepare the bacteria for export from the body.
 39.
All of the following functions are performed by plant vacuoles except:
a.
 maintaining hydrostatic (turgor) pressure.
b.
 waste storage and recycling.
c.
 storage of proteins.
d.
 breakdown of unneeded cellular materials.
e.
 storage of nucleic acids.
 40.
The theory that chloroplasts and mitochondria had their evolutionary beginnings in eukaryotic cells as endosymbionts is supported by all of the following except:
a.
 chloroplasts and mitochondria are completely autonomous within eukaryotic cells.
b.
 chloroplasts and mitochondria have DNA.
c.
 chloroplasts and mitochondria have small ribosomes for protein synthesis.
d.
 chloroplasts and mitochondria are approximately the same size as prokaryotic cells.
e.
 chloroplasts and mitochondria have the same shape as prokaryotic cells.
 41.
A cellular structure found in plant but not animal cells is the:
a.
 chloroplast.
b.
 ribosome.
c.
 endoplasmic reticulum.
d.
 microtubule.
e.
 microfilament.
Figure 04-03
Use the figure below to answer the corresponding questions.

nar003-1.jpg
 42.
Refer to Figure 04-03. The formation of ATP occurs in the portion of the chloroplast labeled:
a.
 structure A.
b.
 structure B.
c.
 structure C.
d.
 structure D.
e.
 structure E.
 43.
The formation of carbohydrates from carbon dioxide and water occurs in the portion of the chloroplast in Figure 04-03 labeled:
a.
 structure A.
b.
 structure B.
c.
 structure C.
d.
 structure D.
e.
 structure E.
 44.
Which of the following is a key component of the cytoskeleton?
a.
 membranes
b.
 cytoskeleton
c.
 DNA
d.
 ribosomes
e.
 None of the above.
 45.
The force necessary to cause microtubules of cilia and flagella to slide alongside one another is provided through the action of _________ proteins, which derive the energy to perform their work directly from ______ molecules.
a.
 kinesin; ADP
b.
 kinesin; glucose
c.
 tubulin; ATP
d.
 dynein; ATP
e.
 dynein; ADP
 46.
The structures in the micrograph could be:

mc046-1.jpg

a.
 chloroplasts.
b.
 cilia.
c.
 RER.
d.
 flagella.
e.
 B and D
Figure 04-04
Use the figure below to answer the corresponding questions.

nar004-1.jpg
 47.
The organelle featured in Figure 04-04:
a.
 is present in a few prokaryotes.
b.
 is the major site of protein synthesis in the cell.
c.
 plays a vital role in packaging materials to be secreted.
d.
 plays a central role in energy metabolism.
e.
 is located in the nucleus.
 48.
The structures indicated by the arrows in Figure 04-04 are:
a.
 thylakoid lamellae.
b.
 grana.
c.
 cristae.
d.
 matrices.
e.
 plastids.
 49.
The main process that occurs at the site of the structures marked by arrows in Figure 04-04 is:
a.
 protein synthesis.
b.
 photosynthesis.
c.
 conversion of food molecules to ATP.
d.
 processing and packaging of proteins.
e.
 transcription.
 50.
A single cell in a smoker’s lung has become cancerous. It doubles its DNA and divides much faster than a normal lung cell. The most likely change that would have caused this condition took place in the:
a.
 nucleus.
b.
 nucleolus.
c.
 microtubule.
d.
 mitochondria.
e.
 lysosome.
 51.
Cells have internal structures called organelles. Which is not a function of organelles?
a.
 Store genetic information.
b.
 Convert energy to more usable forms.
c.
 Synthesize polymers.
d.
 Manufacture membranes.
e.
 All of the above are organelle functions.
 52.
Which of the following is not a cell covering or part of a cell covering?
a.
 glycocalyx
b.
 extracellular matrix
c.
 cristae
d.
 cell wall
e.
 integrins
 53.
The principle cell adhesion molecules in vertebrates and in many invertebrates are cadherins. These are important in:
a.
 preventing the invasiveness of some malignant tumors.
b.
 calcium-dependent adhesion between cells that form multicellular sheets.
c.
 embryonic development.
d.
 cell adhesion in vertebrates and in many invertebrates.
e.
 All of the above.
 54.
All of the following are functions of the cell membrane except:
a.
 transmitting signals.
b.
 participating in energy transfer.
c.
 being freely permeable.
d.
 regulating the passage of materials.
e.
 participating in chemical reactions.
 55.
Which of the following structures is composed of two layers of phospholipids associated with proteins integrated within or attached to these layers?
a.
 cell wall
b.
 plasma membrane
c.
 microfilaments
d.
 flagellum
e.
 ribosomes
 56.
Phospholipids can form bilayer structures because of their:
a.
 rectangular shapes.
b.
 amphipathic nature.
c.
 ability to dissolve well in water.
d.
 inability to associate with other phospholipids.
e.
 lack of fatty acids.
 57.
Phospholipids can form bilayers because the molecules:
a.
 have two distinct regions, one strongly hydrophobic and the other strongly hydrophilic.
b.
 are amphipathic molecules.
c.
 have cylindrical shapes that allow them to associate with water most easily as a bilayer structure.
d.
 Both A and B.
e.
 A, B, and C.
 58.
A key discovery that weakened the Davson-Danielli “sandwich” model of cell membranes was that:
a.
 membrane proteins form a solid sheet on either side of the phospholipid bilayer.
b.
 membrane proteins form a solid sheet separating the phospholipid layer.
c.
 the phospholipids do not associate with each other in the hydrophobic region of membranes.
d.
 membrane proteins were not uniform and did not form flattened sheets.
e.
 membrane proteins occurred in regular organized patterns on the surface of membranes.
 59.
Proposed the fluid mosaic model of cell membrane structure in 1972:
a.
 S. Jonathan Singer.
b.
 Garth Nicolson.
c.
 Hugh Davson.
d.
 Both A and B.
e.
 A, B, and C.
 60.
Which of the following is a typical component of eukaryotic cell membranes?
a.
 DNA
b.
 glucose
c.
 cholesterol
d.
 water
e.
 All of the above.
 61.
Cholesterol within membranes functions as a(an) ____________ through its interactions with both hydrophobic and hydrophilic parts of phospholipids.
a.
 water blocker
b.
 pH buffer
c.
 energy source
d.
 temperature controller
e.
 fluidity buffer
 62.
In a lipid bilayer, ___________ fatty acid tails face each other within the bilayer and form a region that excludes water.
a.
 hypertonic
b.
 hyperosmotic
c.
 hypotonic
d.
 hydrophilic
e.
 hydrophobic
 63.
Which of the following functions best explains the reason for the asymmetrically oriented structure of the proteins in the cell membrane?
a.
 These proteins are manufactured by free ribosomes.
b.
 Each type of protein has its own function.
c.
 These proteins pass through the ER membrane into the ER lumen.
d.
 Enzymes are needed to modify the carbohydrate chains on these proteins.
e.
 These proteins are initially formed by ribosomes on the rough ER.
 64.
Which of the following is not a function associated with membrane proteins?
a.
 Recognition of surface antigens of bacterial cells.
b.
 Forming junctions between adjacent cells.
c.
 Identify the cell as belonging to a particular individual.
d.
 Serve as anchoring points for networks of cytoskeletal elements.
e.
 All of the above are functions associated with membrane proteins.
 65.
Which of the following is not a function of the transmembrane proteins called aquaporins?
a.
 Transmembrane proteins
b.
 Facilitate the rapid transport of water through the plasma membrane
c.
 Located in mammalian kidney tubules
d.
 Respond to specific hormones
e.
 All of the above are functions associated with aquaporins.
 66.
Catalysts are reusable. Enzymes are protein catalysts, and are reusable. Select the protein(s) below that is (are) not used up by the process carried out:
a.
 Sodium-potassium pump carrier proteins
b.
 Aquaporins
c.
 Proteins involved in facilitated diffusion
d.
 Both A and B.
e.
 A, B, and C.
 67.
Integral proteins:
a.
 are weakly bound to the surface of the membrane.
b.
 are strongly bound to the cytosolic surface of the membrane.
c.
 have no hydrophobic portions.
d.
 are completely embedded within the lipid bilayer.
e.
 are amphipathic.
 68.
What is meant by the term “fluid mosaic model”?
a.
 It is the diffusion of lipid-soluble substances through the lipid bilayer.
b.
 It is the movement of lipids and integral proteins within the lipid bilayer.
c.
 It is the solubility of water in the membrane.
d.
 It is the method of substance transport across the membrane.
e.
 It is the movement of surface proteins through the membrane.
 69.
A transmembrane protein differs from other membrane proteins because it:
a.
 is covalently linked to the outer surface of the plasma membrane.
b.
 is a glycoprotein with carbohydrates attached.
c.
 is attached to the inside of the membrane by an ionic bond.
d.
 completely extends through the membrane.
e.
 is completely embedded within the membrane.
 70.
Peripheral proteins are linked to either surface of the plasma membrane by:
a.
 covalent disulfide bonds.
b.
 associating with fatty acids through hydrophobic interactions.
c.
 embedding in one side of the membrane and, thus, not extending through to the other side.
d.
 associating with glycoproteins on the inner membrane surface.
e.
 bonding to integral proteins through weak linkages.
 71.
Which of the following statements explaining the differences in number and types of peripheral proteins found on the inner and outer surfaces of cell membranes is correct?
a.
 The functions of the membrane differ on the inside and outside of the cell.
b.
 Not all proteins can pass through the membrane and, thus, more accumulate on the inside.
c.
 Proteins on the outside of the membrane are synthesized at a slower rate than proteins on the inside of the membrane.
d.
 Proteins on the outside of membrane are made extracellularly and are unable to penetrate the phospholipid bilayer and enter the cell.
e.
 The external peripheral proteins are weakly attached to the membrane and are readily washed away.
 72.
Proteins that are destined to become associated with the inner surface of the plasma membrane are:
a.
 manufactured in the same way as protein hormones.
b.
 manufactured in the same way as proteins destined to become external peripheral proteins.
c.
 made on free ribosomes in the cytoplasm.
d.
 made on ribosomes located on the rough endoplasmic reticulum.
e.
 transported to the plasma membrane within a secretory vesicle.
 73.
Biological membranes are normally permeable to:
a.
 large, hydrophilic molecules.
b.
 small, hydrophilic molecules.
c.
 large, hydrophobic molecules.
d.
 small, hydrophobic molecules.
e.
 None of the above.
 74.
A bottle of perfume is opened on the opposite side of the room and within minutes you begin to smell the perfume. This phenomenon is a classic example of:
a.
 dialysis.
b.
 osmosis.
c.
 active transport.
d.
 facilitated diffusion.
e.
 diffusion.
 75.
Which of the following molecules is least likely to cross a cellular membrane by simple diffusion?
a.
 carbon dioxide
b.
 nitrogen
c.
 oxygen
d.
 potassium ion
e.
 water
 76.
The passive movement of a substance along its concentration gradient is termed:
a.
 active transport.
b.
 dialysis.
c.
 diffusion.
d.
 exocytosis.
e.
 osmosis.
 77.
Simple diffusion may involve the movement of ______________________ through the plasma membrane down a concentration gradient.
a.
 small polar molecules
b.
 small nonpolar molecules
c.
 large polar molecules
d.
 large nonpolar molecules
e.
 water
 78.
The difference between dialysis and osmosis is that:
a.
 in osmosis, the solute moves through a selectively permeable membrane.
b.
 in dialysis, the solvent moves through a selectively permeable membrane.
c.
 in osmosis, the solute moves from a region of high concentration to a region of low concentration.
d.
 in dialysis, the solute moves from a region of high concentration to a region of low concentration.
e.
 in dialysis, the solvent moves from a region of high concentration to a region of low concentration through a selectively permeable membrane.
 79.
If the concentration of solutes in a cell is less than the concentration of solutes in the surrounding fluid, then the extracellular fluid is said to be:
a.
 hypertonic.
b.
 hypotonic.
c.
 isotonic.
d.
 stable.
e.
 amphipathic.
 80.
The higher the concentration of solute in a solution, the _________ the effective water concentration and the ________ the osmotic pressure.
a.
 lower; lower
b.
 lower; higher
c.
 higher; higher
d.
 higher; lower
e.
 Answer cannot be determined from the information provided.
Figure 05-01
Use the figure below to answer the corresponding questions.

nar005-1.jpg
 81.
Which of the following statements about the red blood cells in Figure 05-01 Sample B is true?
a.
 These red blood cells have been placed in an isotonic solution.
b.
 These red blood cells have swollen in response to a hypertonic external solution.
c.
 These red blood cells have swollen in response to a hypotonic external solution.
d.
 These red blood cells have shrunken in response to a hypertonic external solution.
e.
 These red blood cells have shrunken in response to a hypotonic external solution.
 82.
Which of the following statements about the red blood cells in Figure 05-01 Sample A is true?
a.
 There has been no net water movement.
b.
 There has been a net flow of water out of the cell.
c.
 There has been a net flow of water into the cell.
d.
 Pinocytosis has occurred.
e.
 Plasmolysis has occurred.
 83.
A patient who has had a severe hemorrhage accidentally receives a large transfusion of distilled water directly into a major blood vessel. You would expect this mistake to:
a.
 have no unfavorable effect as long as the water is free of bacteria.
b.
 have serious, perhaps fatal consequences because there would be too much fluid to pump.
c.
 have serious, perhaps fatal consequences because the red blood cells could shrink.
d.
 have serious, perhaps fatal consequences because the red blood cells could swell and burst.
e.
 have no serious effect because the kidney could quickly eliminate excess water.
 84.
A plant cell placed in a hypertonic solution will:
a.
 remain unchanged.
b.
 undergo lysis.
c.
 undergo plasmolysis.
d.
 swell slightly.
e.
 become crenated.
 85.
Penicillin is toxic to certain dividing bacterial cells because it prevents cell wall formation, causing the cells to burst. This indicates that the bacteria live in:
a.
 a hypotonic medium.
b.
 a hypertonic medium.
c.
 an isotonic medium.
d.
 a medium with higher osmotic pressure than the cell.
e.
 Both B and D.
 86.
A wilted flower placed in a vase of water for several hours became stiff and stood erect. When it was placed in a salt solution, it wilted. From this information we can say that the cells of the flower are:
a.
 hypotonic to both fresh water and the salt solution.
b.
 hypertonic to both the fresh water and the salt solution.
c.
 hypertonic to fresh water but hypotonic to the salt solution.
d.
 hypotonic to fresh water but hypertonic to the salt solution.
e.
 isotonic to fresh water but hypotonic to the salt solution.
 87.
Which of the following membrane activities does not require the expenditure of energy by the cell?
a.
 active transport
b.
 osmosis
c.
 endocytosis
d.
 exocytosis
e.
 synthesis of more membrane
 88.
Facilitated diffusion:
a.
 requires a transmembrane protein.
b.
 requires ATP.
c.
 can move molecules against a concentration gradient.
d.
 is typically used to transport small nonpolar molecules.
e.
 All of the above.
 89.
A bacterium containing sodium ions at a concentration of 0.1 mM lives in a pond that contains sodium ions at 0.005 mM. Evidently, sodium ions are entering the cell by:
a.
 active transport.
b.
 endocytosis.
c.
 diffusion.
d.
 facilitated diffusion.
e.
 osmosis.
 90.
The energy-requiring movement of materials against a concentration gradient is termed:
a.
 active transport.
b.
 dialysis.
c.
 facilitated diffusion.
d.
 osmosis.
e.
 plasmolysis.
 91.
Although glucose molecules constantly diffuse into a cell along their concentration gradient, equilibrium is never reached and glucose continues to enter the cell. This is a direct result of:
a.
 the very fast turnover rate of glucose metabolism.
b.
 the continuous excretion of glucose from other parts of the cell.
c.
 the rapid and continuous intracellular formation of glucose-6-P.
d.
 the active transport of glucose.
e.
 the ability of the cell to engulf glucose by pinocytosis.
 92.
Which of the following statements about the sodium-potassium pump is true?
a.
 It transports hydrogen ions out of the cell.
b.
 It transports 3 sodium ions out of the cell in exchange for 2 potassium ions.
c.
 It transports 2 sodium ions out of the cell in exchange for 2 potassium ions.
d.
 It transports 2 sodium ions out of the cell in exchange for 3 potassium ions.
e.
 It transports water directly out of the cell.
 93.
A person has a genetic disease that prevents the phospholipids in the plasma membrane of the white blood cells from freely fusing with the other membranes within the cell. How would this disease affect phagocytosis?
a.
 Lysosomes would not be formed.
b.
 Facilitated diffusion would not occur.
c.
 Lysosomes would be formed lacking hydrolytic enzymes.
d.
 The phagocytic vacuole would not fuse with the lysosome.
e.
 Endocytosis would not occur.
 94.
Which of the following are forms of carrier-mediated transport?
a.
 Facilitated diffusion.
b.
 Carrier-mediated active transport.
c.
 Osmosis.
d.
 Both A and B.
e.
 A, B, and C.
 95.
Which of the following describes how facilitated diffusion is powered?
a.
 Facillitated diffusion is “free of cost.”
b.
 Energy is required to do the work of establishing and maintaining a concentration gradient.
c.
 ATP is required directly.
d.
 Both A and B.
e.
 A, B, and C.
 96.
Pinocytosis:
a.
 is engulfment of large particles by the cell.
b.
 occurs in protozoans and algae but not in more complex organisms.
c.
 involves the specific binding of molecules to receptors on the cell surface.
d.
 is the nonspecific uptake of fluids by an invagination of the cell membrane.
e.
 is movement of molecules against the concentration gradient through a permeable membrane.
 97.
Receptor-mediated endocytosis:
a.
 is a passive process.
b.
 involves only membrane transport proteins.
c.
 brings about the selective uptake of materials by enclosing them in membranous vesicles.
d.
 does not require energy.
e.
 is most likely to be found in cells that release large amounts of hormones.
 98.
A human white blood cell engulfs a bacterial cell by:
a.
 carrier-mediated facilitated diffusion.
b.
 exocytosis.
c.
 phagocytosis.
d.
 pinocytosis.
e.
 the sodium-potassium pump.
 99.
Select the receptor mediated endocytosis events that are in the correct (before, after) order:
a.
 Endosome fuses with lysosome; receptors are transported to plasma membrane and recycled.
b.
 Ligand binds to receptors; coated vesicle forms by endocytosis.
c.
 Contents are digested and released in the cytosol; ligand separates from its receptor.
d.
 Endosome fuses with lysosome; receptors are transported to plasma membrane and recycled.
e.
 None of the events are listed in the correct order.
 100.
In cells that are constantly involved in secretion, an equivalent amount of membrane must be returned to the interior of the cell for each vesicle that fuses with the plasma membrane; if this does not occur, then what would happen?
a.
 The ratio of cell surface would decrease, compared to cell volume.
b.
 The cell surface would shrivel.
c.
 The surface area would remain constant.
d.
 The number of membrane receptor proteins would decrease.
e.
 The cell surface will keep expanding.
Figure 05-02
Use the figure below to answer the corresponding questions.

nar006-1.jpg
 101.
The process illustrated in Figure 05-02 is called:
a.
 facilitated diffusion.
b.
 pinocytosis.
c.
 cotransport.
d.
 lysis.
e.
 exocytosis.
 102.
The process illustrated in Figure 05-02 would most likely be used to transport:
a.
 glucose.
b.
 hormones.
c.
 potassium ions.
d.
 carbon dioxide.
e.
 bacteria.
 103.
One difference between tight junctions and desmosomes is that tight junctions:
a.
 are regions where the plasma membrane from two neighboring cells are in actual contact.
b.
 occur only in plants.
c.
 involve connective microfilaments that traverse the space between adjacent cells.
d.
 are anchored by microfilaments on the insides of the cell membranes of adjacent cells.
e.
 contain a 24 nm space between two adjacent membranes.
 104.
Plasmodesmata of plant cells are functionally equivalent to ____________ of animal cells.
a.
 gap junctions
b.
 desmosomes
c.
 tight junctions
d.
 cell surface receptors
e.
 microvilli
 105.
The structures in this figure:

mc105-1.jpg

a.
 provide anchorage points between adjacent cells.
b.
 allow the transport of small molecules and ions between adjacent cells.
c.
 allow passage of materials through intercellular spaces.
d.
 prevent the passage of materials through intercellular spaces.
e.
 can only be found in plants.
 106.
Which of the following is not part of the process of cell signaling?
a.
 Synthesis and release of signaling molecules.
b.
 Facilitated transport.
c.
 Transport to target cells.
d.
 Response by the cell.
e.
 Termination of signaling.
 107.
The process in which cells convert and amplify an extracellular signal into an intracellular signal:
a.
 Synthesis and release of signaling molecules.
b.
 Transport to target cells.
c.
 Signal transduction.
d.
 Response by the cell.
e.
 Termination of signaling.
 108.
In a signaling pathway, the second messenger is often:
a.
 GTP.
b.
 GDP.
c.
 cyclic AMP.
d.
 cyclic ADP.
e.
 ATP.


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Chapter 2 Study Guide

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Multiple Choice
Identify the choice that best completes the statement or answers the question.
 1.
Atoms are composed of
a.
 protons with a positive charge.
b.
 neutrons with no charge.
c.
 electrons with a negative charge.
d.
 All of the above
 2.
The smallest particle of carbon that can retain the chemical properties of carbon is
a.
 a carbon molecule.
b.
 a carbon macromolecule.
c.
 a carbon atom.
d.
 the nucleus of a carbon atom.
 3.
A substance that is composed of only one type of atom is called a(n)
a.
 nucleus.
c.
 element.
b.
 cell.
d.
 molecule.
 4.
All matter in the universe is composed of
a.
 cells.
c.
 atoms.
b.
 molecules.
d.
 carbon.
 5.
The electrons of an atom
a.
 are found in the nucleus along with the protons.
b.
 orbit the nucleus in various energy levels.
c.
 have a positive charge.
d.
 are attracted to the positive charge of neutrons.
 6.
Atoms that have gained energy
a.
 have protons and neutrons that move farther apart.
b.
 lose neutrons from the nucleus.
c.
 have electrons that move to higher energy levels.
d.
 absorb electrons into the nucleus.
 7.
Which of the following states of matter contain(s) particles that are tightly linked together in a definite shape?
a.
 solid
c.
 gas
b.
 liquid
d.
 solid and liquid
 8.
Because carbon has four electrons in its outer energy level,
a.
 it can form bonds with carbon atoms only.
b.
 these atoms are naturally chemically stable.
c.
 it can react with up to four other atoms to form covalent bonds.
d.
 it cannot react with anything other than organic molecules.
 9.
The bond formed when two atoms share a pair of electrons is called a
a.
 hydrogen bond.
c.
 covalent bond.
b.
 nonpolar bond.
d.
 water bond.
 10.
Sharing of electrons between atoms of two or more elements
a.
 results in the formation of an ion.
b.
 results in the formation of a compound.
c.
 results in the formation of noble gases.
d.
 results in destabilization of the atoms involved.
 11.
An atom that has gained or lost electrons is called a(n)
a.
 molecule.
c.
 ion.
b.
 nucleon.
d.
 element.
 12.
Which of the following statements most accurately describes the difference between an ionic bond and a covalent bond?
a.
 Atoms held together by ionic bonds separate when placed in water, while atoms held together by covalent bonds do not separate in water.
b.
 Ionic bonds hold together atoms of two different types, while covalent bonds hold together atoms of the same type.
c.
 Electrons are exchanged between atoms held together by an ionic bond, but they are shared between atoms held together by a covalent bond.
d.
 Ionic bonds form between atoms that carry opposite charges, while covalent bonds form between uncharged atoms.
nar001-1.jpg
 13.
Refer to the graph above. Reaction 1 in the graph
a.
 is an energy-storing reaction.
b.
 requires a greater activation energy than reaction 2.
c.
 may use the same initial reactant condition needed to form product Y.
d.
 All of the above
 14.
Refer to the graph above. Reaction 3 in the graph
a.
 probably occurred in the presence of a catalyst.
b.
 requires a greater activation energy than reaction 2.
c.
 is the same as reaction 1, but faster.
d.
 takes longer than reaction 2.
 15.
Refer to the graph above. Which of these statements regarding the graph is true?
a.
 Reaction 2 occurs faster than reaction 3 because reaction 2 requires more energy than reaction 3.
b.
 The difference in the graphs shown for reaction 2 and reaction 3 is due to a difference in the activation energy needed for these reactions.
c.
 Reactant X contains more energy at the beginning of the reaction than product Z has after the reaction.
d.
 All of the above
 16.
Changing the course or pathway of a chemical reaction so that it requires less activation energy
a.
 is a violation of the laws of nature.
b.
 requires higher temperatures than those found within cells.
c.
 occurs only when reactants are quickly added to the reaction mixture.
d.
 is accomplished by the action of catalysts on reactants.
 17.
Enzymes
a.
 are able to heat up molecules so that they can react.
b.
 provide CO2 for chemical reactions.
c.
 are biological catalysts.
d.
 absorb excess heat so that reactions occur at low temperatures.
 18.
A single organism may contain
a.
 thousands of different enzymes, each one specific to a different chemical reaction.
b.
 one enzyme that plays a role in thousands of different chemical reactions.
c.
 approximately 100 kinds of enzymes, each one specific to a different chemical reaction.
d.
 one enzyme that is specific to photosynthesis and one enzyme that is specific to cellular respiration.
 19.
When a molecule gains an electron, it has been
a.
 oxidized.
c.
 digested.
b.
 reduced.
d.
 inactivated.
 20.
Oxidation-reduction reactions are important in organisms because they
a.
 allow the passage of energy from molecule to molecule.
b.
 prevent nuclear reactions from occurring.
c.
 allow the creation and destruction of energy.
d.
 None of the above; oxidation-reduction reactions do not occur in living organisms.
 21.
The concentration of a solution is
a.
 the number of particles of a substance in a solvent.
b.
 the amount of a solvent that is dissolved in a fixed amount of a solution.
c.
 the amount of a solute that is dissolved in a fixed amount of a solution.
d.
 the ratio of solute to solvent in a solution.
 22.
A neutral solution has an equal number of
a.
 hydrogen and hydronium ions.
b.
 hydroxide and hydronium ions.
c.
 hydrogen and hydroxide ions.
d.
 oxygen and hydrogen ions.
 23.
The terms base and alkaline refer to solutions that
a.
 contain dissolved sodium hydroxide.
b.
 contain more hydronium ions than hydroxide ions.
c.
 contain more hydroxide ions than hydronium ions.
d.
 contain more hydroxide ions than hydrogen ions.
 24.
A solution with a pH of 11 is
a.
 acidic.
c.
 neutral.
b.
 alkaline.
d.
 a buffer.
 25.
Acidic solutions have a pH that is
a.
 less than 7.
c.
 a negative number.
b.
 between 0 and 14.
d.
 more than 7.
 26.
Buffers
a.
 are of relatively little importance in living things.
b.
 are formed when a large number of hydroxide ions are released in a solution.
c.
 are formed when a large number of hydronium ions are released in a solution.
d.
 tend to prevent great fluctuations in pH.
 27.
Atoms become more stable when they form compounds because
a.
 they always lose electrons when they form compounds.
b.
 their outer orbitals become filled when they form compounds.
c.
 they always gain electrons when they form compounds.
d.
 their nucleus loses extra protons when they form compounds.
 28.
A water molecule is polar because its hydrogen and oxygen atoms
a.
 both lose electrons.
b.
 become ions.
c.
 both gain electrons.
d.
 do not share the electrons equally.
 29.
Polar molecules such as water have
a.
 no negative or positive poles.
b.
 both negative and positive poles.
c.
 only a negative pole.
d.
 only a positive pole.
 30.
A molecule that has a partial positive charge on one side and a partial negative charge on the other side is called a
a.
 nonpolar molecule.
c.
 charged molecule.
b.
 polar molecule.
d.
 bipolar molecule.
 31.
Water is a polar molecule because
a.
 it contains two hydrogen atoms for each oxygen atom.
b.
 it has a charge.
c.
 different parts of the molecule have slightly different charges.
d.
 it does not have a charge.
 32.
Water molecules break up other polar substances
a.
 such as salts.
b.
 because of the uneven charge distribution that exists in water molecules.
c.
 thus freeing ions in these substances for use by the body.
d.
 All of the above
 33.
Which of the following characteristics of water is not a result of hydrogen bonding?
a.
 adhesive strength
b.
 capillarity
c.
 cohesive strength
d.
 All of the above are a result of hydrogen bonding.
 

Completion
Complete each statement.
 34.
Substances that are changed when they become involved in chemical reactions are called ____________________, while the new substances that are formed are called ____________________.
 35.
The energy needed to break existing chemical bonds during the initiation of a chemical reaction is called ____________________.
 36.
Chemical reactions in the body can be speeded up by adding a(n) ____________________, which lowers the amount of activation energy required to start the reaction.
 37.
The loss of electrons from a molecule is called ____________________, while the gain of electrons by a molecule is called ____________________.
 38.
A substance that dissolves in another is called a(n) ____________________.
 39.
____________________ is the most common solvent in cells.
 40.
____________________ and ____________________ ions form when water dissociates.
 41.
An acidic solution is one that has more ____________________ than ____________________ ions.
 42.
A solution with a pH of 3 has ____________________ times more hydronium ions than a solution with a pH of 6.
 43.
Buffers are important because body fluids must be maintained within a relatively narrow range of ____________________.
 44.
Water is very effective at dissolving other polar substances because of its ____________________.
 45.
Breaking of ____________________ bonds is the first thing that happens when water is heated, which means that it takes a great deal of thermal energy to raise the temperature of water.
 

Problem
 46.

pr046-1.jpg

Refer to the illustration above. The graph depicts the relative energy levels of the products and reactants for the following chemical reaction: A + B C + D. Write your answers to the following in the spaces below.

a.      Which substances, A, B, C, and/or D, are present at point 1 on the graph?
b.      Which substances, A, B, C, and/or D, are present at point 3 on the graph?
c.      Why is point 2 at a higher energy level than point 1?
d.      Why is point 3 at a lower energy level than point 1?
e.      Draw a dashed line on the graph indicating how the energy level of this reaction over time would be different if the enzyme that catalyzes the reaction were not present.
 

Essay
 47.
Plant growers often use sprinkler irrigation to protect crops they are growing from frost damage. The water that lands on the leaves turns to ice. How does this protect the plants from frost damage? Write your answer in the space below.
 48.
Define enzyme, and describe how an enzyme can function in speeding up a chemical reaction within a cell. Write your answer in the space below.
 49.
How does water’s polar nature affect its ability to dissolve different substances? Write your answer in the space below.
 50.
Explain the relationship between hydrogen bonding and the observation that a full sealed bottle of water breaks when it freezes. Write your answer in the space below.

 
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Chapter 1 Introduction Study Guide

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Modified True/False
Indicate whether the statement is true or false.  If false, change the identified word or phrase to make the statement true.
 1.
Accepting ideas is the cornerstone of scientific thought. _________________________
 2.
Skepticism is a habit of mind in which a person accepts the validity of accepted ideas. _________________________
 3.
The law of gravity and the law of conservation of energy are national laws. _________________________
 4.
Scientific investigations require ethical behavior. _________________________
 5.
Most scientific investigations begin with observations that lead to universal laws. _________________________
 6.
A hypothesis is a possible explanation that can be tested by observation or experimentation. _________________________
 7.
The control group and the experimental group are identical except for one variable. _________________________
 8.
A hypothesis is a general explanation for a broad range of data. _________________________
 9.
International System of Units (SI) is the official name of the metric system. _________________________
 10.
A centimeter is equal to 10 millimeters. _________________________
 11.
Light and electron autoclaves help magnify objects. _________________________
 12.
A technique is a way of doing something. _________________________
 13.
In the event of a lab accident, one thing you should always do is remain calm. _________________________
 14.
Biology is the study of nonliving things. _________________________
 15.
A student who wants to study bacteria would take microbiology classes. _________________________
 16.
Reproduction insures ongoing generations of both one-celled organisms and frogs. _________________________
 17.
Homeostasis is the maintenance of a stable internal environment in spite of changes in the external environment. _________________________
 18.
The bacterium that causes cholera is an example of a pathogen. _________________________
 19.
Scientists discovered that predicting the spread of cholera involves understanding reproductive behavior of plankton. _________________________
 20.
The study of all the factors in the spread of cholera in human populations is an example of ecology. _________________________
 21.
Scientists in the 21st century are better able to prevent disease because of their improved understanding of biology. _________________________
 22.
The completion of the Human Genome Project was one minor contribution to the ability to cure disease. _________________________
 23.
Scientists expect people to live longer lives because of advances in the science of biology. _________________________
 24.
The application of technology to medicine has greatly increased the ability of people to live healthy lives. _________________________
 25.
Genetic engineering is the only practical application of biotechnology. _________________________
 26.
Genetic engineering is widely used in agriculture to produce crops that are pest-resistant. _________________________
 27.
Surrounding a drug compound with a layer of atoms that allows for the slow release of the drug is an example of genetic engineering. _________________________
 28.
Making a new kind of fastener modeled on the way an aquatic animal fastens onto rocks on the ocean floor is an example of nanotechnology. _________________________
 29.
Biometrics involves analyzing large amounts of data on biological characteristics. _________________________
 30.
Unique genetic traits, such as hair color, are the most important source of data for biometrics. _________________________
 31.
Advances in biotechnology have been slowed by ethical concerns. _________________________
 32.
The ethics of different kinds of biotechnology will be decided by individuals and scientists. _________________________
 33.
One good way to protect the environment is to learn more about it. _________________________
 34.
Environmental science involves neither the study of organisms nor their physical surroundings. _________________________
 35.
One reason that wildlife biologists collect DNA samples from endangered species is the hope that these species can be cloned if they become extinct. _________________________
 36.
Genetic engineering is used to track the movements of animals in the wild. _________________________
 37.
Community environmental groups make problems for environmental research. _________________________
 

Multiple Choice
Identify the choice that best completes the statement or answers the question.
 38.
Which of the following do scientists not use to support ideas?
a.
 opinions
c.
 experiments
b.
 evidence
d.
 investigations
 39.
Which of the following applies to all branches of science?
a.
 cell organization
c.
 gravity
b.
 earthquakes
d.
 reproduction
 40.
Which of the following is unethical behavior in scientific investigations?
a.
 allowing peers to review investigations
b.
 following guidelines for medical experiments
c.
 reporting inaccurate data
d.
 basing investigations on someone else’s work
 41.
Scientific thinking can be used
a.
 only by scientists.
c.
 by all living things.
b.
 only in experiments.
d.
 by everyone in daily life.
 42.
A scientist noticed that the number of salamanders in ponds in the Rocky Mountains was declining. This was a(n)
a.
 hypothesis.
c.
 observation.
b.
 theory.
d.
 control.
 43.
A hypothesis is a
a.
 definite answer to a given problem.
b.
 testable possible explanation of an observation.
c.
 proven statement.
d.
 concluding statement.
 44.
observation : hypothesis ::
a.
 theory : observation
c.
 certainty : prediction
b.
 guess : hypothesis
d.
 hypothesis : investigation
 45.
Most typically, the order in which the steps of scientific investigations are applied is
a.
 controlled experiment, hypothesis, analysis of results, observations, questions, conclusions.
b.
 observations, controlled experiment, hypothesis, analysis of results, conclusions, questions.
c.
 observations, questions, hypothesis, controlled experiment, analysis of results, conclusions.
d.
 questions, observations, analysis of results, controlled experiment, conclusions, hypothesis.
 46.
If experiments are not possible or ethical, scientists
a.
 cannot test a hypothesis.
b.
 test more than one variable at a time.
c.
 do not use a control group.
d.
 look for connections in data gathered.
 47.
Scientific hypotheses are most often tested by the process of
a.
 communicating.
c.
 experimenting.
b.
 inferring.
d.
 analyzing data.
 48.
A planned procedure to test a hypothesis is called a(n)
a.
 prediction.
c.
 control.
b.
 experiment.
d.
 variable.
 49.
The variable that is measured in an experiment is the _____ variable.
a.
 dependent
c.
 control
b.
 independent
d.
 experimental
 50.
A general explanation for a broad range of data is called a
a.
 hypothesis.
c.
 prediction.
b.
 theory.
d.
 controlled experiment.
 51.
A scientific theory is
a.
 absolutely certain and never questioned.
b.
 unchangeable.
c.
 revised as new evidence is presented.
d.
 a controlled experiment.
 52.
Scientists build theories from many
a.
 experiments that support hypotheses.
b.
 hypotheses that are rejected.
c.
 experiments with different variables.
d.
 untested ideas.
 53.
The metric system of measurement is based on powers of
a.
 1.
c.
 100.
b.
 10.
d.
 1000.
 54.
A specialized tool used to magnify organisms so that they can be observed is a
a.
 pipet.
c.
 satellite.
b.
 microscope.
d.
 laminar-flow hood.
 55.
Which of the following would scientists use to prevent contamination in an experiment?
a.
 electron microscope
c.
 remote collection of data
b.
 light microscope
d.
 sterile technique
 56.
Which of the following is the most recent tool available to scientists?
a.
 remote tracking devices
c.
 autoclaves
b.
 microscopes
d.
 sterilized pipets
 57.
You can work safely in the science lab by
a.
 taking shortcuts in procedures.
b.
 waiting until the end of experiments to clean area.
c.
 estimating measurements of chemicals.
d.
 following all instructions.
 58.
All of the following are important for working safely in a science laboratory except
a.
 tasting chemicals.
c.
 working cautiously.
b.
 measuring chemicals precisely.
d.
 wearing safety goggles.
 59.
Biology is the study of
a.
 life.
c.
 weather.
b.
 minerals.
d.
 energy.
 60.
The branch of biology that is the study of the human body is
a.
 ecology.
c.
 cell biology.
b.
 evolutionary theory.
d.
 physiology.
 61.
Which of the following is not one of the seven properties of life?
a.
 metabolism
c.
 responsiveness
b.
 homeostasis
d.
 photosynthesis
 62.
As a characteristic of all living things, homeostasis relates most directly to which of the following biological themes?
a.
 interacting systems
c.
 stability
b.
 scale and structure
d.
 evolution
 63.
chemical reactions : metabolism ::
a.
 cells : an organism
c.
 reproduction : living
b.
 heredity : homeostasis
d.
 experimentation : observation
 64.
All living things maintain a balance within their cells and with the environment through the process of
a.
 growth.
c.
 homeostasis.
b.
 development.
d.
 evolution.
 65.
The energy that drives metabolism in animals comes from
a.
 homeostasis.
c.
 water.
b.
 food.
d.
 heredity.
 66.
Children tend to resemble their parents due to
a.
 heredity.
c.
 metabolism.
b.
 responsiveness.
d.
 homeostasis.
 67.
A field of sunflowers facing the sun is an example of
a.
 metabolism.
c.
 responsiveness.
b.
 growth.
d.
 heredity.
 68.
The changes in human babies during their first year of life is an example of
a.
 heredity.
c.
 evolution.
b.
 responsiveness.
d.
 development.
 69.
Filtering contaminated water through a sari is
a.
 an ineffective way to reduce cases of cholera.
b.
 the best way to prevent the spread of cholera.
c.
 a low-tech solution to reducing cases of cholera.
d.
 another factor that causes cholera to spread rapidly.
 70.
All of the following should be researched in studying the epidemiology of waterborne diseases except the
a.
 genomes of the pathogens.
b.
 habitat of pathogens.
c.
 food chain of the pathogens.
d.
 environmental factors that affect pathogens.
 71.
One of the most important tools in preventing the spread of disease is
a.
 computer modeling.
c.
 genetic engineering.
b.
 DNA fingerprinting.
d.
 giving vaccinations.
 72.
computer modeling : epidemiology ::
a.
 genetics : DNA fingerprinting
b.
 cloning : biotechnology
c.
 genome : vaccination
d.
 human health : disease prevention
 73.
Which of the following terms is used to refer to a piece of equipment made for a specific use?
a.
 process
c.
 device
b.
 cure
d.
 treatment
 74.
Which of the following is least likely to help humans live longer?
a.
 epidemiology
c.
 genetics
b.
 medicine
d.
 DNA fingerprinting
 75.
knowledge of biology : human potential ::
a.
 assistive technologies : everyday lives
b.
 human potential : epidemiology
c.
 populations : disease outbreaks
d.
 genomes : genetics
 76.
The technology of changing the genetic material of a living cell is called
a.
 biometrics.
c.
 genetics.
b.
 genetic engineering.
d.
 DNA fingerprinting.
 77.
Planting Bt corn helps farmers decrease the use of
a.
 fertilizers.
c.
 pesticides.
b.
 herbicides.
d.
 cultivators.
 78.
All of the following are known advantages of planting Bt corn except it
a.
 adds some bacterial genes to food supplies.
b.
 lowers a farmer’s cost of production.
c.
 improves a farmer’s crop yield.
d.
 reduces chemical contaminants in the environment.
 79.
The application of a biological structure or process to solve design problems is called
a.
 adaptation.
c.
 cloning.
b.
 biomimetics.
d.
 decoding.
 80.
Which of these biotechnologies has the potential to repair tissues inside the body?
a.
 biometrics
c.
 epidemiology
b.
 biomimetics
d.
 nanotechnology
 81.
clam shell formation : ceramics ::
a.
 CAT scanning : modeling fossils
b.
 strong fabrics : spider silk
c.
 spider silk : strong fabrics
d.
 modeling fossils : CAT scanning
 82.
The analysis of biological traits to identify people is called
a.
 arithmetics.
c.
 genetics.
b.
 biometrics.
d.
 statistics.
 83.
Which of the following traits of an individual would be most useful for identifying a victim in a forensic investigation?
a.
 eye color
c.
 blood type
b.
 hair color
d.
 DNA fingerprint
 84.
The ethical concerns about biotechnology must be addressed by
a.
 scientists only.
c.
 both individuals and scientists.
b.
 societies only.
d.
 both individuals and societies.
 85.
All of the following biotechnologies are considered by some to be unethical except
a.
 biomimetic products.
c.
 human stem cell research.
b.
 biometrics data bases.
d.
 genetically modified foods.
 86.
Which of the following would be an unethical use of biometric data and methods?
a.
 linking criminals to crime scenes
b.
 eliminating innocent people from a list of criminal suspects
c.
 excluding people with certain genes from getting jobs
d.
 protecting citizens from bioterrorism
 87.
Which of the following is considered to be one of the most important applications of biology?
a.
 biometrics
c.
 environmental science
b.
 genetic engineering
d.
 assistive technologies
 88.
In order to make wise decisions about the use of natural resources, citizens will need to have a better understanding of
a.
 biomimetics.
c.
 environmental science.
b.
 genetics.
d.
 genetic engineering.
 89.
ecology : environmental science ::
a.
 biomolecules : strong glues
c.
 forensics : biometrics
b.
 genetics : genetic engineering
d.
 spider silk : clam shells
 90.
What do the initials GIS stand for?
a.
 geological inference standard
c.
 geographic information system
b.
 genetic improvement survey
d.
 global investigation society
 91.
Satellite tagging is a technology that is most likely to be used in
a.
 assisting the disabled.
c.
 developing maps of the world.
b.
 conservation of wildlife.
d.
 tracking the spread of disease.
 92.
Each of the following is a part of a GIS program except
a.
 access to data from different sources.
b.
 computer mapping.
c.
 environmental databases.
d.
 genetic analysis tools.
 93.
Which of the following must be done before an environmental study is begun locally?
a.
 contact several scientists
c.
 identify a problem
b.
 buy a GIS program
d.
 gather up volunteers
 94.
At the Raptor Rehabilitation Center, students in an environmental club help take care of injured and orphaned birds of prey. Based on this information, what does the term raptor refer to?
a.
 a bird of prey
c.
 orphaned wildlife
b.
 the environment
d.
 debilitating injury
 

Completion
Complete each statement.
 95.
The medical treatment for ulcers changed after scientists discovered that ____________________ cause stomach ulcers.
 96.
The questioning and often doubtful attitude required for scientific thought is called ____________________.
 97.
The truths that govern science and are valid everywhere in the universe are universal ____________________.
 98.
____________________ are a system of moral principles and values.
 99.
Most scientific investigations begin with ____________________ that lead to questions.
 100.
A reason to set up an experiment is to test a ____________________.
 101.
A(n) ____________________ experiment is a procedure that tests one factor at a time and that uses a(n) ____________________ group and an experimental group.
 102.
In a controlled experiment, the ____________________ group is the group that has one variable changed.
 103.
In an experiment, the ____________________ group receives no experimental treatment.
 104.
Factors that may change as a result of experimental treatment are ____________________ variables.
 105.
A(n) ____________________ is a specific, testable prediction for a limited set of conditions, and a(n) ____________________ is a general explanation for a broad range of data.
 106.
Scientists use the ______________________________ system to make measurements.
 107.
SI is the abbreviation for the ____________________ System of Units.
 108.
The SI base unit for length is the ____________________.
 109.
A kilogram is equal to ____________________ grams.
 110.
In a light microscope, light passes through one or more ____________________ to produce an enlarged image of an object.
 111.
Scientists use ____________________ techniques to minimize the risk of contamination.
 112.
The study of the interactions of living organisms with one another and with the nonliving part of their environment is called ____________________.
 113.
The branch of biology that studies the changes in types of organisms over time is called ___________________ theory.
 114.
Scientists who study whales, bats, or bears in their natural habitat are called ____________________ biologists.
 115.
The process of _________________ traits changing over time is called evolution.
 116.
Every living organism is composed of one or more ____________________.
 117.
All cells have the same basic ____________________.
 118.
The sum of all chemical reactions carried out in an organism is ____________________.
 119.
The energy used by living organisms originates from the ____________________.
 120.
The study of ____________________ involves finding out how diseases are spread.
 121.
Cholera bacteria can cause the disease only when ____________________ increases.
 122.
A ____________________ is a medical procedure that allows a person to resist infection by a certain disease.
 123.
Many new tools for studying and treating diseases caused by problems in genes have come from the study of ____________________.
 124.
In developed countries, the length of human lives has nearly ____________________ in the past century.
 125.
One example of an assistive technology that helps people in everyday life is ____________________.
 126.
The gene that was added to Bt corn came from a(n) ____________________.
 127.
Bt corn contains a gene that produces a ____________________ that kills the European core borer.
 128.
The robotic items produced through nanotechnology often resemble tiny ____________________.
 129.
Imitating biological structures, processes, and systems to solve engineering problems is called ____________________.
 130.
Because of ____________________, dissection is no longer needed to determine the shapes and locations of internal organs.
 131.
Fingerprints and iris patterns are useful in identification because they are ____________________ to individuals.
 132.
Material used in ____________________ is obtained from hair and skin cells.
 133.
Research that involves human stem cells is limited because many people think that such research is ____________________.
 134.
The study of living organisms and their environments is called _________________________.
 135.
The existence of undiscovered resources is an important reason to study and ____________________ natural environments.
 136.
The movements of wildlife can be studied through the technology of ____________________.
 137.
Wildlife agents use the technology of ____________________ to identify the remains of endangered animals and to identify who killed them.
 138.
The people in communities who make contributions to environmental research are called ____________________.
 139.
Students make contributions to environmental conservation by helping to care for ____________________ or ____________________ wildlife.
 

Short Answer
 140.
What universal law applies in a study of the flight of birds? How does it apply?
 141.
How could you use scientific thought to investigate a claim about a product?
 142.
Write a hypothesis to explain why the water level in an aquarium is going down.
 143.
What two groups are part of a controlled experiment?
 144.
What is the difference between an independent variable and dependent variables in a controlled experiment?
 145.
How does a scientist verify the conclusions of an experiment?
 146.
What is the difference between a hypothesis and a theory?
 147.
What makes SI easy to use?
 148.
What are the base SI units for volume, length, and mass?
 149.
What are two common kinds of microscopes. How do they differ?
 150.
What is sterile technique? What are four tools of sterile technique?
 151.
Suppose you are a scientist who studies sharks in their natural habitat. What are two names that describe the kind of biologist you are?
 152.
What is heredity?
 153.
Name the seven properties of life.
 154.
How are data from weather and climate satellites used in epidemiology?
 155.
How does a vaccination help people and animals resist disease?
 156.
How will the completion of the Human Genome Project contribute to biological research in the 21st Century?
 157.
List two examples of assistive technologies that will improve the lives of people with injuries and diseases.
 158.
How does genetic engineering that produced Bt corn help to increase the yield in a farmer’s corn field?
 159.
List two practical applications of biotechnology other than genetic engineering.
 160.
How has genetic engineering improved the treatment of people who have diabetes?
 161.
From what biological structure did engineers get the idea for a submarine?
 162.
What makes iris scans an effective technology for identifying people?
 163.
List two biological characteristics of individuals, besides fingerprints and iris patterns, that can be analyzed by computers to identify people.
 164.
List two concerns that people have expressed about the ethics of biotechnology.
 165.
List three important resources that all living things get from the environment.
 166.
What do the initials GIS stand for?
 167.
What is satellite tagging?
 168.
List three steps that students could take to get involved in environmental research.
 

Essay
 169.
Explain why accurate data and peer review are important in science.
 170.
The results of an experiment do not support the hypothesis that the experiment was designed to test. Was the experiment a waste of time? Explain your answer.
 171.
Explain the difference between an independent variable and a dependent variable in a controlled experiment. Also indicate whether or not each kind of variable would be found in a control group and an experimental group.
 172.
Summarize the steps in the development of a theory.
 173.
Before doing experiments, what should you know about lab safety? What procedure should you follow if an accident occurs during an experiment in your class?
 174.
List and describe the seven properties of life shared by all living organisms.
 175.
Toads that live in hot, dry regions bury themselves in the soil during the day. How might this be important to toads?
nar001-1.jpg
 176.
Refer to the map above. West Nile Virus is a virus that attacks the nervous system of birds, humans, and many other mammals. The virus first appeared in the United States in 1999, when an outbreak was reported in the New York City area. Based on this background and the information shown in the map, write a paragraph that summarizes the state of West Nile Virus incidence in the United States as of 2006.
 177.
Explain how increased understanding of biology and science in general should enable humans to live longer and healthier lives.
 178.
Compare and contrast fingerprints and DNA fingerprints as a means of identifying individuals.
 179.
Ethics is the study of whether human actions are moral (right or wrong, acceptable or unacceptable). Summarize the role of ethics in guiding the future of biotechnology.
 180.
What important lesson can be learned from the recent discovery of new kinds of organisms in a remote area of New Guinea?

 
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