Author: Biology Junction Team

Another Taxonomy Quiz

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Another Taxonomy Quiz

 

 

Modified True/False
Indicate whether the statement is true or false.  If false, change the identified word or phrase to make the statement true.
 1.
Scientists use taxonomy to determine the evolutionary history of organisms. _________________________
 2.
Taxonomy provides consistent ways to name organisms. _________________________
 3.
Scientific names of organisms consist of two English terms. _________________________
 4.
Two different organisms cannot have the same scientific name. _________________________
 5.
Genus is the basic biological unit in the Linnaean system of classification. _________________________
 6.
A genus is a taxonomic category that contains several families. _________________________
 7.
Under the Linnaean system of classification, organisms are grouped on the basis of similarities in structure. _________________________
 8.
Linnaeus devised eight levels of classification categories for living things. _________________________
 9.
The least inclusive group to which an organism can be assigned is its kingdom. _________________________
 10.
Kingdoms are subgroups of phyla. _________________________
 11.
A species is a larger taxonomic group than a genus. _________________________
 12.
Bird wings and insect wings are examples of analogous structures. _________________________
 13.
Organisms that have similar traits but evolved independently are the result of convergent evolution. _________________________
 14.
Cladistics is used to determine the sequence in which different groups of organisms evolved. _________________________
 15.
In modern systematics, studies of the changes in the skeletons of vertebrates have helped researchers to estimate the time at which each species began to evolve. _________________________
 16.
Comparing the sequence of DNA bases in the genes of several organisms is used to determine the order in which the organisms evolved. _________________________
 17.
All organisms in the kingdom Animalia are multicellular heterotrophs whose cells lack cell walls. _________________________
 18.
Archaea are eukaryotes that are characterized by several unique biochemical characteristics. _________________________
 19.
Traditionally, bacteria have been classified on the basis of their shape, cell wall composition, and metabolism. _________________________
 20.
Most organisms in the kingdoms Plantae and Animalia are multicellular. _________________________
 

Multiple Choice
Identify the choice that best completes the statement or answers the question.
 21.
Taxonomy is
a.
 the study of life.
b.
 the science of naming and classifying organisms.
c.
 the evolutionary history of a species.
d.
 the sequence in which different groups evolved.
 22.
An advantage of our scientific naming system is that
a.
 common names mean the same in all countries.
b.
 Latin names are easy to pronounce.
c.
 biologists can communicate regardless of their native languages.
d.
 organisms all have the same scientific name.
 23.
All scientific names of organisms must be
a.
 unique and have two Latin words.
b.
 general and use the species name.
c.
 different and repeat the phylum name.
d.
 similar and include the common name.
 24.
Linnaeus’s two-word system for naming organisms is called
a.
 taxonomic evolution.
c.
 Greek polynomials.
b.
 Genus species.
d.
 binomial nomenclature.
 25.
In the Linnaean system of classification, the level that identifies one unique organism is the
a.
 kingdom.
c.
 genus.
b.
 family.
d.
 species.
 26.
Under the Linnaean system of classification, plants and animals are sorted into groups based on
a.
 number and size.
c.
 form and size.
b.
 form and structure.
d.
 number and structure.
 27.
The largest division that a group of organisms can belong to is a
a.
 domain.
c.
 genus.
b.
 class.
d.
 kingdom.
 28.
Placement in each level of classification is based on
a.
 specific characteristics.
c.
 shared characteristics.
b.
 general characteristics.
d.
 different characteristics.
 29.
Similar genera are grouped into a(n)
a.
 phylum.
c.
 family.
b.
 class.
d.
 order.
 30.
Analogous structures
a.
 have a common size in organisms.
b.
 perform the same function in organisms.
c.
 have the same structure in organisms.
d.
 evolve from a common ancestor.
 31.
Traditional systematics emphasizes the importance of
a.
 derived characteristics.
c.
 similar characteristics.
b.
 unique characteristics.
d.
 compared characteristics.
 32.
Similar features that evolve through convergent evolution are called
a.
 analogous characters.
c.
 environmental characters.
b.
 homologous characters.
d.
 genetic characters.
 33.
Convergent evolution produces analogous characters in different species as the result of
a.
 similar environments.
c.
 sharing a common ancestor.
b.
 different environments.
d.
 shared derived characters.
 34.
A phylogenetic tree differs from a cladogram in that a phylogenetic tree
a.
 hypothesizes the time at which each group of organisms evolved.
b.
 also indicates the new characteristics that evolved with each group of organisms
c.
 only illustrates hypothesized relationships among groups of organisms.
d.
 predicts the next group of organisms that is expected to evolve.
 35.
Studies of fossils of dinosaurs and birds show that
a.
 feathers may not be an important difference between dinosaurs and birds.
b.
 dinosaurs can be considered to be modern descendents of birds.
c.
 the anatomies of the dinosaurs and birds are unrelated.
d.
 dinosaurs and birds share many analogous characters.
 36.
A model used by biologists to represent evolutionary history among species is called a
a.
 phylogram.
c.
 histogram.
b.
 cladogram.
d.
 parallelogram.
 37.
Derived characters are traits
a.
 that are shared by all species.
b.
 that originated in a common ancestor.
c.
 found in closely related species.
d.
 found in distantly related species.
 38.
During Linnaeus’ time, scientists divided all living organisms into
a.
 five phyla.
c.
 three domains.
b.
 four families.
d.
 two kingdoms.
 39.
Which of the following terms is no longer used to describe a group of organisms in the modern classification system?
a.
 Archaea
c.
 Monera
b.
 Eubacteria
d.
 Protista
 40.
Sponges are animals that were once classified as
a.
 bacteria.
c.
 plants.
b.
 fungi.
d.
 protists.
 41.
Which of the following characteristics was used to reclassify sponges?
a.
 body type
c.
 cell walls
b.
 cell type
d.
 nutrition
 42.
The kingdoms Eubacteria and Archaebacteria were once grouped in a kingdom called
a.
 Protista.
c.
 Monera.
b.
 Animalia.
d.
 Plantae.
 43.
Four of the kingdoms include eukaryotes and the other two include
a.
 plants.
c.
 animals.
b.
 fungi.
d.
 prokaryotes.
 44.
Which of the following is not a characteristic used to differentiate kingdoms?
a.
 cell type
c.
 nutrition
b.
 root system
d.
 body type
 45.
Protista is an example of a
a.
 kingdom.
c.
 genus.
b.
 class.
d.
 species.
 46.
Which two kingdoms contain both unicellular and multicellular organisms?
a.
 Archaea and Animalia
c.
 Animalia and Fungi
b.
 Protists and Bacteria
d.
 Protista and Fungi
 47.
Bacteria : prokaryotes ::
a.
 Fungi : prokaryotes
c.
 Protista : eukaryotes
b.
 Animalia : prokaryotes
d.
 Archaea : eukaryotes
 48.
One difference between plants and animals is that plants are
a.
 prokaryotic and animals are eukaryotic.
b.
 eukaryotic and animals are prokaryotic.
c.
 autotrophs and animals are heterotrophs.
d.
 heterotrophs and animals are autotrophs.
 49.
The science of classifying living things is called
a.
 identification.
c.
 taxonomy.
b.
 classification.
d.
 speciation.
 50.
Taxonomy is defined as the science of
a.
 classifying plants according to their uses in agricultural experiments.
b.
 studying ribosomal RNA sequencing techniques.
c.
 grouping organisms according to their characteristics and evolutionary history.
d.
 studying reproductive mechanisms and gene flow.
 51.
As we move through the biological hierarchy from the kingdom to species level, organisms
a.
 vary more and more.
b.
 are less and less related to each other.
c.
 become more similar in appearance.
d.
 always are members of the same order.
 52.
A mushroom is difficult to classify in Linnaeus’s two-kingdom classification system because
a.
 it has another common name, the toadstool.
b.
 it doesn’t seem to fit into either kingdom.
c.
 mushrooms had not yet evolved in Linnaeus’s time.
d.
 All of the above
 53.
Which of the following was not a consideration for Carolus Linnaeus when he developed his system of nomenclature of organisms?
a.
 It should include detailed descriptions of an organism in its name.
b.
 It should assign each organism a unique name.
c.
 It should assign names using a language that can be recognized worldwide.
d.
 It should enable scientists to classify organisms according to their presumed evolutionary relationships to other organisms.
 54.
Which of the following scientists developed the system of classifying organisms by assigning them a genus and species name?
a.
 Leakey
c.
 Darwin
b.
 Aristotle
d.
 Linnaeus
 55.

mc055-1.jpg

Refer to the illustration above. A shark’s skeleton is made of cartilage while a dolphin’s skeleton is made of bone. This is one reason the two organisms are placed in different

a.
 kingdoms.
c.
 subspecies.
b.
 domains.
d.
 classes.
 56.
The organism Quercus phellos is a member of the genus
a.
 Plantae.
c.
 Quercus.
b.
 phellos.
d.
 Protista.
 57.
Poison ivy is also known as Rhus toxicodendron. Its species identifier is
a.
 poison.
c.
 ivy.
b.
 Rhus.
d.
 toxicodendron.
 58.
The red maple is also known as Acer rubrum. Its scientific name is
a.
 red maple.
c.
 rubrum.
b.
 Acer.
d.
 Acer rubrum.
 59.
The scientific name of an organism
a.
 varies according to the native language of scientists.
b.
 is the same for scientists all over the world.
c.
 may refer to more than one species.
d.
 may have more than one genus name.
 60.
Scientists don’t use the common names of organisms because
a.
 an organism may have more than one common name.
b.
 common names are too ambiguous.
c.
 an organism rarely has the same name in different languages.
d.
 All of the above
 61.
An organism can have
a.
 one genus name and one species identifier.
b.
 one genus name and two species identifiers.
c.
 two scientific names if it is found on different continents.
d.
 two genus names but only one species identifier.
 62.
In which language are scientific names written?
a.
 English
c.
 Arabic
b.
 Greek
d.
 Latin
 63.
Two organisms in the same class but different orders
a.
 are in different kingdoms.
b.
 have the same genus name.
c.
 are in the same phylum.
d.
 are members of the same species.
 64.
Organisms in different genera
a.
 may share the second word of their scientific names.
b.
 may be in the same family.
c.
 may be in different orders.
d.
 All of the above
 65.
Two organisms in the same order but different families may
a.
 be more similar than two organisms in different classes.
b.
 be in the same class.
c.
 have the same species identifier.
d.
 All of the above
 66.
Kingdoms are divided into phyla, and each phylum is divided into
a.
 families.
c.
 orders.
b.
 classes.
d.
 genera.
 67.
The correct order of the biological hierarchy from kingdom to species is
a.
 kingdom, class, family, order, phylum, genus, species.
b.
 kingdom, phylum, order, family, class, genus, species.
c.
 kingdom, phylum, class, order, family, genus, species.
d.
 kingdom, class, order, phylum, family, genus, species.
 68.
The lowest hierarchy level in biological classification is the
a.
 genus.
c.
 family.
b.
 species.
d.
 order.
 69.
Which of the following is the least inclusive classification group?
a.
 class
c.
 phylum
b.
 genus
d.
 species
 70.
Quercus rubra : Quercus phellos ::
a.
 Anolis carolinensis : Parus carolinensis
b.
 Erithacus rubicula : Turdus migratoria
c.
 Aphis pomi : Aphis gossypii
d.
 carp : goldfish
 71.
class : family ::
a.
 order : phylum
c.
 species : genus
b.
 genus : class
d.
 phylum : order
 72.
Today, biologists classify organisms by their
a.
 physical similarities.
c.
 behavioral similarities.
b.
 chemical similarities.
d.
 All of the above
 73.
Phylogenetic trees depict
a.
 known evolutionary relationships between organisms.
b.
 presumed evolutionary relationships based on physical features only.
c.
 only living organisms.
d.
 presumed evolutionary relationships based on a variety of types of evidence.
 74.
The DNA sequences of two species of sharks would
a.
 be more similar than the DNA sequences of a shark and a dolphin.
b.
 show no discernible differences.
c.
 be very close to the DNA sequences of a dolphin.
d.
 indicate how the sharks evolved.
 75.
Which of the following is (are) used in systematic taxonomy to classify organisms?
a.
 patterns of embryological development
b.
 homologous features
c.
 amino acid sequences of proteins
d.
 All of the above
 76.
analogous features : convergent evolution ::
a.
 two members of the same genus : same species
b.
 cladogram : evolutionary relationships
c.
 common names : universal identification
d.
 cladograms : exact, direct information
nar001-1.jpg
 77.
Refer to the illustration above. A branching diagram like the one shown is called a
a.
 phenetic tree.
c.
 family tree.
b.
 cladogram.
d.
 homology.
 78.
Refer to the illustration above. Each particular feature, such as dry skin, that is used to assign an organism to a group is called a(n)
a.
 special character.
b.
 analogous character.
c.
 derived character.
d.
 homologous character.
 79.
Nearly all single-celled eukaryotes that are either heterotrophic or photosynthetic belong to the kingdom
a.
 Animalia.
c.
 Plantae.
b.
 Fungi.
d.
 Protista.
 80.
Most multicellular, nucleated autotrophs that carry on photosynthesis belong to the kingdom
a.
 Animalia.
c.
 Fungi.
b.
 Eubacteria.
d.
 Plantae.
 81.
Multicellular, nucleated heterotrophs that always obtain food by absorbing nutrients from the environment belong to the kingdom
a.
 Animalia.
c.
 Fungi.
b.
 Eubacteria.
d.
 Plantae.
 82.
An organism that breaks down organic matter, which it then absorbs, is in the kingdom
a.
 Fungi.
c.
 Animalia.
b.
 Plantae.
d.
 Protista.
 83.
Simple, non-nucleated organisms that use hydrogen to produce methane are in the domain
a.
 Archaea.
c.
 Eukarya.
b.
 Bacteria.
d.
 None of the above
 84.
The kingdom defined as including any eukaryotes that are not plants, animals, or fungi is the kingdom
a.
 Protista.
c.
 Animalia.
b.
 Plantae.
d.
 Fungi.
 85.
Carl Woese proposed the three-domain system of classification based on the examination of
a.
 embryos.
c.
 ribosomal RNA.
b.
 fossils.
d.
 organisms’ physical features.
 86.
The three domain system of classification is based on similarities and differences in ____, while the six-kingdom system is based on similarities and differences in ____.
a.
 DNA; DNA, fossils, embryological development, and physical features
b.
 DNA; embryological development, fossils, physical features, and RNA
c.
 ribosomal RNA; embryological development, fossils, physical features, and various molecular structures
d.
 physical features; embryological development, fossils, physical features, and various molecular structures
 87.
Which of the following groups are placed together by cladistics but are placed in separate groups by classical taxonomy?
a.
 birds and crocodiles
c.
 turtles and birds
b.
 birds and mammals
d.
 snakes and mammals
 

Completion
Complete each statement.
 88.
The current system used for naming organisms was developed by ____________________.
 89.
The two-word system for naming organisms is called _________________________.
 90.
The scientific name of an organism gives biologists a common way of ____________________ regardless of their native languages.
 91.
All names assigned to organisms under the Linnaean system are in the ____________________ language.
 92.
The unique two-word name for a species is its ____________________ name.
 93.
All living things are grouped into one of three ____________________.
 94.
There are ____________________ levels of classification in the modern classification system.
 95.
A kingdom contains many ____________________.
 96.
Classes with similar characteristics are assigned to a(n) ____________________.
 97.
Each level of classification is based on ____________________ shared by all the organisms it contains.
 98.
Homo habilis, Homo erectus, and Homo sapiens all belong to the same ____________________.
 99.
Traditionally, scientists have used differences in appearance and ____________________ to classify organisms.
 100.
Unlike cladistics, traditional systematics places more ____________________ on some traits than on others.
 101.
Analogous structures are found in ____________________ taxa as a result of similar environmental conditions.
 102.
The type of evolution that results in similar characteristics found in different organisms as the result of selection within similar environments is called ____________________ evolution.
 103.
The evolutionary history of a species is called its ____________________.
 104.
Shared derived characters are found in organisms that once shared a(n) ____________________ ancestor.
 105.
A method of analysis that reconstructs phylogenies by inferring relationships based on shared characteristics is called ____________________.
 106.
A model developed by systematists that uses shared derived characters to show the evolutionary history of different organisms is called a(n) ____________________.
 107.
Cladistics is used to determine the ____________________ in which different groups of organisms evolved.
 108.
Animals that appear early on a cladogram do not share as many of the same ____________________ traits as the animals that appear later on the cladogram.
 109.
Modern systematic biologists use the ____________________ rate of DNA mutations like a “molecular clock.”
 110.
Two kingdoms include prokaryotes, while four kingdoms include ____________________.
 111.
Bacteria have strong exterior cell walls made of ____________________.
 112.
An organism made of many cells that are permanently associated and that coordinate their activities is called a(n) ____________________ organism.
 113.
Eukaryotes that are not fungi, plants, or animals are called ____________________.
 114.
Aristotle classified plants on the basis of differences in their ____________________.
 115.
The science of naming and classifying organisms is called ____________________.
 116.
____________________ devised the two-name system of naming organisms.
 117.
Biologists of Linnaeus’s time classified every living thing as either plant or ____________________.
 118.
A genus is subdivided into smaller groups called ____________________.
 119.
Each kind of organism on Earth is assigned a unique two-word ____________________.
 120.
All scientific names are made up of two words that are often derived from the ____________________ language.
 121.
The first word of a scientific name indicates the ____________________ to which the organism belongs.
 122.
A kingdom is divided into phyla when animals are being classified or into ____________________ when plants are being classified.
 123.
The evolutionary history of a species is called its ____________________.
 124.

co124-1.jpg

Refer to the illustration above. Organism 4 belongs to the kingdom ____________________.
 125.
Eukaryotic organisms that lack specialized tissue systems are members of the kingdom ____________________.
 126.
Corals, spiders, and rodents all belong to the kingdom ____________________.
 127.
The domains of the three-domain system of classification are Archaea, Bacteria, and ____________________.
 128.
The variety of organisms at all taxonomic levels is called ____________________.
 129.
Cladistics uses shared and ____________________ characters to group taxa.
 130.
The Greek philosopher ____________________ classified organisms as either plants or animals.
 

Problem
 131.

The following table presents data on some characteristics found in vertebrates. A “+” indicates that an organism has a particular characteristic and a “–” indicates that an organism does not have a particular characteristic.

Characteristics
Organism
Jaws
Limbs
Hair
Lungs
Tail
Lamprey
–
–
–
–
+
Turtle
+
+
–
+
+
Cat
+
+
+
+
+
Gorilla
+
+
+
+
+
Lungfish
+
–
–
+
+
Trout
+
–
–
–
+
Human
+
+
+
+
–

Using these data, construct a cladogram illustrating the evolutionary relationships among these organisms. Each branch point should indicate a common ancestor. Write the name of the shared character that is common to all organisms above each branching point. A shared character can be the absence of a structure common to organisms below that point on the tree. Write your answer in the space below.
 

Essay
 132.
Why might the use of common names to describe organisms sometimes cause confusion? Give several examples to support your answer. Write your answer in the space below.
 133.
While on a biological expedition to a tropical rain forest, you discover a previously unidentified animal. Explain the guidelines you would follow to choose a genus and species name for the animal. Write your answer in the space below.
 134.
The red fox (Vulpes vulpes), the coyote (Canis latrans), and the dog (Canis familiaris) are all members of the family Canidae. The mountain lion (Felis concolor) is a member of the family Felidae. Describe the relationships among these animals. Write your answer in the space below.
 135.
A species is defined as a group of organisms that are similar and can interbreed and produce fertile offspring in nature. Horses and donkeys can interbreed and produce mules, which cannot produce offspring. Is it possible that horses and donkeys belong to the same species? Explain. Write your answer in the space below.
 136.
What are the main criteria currently used to classify organisms? Write your answer in the space below.

 
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Echinoderm

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Echinoderm

 

 

True/False
Indicate whether the sentence or statement is true or false.
1.
Chordates and echinoderms have a common ancestor.
2.
None of the echinoderms living in the oceans today is sessile.
3.
In addition to radial symmetry, echinoderms have a water-vascular system.
4.
The hard, spiny skin of an echinoderm is called an exoskeleton.
5.
All echinoderms except the sand dollar display a five-part radial symmetry.
6.
The adult form of all echinoderms exhibits radial symmetry.
7.
Sea stars are carnivores and are among the most important predators in many marine ecosystems.
8.
In some echinoderms, respiration and waste removal are performed by skin gills.
9.
A separated piece of a sea star can regenerate the rest of its body as long as the piece contains part of the central region of the animal.
 

Multiple Choice
Identify the letter of the choice that best completes the statement or answers the question.
10.
Embryological evidence suggests that the echinoderms are closely related to the
a.
vertebrates.
c.
annelids.
b.
arthropods.
d.
arachnids.
11.
The first organisms to develop a hardened endoskeleton were the
a.
echinoderms.
c.
arthropods.
b.
annelids.
d.
chordates.
12.
Echinoderms
a.
are radially symmetrical as larvae and as adults.
b.
have an exoskeleton as adults.
c.
are bilaterally symmetrical as larvae and radially symmetrical as adults.
d.
are radially symmetrical as larvae and bilaterally symmetrical as adults.
13.
The symmetry exhibited by echinoderms is
a.
bilateral.
c.
radial.
b.
spherical.
d.
mirror image.
14.
In echinoderms and chordates, all the cells of the early embryo
a.
are controlled by molecules within the egg.
b.
form the “first mouth.”
c.
fall into four different categories.
d.
are identical.
15.
The skeleton of an echinoderm is composed of individual plates called
a.
ocelli.
c.
odonata.
b.
ossicles.
d.
isopods.
16.
sea cucumbers : a fused skeleton ::
a.
sea urchins : a five-part body plan
c.
sand dollars : endoskeletons
b.
sea urchins : distinct arms
d.
sea urchins : endoskeletons
17.
Vertebrates, tunicates, and lancelets
a.
are all members of the phylum Chordata.
b.
all have a backbone in the adult stage.
c.
are all marine fish.
d.
are all terrestrial heterotrophs.
18.
Which embryonic chordate characteristics do lancelets retain as adults?
a.
notochord
b.
notochord and dorsal nerve cord
c.
notochord, dorsal nerve cord, and postanal tail
d.
notochord, dorsal nerve cord, postanal tail, and pharyngeal pouches
19.
tunicates : in shallow- and deep-water environments ::
a.
lancelets : buried in mud or sand
b.
lancelets : swimming near the water’s surface
c.
tentacles : in sea urchin mouths
d.
ossicles : in lancelets
20.
Some scientists have hypothesized that the first vertebrates, which were fish, may have evolved from an ancestral tunicate that became sexually mature in the larval form. They suggest that these reproducing larvae were successful and natural selection reinforced the absence of metamorphosis to the adult. Which of the following statements does not support the hypothesis that vertebrates evolved from a sexually mature larval tunicate?
a.
Many invertebrates, tunicate larvae and adults, and the earliest vertebrates are or were filter feeders.
b.
Adult tunicates are sessile and larval tunicates are free-swimming.
c.
The vertebral column of adult vertebrates replaces the notochord present in embryonic vertebrates.
d.
Some living urochordates exist only as free-swimming larvae.


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Ecology Quiz

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Ecology Quiz

 

Test your knowledge of Ecology!

1. A cold biome characterized by permafrost under the surface?
a) Taiga
b) Tundra
c) Deciduous forest
d) Savanna2. An organism that feeds on plants and animals?
a) Carnivore
b) Omnivore
c) Epiphyte
d) Herbivore

3. All of the following are abiotic factors except:
a) Tree
b) Temperature
c) pH
d) Sunlight

4. Corals would be found in which zone:
a) Oceanic
b) Estuary
c) Neritic
d) Benthic

5. Which of the following is not part of the nitrogen cycle:
a) Ammonification
b) Transpiration
c) Nitrification
d) Rhizobacteria

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Cells and Their Functions

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Cells and Their Functions

 

 

Multiple Choice
Identify the choice that best completes the statement or answers the question.
 1.
The smallest unit that can carry out all activities we associate with life is:
a.
 atom.
b.
 organelle.
c.
 cell.
d.
 tissue.
e.
 organ.
 2.
What characteristic of cells could be used to determine the presence or absence of life?
a.
 presence of organic molecules
b.
 presence of inorganic molecules
c.
 alteration of concentrations of organic and/or inorganic molecules
d.
 relatively constant concentrations of organic and/or inorganic molecules
e.
 None of the above would be useful in determining the presence or absence of life.
 3.
Which of the following is not found in single celled organisms?
a.
 atoms
b.
 cells
c.
 tissues
d.
 Neither A nor B is found in single celled organisms.
e.
 Neither A, nor B, nor C is found in single celled organisms.
 4.
Evidence that all living cells have a common origin is provided by:
a.
 the cell theory, which states that the cell is the basic unit of life.
b.
 the fact that all new cells come from previously existing cells.
c.
 the fact that cells are the building blocks of the most complex plants.
d.
 basic similarities in cell structure and chemistry.
e.
 the fact that cells are the smallest units that can carry out all life activities.
 5.
As biologists continue to unlock the secrets of ________, many new doors are opening to development of medical treatments.
a.
 proteins
b.
 mitochondria
c.
 cell membranes
d.
 DNA
e.
 ribosomes
 6.
The function of the plasma membrane is to:
a.
 serve as a highly selective barrier.
b.
 completely isolate the cell from the external environment.
c.
 equalize the chemical composition inside and outside the cell.
d.
 allow cells to accumulate materials and energy.
e.
 Both A and D.
 7.
It is advantageous for cells to be small because:
a.
 a small cell size prevents a cell from weighing too much.
b.
 a small cell size occupies less space in nature where space is limited.
c.
 a small cell has a small volume relative to surface area, thereby increasing efficient transport.
d.
 a small cell has a small surface area relative to volume, thereby facilitating ion balance.
e.
 a small cell is better able to conserve energy than a larger cell.
Figure 04-01
Use the figure below to answer the corresponding questions.

nar001-1.jpg
 8.
Which of the following statements about Figure 04-01 is true?
a.
 Figure B has a greater surface area than Figure A.
b.
 Figure B has a greater volume than Figure A.
c.
 Figure B has a smaller volume than Figure A.
d.
 Figure B has a greater surface area to volume ratio than Figure A.
e.
 Figure B has a smaller surface area to volume ratio than Figure A.
 9.
Based on your knowledge of basic geometric relationships, the actual surface area to volume ratio for Figure B in Figure 04-01 is:
a.
 0.01.
b.
 0.06.
c.
 100.
d.
 1,000.
e.
 This cannot be determined from the information provided.
 10.
One strategy that allows larger cells to have an effective surface area to volume ratio is:
a.
 having a completely spherical shape.
b.
 being short and fat.
c.
 having thin, finger-like projections.
d.
 having a thinner plasma membrane.
e.
 locomotion.
 11.
Which of the following is not an example of homeostasis?
a.
 A cell maintains a constant pH.
b.
 A cell maintains a constant glucose concentration.
c.
 A cell maintains a constant salt concentration.
d.
 A cell maintains a constant water concentration.
e.
 All of the above are examples of homeostasis.
 12.
Which of the following descriptions or structures does not match the cell type?
a.
 Sperm cells have flagella.
b.
 Nerve cells have long, thin extensions.
c.
 Epithelial cells are rectangular.
d.
 White blood cells can change shape.
e.
 All of the above are correct.
 13.
Which scientist first viewed living cells?
a.
 Robert Hooke
b.
 Matthias Schleiden
c.
 Theodor Schwann
d.
 Anton van Leeuwenhoek
e.
 August Weismann
 14.
The ratio of the size of the image seen with the microscope to the actual size of the object is:
a.
 magnification.
b.
 resolution.
c.
 resolving power.
d.
 centrifugation.
e.
 None of the above.
 15.
Electron microscopes have a much higher resolution than either the human eye or any light microscope because:
a.
 of their higher magnification.
b.
 the lenses used are of much higher quality.
c.
 of the very short (nanometer) wavelengths of electrons.
d.
 the images are viewed on screens, rather than directly using an eyepiece or ocular lens.
e.
 All of the above.
 16.
The advantage of studying cells using a phase contrast microscope is that:
a.
 the magnification is greater.
b.
 the resolving power is greater.
c.
 it is faster.
d.
 it permits us to view internal structures of live cells.
e.
 it uses a beam of electrons to allow us to see the organelles enclosed by the plasma membrane.
 17.
The accompanying figure is the product of a:

mc017-1.jpg

a.
 phase-contrast light microscope.
b.
 Nomarski differential interference microscope.
c.
 transmission electron microscope.
d.
 scanning electron microscope.
e.
 confocal fluorescence microscope.
 18.
The scanning electron microscope differs from the transmission electron microscope in that the scanning electron microscope:
a.
 can view a live specimen.
b.
 relies on the detection of electrons from the beam after contact with the specimens.
c.
 can view the internal structure of a cell.
d.
 utilizes a beam of light that passes through the specimen.
e.
 gives a three dimensional image of the object being studied.
 19.
Differential centrifugation is a process that:
a.
 separates different components of the cell that function differently.
b.
 separates components of the cell that have a different chemical makeup.
c.
 analyzes the chemical components of the cell.
d.
 separates components of the cell that have different densities.
e.
 allows researchers to view the contents of the cells.
 20.
Which cell structure would not be in a eukaryotic cell, but would be found in a prokaryotic cell?
a.
 cell wall
b.
 flagellum
c.
 ribosomes
d.
 Gogli complex
e.
 DNA
 21.
Membrane-bounded organelles facilitate faster chemical reactions because:
a.
 reactants are within close proximity to each other.
b.
 membranes lower the activation energy of biochemical reactions.
c.
 membrane-bounded organelles act as catalysts for biochemical reactions.
d.
 reactants move faster within membrane-bounded organelles.
e.
 reactants are less likely to encounter each other within membrane-bounded organelles.
 22.
A eukaryotic cell:
a.
 is usually smaller than a prokaryotic cell.
b.
 has its DNA concentrated in one area of the cell without a nuclear membrane.
c.
 typically has a cell wall, in addition to a plasma membrane.
d.
 is a bacteria-like organism.
e.
 has a variety of membranous organelles.
 23.
Membranes facilitate all of the following except:
a.
 facilitating the formation of energy-yielding gradients.
b.
 acting as barriers to ions.
c.
 acting as important “work benches” within cells.
d.
 directing the synthesis of proteins.
e.
 maintaining the identity of different cellular compartments.
 24.
Which of the following structures would not be found in cells of a plant’s roots?
a.
 mitochondria
b.
 chloroplasts
c.
 endoplasmic reticulum
d.
 nucleus
e.
 All of the above would be found in cells of a plant’s root.
 25.
Select the cell type that is not correctly matched with the type of predominate organelle it would need to perform its unique function:
a.
 Sperm cells have many mitochondria to provide energy for the flagellum.
b.
 Pancreas cells have many ribosomes to produce the protein insulin.
c.
 Liver cells have many ribosomes to produce detoxifying protein enzymes.
d.
 Plant leaf cells have many chloroplasts to produce sugar by using energy from sunlight.
e.
 All of the cells above are correctly matched with the predominate type of organelle they would need to perform their unique function.
 26.
Which of the following structures or activities is not directly part of the endomembrane system?
a.
 budding
b.
 lysosomes
c.
 ribosomes
d.
 peroxisomes
e.
 Golgi complex
 27.
DNA is associated with proteins, forming a complex known as:
a.
 chromosomes.
b.
 nucleoli.
c.
 nucleus.
d.
 genes.
e.
 chromatin.
 28.
In the classic experiments by Bracht and Hammerling, the nucleus of Acetabularia was removed, the cap was cut off, a nucleus of a different species was inserted, and the cap was allowed to regenerate. The new cap was then removed. After the second regeneration, the cap was observed, and the following conclusion was made:
a.
 The shape of the cap was controlled by the nucleus, thus, the nucleus was the control center of the cell.
b.
 The shape of the cap was under the control of the stalk, which produced a control substance.
c.
 The shape of the cap was independent of both the stalk and the holdfast.
d.
 The “cren” caps were defective due to some mutation in the cap. Thus, “cren” caps are independent of control from both the base and the holdfast.
e.
 At the time no conclusion could be made because in the early 20th century, biologists did not know about the composition of DNA.
 29.
Nucleoli contain chromosomal regions that specialize in making:
a.
 proteins.
b.
 RNA.
c.
 ribosomes.
d.
 lipids.
e.
 hormones.
 30.
If a toxin, such as a bacterial toxin, destroys ribosomes, what cellular activity will be affected first?
a.
 protein synthesis
b.
 DNA synthesis
c.
 movement
d.
 energy storage
e.
 active transport
 31.
Proteins made on ribosomes may be further modified within the:
a.
 lysosomes.
b.
 nucleus.
c.
 mitochondria.
d.
 Golgi complex.
e.
 peroxisomes.
 32.
The smooth endoplasmic reticulum:
a.
 is absent in most plant cells.
b.
 synthesizes proteins.
c.
 provides structural support.
d.
 synthesizes lipids.
e.
 is required for ribosome synthesis.
Figure 04-02
Use the figure below to answer the corresponding questions.

nar002-1.jpg
 33.
The cellular structure indicated by the arrow in Figure 04-02 is responsible for:
a.
 lipid and fatty acid metabolism.
b.
 protein synthesis.
c.
 digestion of unused organelles.
d.
 replication.
e.
 None of the above.
 34.
Which of the following statements about the structure surrounded by the box in Figure 04-02 is true?
a.
 This structure is only found in plant cells.
b.
 This structure is characteristic of both prokaryotic and eukaryotic cells.
c.
 This structure plays a central role in the process of transcription.
d.
 This structure typically represents a significant portion of the overall cell volume.
e.
 This structure represents the main storage area for the cell.
 35.
Which of the following pairs is correctly matched?
a.
 chloroplast – storage of enzymes
b.
 lysosome – powerhouse of the cell
c.
 nucleolus – site of ribosomal subunit synthesis
d.
 plastids – structural support of the cell
e.
 Golgi complex – production of energy
 36.
Which of the following organelles plays an important role in apoptosis, or programmed cell death?
a.
 ribosomes
b.
 mitochondria
c.
 chloroplasts
d.
 vacuoles
e.
 peroxisomes
 37.
One function of peroxisomes involves the process of:
a.
 cell death.
b.
 water storage.
c.
 protein synthesis.
d.
 DNA replication.
e.
 detoxification.
 38.
During an infection, white blood cells travel to the infected site and phagocytize the pathogens. After phagocytosis, primary lysosomes fuse with the phagocytic vesicle to form a larger vesicle called a secondary lysosome. The reason for this is:
a.
 to introduce antibodies to the phagocytic vesicles.
b.
 to wrap the pathogen in additional membrane, rendering them harmless.
c.
 to coat the bacteria in lipids derived from the Golgi complex, which cover and smother them.
d.
 to mix the pathogens with strong hydrolytic enzymes and destroy them.
e.
 to prepare the bacteria for export from the body.
 39.
All of the following functions are performed by plant vacuoles except:
a.
 maintaining hydrostatic (turgor) pressure.
b.
 waste storage and recycling.
c.
 storage of proteins.
d.
 breakdown of unneeded cellular materials.
e.
 storage of nucleic acids.
 40.
The theory that chloroplasts and mitochondria had their evolutionary beginnings in eukaryotic cells as endosymbionts is supported by all of the following except:
a.
 chloroplasts and mitochondria are completely autonomous within eukaryotic cells.
b.
 chloroplasts and mitochondria have DNA.
c.
 chloroplasts and mitochondria have small ribosomes for protein synthesis.
d.
 chloroplasts and mitochondria are approximately the same size as prokaryotic cells.
e.
 chloroplasts and mitochondria have the same shape as prokaryotic cells.
 41.
A cellular structure found in plant but not animal cells is the:
a.
 chloroplast.
b.
 ribosome.
c.
 endoplasmic reticulum.
d.
 microtubule.
e.
 microfilament.
Figure 04-03
Use the figure below to answer the corresponding questions.

nar003-1.jpg
 42.
Refer to Figure 04-03. The formation of ATP occurs in the portion of the chloroplast labeled:
a.
 structure A.
b.
 structure B.
c.
 structure C.
d.
 structure D.
e.
 structure E.
 43.
The formation of carbohydrates from carbon dioxide and water occurs in the portion of the chloroplast in Figure 04-03 labeled:
a.
 structure A.
b.
 structure B.
c.
 structure C.
d.
 structure D.
e.
 structure E.
 44.
Which of the following is a key component of the cytoskeleton?
a.
 membranes
b.
 cytoskeleton
c.
 DNA
d.
 ribosomes
e.
 None of the above.
 45.
The force necessary to cause microtubules of cilia and flagella to slide alongside one another is provided through the action of _________ proteins, which derive the energy to perform their work directly from ______ molecules.
a.
 kinesin; ADP
b.
 kinesin; glucose
c.
 tubulin; ATP
d.
 dynein; ATP
e.
 dynein; ADP
 46.
The structures in the micrograph could be:

mc046-1.jpg

a.
 chloroplasts.
b.
 cilia.
c.
 RER.
d.
 flagella.
e.
 B and D
Figure 04-04
Use the figure below to answer the corresponding questions.

nar004-1.jpg
 47.
The organelle featured in Figure 04-04:
a.
 is present in a few prokaryotes.
b.
 is the major site of protein synthesis in the cell.
c.
 plays a vital role in packaging materials to be secreted.
d.
 plays a central role in energy metabolism.
e.
 is located in the nucleus.
 48.
The structures indicated by the arrows in Figure 04-04 are:
a.
 thylakoid lamellae.
b.
 grana.
c.
 cristae.
d.
 matrices.
e.
 plastids.
 49.
The main process that occurs at the site of the structures marked by arrows in Figure 04-04 is:
a.
 protein synthesis.
b.
 photosynthesis.
c.
 conversion of food molecules to ATP.
d.
 processing and packaging of proteins.
e.
 transcription.
 50.
A single cell in a smoker’s lung has become cancerous. It doubles its DNA and divides much faster than a normal lung cell. The most likely change that would have caused this condition took place in the:
a.
 nucleus.
b.
 nucleolus.
c.
 microtubule.
d.
 mitochondria.
e.
 lysosome.
 51.
Cells have internal structures called organelles. Which is not a function of organelles?
a.
 Store genetic information.
b.
 Convert energy to more usable forms.
c.
 Synthesize polymers.
d.
 Manufacture membranes.
e.
 All of the above are organelle functions.
 52.
Which of the following is not a cell covering or part of a cell covering?
a.
 glycocalyx
b.
 extracellular matrix
c.
 cristae
d.
 cell wall
e.
 integrins
 53.
The principle cell adhesion molecules in vertebrates and in many invertebrates are cadherins. These are important in:
a.
 preventing the invasiveness of some malignant tumors.
b.
 calcium-dependent adhesion between cells that form multicellular sheets.
c.
 embryonic development.
d.
 cell adhesion in vertebrates and in many invertebrates.
e.
 All of the above.
 54.
All of the following are functions of the cell membrane except:
a.
 transmitting signals.
b.
 participating in energy transfer.
c.
 being freely permeable.
d.
 regulating the passage of materials.
e.
 participating in chemical reactions.
 55.
Which of the following structures is composed of two layers of phospholipids associated with proteins integrated within or attached to these layers?
a.
 cell wall
b.
 plasma membrane
c.
 microfilaments
d.
 flagellum
e.
 ribosomes
 56.
Phospholipids can form bilayer structures because of their:
a.
 rectangular shapes.
b.
 amphipathic nature.
c.
 ability to dissolve well in water.
d.
 inability to associate with other phospholipids.
e.
 lack of fatty acids.
 57.
Phospholipids can form bilayers because the molecules:
a.
 have two distinct regions, one strongly hydrophobic and the other strongly hydrophilic.
b.
 are amphipathic molecules.
c.
 have cylindrical shapes that allow them to associate with water most easily as a bilayer structure.
d.
 Both A and B.
e.
 A, B, and C.
 58.
A key discovery that weakened the Davson-Danielli “sandwich” model of cell membranes was that:
a.
 membrane proteins form a solid sheet on either side of the phospholipid bilayer.
b.
 membrane proteins form a solid sheet separating the phospholipid layer.
c.
 the phospholipids do not associate with each other in the hydrophobic region of membranes.
d.
 membrane proteins were not uniform and did not form flattened sheets.
e.
 membrane proteins occurred in regular organized patterns on the surface of membranes.
 59.
Proposed the fluid mosaic model of cell membrane structure in 1972:
a.
 S. Jonathan Singer.
b.
 Garth Nicolson.
c.
 Hugh Davson.
d.
 Both A and B.
e.
 A, B, and C.
 60.
Which of the following is a typical component of eukaryotic cell membranes?
a.
 DNA
b.
 glucose
c.
 cholesterol
d.
 water
e.
 All of the above.
 61.
Cholesterol within membranes functions as a(an) ____________ through its interactions with both hydrophobic and hydrophilic parts of phospholipids.
a.
 water blocker
b.
 pH buffer
c.
 energy source
d.
 temperature controller
e.
 fluidity buffer
 62.
In a lipid bilayer, ___________ fatty acid tails face each other within the bilayer and form a region that excludes water.
a.
 hypertonic
b.
 hyperosmotic
c.
 hypotonic
d.
 hydrophilic
e.
 hydrophobic
 63.
Which of the following functions best explains the reason for the asymmetrically oriented structure of the proteins in the cell membrane?
a.
 These proteins are manufactured by free ribosomes.
b.
 Each type of protein has its own function.
c.
 These proteins pass through the ER membrane into the ER lumen.
d.
 Enzymes are needed to modify the carbohydrate chains on these proteins.
e.
 These proteins are initially formed by ribosomes on the rough ER.
 64.
Which of the following is not a function associated with membrane proteins?
a.
 Recognition of surface antigens of bacterial cells.
b.
 Forming junctions between adjacent cells.
c.
 Identify the cell as belonging to a particular individual.
d.
 Serve as anchoring points for networks of cytoskeletal elements.
e.
 All of the above are functions associated with membrane proteins.
 65.
Which of the following is not a function of the transmembrane proteins called aquaporins?
a.
 Transmembrane proteins
b.
 Facilitate the rapid transport of water through the plasma membrane
c.
 Located in mammalian kidney tubules
d.
 Respond to specific hormones
e.
 All of the above are functions associated with aquaporins.
 66.
Catalysts are reusable. Enzymes are protein catalysts, and are reusable. Select the protein(s) below that is (are) not used up by the process carried out:
a.
 Sodium-potassium pump carrier proteins
b.
 Aquaporins
c.
 Proteins involved in facilitated diffusion
d.
 Both A and B.
e.
 A, B, and C.
 67.
Integral proteins:
a.
 are weakly bound to the surface of the membrane.
b.
 are strongly bound to the cytosolic surface of the membrane.
c.
 have no hydrophobic portions.
d.
 are completely embedded within the lipid bilayer.
e.
 are amphipathic.
 68.
What is meant by the term “fluid mosaic model”?
a.
 It is the diffusion of lipid-soluble substances through the lipid bilayer.
b.
 It is the movement of lipids and integral proteins within the lipid bilayer.
c.
 It is the solubility of water in the membrane.
d.
 It is the method of substance transport across the membrane.
e.
 It is the movement of surface proteins through the membrane.
 69.
A transmembrane protein differs from other membrane proteins because it:
a.
 is covalently linked to the outer surface of the plasma membrane.
b.
 is a glycoprotein with carbohydrates attached.
c.
 is attached to the inside of the membrane by an ionic bond.
d.
 completely extends through the membrane.
e.
 is completely embedded within the membrane.
 70.
Peripheral proteins are linked to either surface of the plasma membrane by:
a.
 covalent disulfide bonds.
b.
 associating with fatty acids through hydrophobic interactions.
c.
 embedding in one side of the membrane and, thus, not extending through to the other side.
d.
 associating with glycoproteins on the inner membrane surface.
e.
 bonding to integral proteins through weak linkages.
 71.
Which of the following statements explaining the differences in number and types of peripheral proteins found on the inner and outer surfaces of cell membranes is correct?
a.
 The functions of the membrane differ on the inside and outside of the cell.
b.
 Not all proteins can pass through the membrane and, thus, more accumulate on the inside.
c.
 Proteins on the outside of the membrane are synthesized at a slower rate than proteins on the inside of the membrane.
d.
 Proteins on the outside of membrane are made extracellularly and are unable to penetrate the phospholipid bilayer and enter the cell.
e.
 The external peripheral proteins are weakly attached to the membrane and are readily washed away.
 72.
Proteins that are destined to become associated with the inner surface of the plasma membrane are:
a.
 manufactured in the same way as protein hormones.
b.
 manufactured in the same way as proteins destined to become external peripheral proteins.
c.
 made on free ribosomes in the cytoplasm.
d.
 made on ribosomes located on the rough endoplasmic reticulum.
e.
 transported to the plasma membrane within a secretory vesicle.
 73.
Biological membranes are normally permeable to:
a.
 large, hydrophilic molecules.
b.
 small, hydrophilic molecules.
c.
 large, hydrophobic molecules.
d.
 small, hydrophobic molecules.
e.
 None of the above.
 74.
A bottle of perfume is opened on the opposite side of the room and within minutes you begin to smell the perfume. This phenomenon is a classic example of:
a.
 dialysis.
b.
 osmosis.
c.
 active transport.
d.
 facilitated diffusion.
e.
 diffusion.
 75.
Which of the following molecules is least likely to cross a cellular membrane by simple diffusion?
a.
 carbon dioxide
b.
 nitrogen
c.
 oxygen
d.
 potassium ion
e.
 water
 76.
The passive movement of a substance along its concentration gradient is termed:
a.
 active transport.
b.
 dialysis.
c.
 diffusion.
d.
 exocytosis.
e.
 osmosis.
 77.
Simple diffusion may involve the movement of ______________________ through the plasma membrane down a concentration gradient.
a.
 small polar molecules
b.
 small nonpolar molecules
c.
 large polar molecules
d.
 large nonpolar molecules
e.
 water
 78.
The difference between dialysis and osmosis is that:
a.
 in osmosis, the solute moves through a selectively permeable membrane.
b.
 in dialysis, the solvent moves through a selectively permeable membrane.
c.
 in osmosis, the solute moves from a region of high concentration to a region of low concentration.
d.
 in dialysis, the solute moves from a region of high concentration to a region of low concentration.
e.
 in dialysis, the solvent moves from a region of high concentration to a region of low concentration through a selectively permeable membrane.
 79.
If the concentration of solutes in a cell is less than the concentration of solutes in the surrounding fluid, then the extracellular fluid is said to be:
a.
 hypertonic.
b.
 hypotonic.
c.
 isotonic.
d.
 stable.
e.
 amphipathic.
 80.
The higher the concentration of solute in a solution, the _________ the effective water concentration and the ________ the osmotic pressure.
a.
 lower; lower
b.
 lower; higher
c.
 higher; higher
d.
 higher; lower
e.
 Answer cannot be determined from the information provided.
Figure 05-01
Use the figure below to answer the corresponding questions.

nar005-1.jpg
 81.
Which of the following statements about the red blood cells in Figure 05-01 Sample B is true?
a.
 These red blood cells have been placed in an isotonic solution.
b.
 These red blood cells have swollen in response to a hypertonic external solution.
c.
 These red blood cells have swollen in response to a hypotonic external solution.
d.
 These red blood cells have shrunken in response to a hypertonic external solution.
e.
 These red blood cells have shrunken in response to a hypotonic external solution.
 82.
Which of the following statements about the red blood cells in Figure 05-01 Sample A is true?
a.
 There has been no net water movement.
b.
 There has been a net flow of water out of the cell.
c.
 There has been a net flow of water into the cell.
d.
 Pinocytosis has occurred.
e.
 Plasmolysis has occurred.
 83.
A patient who has had a severe hemorrhage accidentally receives a large transfusion of distilled water directly into a major blood vessel. You would expect this mistake to:
a.
 have no unfavorable effect as long as the water is free of bacteria.
b.
 have serious, perhaps fatal consequences because there would be too much fluid to pump.
c.
 have serious, perhaps fatal consequences because the red blood cells could shrink.
d.
 have serious, perhaps fatal consequences because the red blood cells could swell and burst.
e.
 have no serious effect because the kidney could quickly eliminate excess water.
 84.
A plant cell placed in a hypertonic solution will:
a.
 remain unchanged.
b.
 undergo lysis.
c.
 undergo plasmolysis.
d.
 swell slightly.
e.
 become crenated.
 85.
Penicillin is toxic to certain dividing bacterial cells because it prevents cell wall formation, causing the cells to burst. This indicates that the bacteria live in:
a.
 a hypotonic medium.
b.
 a hypertonic medium.
c.
 an isotonic medium.
d.
 a medium with higher osmotic pressure than the cell.
e.
 Both B and D.
 86.
A wilted flower placed in a vase of water for several hours became stiff and stood erect. When it was placed in a salt solution, it wilted. From this information we can say that the cells of the flower are:
a.
 hypotonic to both fresh water and the salt solution.
b.
 hypertonic to both the fresh water and the salt solution.
c.
 hypertonic to fresh water but hypotonic to the salt solution.
d.
 hypotonic to fresh water but hypertonic to the salt solution.
e.
 isotonic to fresh water but hypotonic to the salt solution.
 87.
Which of the following membrane activities does not require the expenditure of energy by the cell?
a.
 active transport
b.
 osmosis
c.
 endocytosis
d.
 exocytosis
e.
 synthesis of more membrane
 88.
Facilitated diffusion:
a.
 requires a transmembrane protein.
b.
 requires ATP.
c.
 can move molecules against a concentration gradient.
d.
 is typically used to transport small nonpolar molecules.
e.
 All of the above.
 89.
A bacterium containing sodium ions at a concentration of 0.1 mM lives in a pond that contains sodium ions at 0.005 mM. Evidently, sodium ions are entering the cell by:
a.
 active transport.
b.
 endocytosis.
c.
 diffusion.
d.
 facilitated diffusion.
e.
 osmosis.
 90.
The energy-requiring movement of materials against a concentration gradient is termed:
a.
 active transport.
b.
 dialysis.
c.
 facilitated diffusion.
d.
 osmosis.
e.
 plasmolysis.
 91.
Although glucose molecules constantly diffuse into a cell along their concentration gradient, equilibrium is never reached and glucose continues to enter the cell. This is a direct result of:
a.
 the very fast turnover rate of glucose metabolism.
b.
 the continuous excretion of glucose from other parts of the cell.
c.
 the rapid and continuous intracellular formation of glucose-6-P.
d.
 the active transport of glucose.
e.
 the ability of the cell to engulf glucose by pinocytosis.
 92.
Which of the following statements about the sodium-potassium pump is true?
a.
 It transports hydrogen ions out of the cell.
b.
 It transports 3 sodium ions out of the cell in exchange for 2 potassium ions.
c.
 It transports 2 sodium ions out of the cell in exchange for 2 potassium ions.
d.
 It transports 2 sodium ions out of the cell in exchange for 3 potassium ions.
e.
 It transports water directly out of the cell.
 93.
A person has a genetic disease that prevents the phospholipids in the plasma membrane of the white blood cells from freely fusing with the other membranes within the cell. How would this disease affect phagocytosis?
a.
 Lysosomes would not be formed.
b.
 Facilitated diffusion would not occur.
c.
 Lysosomes would be formed lacking hydrolytic enzymes.
d.
 The phagocytic vacuole would not fuse with the lysosome.
e.
 Endocytosis would not occur.
 94.
Which of the following are forms of carrier-mediated transport?
a.
 Facilitated diffusion.
b.
 Carrier-mediated active transport.
c.
 Osmosis.
d.
 Both A and B.
e.
 A, B, and C.
 95.
Which of the following describes how facilitated diffusion is powered?
a.
 Facillitated diffusion is “free of cost.”
b.
 Energy is required to do the work of establishing and maintaining a concentration gradient.
c.
 ATP is required directly.
d.
 Both A and B.
e.
 A, B, and C.
 96.
Pinocytosis:
a.
 is engulfment of large particles by the cell.
b.
 occurs in protozoans and algae but not in more complex organisms.
c.
 involves the specific binding of molecules to receptors on the cell surface.
d.
 is the nonspecific uptake of fluids by an invagination of the cell membrane.
e.
 is movement of molecules against the concentration gradient through a permeable membrane.
 97.
Receptor-mediated endocytosis:
a.
 is a passive process.
b.
 involves only membrane transport proteins.
c.
 brings about the selective uptake of materials by enclosing them in membranous vesicles.
d.
 does not require energy.
e.
 is most likely to be found in cells that release large amounts of hormones.
 98.
A human white blood cell engulfs a bacterial cell by:
a.
 carrier-mediated facilitated diffusion.
b.
 exocytosis.
c.
 phagocytosis.
d.
 pinocytosis.
e.
 the sodium-potassium pump.
 99.
Select the receptor mediated endocytosis events that are in the correct (before, after) order:
a.
 Endosome fuses with lysosome; receptors are transported to plasma membrane and recycled.
b.
 Ligand binds to receptors; coated vesicle forms by endocytosis.
c.
 Contents are digested and released in the cytosol; ligand separates from its receptor.
d.
 Endosome fuses with lysosome; receptors are transported to plasma membrane and recycled.
e.
 None of the events are listed in the correct order.
 100.
In cells that are constantly involved in secretion, an equivalent amount of membrane must be returned to the interior of the cell for each vesicle that fuses with the plasma membrane; if this does not occur, then what would happen?
a.
 The ratio of cell surface would decrease, compared to cell volume.
b.
 The cell surface would shrivel.
c.
 The surface area would remain constant.
d.
 The number of membrane receptor proteins would decrease.
e.
 The cell surface will keep expanding.
Figure 05-02
Use the figure below to answer the corresponding questions.

nar006-1.jpg
 101.
The process illustrated in Figure 05-02 is called:
a.
 facilitated diffusion.
b.
 pinocytosis.
c.
 cotransport.
d.
 lysis.
e.
 exocytosis.
 102.
The process illustrated in Figure 05-02 would most likely be used to transport:
a.
 glucose.
b.
 hormones.
c.
 potassium ions.
d.
 carbon dioxide.
e.
 bacteria.
 103.
One difference between tight junctions and desmosomes is that tight junctions:
a.
 are regions where the plasma membrane from two neighboring cells are in actual contact.
b.
 occur only in plants.
c.
 involve connective microfilaments that traverse the space between adjacent cells.
d.
 are anchored by microfilaments on the insides of the cell membranes of adjacent cells.
e.
 contain a 24 nm space between two adjacent membranes.
 104.
Plasmodesmata of plant cells are functionally equivalent to ____________ of animal cells.
a.
 gap junctions
b.
 desmosomes
c.
 tight junctions
d.
 cell surface receptors
e.
 microvilli
 105.
The structures in this figure:

mc105-1.jpg

a.
 provide anchorage points between adjacent cells.
b.
 allow the transport of small molecules and ions between adjacent cells.
c.
 allow passage of materials through intercellular spaces.
d.
 prevent the passage of materials through intercellular spaces.
e.
 can only be found in plants.
 106.
Which of the following is not part of the process of cell signaling?
a.
 Synthesis and release of signaling molecules.
b.
 Facilitated transport.
c.
 Transport to target cells.
d.
 Response by the cell.
e.
 Termination of signaling.
 107.
The process in which cells convert and amplify an extracellular signal into an intracellular signal:
a.
 Synthesis and release of signaling molecules.
b.
 Transport to target cells.
c.
 Signal transduction.
d.
 Response by the cell.
e.
 Termination of signaling.
 108.
In a signaling pathway, the second messenger is often:
a.
 GTP.
b.
 GDP.
c.
 cyclic AMP.
d.
 cyclic ADP.
e.
 ATP.


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Chapter 1 Introduction Study Guide

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Chapter 1 Introduction Study Guide

 

 

Modified True/False
Indicate whether the statement is true or false.  If false, change the identified word or phrase to make the statement true.
 1.
Accepting ideas is the cornerstone of scientific thought. _________________________
 2.
Skepticism is a habit of mind in which a person accepts the validity of accepted ideas. _________________________
 3.
The law of gravity and the law of conservation of energy are national laws. _________________________
 4.
Scientific investigations require ethical behavior. _________________________
 5.
Most scientific investigations begin with observations that lead to universal laws. _________________________
 6.
A hypothesis is a possible explanation that can be tested by observation or experimentation. _________________________
 7.
The control group and the experimental group are identical except for one variable. _________________________
 8.
A hypothesis is a general explanation for a broad range of data. _________________________
 9.
International System of Units (SI) is the official name of the metric system. _________________________
 10.
A centimeter is equal to 10 millimeters. _________________________
 11.
Light and electron autoclaves help magnify objects. _________________________
 12.
A technique is a way of doing something. _________________________
 13.
In the event of a lab accident, one thing you should always do is remain calm. _________________________
 14.
Biology is the study of nonliving things. _________________________
 15.
A student who wants to study bacteria would take microbiology classes. _________________________
 16.
Reproduction insures ongoing generations of both one-celled organisms and frogs. _________________________
 17.
Homeostasis is the maintenance of a stable internal environment in spite of changes in the external environment. _________________________
 18.
The bacterium that causes cholera is an example of a pathogen. _________________________
 19.
Scientists discovered that predicting the spread of cholera involves understanding reproductive behavior of plankton. _________________________
 20.
The study of all the factors in the spread of cholera in human populations is an example of ecology. _________________________
 21.
Scientists in the 21st century are better able to prevent disease because of their improved understanding of biology. _________________________
 22.
The completion of the Human Genome Project was one minor contribution to the ability to cure disease. _________________________
 23.
Scientists expect people to live longer lives because of advances in the science of biology. _________________________
 24.
The application of technology to medicine has greatly increased the ability of people to live healthy lives. _________________________
 25.
Genetic engineering is the only practical application of biotechnology. _________________________
 26.
Genetic engineering is widely used in agriculture to produce crops that are pest-resistant. _________________________
 27.
Surrounding a drug compound with a layer of atoms that allows for the slow release of the drug is an example of genetic engineering. _________________________
 28.
Making a new kind of fastener modeled on the way an aquatic animal fastens onto rocks on the ocean floor is an example of nanotechnology. _________________________
 29.
Biometrics involves analyzing large amounts of data on biological characteristics. _________________________
 30.
Unique genetic traits, such as hair color, are the most important source of data for biometrics. _________________________
 31.
Advances in biotechnology have been slowed by ethical concerns. _________________________
 32.
The ethics of different kinds of biotechnology will be decided by individuals and scientists. _________________________
 33.
One good way to protect the environment is to learn more about it. _________________________
 34.
Environmental science involves neither the study of organisms nor their physical surroundings. _________________________
 35.
One reason that wildlife biologists collect DNA samples from endangered species is the hope that these species can be cloned if they become extinct. _________________________
 36.
Genetic engineering is used to track the movements of animals in the wild. _________________________
 37.
Community environmental groups make problems for environmental research. _________________________
 

Multiple Choice
Identify the choice that best completes the statement or answers the question.
 38.
Which of the following do scientists not use to support ideas?
a.
 opinions
c.
 experiments
b.
 evidence
d.
 investigations
 39.
Which of the following applies to all branches of science?
a.
 cell organization
c.
 gravity
b.
 earthquakes
d.
 reproduction
 40.
Which of the following is unethical behavior in scientific investigations?
a.
 allowing peers to review investigations
b.
 following guidelines for medical experiments
c.
 reporting inaccurate data
d.
 basing investigations on someone else’s work
 41.
Scientific thinking can be used
a.
 only by scientists.
c.
 by all living things.
b.
 only in experiments.
d.
 by everyone in daily life.
 42.
A scientist noticed that the number of salamanders in ponds in the Rocky Mountains was declining. This was a(n)
a.
 hypothesis.
c.
 observation.
b.
 theory.
d.
 control.
 43.
A hypothesis is a
a.
 definite answer to a given problem.
b.
 testable possible explanation of an observation.
c.
 proven statement.
d.
 concluding statement.
 44.
observation : hypothesis ::
a.
 theory : observation
c.
 certainty : prediction
b.
 guess : hypothesis
d.
 hypothesis : investigation
 45.
Most typically, the order in which the steps of scientific investigations are applied is
a.
 controlled experiment, hypothesis, analysis of results, observations, questions, conclusions.
b.
 observations, controlled experiment, hypothesis, analysis of results, conclusions, questions.
c.
 observations, questions, hypothesis, controlled experiment, analysis of results, conclusions.
d.
 questions, observations, analysis of results, controlled experiment, conclusions, hypothesis.
 46.
If experiments are not possible or ethical, scientists
a.
 cannot test a hypothesis.
b.
 test more than one variable at a time.
c.
 do not use a control group.
d.
 look for connections in data gathered.
 47.
Scientific hypotheses are most often tested by the process of
a.
 communicating.
c.
 experimenting.
b.
 inferring.
d.
 analyzing data.
 48.
A planned procedure to test a hypothesis is called a(n)
a.
 prediction.
c.
 control.
b.
 experiment.
d.
 variable.
 49.
The variable that is measured in an experiment is the _____ variable.
a.
 dependent
c.
 control
b.
 independent
d.
 experimental
 50.
A general explanation for a broad range of data is called a
a.
 hypothesis.
c.
 prediction.
b.
 theory.
d.
 controlled experiment.
 51.
A scientific theory is
a.
 absolutely certain and never questioned.
b.
 unchangeable.
c.
 revised as new evidence is presented.
d.
 a controlled experiment.
 52.
Scientists build theories from many
a.
 experiments that support hypotheses.
b.
 hypotheses that are rejected.
c.
 experiments with different variables.
d.
 untested ideas.
 53.
The metric system of measurement is based on powers of
a.
 1.
c.
 100.
b.
 10.
d.
 1000.
 54.
A specialized tool used to magnify organisms so that they can be observed is a
a.
 pipet.
c.
 satellite.
b.
 microscope.
d.
 laminar-flow hood.
 55.
Which of the following would scientists use to prevent contamination in an experiment?
a.
 electron microscope
c.
 remote collection of data
b.
 light microscope
d.
 sterile technique
 56.
Which of the following is the most recent tool available to scientists?
a.
 remote tracking devices
c.
 autoclaves
b.
 microscopes
d.
 sterilized pipets
 57.
You can work safely in the science lab by
a.
 taking shortcuts in procedures.
b.
 waiting until the end of experiments to clean area.
c.
 estimating measurements of chemicals.
d.
 following all instructions.
 58.
All of the following are important for working safely in a science laboratory except
a.
 tasting chemicals.
c.
 working cautiously.
b.
 measuring chemicals precisely.
d.
 wearing safety goggles.
 59.
Biology is the study of
a.
 life.
c.
 weather.
b.
 minerals.
d.
 energy.
 60.
The branch of biology that is the study of the human body is
a.
 ecology.
c.
 cell biology.
b.
 evolutionary theory.
d.
 physiology.
 61.
Which of the following is not one of the seven properties of life?
a.
 metabolism
c.
 responsiveness
b.
 homeostasis
d.
 photosynthesis
 62.
As a characteristic of all living things, homeostasis relates most directly to which of the following biological themes?
a.
 interacting systems
c.
 stability
b.
 scale and structure
d.
 evolution
 63.
chemical reactions : metabolism ::
a.
 cells : an organism
c.
 reproduction : living
b.
 heredity : homeostasis
d.
 experimentation : observation
 64.
All living things maintain a balance within their cells and with the environment through the process of
a.
 growth.
c.
 homeostasis.
b.
 development.
d.
 evolution.
 65.
The energy that drives metabolism in animals comes from
a.
 homeostasis.
c.
 water.
b.
 food.
d.
 heredity.
 66.
Children tend to resemble their parents due to
a.
 heredity.
c.
 metabolism.
b.
 responsiveness.
d.
 homeostasis.
 67.
A field of sunflowers facing the sun is an example of
a.
 metabolism.
c.
 responsiveness.
b.
 growth.
d.
 heredity.
 68.
The changes in human babies during their first year of life is an example of
a.
 heredity.
c.
 evolution.
b.
 responsiveness.
d.
 development.
 69.
Filtering contaminated water through a sari is
a.
 an ineffective way to reduce cases of cholera.
b.
 the best way to prevent the spread of cholera.
c.
 a low-tech solution to reducing cases of cholera.
d.
 another factor that causes cholera to spread rapidly.
 70.
All of the following should be researched in studying the epidemiology of waterborne diseases except the
a.
 genomes of the pathogens.
b.
 habitat of pathogens.
c.
 food chain of the pathogens.
d.
 environmental factors that affect pathogens.
 71.
One of the most important tools in preventing the spread of disease is
a.
 computer modeling.
c.
 genetic engineering.
b.
 DNA fingerprinting.
d.
 giving vaccinations.
 72.
computer modeling : epidemiology ::
a.
 genetics : DNA fingerprinting
b.
 cloning : biotechnology
c.
 genome : vaccination
d.
 human health : disease prevention
 73.
Which of the following terms is used to refer to a piece of equipment made for a specific use?
a.
 process
c.
 device
b.
 cure
d.
 treatment
 74.
Which of the following is least likely to help humans live longer?
a.
 epidemiology
c.
 genetics
b.
 medicine
d.
 DNA fingerprinting
 75.
knowledge of biology : human potential ::
a.
 assistive technologies : everyday lives
b.
 human potential : epidemiology
c.
 populations : disease outbreaks
d.
 genomes : genetics
 76.
The technology of changing the genetic material of a living cell is called
a.
 biometrics.
c.
 genetics.
b.
 genetic engineering.
d.
 DNA fingerprinting.
 77.
Planting Bt corn helps farmers decrease the use of
a.
 fertilizers.
c.
 pesticides.
b.
 herbicides.
d.
 cultivators.
 78.
All of the following are known advantages of planting Bt corn except it
a.
 adds some bacterial genes to food supplies.
b.
 lowers a farmer’s cost of production.
c.
 improves a farmer’s crop yield.
d.
 reduces chemical contaminants in the environment.
 79.
The application of a biological structure or process to solve design problems is called
a.
 adaptation.
c.
 cloning.
b.
 biomimetics.
d.
 decoding.
 80.
Which of these biotechnologies has the potential to repair tissues inside the body?
a.
 biometrics
c.
 epidemiology
b.
 biomimetics
d.
 nanotechnology
 81.
clam shell formation : ceramics ::
a.
 CAT scanning : modeling fossils
b.
 strong fabrics : spider silk
c.
 spider silk : strong fabrics
d.
 modeling fossils : CAT scanning
 82.
The analysis of biological traits to identify people is called
a.
 arithmetics.
c.
 genetics.
b.
 biometrics.
d.
 statistics.
 83.
Which of the following traits of an individual would be most useful for identifying a victim in a forensic investigation?
a.
 eye color
c.
 blood type
b.
 hair color
d.
 DNA fingerprint
 84.
The ethical concerns about biotechnology must be addressed by
a.
 scientists only.
c.
 both individuals and scientists.
b.
 societies only.
d.
 both individuals and societies.
 85.
All of the following biotechnologies are considered by some to be unethical except
a.
 biomimetic products.
c.
 human stem cell research.
b.
 biometrics data bases.
d.
 genetically modified foods.
 86.
Which of the following would be an unethical use of biometric data and methods?
a.
 linking criminals to crime scenes
b.
 eliminating innocent people from a list of criminal suspects
c.
 excluding people with certain genes from getting jobs
d.
 protecting citizens from bioterrorism
 87.
Which of the following is considered to be one of the most important applications of biology?
a.
 biometrics
c.
 environmental science
b.
 genetic engineering
d.
 assistive technologies
 88.
In order to make wise decisions about the use of natural resources, citizens will need to have a better understanding of
a.
 biomimetics.
c.
 environmental science.
b.
 genetics.
d.
 genetic engineering.
 89.
ecology : environmental science ::
a.
 biomolecules : strong glues
c.
 forensics : biometrics
b.
 genetics : genetic engineering
d.
 spider silk : clam shells
 90.
What do the initials GIS stand for?
a.
 geological inference standard
c.
 geographic information system
b.
 genetic improvement survey
d.
 global investigation society
 91.
Satellite tagging is a technology that is most likely to be used in
a.
 assisting the disabled.
c.
 developing maps of the world.
b.
 conservation of wildlife.
d.
 tracking the spread of disease.
 92.
Each of the following is a part of a GIS program except
a.
 access to data from different sources.
b.
 computer mapping.
c.
 environmental databases.
d.
 genetic analysis tools.
 93.
Which of the following must be done before an environmental study is begun locally?
a.
 contact several scientists
c.
 identify a problem
b.
 buy a GIS program
d.
 gather up volunteers
 94.
At the Raptor Rehabilitation Center, students in an environmental club help take care of injured and orphaned birds of prey. Based on this information, what does the term raptor refer to?
a.
 a bird of prey
c.
 orphaned wildlife
b.
 the environment
d.
 debilitating injury
 

Completion
Complete each statement.
 95.
The medical treatment for ulcers changed after scientists discovered that ____________________ cause stomach ulcers.
 96.
The questioning and often doubtful attitude required for scientific thought is called ____________________.
 97.
The truths that govern science and are valid everywhere in the universe are universal ____________________.
 98.
____________________ are a system of moral principles and values.
 99.
Most scientific investigations begin with ____________________ that lead to questions.
 100.
A reason to set up an experiment is to test a ____________________.
 101.
A(n) ____________________ experiment is a procedure that tests one factor at a time and that uses a(n) ____________________ group and an experimental group.
 102.
In a controlled experiment, the ____________________ group is the group that has one variable changed.
 103.
In an experiment, the ____________________ group receives no experimental treatment.
 104.
Factors that may change as a result of experimental treatment are ____________________ variables.
 105.
A(n) ____________________ is a specific, testable prediction for a limited set of conditions, and a(n) ____________________ is a general explanation for a broad range of data.
 106.
Scientists use the ______________________________ system to make measurements.
 107.
SI is the abbreviation for the ____________________ System of Units.
 108.
The SI base unit for length is the ____________________.
 109.
A kilogram is equal to ____________________ grams.
 110.
In a light microscope, light passes through one or more ____________________ to produce an enlarged image of an object.
 111.
Scientists use ____________________ techniques to minimize the risk of contamination.
 112.
The study of the interactions of living organisms with one another and with the nonliving part of their environment is called ____________________.
 113.
The branch of biology that studies the changes in types of organisms over time is called ___________________ theory.
 114.
Scientists who study whales, bats, or bears in their natural habitat are called ____________________ biologists.
 115.
The process of _________________ traits changing over time is called evolution.
 116.
Every living organism is composed of one or more ____________________.
 117.
All cells have the same basic ____________________.
 118.
The sum of all chemical reactions carried out in an organism is ____________________.
 119.
The energy used by living organisms originates from the ____________________.
 120.
The study of ____________________ involves finding out how diseases are spread.
 121.
Cholera bacteria can cause the disease only when ____________________ increases.
 122.
A ____________________ is a medical procedure that allows a person to resist infection by a certain disease.
 123.
Many new tools for studying and treating diseases caused by problems in genes have come from the study of ____________________.
 124.
In developed countries, the length of human lives has nearly ____________________ in the past century.
 125.
One example of an assistive technology that helps people in everyday life is ____________________.
 126.
The gene that was added to Bt corn came from a(n) ____________________.
 127.
Bt corn contains a gene that produces a ____________________ that kills the European core borer.
 128.
The robotic items produced through nanotechnology often resemble tiny ____________________.
 129.
Imitating biological structures, processes, and systems to solve engineering problems is called ____________________.
 130.
Because of ____________________, dissection is no longer needed to determine the shapes and locations of internal organs.
 131.
Fingerprints and iris patterns are useful in identification because they are ____________________ to individuals.
 132.
Material used in ____________________ is obtained from hair and skin cells.
 133.
Research that involves human stem cells is limited because many people think that such research is ____________________.
 134.
The study of living organisms and their environments is called _________________________.
 135.
The existence of undiscovered resources is an important reason to study and ____________________ natural environments.
 136.
The movements of wildlife can be studied through the technology of ____________________.
 137.
Wildlife agents use the technology of ____________________ to identify the remains of endangered animals and to identify who killed them.
 138.
The people in communities who make contributions to environmental research are called ____________________.
 139.
Students make contributions to environmental conservation by helping to care for ____________________ or ____________________ wildlife.
 

Short Answer
 140.
What universal law applies in a study of the flight of birds? How does it apply?
 141.
How could you use scientific thought to investigate a claim about a product?
 142.
Write a hypothesis to explain why the water level in an aquarium is going down.
 143.
What two groups are part of a controlled experiment?
 144.
What is the difference between an independent variable and dependent variables in a controlled experiment?
 145.
How does a scientist verify the conclusions of an experiment?
 146.
What is the difference between a hypothesis and a theory?
 147.
What makes SI easy to use?
 148.
What are the base SI units for volume, length, and mass?
 149.
What are two common kinds of microscopes. How do they differ?
 150.
What is sterile technique? What are four tools of sterile technique?
 151.
Suppose you are a scientist who studies sharks in their natural habitat. What are two names that describe the kind of biologist you are?
 152.
What is heredity?
 153.
Name the seven properties of life.
 154.
How are data from weather and climate satellites used in epidemiology?
 155.
How does a vaccination help people and animals resist disease?
 156.
How will the completion of the Human Genome Project contribute to biological research in the 21st Century?
 157.
List two examples of assistive technologies that will improve the lives of people with injuries and diseases.
 158.
How does genetic engineering that produced Bt corn help to increase the yield in a farmer’s corn field?
 159.
List two practical applications of biotechnology other than genetic engineering.
 160.
How has genetic engineering improved the treatment of people who have diabetes?
 161.
From what biological structure did engineers get the idea for a submarine?
 162.
What makes iris scans an effective technology for identifying people?
 163.
List two biological characteristics of individuals, besides fingerprints and iris patterns, that can be analyzed by computers to identify people.
 164.
List two concerns that people have expressed about the ethics of biotechnology.
 165.
List three important resources that all living things get from the environment.
 166.
What do the initials GIS stand for?
 167.
What is satellite tagging?
 168.
List three steps that students could take to get involved in environmental research.
 

Essay
 169.
Explain why accurate data and peer review are important in science.
 170.
The results of an experiment do not support the hypothesis that the experiment was designed to test. Was the experiment a waste of time? Explain your answer.
 171.
Explain the difference between an independent variable and a dependent variable in a controlled experiment. Also indicate whether or not each kind of variable would be found in a control group and an experimental group.
 172.
Summarize the steps in the development of a theory.
 173.
Before doing experiments, what should you know about lab safety? What procedure should you follow if an accident occurs during an experiment in your class?
 174.
List and describe the seven properties of life shared by all living organisms.
 175.
Toads that live in hot, dry regions bury themselves in the soil during the day. How might this be important to toads?
nar001-1.jpg
 176.
Refer to the map above. West Nile Virus is a virus that attacks the nervous system of birds, humans, and many other mammals. The virus first appeared in the United States in 1999, when an outbreak was reported in the New York City area. Based on this background and the information shown in the map, write a paragraph that summarizes the state of West Nile Virus incidence in the United States as of 2006.
 177.
Explain how increased understanding of biology and science in general should enable humans to live longer and healthier lives.
 178.
Compare and contrast fingerprints and DNA fingerprints as a means of identifying individuals.
 179.
Ethics is the study of whether human actions are moral (right or wrong, acceptable or unacceptable). Summarize the role of ethics in guiding the future of biotechnology.
 180.
What important lesson can be learned from the recent discovery of new kinds of organisms in a remote area of New Guinea?

 
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