Elephants Can

%CODE1%

Elephants Can’t Jump
& Other Freaky Scientific Facts

Welcome to a Fun Site about Science!

Did you know that elephants can’t jump even though they have the same number of bones in their feet as other mammals?
The bones in an elephant’s foot are more closely packed together than other mammals so they do not have the flexibility or spring mechanisms that would enable them to jump.
How many bones are in an elephant’s trunk? The elephant’s trunk has numerous muscles but NO BONE.

 

What is a baby oyster called? They are called spats!
Three fruits are native to North America. Cranberries, Concord grapes, and blueberries!
What was the name of the captain and the ship on which Darwin made his famous voyage? Captain Fitzroy on the H.M.S. Beagle
A Swedish botanist, naturalist, physician and zoologist — Who am I? Carolus Linnaeus
Protozoan can move by cilia, flagella, or pseudopodia.
Give an example of a protist that moves by each of these means.

Include your NAME & PERIOD
cheryl.massengale@russellvilleschools.net
 

 

 

 

 

Google   

 

 

 

When were you born?

Internal Anatomy of the Fetal Pig Exam

%CODE1%

Internal Anatomy of the Fetal Pig Exam

1. What does the letter L refer to in the figure of the internal anatomy of the fetal pig?

Answer:

 

2. In the figure of the internal anatomy of the fetal pig, what letter refers to the thyroid gland?

Answer:

 

3. In the figure of the internal anatomy of the fetal pig, what letter refers to the left lung?

Answer:

 

4. What does the letter C refer to in the figure of the internal anatomy of the fetal pig?

Answer:

5. What does the letter J refer to in the figure of the internal anatomy of the fetal pig?

Answer:

 

6. In the figure of the internal anatomy of the fetal pig, what letter refers to the urinary bladder?

Answer:

 

7. What does the letter M refer to in the figure of the internal anatomy of the fetal pig?

Answer:

 

8. What does the letter A refer to in the figure of the internal anatomy of the fetal pig?

Answer:

 

9. In the figure of the internal anatomy of the fetal pig, what letter refers to the diaphragm?

Answer:

10. What does the letter F refer to in the figure of the internal anatomy of the fetal pig?

Answer:

 

11. In the figure of the internal anatomy of the fetal pig, what letter refers to the liver?

Answer:

 

12. In the figure of the internal anatomy of the fetal pig, what letter refers to the right common carotid artery?

Answer:

 

13. What does the letter N refer to in the figure of the internal anatomy of the fetal pig?

Answer:

 

14. What does the letter G refer to in the figure of the internal anatomy of the fetal pig?

Answer:

15. What does the letter E refer to in the figure of the internal anatomy of the fetal pig?

Answer:

 

16. In the figure of the internal anatomy of the fetal pig, what letter refers to the small intestine?

Answer:

 

17. In the figure of the internal anatomy of the fetal pig, what letter refers to the heart?

Answer:

 

18. In the figure of the internal anatomy of the fetal pig, what letter refers to the umbilical vein?

Answer:

 

19. What does the letter B refer to in the figure of the internal anatomy of the fetal pig?

Answer:

20. In the figure of the internal anatomy of the fetal pig, what letter refers to the larynx?

Answer:

 

21. What does the letter K refer to in the figure of the internal anatomy of the fetal pig?

Answer:

 

22. In the figure of the internal anatomy of the fetal pig, what letter refers to the left common carotid artery?

Answer:

 

23. In the figure of the internal anatomy of the fetal pig, what letter refers to the umbilical arteries?

Answer:

 

24. In the figure of the internal anatomy of the fetal pig, what letter refers to the large intestine?

Answer:

25. What does the letter H refer to in the figure of the internal anatomy of the fetal pig?

Answer:

 

26. What does the letter I refer to in the figure of the internal anatomy of the fetal pig?

Answer:

 

27. What does the letter D refer to in the figure of the internal anatomy of the fetal pig?

Answer:

 

28. In the figure of the internal anatomy of the fetal pig, what letter refers to the right lung?

Answer:

 

This is the end of the test. When you have completed all the questions and reviewed your answers, press the button below to grade the test.

Flat and Round Worms

%CODE1%

Name: 

Flat and Round Worms

 

 

True/False
Indicate whether the sentence or statement is true or false.
1.
Planarians have a branched digestive tract with both a mouth and an anus.
2.
Most flatworms are not parasitic.
3.
Tapeworms absorb food from their host’s intestine directly through their skin.
4.
Humans can avoid trichinosis by wearing shoes when they walk through fields.
5.
Rotifers have a distinct head end with a mouth and a distinct tail end that has an opening through which substances from the digestive, reproductive, and excretory systems exit the body.
 

Multiple Choice
Identify the letter of the choice that best completes the statement or answers the question.
6.
Flatworms can reproduce asexually by
a.
fission.
c.
producing polyps.
b.
forming larvae.
d.
exchanging both sperm and eggs.
7.
Which of the following is not found in flatworms?
a.
a head
c.
bilateral symmetry
b.
a circulatory system
d.
a nervous system
8.
Flatworms have no need for circulatory and respiratory systems because
a.
the digestive system performs these functions.
b.
their cells are close to the animal’s exterior surface.
c.
the spherical body shape allows diffusion of materials into tissues.
d.
the coelom is bathed in blood and oxygen.
9.
Schistosomiasis is a disease caused by a
a.
roundworm.
c.
cestode.
b.
trematode.
d.
planarian.
10.
turbellarians : free living ::
a.
planaria : parasitic
c.
cestodes : free living
b.
tapeworms : free living
d.
flukes : parasitic
11.
Which of the following statements about tapeworms is false?
a.
They can infect a person who eats improperly cooked beef.
b.
They belong to the genus Schistosoma.
c.
They can grow to be large in human intestines.
d.
These flatworms do not have a digestive system.
12.
To which phylum do roundworms belong?
a.
Annelida
c.
Platyhelminthes
b.
Nematoda
d.
Arthropoda
13.
Roundworms have a fluid-filled cavity between the gut and body wall called a
a.
coelom.
c.
digestive system.
b.
pseudocoelom.
d.
None of the above
14.
Pseudocoelomates
a.
must move rapidly to enhance diffusion of nutrients.
b.
must be very small or have body shapes with short distances between organs and the body surface.
c.
must have a circulatory system.
d.
All of the above
15.
The first organisms to develop an internal body cavity were the
a.
flatworms.
c.
mollusks.
b.
nematodes.
d.
arthropods.
16.
All of the following groups of invertebrates are coelomates, except
a.
annelids.
c.
mollusks.
b.
echinoderms.
d.
nematodes.
17.
The evolution of body cavities was important because
a.
fluids within the body cavity aid in circulation of materials from one part of the body to another.
b.
fluids in the cavity make the body rigid and offer resistance to muscles, aiding in movement.
c.
organs are better able to function if they can move freely within the body cavity.
d.
All of the above
18.
The nematode Ascaris lumbricoides infects humans, spending most of its adult life inside the intestines of its host. To be infected, a person must
a.
consume the nematode’s eggs.
c.
sit on an infested toilet seat.
b.
walk barefoot on infested soil.
d.
All of the above
19.
A type of roundworm that lives a parasitic life is
a.
Ascaris.
c.
Trichinella.
b.
Necator.
d.
All of the above
20.
Rotifers eliminate excess water that they collect from their freshwater environment by
a.
diffusion.
c.
flame cells and excretory tubules.
b.
kidneys.
d.
a mastax.

 

Check Your Work     Reset

 

Fish

%CODE1%

Name: 

Fish

 

 

True/False
Indicate whether the sentence or statement is true or false.
1.
Lobe-finned fishes were the ancestors of amphibians.
2.
Small, jawed fishes are the first vertebrates for which there is fossil evidence.
3.
Fishes and amphibians first appeared on Earth during the Cambrian period, about 550 million years ago.
4.
A fish’s gills would collapse on land.
5.
Since they live in salt water, marine fishes do not have a problem maintaining the proper balance of water and salt in their body.
6.
The first fishes to develop jaws were called spiny fishes, members of the class Acanthodia.
7.
Sharks have good vision and can detect electromagnetic fields coming from prey animals.
8.
Members of the class Osteichthyes have skeletons of cartilage.
9.
Bony fishes have a swim bladder.
10.
In order to fill their swim bladders, bony fishes have to come to the surface to gulp air.
 

Multiple Choice
Identify the letter of the choice that best completes the statement or answers the question.
11.
Which of the following would not be an advantage of the endoskeleton found in all vertebrates?
a.
It protects internal body structures.
b.
It aids in movement.
c.
It helps prevent desiccation in terrestrial vertebrates.
d.
It provides structural support in terrestrial vertebrates.
12.
The urinary bladder and kidneys make up the ____ of a fish.
a.
respiratory system.
c.
excretory system.
b.
digestive system.
d.
circulatory system.
13.
The first vertebrates
a.
were jawless fishes.
b.
had thick, bony plates that covered their bodies.
c.
had no well-developed vertebral column.
d.
All of the above
14.
placoderms : armor ::
a.
bony fishes : cartilaginous skeleton
b.
sharks : no teeth
c.
lampreys : jaws
d.
sharks and bony fishes : streamlined bodies
15.
bony fishes : stronger muscles ::
a.
bony fishes : lungs
c.
sharks : ray fins
b.
sharks : bony skeleton
d.
sharks : rows of teeth
16.
Which of the following senses is not used by sharks to detect prey?
a.
olfaction
c.
lateral-line system
b.
vision
d.
touch
17.
The eggs of many species of sharks
a.
are released from the mother’s body before fertilization.
b.
are released from the mother’s body after fertilization.
c.
are released from the mother’s body after developing into young embryos.
d.
hatch inside the mother’s body, where the young sharks continue to grow.
18.
Members of the class Osteichthyes
a.
have skeletons made of bone.
c.
include the rays and skates.
b.
do not have jaws.
d.
All of the above
19.
A collection chamber that reduces the resistance of blood flow into the heart of a fish is called the
a.
sinus venosus.
c.
conus arteriosus.
b.
ventricle.
d.
atrium.
20.
The countercurrent flow of water and blood found in the gills of fishes
a.
allows blood and water to flow in the same direction.
b.
ensures that oxygen diffuses into the blood over the whole length of the blood vessels in the gills.
c.
results in an uneven supply of oxygen reaching the blood vessels in the gills.
d.
hampers the diffusion of oxygen and carbon dioxide between the blood and the water.

 

Check Your Work     Reset

 

 

Chapters 1 and 2 PreAP Biology

%CODE1%

Javascript not enabled

Name:     ID: 

Email: 

Chapters 1 and 2 PreAP Biology
 

Multiple Choice
Identify the choice that best completes the statement or answers the question.
 1.
Biology is the study of
a.
minerals.
c.
the weather.
b.
life.
d.
energy.
 2.
All organisms possess DNA. DNA
a.
creates energy for cells.
b.
allows sensitivity to environmental stimuli.
c.
contains information for growth and development.
d.
captures energy from the sun.
 3.
Homeostasis means
a.
a change over long periods of time.
b.
keeping things the same.
c.
rapid change.
d.
the same thing as evolution.
 4.
The smallest units that can carry on all the functions of life are called
a.
molecules.
c.
organelles.
b.
cells.
d.
species.
 5.
Living things
a.
need energy for life processes.
b.
have the ability to reproduce.
c.
are composed of cells.
d.
All of the above
 6.
All living things maintain a balance within their cells and the environment through the process of
a.
growth.
c.
homeostasis.
b.
development.
d.
evolution.
 7.
A scientist noticed that in acidic pond water some salamanders developed with curved spines. This was a(n)
a.
hypothesis.
c.
observation.
b.
theory.
d.
control.
 8.
The English physician Ronald Ross wanted to try to find the cause of malaria. Based on his observations, Dr. Ross suggested that the Anopheles mosquito might spread malaria from person to person. This suggestion was a
a.
prediction.
c.
theory.
b.
hypothesis.
d.
scientific “truth.”
 9.
The English physician Ronald Ross knew that the parasite Plasmodium was always found in the blood of malaria patients. He thought that if the Anopheles mosquitoes were responsible for spreading malaria, then Plasmodium would be found in the mosquitoes. This idea was a
a.
prediction.
c.
theory.
b.
hypothesis.
d.
scientific “truth.”
 10.
Scientific hypotheses are most often tested by the process of
a.
communicating.
c.
experimenting.
b.
inferring.
d.
analyzing data.
 11.
A hypothesis is
a.
a definite answer to a given problem.
b.
a testable possible explanation of an observation.
c.
a proven statement.
d.
a concluding statement.
 12.
A unifying explanation for a broad range of observations is a
a.
hypothesis.
c.
prediction.
b.
theory.
d.
controlled experiment.
 13.
A hypothesis that does not explain an observation
a.
is known as an inaccurate forecast.
b.
often predicts a different observation.
c.
is rejected.
d.
None of the above
 14.
Scientists usually design experiments
a.
with a good idea of the expected experimental results.
b.
based on wild guesses.
c.
in order to develop new laboratory tools.
d.
All of the above
 15.
A scientific theory
a.
is absolutely certain.
b.
is unchangeable.
c.
may be revised as new evidence is presented.
d.
is a controlled experiment.
 16.
The word theory used in a scientific sense means
a.
a highly tested, generally accepted principle.
b.
a guess made with very little knowledge to support it.
c.
an absolute scientific certainty.
d.
None of the above
 17.
observation : hypothesis ::
a.
theory : observation
c.
hypothesis : experiment
b.
guess : hypothesis
d.
theory : control
 18.
Which of the following components of a scientific investigation would benefit from communication between scientists?
a.
observing
c.
analyzing data
b.
measuring
d.
All of the above
 19.
Scientists share their research results by
a.
publishing in scientific journals.
b.
presenting at scientific meetings.
c.
avoiding conflicts of interest.
d.
Both a and b
 20.
Atoms are composed of
a.
protons with a positive charge.
b.
neutrons with no charge.
c.
electrons with a negative charge.
d.
All of the above
 21.
The smallest particle of carbon that can retain the chemical properties of carbon is
a.
a carbon molecule.
b.
a carbon macromolecule.
c.
a carbon atom.
d.
the nucleus of a carbon atom.
 22.
A substance that is composed of only one type of atom is called a(n)
a.
nucleus.
c.
element.
b.
cell.
d.
molecule.
 23.
All matter in the universe is composed of
a.
cells.
c.
atoms.
b.
molecules.
d.
carbon.
 24.
The electrons of an atom
a.
are found in the nucleus along with the protons.
b.
orbit the nucleus in various energy levels.
c.
have a positive charge.
d.
are attracted to the positive charge of neutrons.
 25.
Atoms that have gained energy
a.
have protons and neutrons that move farther apart.
b.
lose neutrons from the nucleus.
c.
have electrons that move to higher energy levels.
d.
absorb electrons into the nucleus.
 26.
Which of the following states of matter contain(s) particles that are tightly linked together in a definite shape?
a.
solid
c.
gas
b.
liquid
d.
solid and liquid
 27.
Because carbon has four electrons in its outer energy level,
a.
it can form bonds with carbon atoms only.
b.
these atoms are naturally chemically stable.
c.
it can react with up to four other atoms to form covalent bonds.
d.
it cannot react with anything other than organic molecules.
 28.
The bond formed when two atoms share a pair of electrons is called a
a.
hydrogen bond.
c.
covalent bond.
b.
nonpolar bond.
d.
water bond.
 29.
Sharing of electrons between atoms of two or more elements
a.
results in the formation of an ion.
b.
results in the formation of a compound.
c.
results in the formation of noble gases.
d.
results in destabilization of the atoms involved.
 30.
An atom that has gained or lost electrons is called a(n)
a.
molecule.
c.
ion.
b.
nucleon.
d.
element.
nar001-1.jpg
 31.
Refer to the graph above. Reaction 1 in the graph
a.
is an energy-storing reaction.
b.
requires a greater activation energy than reaction 2.
c.
may use the same initial reactant condition needed to form product Y.
d.
All of the above
 32.
Refer to the graph above. Reaction 3 in the graph
a.
probably occurred in the presence of a catalyst.
b.
requires a greater activation energy than reaction 2.
c.
is the same as reaction 1, but faster.
d.
takes longer than reaction 2.
 33.
Refer to the graph above. Which of these statements regarding the graph is true?
a.
Reaction 2 occurs faster than reaction 3 because reaction 2 requires more energy than reaction 3.
b.
The difference in the graphs shown for reaction 2 and reaction 3 is due to a difference in the activation energy needed for these reactions.
c.
Reactant X contains more energy at the beginning of the reaction than product Z has after the reaction.
d.
All of the above
 34.
Changing the course or pathway of a chemical reaction so that it requires less activation energy
a.
is a violation of the laws of nature.
b.
requires higher temperatures than those found within cells.
c.
occurs only when reactants are quickly added to the reaction mixture.
d.
is accomplished by the action of catalysts on reactants.
 35.
Enzymes
a.
are able to heat up molecules so that they can react.
b.
provide CO2 for chemical reactions.
c.
are biological catalysts.
d.
absorb excess heat so that reactions occur at low temperatures.
 36.
When a molecule gains an electron, it has been
a.
oxidized.
c.
digested.
b.
reduced.
d.
inactivated.
 37.
Oxidation-reduction reactions are important in organisms because they
a.
allow the passage of energy from molecule to molecule.
b.
prevent nuclear reactions from occurring.
c.
allow the creation and destruction of energy.
d.
None of the above; oxidation-reduction reactions do not occur in living organisms.
 38.
The concentration of a solution is
a.
the number of particles of a substance in a solvent.
b.
the amount of a solvent that is dissolved in a fixed amount of a solution.
c.
the amount of a solute that is dissolved in a fixed amount of a solution.
d.
the ratio of solute to solvent in a solution.
 39.
A neutral solution has an equal number of
a.
hydrogen and hydronium ions.
b.
hydroxide and hydronium ions.
c.
hydrogen and hydroxide ions.
d.
oxygen and hydrogen ions.
 40.
The terms base and alkaline refer to solutions that
a.
contain dissolved sodium hydroxide.
b.
contain more hydronium ions than hydroxide ions.
c.
contain more hydroxide ions than hydronium ions.
d.
contain more hydroxide ions than hydrogen ions.
 41.
A solution with a pH of 11 is
a.
acidic.
c.
neutral.
b.
alkaline.
d.
a buffer.
 42.
Acidic solutions have a pH that is
a.
less than 7.
c.
a negative number.
b.
between 0 and 14.
d.
more than 7.
 43.
Buffers
a.
are of relatively little importance in living things.
b.
are formed when a large number of hydroxide ions are released in a solution.
c.
are formed when a large number of hydronium ions are released in a solution.
d.
tend to prevent great fluctuations in pH.
 44.
Atoms become more stable when they form compounds because
a.
they always lose electrons when they form compounds.
b.
their outer orbitals become filled when they form compounds.
c.
they always gain electrons when they form compounds.
d.
their nucleus loses extra protons when they form compounds.
 45.
A water molecule is polar because its hydrogen and oxygen atoms
a.
both lose electrons.
b.
become ions.
c.
both gain electrons.
d.
do not share the electrons equally.
 46.
Polar molecules such as water have
a.
no negative or positive poles.
b.
both negative and positive poles.
c.
only a negative pole.
d.
only a positive pole.
 47.
A molecule that has a partial positive charge on one side and a partial negative charge on the other side is called a
a.
nonpolar molecule.
c.
charged molecule.
b.
polar molecule.
d.
bipolar molecule.
 48.
Water is a polar molecule because
a.
it contains two hydrogen atoms for each oxygen atom.
b.
it has a charge.
c.
different parts of the molecule have slightly different charges.
d.
it does not have a charge.
 49.
Water molecules break up other polar substances
a.
such as salts.
b.
because of the uneven charge distribution that exists in water molecules.
c.
thus freeing ions in these substances for use by the body.
d.
All of the above
 50.
Which of the following characteristics of water is not a result of hydrogen bonding?
a.
adhesive strength
b.
capillarity
c.
cohesive strength
d.
All of the above are a result of hydrogen bonding.

 

         Start Over