Author: Biology Junction Team

Insects

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Insects

 

 

True/False
Indicate whether the sentence or statement is true or false.
1.
A flying insect carries pollen from one flower to pollinate other flowers of different species.
2.
Insects comprise the only group of invertebrates whose members are primarily terrestrial.
3.
Insects were the first animals to evolve wings.
4.
Flight enabled insects to search Earth’s surface for food, mates, and nesting sites.
5.
A major factor in the evolutionary success of insects is their ability to move to and survive in new environments.
6.
Insects destroy not only crops but also wood buildings and clothing.
7.
Butterflies undergo incomplete metamorphosis.
8.
Insects use pheromones, sounds, and light to attract mates.
9.
The honeybee’s round dance gives complete location information about a food source.
 

Multiple Choice
Identify the letter of the choice that best completes the statement or answers the question.
10.
From fossils, we know that insects were the first animals to evolve
a.
pincers on their front legs.
c.
jointed legs.
b.
stingers at the end of their tails.
d.
wings.
11.
The most diverse group of animals on Earth are the
a.
reptiles.
c.
insects.
b.
mammals.
d.
amphibians.
12.
Which of the following is not a characteristic of most insects?
a.
wings
c.
small size
b.
three body regions
d.
abdomen with three pairs of legs
13.
While insects destroy crops grown for human consumption, they also contribute to crop production by
a.
serving as food for many animals.
b.
pollinating crop plants.
c.
dying in the soil, and leaving behind nutrients.
d.
stimulating crop plants to grow faster.
14.
Malpighian tubules in insects
a.
remove wastes.
c.
carry Malpighian fluid.
b.
carry blood.
d.
are important in respiration.

      insects_files/i0140000.jpg
15.
Refer to the illustration above. Which of the organisms in the diagrams has a chitinous exoskeleton?
a.
Organism “A”
c.
Organism “C”
b.
Organism “B”
d.
Organism “D”

      insects_files/i0160000.jpg
16.
Refer to the illustration above. Mandibles are attached to the structure labeled
a.
“A.”
c.
“C.”
b.
“B.”
d.
“D.”
17.
Refer to the illustration above. The structure labeled “C” is called the
a.
diptera.
c.
boll.
b.
thorax.
d.
abdomen.
18.
Pheromones are used by ants to
a.
guide members of a colony back to their own nest.
b.
determine which ants will become queens of future colonies.
c.
ensure that females mate with only one male.
d.
warn members of a colony of adverse environmental conditions.
19.
Which of the following are the reproductive members of a honeybee colony?
a.
drones
c.
workers
b.
queen
d.
a and b
20.
Which of the following is the accepted explanation for the existence of sterile female worker bees?
a.
Because they are sterile, they do not have to use energy to produce eggs and therefore can use energy to collect food for other bees.
b.
Workers become sterile when they leave the nest to obtain food and are exposed to toxic substances.
c.
Workers pass on a lot of their own genes by helping their fertile sisters to survive and reproduce.
d.
Workers can become fertile females if they are fed queen factor.

 
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Introduction to Animals Quiz

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Introduction to Animals

 

 

True/False
Indicate whether the sentence or statement is true or false.
1.
A tissue is a group of dissimilar cells that are organized into a functional unit.
2.
The development of a particular animal’s body plan depends on the animal’s environment, rather than on the genetic information it carries.
3.
Flatworms are bilaterally symmetrical and cephalized.
4.
The fluid in the body cavity of an animal acts as a medium of transport for nutrients and wastes.
5.
All chordates retain their postanal tail in their adult life.
6.
Most invertebrates have kidneys that filter waste products from the blood.
7.
Terrestrial animals have a protective outer covering that helps prevent excessive water loss.
8.
Segmentation is evident in vertebrates in the repeating bony units of their backbones and ribs.
9.
During spiral cleavage, each cell of the blastula rests directly above or below an adjacent cell.
10.
In a cnidarian, endoderm forms the outer tissue and nervous system.
 

Multiple Choice
Identify the letter of the choice that best completes the statement or answers the question.
11.
A group of similar cells organized into a functional unit is called
a.
a nervous system.
c.
a tissue.
b.
specialized cells.
d.
an organ.
12.
Most animals have a head that is located at the ____ end of their body and a tail that is located at the ____ end of their body.
a.
ventral; dorsal
c.
anterior; posterior
b.
dorsal; ventral
d.
posterior; anterior
      introduction_to_ani_files/i0150000.jpg
13.
Refer to the illustration above. The organism labeled “B” in the diagram
a.
is asymmetrical.
c.
exhibits radial symmetry.
b.
is bilaterally symmetrical.
d.
has reverse symmetry.
14.
Refer to the illustration above. The organism labeled “A” in the diagram
a.
has no symmetry.
c.
exhibits radial symmetry.
b.
is bilaterally symmetrical.
d.
has reverse symmetry.
15.
Which of the following is found in vertebrates but not in invertebrates?
a.
dorsal nerve cord
c.
three germ layers
b.
coelom
d.
bilateral symmetry
16.
A characteristic shared by all chordates at some stage of their development is
a.
a dorsal hollow nerve cord.
c.
pharyngeal pouches.
b.
a notochord.
d.
All of the above
17.
Which of the following is not a characteristic of the largest phylum of invertebrates, the arthropods?
a.
segmentation
c.
closed circulatory system
b.
exoskeleton
d.
digestive tract
18.
The acoelomate body type is exemplified by
a.
flatworms.
c.
mollusks.
b.
roundworms.
d.
annelids.
19.
Which of the following is an incorrect match?
a.
ectoderm—nervous system
c.
endoderm—muscular system
b.
mesoderm—skeletal system
d.
endoderm—digestive system
The diagrams below are cross sections of three types of animal bodies.
      introduction_to_ani_files/i0230000.jpg
20.
Refer to the illustration above. Humans have the type of body cavity shown in diagram
a.
“A.”
c.
“C.”
b.
“B.”
d.
None of the above

 
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Introduction, Chemistry, & Nature of Science Test

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Introduction, Chemistry, & Nature of Science Test
 

Multiple Choice
Identify the choice that best completes the statement or answers the question.
 1.
Biology is the study of
a.
 minerals.
c.
 the weather.
b.
 life.
d.
 energy.
 2.
All organisms possess DNA. DNA
a.
 creates energy for cells.
b.
 allows sensitivity to environmental stimuli.
c.
 contains information for growth and development.
d.
 captures energy from the sun.
 3.
Instructions for traits that are passed from parents to offspring are known as
a.
 a species plan.
c.
 genes.
b.
 organ codes.
d.
 natural selections.
 4.
Homeostasis means
a.
 a change over long periods of time.
b.
 keeping things the same.
c.
 rapid change.
d.
 the same thing as evolution.
 5.
Ecology
a.
 refers to change in species over time.
b.
 refers to a delicate internal balance within organisms.
c.
 is inconsistent with evolution.
d.
 is the study of communities or organisms in relation to their environment.
 6.
Which of the following is not necessarily a characteristic of living things?
a.
 homeostasis
c.
 complexity
b.
 metabolism
d.
 reproduction
 7.
The smallest units that can carry on all the functions of life are called
a.
 molecules.
c.
 organelles.
b.
 cells.
d.
 species.
 8.
Living things
a.
 need energy for life processes.
b.
 have the ability to reproduce.
c.
 are composed of cells.
d.
 All of the above
 9.
All organisms are composed of
a.
 diatoms.
c.
 cells.
b.
 cellulose.
d.
 None of the above
 10.
Which of the following is a characteristic of all living things?
a.
 movement
c.
 development
b.
 photosynthesis
d.
 cellular organization
 11.
Which of the following is not a partial explanation for our lack of understanding of many of the living things on Earth?
a.
 Many organisms are microscopic in size and therefore difficult to observe.
b.
 Many organisms are so different from other organisms that it is difficult to understand them.
c.
 Many organisms live in areas of the world that are difficult to explore.
d.
 Tropical rain forests contain many species, and it is difficult to find all of them in these dense forests.
 12.
A scientist noticed that in acidic pond water some salamanders developed with curved spines. This was a(n)
a.
 hypothesis.
c.
 observation.
b.
 theory.
d.
 control.
 13.
Which example of scientific methodology is incorrect?
a.
 observation—a number of people in a certain place dying of a disease outbreak
b.
 measurement—a record of the number of people with symptoms of a disease and the number of people who had died from the disease
c.
 analysis of data—comparison of the effects of mixing monkey cells with virus-containing blood in test tubes and the effects of mixing liquid from these test tubes with fresh monkey cells
d.
 inference making—identification of the Ebola virus as the cause of a disease by taking electron micrographs of substances found in the blood of persons affected with the disease
 14.
The English physician Ronald Ross wanted to try to find the cause of malaria. Based on his observations, Dr. Ross suggested that the Anopheles mosquito might spread malaria from person to person. This suggestion was a
a.
 prediction.
c.
 theory.
b.
 hypothesis.
d.
 scientific “truth.”
 15.
The English physician Ronald Ross knew that the parasite Plasmodium was always found in the blood of malaria patients. He thought that if the Anopheles mosquitoes were responsible for spreading malaria, then Plasmodium would be found in the mosquitoes. This idea was a
a.
 prediction.
c.
 theory.
b.
 hypothesis.
d.
 scientific “truth.”
 16.
Scientific hypotheses are most often tested by the process of
a.
 communicating.
c.
 experimenting.
b.
 inferring.
d.
 analyzing data.
 17.
A unifying explanation for a broad range of observations is a
a.
 hypothesis.
c.
 prediction.
b.
 theory.
d.
 controlled experiment.
 18.
A hypothesis that does not explain an observation
a.
 is known as an inaccurate forecast.
b.
 often predicts a different observation.
c.
 is rejected.
d.
 None of the above
 19.
Scientists usually design experiments
a.
 with a good idea of the expected experimental results.
b.
 based on wild guesses.
c.
 in order to develop new laboratory tools.
d.
 All of the above
 20.
A scientific theory
a.
 is absolutely certain.
b.
 is unchangeable.
c.
 may be revised as new evidence is presented.
d.
 is a controlled experiment.
 21.
The word theory used in a scientific sense means
a.
 a highly tested, generally accepted principle.
b.
 a guess made with very little knowledge to support it.
c.
 an absolute scientific certainty.
d.
 None of the above
 22.
observation : hypothesis ::
a.
 theory : observation
c.
 hypothesis : experiment
b.
 guess : hypothesis
d.
 theory : control
 23.
Which of the following components of a scientific investigation would benefit from communication between scientists?
a.
 observing
c.
 analyzing data
b.
 measuring
d.
 All of the above
 24.
Typically, the order in which the steps of the scientific method are applied is
a.
 observations, predictions, hypothesis, controlled testing, theory, verification.
b.
 predictions, observations, hypothesis, theory, controlled testing, verification.
c.
 observations, hypothesis, predictions, controlled testing, theory, verification.
d.
 observations, hypothesis, predictions, controlled testing, verification, theory.
 25.
A light microscope that has an objective lens of 10 and an ocular lens of 20 has a magnification of
a.
 30.
c.
 300.
b.
 200.
d.
 2000.
 26.
Which of the following is not a correct association between an SI base unit abbreviation and its base quantity?
a.
 A—area
b.
 m—length
c.
 s—time
d.
 mol—amount of a substance
 27.
Atoms are composed of
a.
 protons with a positive charge.
b.
 neutrons with no charge.
c.
 electrons with a negative charge.
d.
 All of the above
 28.
The smallest particle of carbon that can retain the chemical properties of carbon is
a.
 a carbon molecule.
b.
 a carbon macromolecule.
c.
 a carbon atom.
d.
 the nucleus of a carbon atom.
 29.
A substance that is composed of only one type of atom is called a(n)
a.
 nucleus.
c.
 element.
b.
 cell.
d.
 molecule.
 30.
All matter in the universe is composed of
a.
 cells.
c.
 atoms.
b.
 molecules.
d.
 carbon.
 31.
The electrons of an atom
a.
 are found in the nucleus along with the protons.
b.
 orbit the nucleus in various energy levels.
c.
 have a positive charge.
d.
 are attracted to the positive charge of neutrons.
 32.
Atoms that have gained energy
a.
 have protons and neutrons that move farther apart.
b.
 lose neutrons from the nucleus.
c.
 have electrons that move to higher energy levels.
d.
 absorb electrons into the nucleus.
 33.
Which of the following states of matter contain(s) particles that are tightly linked together in a definite shape?
a.
 solid
c.
 gas
b.
 liquid
d.
 solid and liquid
 34.
Because carbon has four electrons in its outer energy level,
a.
 it can form bonds with carbon atoms only.
b.
 these atoms are naturally chemically stable.
c.
 it can react with up to four other atoms to form covalent bonds.
d.
 it cannot react with anything other than organic molecules.
 35.
The bond formed when two atoms share a pair of electrons is called a
a.
 hydrogen bond.
c.
 covalent bond.
b.
 nonpolar bond.
d.
 water bond.
 36.
Sharing of electrons between atoms of two or more elements
a.
 results in the formation of an ion.
b.
 results in the formation of a compound.
c.
 results in the formation of noble gases.
d.
 results in destabilization of the atoms involved.
 37.
Which of the following statements most accurately describes the difference between an ionic bond and a covalent bond?
a.
 Atoms held together by ionic bonds separate when placed in water, while atoms held together by covalent bonds do not separate in water.
b.
 Ionic bonds hold together atoms of two different types, while covalent bonds hold together atoms of the same type.
c.
 Electrons are exchanged between atoms held together by an ionic bond, but they are shared between atoms held together by a covalent bond.
d.
 Ionic bonds form between atoms that carry opposite charges, while covalent bonds form between uncharged atoms.
nar001-1.jpg
 38.
Refer to the graph above. Reaction 1 in the graph
a.
 is an energy-storing reaction.
b.
 requires a greater activation energy than reaction 2.
c.
 may use the same initial reactant condition needed to form product Y.
d.
 All of the above
 39.
Refer to the graph above. Which of these statements regarding the graph is true?
a.
 Reaction 2 occurs faster than reaction 3 because reaction 2 requires more energy than reaction 3.
b.
 The difference in the graphs shown for reaction 2 and reaction 3 is due to a difference in the activation energy needed for these reactions.
c.
 Reactant X contains more energy at the beginning of the reaction than product Z has after the reaction.
d.
 All of the above
 40.
Changing the course or pathway of a chemical reaction so that it requires less activation energy
a.
 is a violation of the laws of nature.
b.
 requires higher temperatures than those found within cells.
c.
 occurs only when reactants are quickly added to the reaction mixture.
d.
 is accomplished by the action of catalysts on reactants.
 41.
When a molecule gains an electron, it has been
a.
 oxidized.
c.
 digested.
b.
 reduced.
d.
 inactivated.
 42.
The concentration of a solution is
a.
 the number of particles of a substance in a solvent.
b.
 the amount of a solvent that is dissolved in a fixed amount of a solution.
c.
 the amount of a solute that is dissolved in a fixed amount of a solution.
d.
 the ratio of solute to solvent in a solution.
 43.
A neutral solution has an equal number of
a.
 hydrogen and hydronium ions.
b.
 hydroxide and hydronium ions.
c.
 hydrogen and hydroxide ions.
d.
 oxygen and hydrogen ions.
 44.
A solution with a pH of 11 is
a.
 acidic.
c.
 neutral.
b.
 alkaline.
d.
 a buffer.
 45.
Acidic solutions have a pH that is
a.
 less than 7.
c.
 a negative number.
b.
 between 0 and 14.
d.
 more than 7.
 46.
Buffers
a.
 are of relatively little importance in living things.
b.
 are formed when a large number of hydroxide ions are released in a solution.
c.
 are formed when a large number of hydronium ions are released in a solution.
d.
 tend to prevent great fluctuations in pH.
 47.
Atoms become more stable when they form compounds because
a.
 they always lose electrons when they form compounds.
b.
 their outer orbitals become filled when they form compounds.
c.
 they always gain electrons when they form compounds.
d.
 their nucleus loses extra protons when they form compounds.
 48.
A water molecule is polar because its hydrogen and oxygen atoms
a.
 both lose electrons.
b.
 become ions.
c.
 both gain electrons.
d.
 do not share the electrons equally.
 49.
Water molecules break up other polar substances
a.
 such as salts.
b.
 because of the uneven charge distribution that exists in water molecules.
c.
 thus freeing ions in these substances for use by the body.
d.
 All of the above
 50.
Which of the following characteristics of water is not a result of hydrogen bonding?
a.
 adhesive strength
b.
 capillarity
c.
 cohesive strength
d.
 All of the above are a result of hydrogen bonding.


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Ecology Quiz

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Ecology Quiz

 

Test your knowledge of Ecology!

1. A cold biome characterized by permafrost under the surface?
a) Taiga
b) Tundra
c) Deciduous forest
d) Savanna2. An organism that feeds on plants and animals?
a) Carnivore
b) Omnivore
c) Epiphyte
d) Herbivore

3. All of the following are abiotic factors except:
a) Tree
b) Temperature
c) pH
d) Sunlight

4. Corals would be found in which zone:
a) Oceanic
b) Estuary
c) Neritic
d) Benthic

5. Which of the following is not part of the nitrogen cycle:
a) Ammonification
b) Transpiration
c) Nitrification
d) Rhizobacteria

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