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Bacteria Study Guide

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Multiple Choice
Identify the choice that best completes the statement or answers the question.
 1.
The earliest known group of living organisms on Earth was
a.
 viruses.
c.
 bacteria.
b.
 fungi.
d.
 protists.
 2.
Bacteria and archaea are the only organisms characterized as
a.
 unicellular.
c.
 eukaryotic.
b.
 prokaryotic.
d.
 photosynthetic.
 3.
Bacteria can be classified according to their
a.
 type of cell walls.
b.
 methods of obtaining energy.
c.
 Gram-staining characteristics.
d.
 All of the above
nar001-1.jpg
 4.
Refer to the illustration above. Which of the organisms shown has the shape called bacillus?
a.
 organism 1
c.
 organism 3
b.
 organism 2
d.
 None of the above
 5.
Refer to the illustration above. The shape represented by organism 3 is called
a.
 coccus.
c.
 bacillus.
b.
 spirillum.
d.
 filamentous.
 6.
When tested with a Gram stain, Gram-positive bacteria are stained
a.
 green.
c.
 pink.
b.
 yellow.
d.
 purple.
 7.
Bacteria lack a true nucleus and membrane-bound organelles; therefore, they are classified as
a.
 prokaryotes.
c.
 anaerobes.
b.
 aerobes.
d.
 eukaryotes.
 8.
The cytoplasm of bacteria
a.
 contains numerous types of organelles.
b.
 is divided into compartments.
c.
 has varying numbers of chromosomes, depending on the species of bacteria.
d.
 contains a single chromosome.
 9.

Which of the following comparisons is incorrect?

PROKARYOTES      EUKARYOTES
a.
 smaller      larger
b.
 circular chromosomes      linear chromosomes
c.
 binary fission      mitosis
d.
 chloroplasts      mitochondria
 10.
One difference between human body cells and bacterial cells is that bacterial cells have
a.
 an outer cell wall made up of phosphates.
b.
 a cell wall made up of peptidoglycan.
c.
 no DNA.
d.
 no ribosomes.
 11.
Structures found in a eukaryotic cell but not in a bacterial cell are
a.
 cell nuclei.
b.
 multiple chromosomes.
c.
 membrane-bound organelles.
d.
 All of the above
 12.
Which of the following might be found in the cytoplasm of a bacterial cell?
a.
 chloroplasts
c.
 mitochondria
b.
 Golgi apparatus
d.
 None of the above
 13.
Bacterial cells
a.
 have a cell wall only.
b.
 have a cell membrane only.
c.
 have both a cell membrane and cell wall.
d.
 have a cell wall inside their cell membrane.
 14.
One thing that E. coli and other bacteria have in common with eukaryotes is the presence of
a.
 chloroplasts.
c.
 nuclei.
b.
 mitochondria.
d.
 DNA.
 15.
Bacterial endospores
a.
 occur where there is plenty of available food.
b.
 allow certain species to survive harsh environmental conditions.
c.
 are similar to human tumors.
d.
 can cause growth abnormalities in plants.
 16.
Which of the following are used by at least some bacteria for movement?
a.
 pili
b.
 flagella
c.
 cytoplasmic projections
d.
 All of the above
 17.
phototrophic bacteria : sunlight ::
a.
 chemotrophic bacteria : dead organisms
b.
 chemoautotrophic bacteria : inorganic molecules
c.
 photosynthesis : nitrification
d.
 heterotrophic bacteria : inorganic molecules
 18.
Which of the following conditions would be unsuitable for any kind of bacteria to grow?
a.
 temperature of 110ºC (230ºF)
b.
 absence of oxygen
c.
 pH of 5
d.
 None of the above
 19.
Prokaryotes can transfer pieces of genetic material in a process called
a.
 binary fission.
c.
 conjugation.
b.
 mitosis.
d.
 sexual reproduction.
 20.
During the process of transduction
a.
 a virus obtains DNA from a host bacterium.
b.
 a bacterial cell takes in DNA from the external environment.
c.
 one bacterium transfers DNA to another.
d.
 two bacteria exchange DNA.
 21.
A pathogen is an agent that is
a.
 beneficial to humans.
b.
 harmful only to plants.
c.
 harmful to living organisms.
d.
 nearly extinct.
 22.
Which of the following foods is not a fermentation product of bacteria?
a.
 sour cream
c.
 milk
b.
 a pickle
d.
 yogurt
 23.
Antibiotics
a.
 include penicillin and tetracycline.
b.
 may prevent bacteria from making new cell walls.
c.
 can be effective treatments for bacterial diseases.
d.
 All of the above
 24.
All of the following are habitats of archaea except
a.
 volcanic vents.
b.
 intestinal tract of cows.
c.
 salt lakes.
d.
 human skin.
 25.
Which of the following is not a way of preventing a foodborne illness at home?
a.
 washing kitchen utensils thoroughly in cold water
b.
 keeping cooked and raw foods separate during storage
c.
 washing fresh fruits and vegetables before eating them
d.
 refrigerating leftovers promptly
 

Completion
Complete each statement.
 26.
A spiral bacterium is called a(n) ____________________.
 27.
Spherical bacteria are called ____________________.
 28.
Rod-shaped bacteria are called ____________________.
 29.
The procedure used to distinguish between two types of bacterial cell wall composition is called ____________________.
 30.
Protective structures that some bacteria may form under harsh conditions are ____________________.
 31.
The cell walls of bacteria are composed of a combination of polysaccharide and polypeptide called ____________________.
 32.
Bacteria that obtain their energy from inorganic molecules, rather than from the sun, are called ____________________ bacteria.
 33.
In general, organisms that obtain their energy from sunlight are called ____________________.
 34.
Bacteria that get carbon from other organisms are called ____________________.
 35.
A(n) ____________________ is a substance that can be obtained from bacteria or fungi and can be used as a drug to fight pathogenic bacteria.
 36.
Many bacteria are ____________________ and must have oxygen to live, whereas other bacteria are ____________________ and cannot live where oxygen is present.
 37.
Bacteria that can survive either with or without oxygen are called _________________________.
 38.
Archaea are more closely related to ____________________ than they are to ____________________.
 39.
____________________ are poisons that can cause disease when bacteria secrete them into their environment.
 40.
The evolution of populations of pathogenic bacteria that antibiotics cannot kill is called _________________________.

 
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Bacteria Quiz

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True/False
Indicate whether the sentence or statement is true or false.
1.
Gram-negative bacteria have a thick layer of peptidoglycan that stains purple.
2.
Bacteria lack nuclei and therefore also lack genetic material.
3.
Bacterial cells have membrane-bound organelles and chromosomes.
4.
Bacterial cells are usually much larger than eukaryotic cells.
5.
Bacteria are incapable of movement themselves; they can only get to new locations by growing toward them or by forming endospores and being carried in air or water.
6.
Some bacteria cannot survive in the presence of oxygen.
7.
When bacteria undergo nonreproductive genetic recombination, their bacterial chromosome is altered.
8.
Certain antibiotics have become ineffective against certain strains of bacteria. These bacteria have developed a resistance, which may be passed on from one generation of bacteria to the next.
 

Multiple Choice
Identify the letter of the choice that best completes the statement or answers the question.
9.
The earliest known group of living organisms on Earth was
a.
viruses.
c.
bacteria.
b.
fungi.
d.
protists.
10.
Bacteria are the only organisms characterized as
a.
unicellular.
c.
eukaryotic.
b.
prokaryotic.
d.
photosynthetic.
11.
Bacteria can be classified according to their
a.
type of cell walls.
c.
Gram-staining characteristics.
b.
methods of obtaining energy.
d.
All of the above
bacteria1_files/i0140000.jpg
12.
Refer to the illustration above. Which of the diagrams has a shape like the Bacillus bacterial genus?
a.
Organism “A”
c.
Organism “C”
b.
Organism “B”
d.
None of the above
13.
When tested with a Gram stain, gram-positive bacteria are stained
a.
green.
c.
pink.
b.
yellow.
d.
purple.
14.
It is important to distinguish between Gram-positive and Gram-negative bacteria in diagnosing a bacterial infection because
a.
Gram-negative bacteria do not respond to many antibiotics.
b.
Gram-positive bacteria never cause fatal diseases.
c.
Gram-positive bacteria destroy antibiotics, preventing them from working.
d.
Gram-positive bacteria respond to many antibiotics.
      bacteria1_files/i0180000.jpg
15.
Refer to the illustration above. If the bacterium in the diagram is Gram-negative, what two types of molecules would be found in the structure labeled “B”?
a.
protein and lipids
c.
polysaccharides and lipids
b.
protein and polysaccharides
d.
nucleic acid and lipids
16.
Which of the following comparisons is incorrect?
      PROKARYOTES      EUKARYOTES
a.
smaller      larger
b.
circular chromosomes      linear chromosomes
c.
binary fission      mitosis
d.
chloroplasts      mitochondria
17.
Structures found in a eukaryotic cell but not in a bacterial cell are
a.
cell nuclei.
c.
membrane-bound organelles.
b.
chromosomes.
d.
All of the above
18.
Cell organelles that E. coli and other bacteria have in common with eukaryotes are
a.
chloroplasts.
c.
nuclei.
b.
mitochondria.
d.
ribosomes.
19.
Which of the following conditions would be unsuitable for any kind of bacteria to grow?
a.
temperature of 110ºC (230ºF)
c.
pH of 5
b.
absence of water
d.
absence of oxygen
20.
Which of the following is a fermentation product of bacteria?
a.
ricotta cheese
c.
yogurt
b.
ice cream
d.
cottage cheese

 
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Bacteria and Viruses

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Multiple Choice
Identify the choice that best completes the statement or answers the question.
 1.
Many microscopic organisms or entities have been identified as pathogens, including all of the following except:
a.
 protozoa.
b.
 viruses.
c.
 fungi.
d.
 bacteria.
e.
 None of the above, all may be pathogenic.
 2.
Which of the following statements about bacteria is false?
a.
 A small percentage of bacteria are pathogenic.
b.
 Some bacteria can photosynthesize.
c.
 Bacteria are important decomposers.
d.
 Bacteria are not cellular and are sometimes not classified as life forms.
e.
 Bacteria convert atmospheric nitrogen into ammonia and then nitrates that can be used by plants.
 3.
Viruses were first identified:
a.
 because they caused an infection and formed colonies on nutrient agar plates.
b.
 because they were seen in the light microscope.
c.
 because they caused an infection and were small enough to pass through filters that trapped bacteria.
d.
 because they were smaller than bacteria and had all the properties of living organisms.
e.
 because they caused an infection and were seen in the electron microscope.
 4.
The protein coat of a virus is called the:
a.
 capsule.
b.
 capsid.
c.
 exospore.
d.
 phage.
e.
 pilus.
 5.
Viruses that attack bacteria are called:
a.
 phages.
b.
 bacteriods
c.
 prions.
d.
 virons.
e.
 viroids.
Figure 23-01
Use the figure below to answer the corresponding questions.nar001-1.jpg
 6.
The structure of the virus in Figure 23-01 that is common to all viruses is:
a.
 2.
b.
 3.
c.
 4.
d.
 5.
e.
 All of the above.
 7.
In Figure 23-01, the function of the structure labeled 3 is:
a.
 attachment to a host cell.
b.
 locomotion.
c.
 mate recognition.
d.
 replication.
e.
 to take over host cell mechanisms.
 8.
Viruses are classified by:
a.
 the sequence of their DNA.
b.
 structural similarities.
c.
 the sequence of their rRNA genes.
d.
 the traditional Linnaean binomial nomenclature system.
e.
 an international committee.
 9.
Viruses:
a.
 are very tiny cells on the order of 500 nm.
b.
 contain both RNA and DNA.
c.
 cannot independently perform metabolic activities.
d.
 have a standard morphology that includes a capsid, tail, and tail fibers.
e.
 All of the above.
 10.
Viruses:
a.
 are usually species-specific.
b.
 may have multiple origins.
c.
 are probably related to mobile genetic elements.
d.
 may have escaped from cells.
e.
 All of the above.
 11.
Phages are being considered for:
a.
 vectors in gene therapy experiments.
b.
 antibiotics in bacterial infections.
c.
 gene transfer vectors in animal cells.
d.
 being equivalent to the first living organisms.
e.
 All of the above.
 12.
Temperate viruses:
a.
 always destroy their host immediately.
b.
 are considered virulent.
c.
 do not always destroy their host.
d.
 do not undergo a lysogenic cycle.
e.
 undergo a lytic cycle.
 13.
Virulent (lytic) phages:
a.
 infect viruses.
b.
 destroy bacteria.
c.
 infect, but do not destroy bacteria.
d.
 infect virions.
e.
 infect prions.
 14.
The five stages of a lytic infection are attachment, penetration, _____________, assembly, and release.
a.
 lysis
b.
 prophage
c.
 lysogenesis
d.
 transduction
e.
 replication
 15.
A prophage:
a.
 is phage DNA that is integrated into viral DNA.
b.
 is phage DNA that is integrated into bacterial DNA.
c.
 replicates only when the eukaryotic cell it infects replicates.
d.
 is an underdeveloped lytic virus.
e.
 is a bacterial cell about to lyse.
 16.
The bacterium that causes botulism disease is harmless until it:
a.
 is infected by lytic bacteria.
b.
 is infected by certain retroviruses.
c.
 contains a certain prophage DNA.
d.
 is irradiated by UV radiation.
e.
 is infected by prions.
 17.
____________ conversion occurs when a bacterium carrying viral genes takes on new, atypical characteristics.
a.
 Transducing
b.
 Lysogenic
c.
 Prophage
d.
 Lytic
e.
 Reverse
 18.
The specificity of viruses to different types of cells is due to _____________ sites on the host cell.
a.
 prophage
b.
 receptor
c.
 transduction
d.
 penetration
e.
 transcription
 19.
Retroviruses differ from other RNA viruses by:
a.
 having reverse transcriptase instead of RNA-dependent RNA polymerase.
b.
 the shape of their capsid.
c.
 the way they infect their host cells.
d.
 the sugar coating on their capsids.
e.
 lytically destroying their hosts.
 20.
Which of the following diseases is not caused by a virus?
a.
 rabies
b.
 polio
c.
 warts in humans
d.
 chickenpox
e.
 Lyme disease
 21.
Which of the following identifies a group of DNA viruses?
a.
 retroviruses
b.
 herpesviruses
c.
 paramyxoviruses
d.
 filovirus
e.
 picornaviruses
 22.
Viral proteins can damage host cells by:
a.
 increasing the rate of fermentation within the host.
b.
 producing endotoxins.
c.
 causing a decline in coordination and increased irritability.
d.
 preventing transcription of viral nucleic acids.
e.
 overwhelming the host cell with a large number of viruses.
 23.
Viral infections in humans spread via the circulatory system. Viral infections in plants spread from cell to cell via:
a.
 endocytosis.
b.
 plasmodesmata.
c.
 infected seeds.
d.
 pili.
e.
 transformation.
 24.
Human viruses can enter human cells by fusion with the cell membrane or by:
a.
 diffusion into the cell.
b.
 passage through specific protein channels.
c.
 coating themselves with lipids that cloak their entrance into the cell.
d.
 endocytosis.
e.
 hitchhiking onto protein signals entering the cell.
 25.
Viroids cause a variety of plant diseases and are composed only of:
a.
 strands of RNA.
b.
 strands of DNA.
c.
 protein coats.
d.
 peptidoglycan.
e.
 a capsid.
 26.
Mad cow disease is an example of an infection caused by a:
a.
 bacterium.
b.
 bacteriophage.
c.
 retrovirus.
d.
 viroid.
e.
 prion.
 27.
_____________ is credited with the discovery of prions as a new biological principle of infection.
a.
 Stanley Prusiner
b.
 Anton van Leeuwenhoek
c.
 Dmitrii Ivanowsky
d.
 Stanley Brenner
e.
 Carl Woese
 28.
A symptom of a transmissible spongiform encephalopathy (TSE) is:
a.
 degeneration of the digestive tract.
b.
 progressive immune deficiency.
c.
 degeneration of the brain and central nervous system.
d.
 inflammation of the reproductive organs.
e.
 influenza-like symptoms.
 29.
The volume of a typical bacterium is about ____________ the volume of a typical eukaryotic cell.
a.
 equal to
b.
 a half
c.
 a tenth
d.
 a hundredth
e.
 a thousandth
 30.
A chain of round bacteria would be called:
a.
 spirilla.
b.
 diplococci.
c.
 bacilli.
d.
 streptococci.
e.
 streptobacilli.
 31.
Rod-shaped bacteria are called:
a.
 streptococci.
b.
 bacilli.
c.
 diplococci.
d.
 vibrio.
e.
 spirochete.
Figure 23-02
Use the figure below to answer the corresponding questions.nar002-1.jpg
 32.
The structure in Figure 23-02 labeled C is:
a.
 a ribosome.
b.
 the plasma membrane.
c.
 the capsule.
d.
 the cell wall.
e.
 the flagellum.
 33.
What is the function of the structure labeled A in Figure 23-02?
a.
 to adhere to surfaces or other bacteria
b.
 to prevent phagocytosis
c.
 support and protection in hypotonic conditions
d.
 transmission of DNA between bacteria
e.
 locomotion
 34.
Even though bacteria lack membrane-bound organelles, such as chloroplasts and mitochondria, they can still perform the functions of these organelles by localizing certain metabolic enzymes on:
a.
 the nuclear membranes.
b.
 the endoplasmic reticulum.
c.
 the plasma membrane.
d.
 ribosomes.
e.
 the cell wall.
 35.
Most bacterial cells keep from bursting in a hypotonic environment by:
a.
 an efficient water pump.
b.
 a tough cell membrane.
c.
 pumping large quantities of salts into the cell.
d.
 a rigid cell wall.
e.
 a stiff capsule.
 36.
Gram-positive bacteria would stain __________ in a gram stain because of a thick layer of __________ in their cell walls.
a.
 green; peptidoglycan
b.
 purple; peptidoglycan
c.
 green; cellulose
d.
 purple; polysaccharides
e.
 red; polysaccharides
 37.
The walls of Eubacteria contain peptidoglycan, which is:
a.
 lipids crosslinked with sugars.
b.
 sugars crosslinked with proteins.
c.
 a protein.
d.
 a lipid.
e.
 a polysaccharide.
 38.
Penicillin works most effectively against gram-positive bacteria because:
a.
 penicillin affects cell membranes.
b.
 they have a thick peptidoglycan cell wall and penicillin affects the synthesis of peptidoglycans.
c.
 they have special protein channels that allow penicillin to enter the cell and halt the cell cycle.
d.
 they are smaller than gram-negative bacteria and, thus, easily take up penicillin by diffusion.
e.
 they contain prophages that negatively interact with penicillin.
 39.
Some bacteria avoid a host’s immune system by means of:
a.
 efficient use of their flagella.
b.
 ameboid motion.
c.
 their capsule.
d.
 changing their cell wall structure.
e.
 eliminating the use of a membrane.
 40.
Bacteria:
a.
 are incapable of locomotion.
b.
 move by means of pili
c.
 move by means of cilia.
d.
 move by means of a rotating flagella.
e.
 move by means of a whiplike flagella.
 41.
Small circles of DNA called ______________ exist in addition to the bacterial chromosome.
a.
 capsids
b.
 plasmids
c.
 chromatids
d.
 pili
e.
 centromeres
 42.
Small hairlike structures on the surface of bacteria are called:
a.
 capsids.
b.
 pili.
c.
 chromatids.
d.
 plasmids.
e.
 virons.
 43.
Plasmids of bacteria often have genes involved in:
a.
 reproduction.
b.
 motility.
c.
 viral resistance.
d.
 antibiotic resistance.
e.
 photosynthesis.
 44.
Pili are involved in adhesion of bacterial cells to a substrate or host, or in transmission of __________ between bacteria.
a.
 ribosomes
b.
 cytoplasm
c.
 vectors
d.
 RNA
e.
 DNA
 45.
Prokaryotes have their genetic information stored in:
a.
 several small, circular pieces of DNA.
b.
 a single, small, circular piece of DNA.
c.
 a large, linear piece of DNA.
d.
 several small, linear pieces of DNA.
e.
 a large, circular piece of DNA.
 46.
_______________ is a form of genetic exchange in bacteria that involves contact between two cells.
a.
 Transformation
b.
 Transduction
c.
 Conjugation
d.
 Binary fission
e.
 Budding
 47.
_____________ are dormant structures formed by bacteria in response to adverse environmental conditions.
a.
 Capsids
b.
 Endospores
c.
 Exotoxins
d.
 Endotoxins
e.
 Heterocysts
 48.
Most bacteria are:
a.
 photoheterotrophs.
b.
 chemoheterotrophs.
c.
 autotrophs.
d.
 heterotrophs.
e.
 chemoautotrophs.
 49.
A bacterium that gains nourishment from dead organisms is referred to as:
a.
 an autotroph.
b.
 a parasite.
c.
 a saprotroph.
d.
 a chemoautotroph.
e.
 a pathogen.
 50.
A(an) ___________________ bacterium would not be able to survive in the presence of oxygen.
a.
 facultative aerobic
b.
 facultative anaerobic
c.
 facultative autotrophic
d.
 obligate aerobic
e.
 obligate anaerobic
 51.
The most common mode of reproduction in bacteria is:
a.
 binary fission.
b.
 transformation.
c.
 transduction.
d.
 conjugation.
e.
 mitosis.
 52.
The first indication that Archae were different from the Eubacteria came from differences noted in their:
a.
 cell wall.
b.
 preferred habitats.
c.
 16 S rRNA sequence.
d.
 protein synthesis machinery.
e.
 resistance to antibiotics.
 53.
The Archaea differ from the Eubacteria and eukaryotes by having different ____________ in their cell membranes, but they are similar to eukaryotes in their ____________ process.
a.
 sugars; replication
b.
 sugars; transcription
c.
 lipids; replication
d.
 lipids; transcription
e.
 proteins; transcription
Figure 23-03
Use the figure below to answer the corresponding questions.nar003-1.jpg
 54.
Which of the following groups from Figure 23-03 represents gram-negative bacteria?
a.
 Spirochetes
b.
 Protists
c.
 Methanogens
d.
 Halophiles
e.
 None of the above.
 55.
Which of the following groups from Figure 23-03 is a member of the Eubacteria domain?
a.
 Fungi
b.
 Halophiles
c.
 Chlamydias
d.
 Protists
e.
 More than one of the above.
 56.
About how many different species of bacteria have been classified?
a.
 200
b.
 2,000
c.
 4,000
d.
 20,000
e.
 40,000
 57.
The most significant difference between the Archaea and the Eubacteria is:
a.
 lack of a nuclear envelope in the Archaea.
b.
 the absence of the 70S ribosomes in the Eubacteria.
c.
 the presence of a single filament flagellum in the Eubacteria.
d.
 the absence of peptidoglycans in the cell walls of the Archaea.
e.
 All of the above.
 58.
One difference between the Archaea and the Eukarya is:
a.
 the lack of a nuclear envelope in the Archaea.
b.
 the absence of the 70S ribosomes in the Archaea.
c.
 the presence of membrane-bound organelles in the Archaea.
d.
 the presence of peptidoglycans in the cell walls of the Archaea.
e.
 the presence of simple RNA polymerase in the Archaea.
 59.
One unique characteristic associated with some of the extreme halophilic Archaea is:
a.
 that they are found at deep-sea vents on the sea floor.
b.
 that they are a source of most known antibiotics.
c.
 that they have photosynthetic ability involving a purple bacteriorhodopsin pigment.
d.
 that they fix atmospheric nitrogen that is then used by plants.
e.
 that most form symbiotic associations.
 60.
_____________ Archae are typically found in abnormally hot environments.
a.
 Extreme halophile
b.
 Extreme thermophile
c.
 Pyrrhanogen
d.
 Metanogen
e.
 Any of the above.
 61.
Most prokaryotes belong to the:
a.
 Fungi.
b.
 Archaea.
c.
 Protista.
d.
 Eubacteria.
e.
 Viroids.
 62.
Bacterial ____________ cause systemic symptoms such as fever, whereas bacterial ____________ cause more specific maladies.
a.
 phages; prophages
b.
 prophages; phages
c.
 endotoxins; exotoxins
d.
 exotoxins; endotoxins
e.
 exotoxins; phages
 63.
The bacterial reproductive parasite Wolbachia is known to:
a.
 eradicate males from a population.
b.
 convert males into females.
c.
 cause infected females to lay eggs that develop without fertilization.
d.
 reduce the number of males in a population.
e.
 All the above.
 64.
The symbiotic bacteria found in the root nodules of legumes:
a.
 supply the plant with the nitrogen it needs in the form of nitrates.
b.
 are motile, soil-dwelling bacteria.
c.
 belong to the genus Rhizobium.
d.
 are gram-negative Eubacteria.
e.
 All of the above.
 65.
Koch’s postulates include all the following except:
a.
 when a sample of a pure culture is injected into a healthy host causes the same disease.
b.
 a sample of the microorganism from a diseased host can be grown in pure culture.
c.
 the microorganism can be recovered from an experimentally infected host.
d.
 the microorganism must be visible in the electron microscope.
e.
 the pathogen must be present in every individual with the disease.
 66.
The first bacteria that was clearly identified as the cause of an infectious disease was:
a.
 Legionella pneumophila, which causes Legionnaires’ disease.
b.
 Chamydia sp., which causes pelvic inflammatory disease in women.
c.
 Clostridium botulinum, which causes botulism.
d.
 Vibrio cholerae, which causes cholera.
e.
 Bacillus anthracis, which causes anthrax.
 

Short Answer
 67.
Compare and contrast a virus and a bacterium.
 68.
List the characteristics of the following groups and identify examples for each: Archaea, Eubacteria, and Eukarya.
 69.

Compare and contrast the metabolic diversity of bacteria in one of the two groups below.

A. Obligate anaerobes, facultative anaerobes, and aerobes
B. Autotrophic and heterotrophic bacteria

 70.
Identify and briefly discuss two ecological roles filled by bacteria.
 

Essay
 71.
Describe the theory that attempts to explain the species specificity of viruses to their hosts.
 72.
Discuss the distinction between gram-negative and gram-positive bacteria. In the laboratory, how is this determined? What are differences between these two groups of bacteria?
 73.
Describe endotoxins and exotoxins. What effects do they each have on infected persons?

 
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AP Unit 4 Heredity Study Guide 134

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ap unit 4 heredity study guide 134

 

 

Multiple Choice
Identify the choice that best completes the statement or answers the question.
 1.
Pea plants were particularly well suited for use in Mendel’s breeding experiments for all of the following reasons except that
a.
 peas show easily observed variations in a number of characters, such as pea shape and flower color.
b.
 it is possible to completely control matings between different pea plants.
c.
 it is possible to obtain large numbers of progeny from any given cross.
d.
 peas have an unusually long generation time.
e.
 many of the observable characters that vary in pea plants are controlled by single genes.
 2.
A plant with purple flowers is allowed to self-pollinate. Generation after generation, it produces purple flowers. This is an example of
a.
 hybridization.
b.
 incomplete dominance.
c.
 true-breeding.
d.
 the law of segregation.
e.
 polygenetics.
 3.
Which of the following statements about Mendel’s breeding experiments is correct?
a.
 None of the parental (P) plants were true-breeding.
b.
 All of the F2 progeny showed a phenotype that was intermediate between the two parental (P) phenotypes.
c.
 Half of the F1 progeny had the same phenotype as one of the parental (P) plants, and the other half had the same phenotype as the other parent.
d.
 All of the F1 progeny resembled one of the parental (P) plants, but only some of the F2 progeny did.
e.
 none of the above
 4.
What is the difference between a monohybrid cross and a dihybrid cross?
a.
 A monohybrid cross involves a single parent, whereas a dihybrid cross involves two parents.
b.
 A monohybrid cross produces a single progeny, whereas a dihybrid cross produces two progeny.
c.
 A monohybrid cross involves organisms that are heterozygous for a single character, whereas a dihybrid cross involves organisms that are heterozygous for two characters.
d.
 A monohybrid cross is performed only once, whereas a dihybrid cross is performed twice.
e.
 A monohybrid cross results in a 9:3:3:1 ratio whereas a dihybrid cross gives a 3:1 ratio.
 5.
A cross between homozygous purple-flowered and homozygous white-flowered pea plants results in offspring with purple flowers. This demonstrates
a.
 the blending model of genetics.
b.
 true-breeding.
c.
 dominance.
d.
 a dihybrid cross.
e.
 the mistakes made by Mendel.
 6.
The F1 offspring of Mendel’s classic pea cross always looked like one of the two parental varieties because
a.
 one allele was completely dominant over another.
b.
 each allele affected phenotypic expression.
c.
 the traits blended together during fertilization.
d.
 no genes interacted to produce the parental phenotype.
e.
 different genes interacted to produce the parental phenotype.
 7.
What was the most significant conclusion that Gregor Mendel drew from his experiments with pea plants?
a.
 There is considerable genetic variation in garden peas.
b.
 Traits are inherited in discrete units, and are not the results of “blending.”
c.
 Recessive genes occur more frequently in the F1 than do dominant ones.
d.
 Genes are composed of DNA.
e.
 An organism that is homozygous for many recessive traits is at a disadvantage.
 8.
Which of the following is (are) true for alleles?
a.
 They can be identical or different for any given gene in a somatic cell.
b.
 They can be dominant or recessive.
c.
 They can represent alternative forms of a gene.
d.
 Only A and B are correct.
e.
 A, B, and C are correct.
 9.
What is genetic cross between an individual showing a dominant phenotype (but of unknown genotype) and a homozygous recessive individual called?
a.
 a self-cross
b.
 a testcross
c.
 a hybrid cross
d.
 an F1 cross
e.
 a dihybrid cross
 10.
How many unique gametes could be produced through independent assortment by an individual with the genotype AaBbCCDdEE?
a.
 4
b.
 8
c.
 16
d.
 32
e.
 64
 11.
Two plants are crossed, resulting in offspring with a 3:1 ratio for a particular trait. This suggests
a.
 that the parents were true-breeding for contrasting traits.
b.
 incomplete dominance.
c.
 that a blending of traits has occurred.
d.
 that the parents were both heterozygous.
e.
 that each offspring has the same alleles.
 12.
Two characters that appear in a 9:3:3:1 ratio in the F2 generation should have which of the following properties?
a.
 Each of the characters is controlled by a single gene.
b.
 The genes controlling the characters obey the law of independent assortment.
c.
 Each of the genes controlling the characters has two alleles.
d.
 Only A and C are correct.
e.
 A, B, and C are correct.
 13.
A 9:3:3:1 phenotypic ratio is characteristic of which of the following?
a.
 a monohybrid cross
b.
 a dihybrid cross
c.
 a trihybrid cross
d.
 linked genes
e.
 both A and D
 14.
A sexually reproducing animal has two unlinked genes, one for head shape (H). and one for tail length (T). Its genotype is HhTt. Which of the following genotypes is possible in a gamete from this organism?
a.
 HT
b.
 Hh
c.
 HhTt
d.
 T
e.
 tt
 15.
It was important that Mendel examined not just the F1 generation in his breeding experiments, but the F2 generation as well, because
a.
 he obtained very few F1 progeny, making statistical analysis difficult.
b.
 parental traits that were not observed in the F1 reappeared in the F2, suggesting that the traits did not truly disappear in the F1.
c.
 analysis of the F1 progeny would have allowed him to discover the law of segregation, but not the law of independent assortment.
d.
 the dominant phenotypes were visible in the F2 generation, but not in the F1.
e.
 all of the above
 16.
When crossing a homozygous recessive with a heterozygote, what is the chance of getting an offspring with the homozygous recessive phenotype?
a.
 0%
b.
 25%
c.
 50%
d.
 75%
e.
 100%

Use the diagram and description below to answer the following question.

In a particular plant, leaf color is controlled by gene D. Plants with the dominant allele D have dark green leaves, and plants with the homozygous recessive dd genotype have light green leaves. A true-breeding dark-leaved plant is crossed with a light-leaved one, and the F1 offspring is allowed to self-pollinate. The predicted outcome of this cross is diagrammed in the Punnett square shown below, where 1, 2, 3, and 4 represent the genotypes corresponding to each box within the square.

nar001-1.jpg
 17.
Which of the boxes marked 1-4 correspond to plants with dark leaves?
a.
 1 only
b.
 1 and 2
c.
 2 and 3
d.
 4 only
e.
 1, 2, and 3
 18.
Which of the boxes correspond to plants with a heterozygous genotype?
a.
 1
b.
 1 and 2
c.
 1, 2, and 3
d.
 2 and 3
e.
 2, 3, and 4
 19.
Which of the plants will be true-breeding?
a.
 1 and 4
b.
 2 and 3
c.
 1-4
d.
 1 only
e.
 none
 20.
P = purple, pp = white. The offspring of a cross between two heterozygous purple-flowering plants (Pp Pp) results in
a.
 all purple-flowered plants.
b.
 purple-flowered plants and white-flowered plants.
c.
 two types of white-flowered plants: PP and Pp.
d.
 all white-flowered plants.
e.
 all pink-flowered plants.
 21.
Mendel accounted for the observation that traits which had disappeared in the F1 generation reappeared in the F2 generation by proposing that
a.
 new mutations were frequently generated in the F2 progeny, “reinventing” traits that had been lost in the F1.
b.
 the mechanism controlling the appearance of traits was different between the F1 and the F2 plants.
c.
 traits can be dominant or recessive, and the recessive traits were obscured by the dominant ones in the F1.
d.
 the traits were lost in the F1 due to blending of the parental traits.
e.
 members of the F1 generation had only one allele for each character, but members of the F2 had two alleles for each character.
 22.
What are Punnett squares used for?
a.
 predicting the result of genetic crosses between organisms of known genotypes
b.
 determining the DNA sequence of a given gene
c.
 identifying the gene locus where allelic variations are possible
d.
 testing for the presence of the recessive allele
e.
 more than one of the above
 23.
Which of the following is false, regarding the law of segregation?
a.
 It states that each of two alleles for a given trait segregate into different gametes.
b.
 It can be explained by the segregation of homologous chromosomes during meiosis.
c.
 It can account for the 3:1 ratio seen in the F2 generation of Mendel’s crosses.
d.
 It can be used to predict the likelihood of transmission of certain genetic diseases within families.
e.
 It is a method that can be used to determine the number of chromosomes in a plant.
 24.
The fact that all seven of the pea plant traits studied by Mendel obeyed the principle of independent assortment means that
a.
 none of the traits obeyed the law of segregation.
b.
 the diploid number of chromosomes in the pea plants was 7.
c.
 all of the genes controlling the traits were located on the same chromosome.
d.
 all of the genes controlling the traits behaved as if they were on different chromosomes.
e.
 the formation of gametes in plants occurs by mitosis only.
 25.
Black fur in mice (B) is dominant to brown fur (b) Short tails (T) are dominant to long tails (t). What fraction of the progeny of the cross BbTt BBtt will have black fur and long tails?
a.
 1/16
b.
 3/16
c.
 3/8
d.
 1/2
e.
 9/16
 26.
In certain plants, tall is dominant to short. If a heterozygous plant is crossed with a homozygous tall plant, what is the probability that the offspring will be short?
a.
 1/2
b.
 1/4
c.
 0
d.
 1
e.
 1/6
 27.
A couple has three children, all of whom have brown eyes and blond hair. Both parents are homozygous for brown eyes (BB) but one is a blond (rr) and the other is a redhead (Rr). What is the probability that their next child will be a brown-eyed redhead?
a.
 1/16
b.
 1/8
c.
 1/4
d.
 1/2
e.
 1
 28.
Two true-breeding stocks of pea plants are crossed. One parent has red, axial flowers and the other has white, terminal flowers; all F1 individuals have red, axial flowers. If 1,000 F2 offspring resulted from the cross, approximately how many of them would you expect to have red, terminal flowers? (Assume independent assortment).
a.
 65
b.
 190
c.
 250
d.
 565
e.
 750
 29.
In a cross AaBbCc AaBbCc, what is the probability of producing the genotype AABBCC?
a.
 1/4
b.
 1/8
c.
 1/16
d.
 1/32
e.
 1/64
 30.
Given the parents AABBCc AabbCc, assume simple dominance and independent assortment. What proportion of the progeny will be expected to phenotypically resemble the first parent?
a.
 1/4
b.
 1/8
c.
 3/4
d.
 3/8
e.
 1
 31.
A 1:2:1 phenotypic ratio in the F2 generation of a monohybrid cross is a sign of
a.
 complete dominance.
b.
 multiple alleles.
c.
 incomplete dominance.
d.
 polygenic inheritance.
e.
 pleiotropy.

Refer to the result below to answer the following questions.

A tall plant is crossed with a short plant, and the progeny are all intermediate in size between the two parental plants.
 32.
This could be an example of
a.
 incomplete dominance.
b.
 polygenic inheritance.
c.
 complete dominance.
d.
 A and B
e.
 B and C
 33.
If the intermediate F1 progeny were allowed to self-pollinate, and the F2 progeny were also intermediate in size, but following a normal distribution, this would suggest
a.
 incomplete dominance.
b.
 polygenic inheritance.
c.
 complete dominance.
d.
 a strong environmental influence.
e.
 codominance.
 34.
If the intermediate F1 progeny were allowed to self-pollinate, and 25% of the F2 progeny were tall, 50% were intermediate in size, and 25% were short, this would suggest
a.
 incomplete dominance.
b.
 polygenic inheritance.
c.
 complete dominance.
d.
 pleiotropy.
e.
 multifactorial inheritance.
 35.
In snapdragons, heterozygotes have pink flowers, whereas homozygotes have red or white flowers. When plants with red flowers are crossed with plants with white flowers, what proportion of the offspring will have pink flowers?
a.
 0%
b.
 25%
c.
 50%
d.
 75%
e.
 100%
 36.
Tallness (T) is dominant to dwarfness (t), while red (R) flower color is dominant to white (r). The heterozygous condition results in pink (Rr) flower color. A dwarf, red snapdragon is crossed with a plant homozygous for tallness and white flowers. What are the genotype and phenotype of the F1 individuals?
a.
 ttRr-dwarf and pink
b.
 ttrr-dwarf and white
c.
 TtRr-tall and red
d.
 TtRr-tall and pink
e.
 TTRR-tall and red
 37.
Skin color in a fish is inherited via a single gene with four different alleles. How many different types of gametes would be possible in this system?
a.
 1
b.
 2
c.
 4
d.
 8
e.
 16
 38.
In cattle, roan coat color (mixed red and white hairs) occurs in the heterozygous (Rr) offspring of red (RR) and white (rr) homozygotes. Which of the following crosses would produce offspring in the ratio of 1 red:2 roan:1 white?
a.
 red white
b.
 roan roan
c.
 white roan
d.
 red roan
e.
 The answer cannot be determined from the information provided.
 39.
The relationship between genes S and N is an example of
a.
 incomplete dominance.
b.
 epistasis.
c.
 complete dominance.
d.
 pleiotropy.
e.
 codominance.
 40.
A cross between a true-breeding sharp-spined cactus and a spineless cactus would produce
a.
 all sharp-spined progeny.
b.
 50% sharp-spined, 50% dull-spined progeny.
c.
 25% sharp-spined, 50% dull-spined, 25% spineless progeny
d.
 all spineless progeny
e.
 It is impossible to determine the phenotypes of the progeny.
 41.
If doubly heterozygous SsNn cactuses were allowed to self-pollinate, the F2 would segregate in which of the following ratios?
a.
 3 sharp-spined : 1 spineless
b.
 1 sharp-spined : 2 dull-spined : 1 spineless
c.
 1 sharp spined : 1 dull-spined : 1 spineless
d.
 1 sharp-spined : 1 dull-spined
e.
 9 sharp-spined : 3 dull-spined : 4 spineless

Use the information below to answer the following questions.

Feather color in budgies is determined by two different genes Y and B. YYBB, YyBB, or YYBb is green; yyBB or yyBb is blue; YYbb or Yybb is yellow; and yybb is white.
 42.
A blue budgie is crossed with a white budgie. Which of the following results is not possible?
a.
 green offspring
b.
 yellow offspring
c.
 blue offspring
d.
 A and B
e.
 A, B, and C
 43.
Two blue budgies were crossed. Over the years, they produced 22 offspring, 5 of which were white. What are the most likely genotypes for the two blue budgies?
a.
 yyBB and yyBB
b.
 yyBB and yyBb
c.
 yyBb and yyBb
d.
 yyBB and yybb
e.
 yyBb and yybb
 44.

Three babies were mixed up in a hospital. After consideration of the data below, which of the following represent the correct baby and parent combinations?

Couple #
Blood Groups		 I
A and A		 II
A and B		 III
B and O
Baby #
Blood Groups		 1
B		 2
O		 3
AB
a.
 I-3, II-1, III-2
b.
 I-1, II-3, III-2
c.
 I-2, II-3, III-1
d.
 I-2, II-1, III-3
e.
 I-3, II-2, III-1

Use the following information to answer the questions below.

A woman who has blood type A, has a daughter who is type O positive and a son who is type B negative. Rh positive is a simple dominant trait over Rh negative.
 45.
Which of the following is a possible genotype for the son?
a.
 IBIB
b.
 IBIA
c.
 ii
d.
 IBi
e.
 IAIA
 46.
Which of the following is a possible genotype for the mother?
a.
 IAIA
b.
 IBIB
c.
 ii
d.
 IAi
e.
 IAIB
 47.
Which of the following is a possible phenotype for the father?
a.
 A
b.
 O
c.
 B
d.
 AB
e.
 impossible to determine
 48.
Which of the following is the probable genotype for the mother?
a.
 IAIARR
b.
 IAIARr
c.
 IAirr
d.
 IAiRr
e.
 IAiRR
 49.
Which of the following is a possible phenotype of the father?
a.
 A negative
b.
 O negative
c.
 B positive
d.
 A positive
e.
 O positive
 50.
What is the chromosomal system for determining sex in mammals?
a.
 A
b.
 B
c.
 C
d.
 D
e.
 E
 51.
What is the chromosomal system for sex determination in grasshoppers and certain other insects?
a.
 A
b.
 B
c.
 C
d.
 D
e.
 E
 52.
What is the chromosomal system for sex determination in birds?
a.
 A
b.
 B
c.
 C
d.
 D
e.
 E
 53.
What is the chromosomal system of sex determination in most species of ants and bees?
a.
 A
b.
 B
c.
 C
d.
 D
e.
 E

Use the terms listed below to answer the following questions. Each term may be used once, more than once, or not at all.

A. incomplete dominance
B. multiple alleles
C. pleiotropy
D. epistasis
 54.
the ability of a single gene to have multiple phenotypic effects
a.
 A
b.
 B
c.
 C
d.
 D
 55.
the ABO blood group system
a.
 A
b.
 B
c.
 C
d.
 D
 56.
the phenotype of the heterozygote differs from the phenotypes of both homozygotes
a.
 A
b.
 B
c.
 C
d.
 D
 57.
cystic fibrosis affects the lungs, the pancreas, the digestive system, and other organs, resulting in symptoms ranging from breathing difficulties to recurrent infections
a.
 A
b.
 B
c.
 C
d.
 D
 58.
Which of the following is an example of polygenic inheritance?
a.
 pink flowers in snapdragons
b.
 the ABO blood groups in humans
c.
 Huntington’s disease in humans
d.
 white and purple flower color in peas
e.
 skin pigmentation in humans
 59.
Hydrangea plants of the same genotype are planted in a large flower garden. Some of the plants produce blue flowers and others pink flowers. This can be best explained by
a.
 environmental factors such as soil pH.
b.
 the allele for blue hydrangea being completely dominant.
c.
 the alleles being codominant.
d.
 the fact that a mutation has occurred.
e.
 acknowledging that multiple alleles are involved.

Use the information below to answer the following questions.

A woman and her spouse both show the normal phenotype for pigmentation, but both had one parent who was an albino. Albinism is an autosomal recessive trait.
 60.
What is the probability that their first child will be an albino?
a.
 0
b.
 1/4
c.
 1/2
d.
 3/4
e.
 1
 61.
If their first two children have normal pigmentation, what is the probability that their third child will be an albino?
a.
 0
b.
 1/4
c.
 1/2
d.
 3/4
e.
 1
 62.
Huntington’s disease is caused by a dominant allele. If one of your parents has the disease, what is the probability that you, too, will have the disease?
a.
 1
b.
 3/4
c.
 1/2
d.
 1/4
e.
 0
 63.
A woman has six sons. The chance that her next child will be a daughter is
a.
 1.
b.
 0.
c.
 1/2.
d.
 1/6.
e.
 5/6.

The pedigree chart below is for a family, some of whose members exhibit the recessive trait, wooly hair. Affected individuals are indicated by an open square or circle. Use the chart to answer the following questions.

nar007-1.jpg
 64.
What is the genotype of individual B-5?
a.
 WW
b.
 Ww
c.
 ww
d.
 WW or ww
e.
 ww or Ww
 65.
What is the likelihood that the progeny of D-3 and D-4 will have wooly hair?
a.
 0%
b.
 25%
c.
 50%
d.
 75%
e.
 100%
 66.
What is the probability that individual C-1 is Ww?
a.
 3/4
b.
 1/4
c.
 2/4
d.
 2/3
e.
 1
 67.
People with sickle-cell trait
a.
 are heterozygous for the sickle-cell allele.
b.
 are usually healthy.
c.
 have increased resistance to malaria.
d.
 produce normal and abnormal hemoglobin.
e.
 all of the above
 68.
When a disease is said to have a multifactorial basis, it means that
a.
 many factors, both genetic and environmental, contribute to the disease.
b.
 it is caused by a gene with a large number of alleles.
c.
 it affects a large number of people.
d.
 it has many different symptoms.
e.
 it tends to skip a generation.
 69.
Which of the following terms is least related to the others?
a.
 pedigree
b.
 karyotype
c.
 amniocentesis
d.
 chorionic villus sampling
e.
 epistasis

Use the answers below to answer the following questions. Each answer may be used once, more than once, or not at all.

A. Huntington’s disease
B. Tay-Sachs disease
C. phenylketonuria
D. cystic fibrosis
E. sickle-cell disease
 70.
Substitution of the “wrong” amino acid in the hemoglobin protein results in this disorder.
a.
 A
b.
 B
c.
 C
d.
 D
e.
 E
 71.
Individuals with this disorder are unable to metabolize certain lipids, affecting proper brain development. Affected individuals die in early childhood.
a.
 A
b.
 B
c.
 C
d.
 D
e.
 E
 72.
This is caused by a dominant single gene defect and generally does not appear until the individual is 35-45 years of age.
a.
 A
b.
 B
c.
 C
d.
 D
e.
 E
 73.
Effects of this recessive disorder can be completely overcome by regulating the diet of the affected individual.
a.
 A
b.
 B
c.
 C
d.
 D
e.
 E
 74.
This results from a defect in membrane proteins that normally function in chloride ion transport.
a.
 A
b.
 B
c.
 C
d.
 D
e.
 E
 75.
Which of the following techniques involves the preparation of a karyotype?
a.
 amniocentesis
b.
 chorionic villus sampling
c.
 fetoscopy
d.
 A and B only
e.
 A, B, and C
 76.
Chromosomes and genes share all of the following characteristics except that
a.
 they are both present in pairs in all diploid cells.
b.
 they both undergo segregation during meiosis.
c.
 their copy numbers in the cell decrease after meiosis, and increase during fertilization.
d.
 they are both copied during the S phase of the cell cycle.
e.
 they both pair up with their homologues during prophase of mitosis.
 77.
The improvement of microscopy techniques in the late 1800s set the stage for the emergence of modern genetics because
a.
 it revealed new and unanticipated features of Mendel’s pea plant varieties.
b.
 it allowed biologists to study meiosis and mitosis, revealing the parallels between the behaviors of genes and chromosomes.
c.
 it allowed scientists to see the DNA present within chromosomes.
d.
 it led to the discovery of mitochondria.
e.
 All of the above are true.
 78.
When Thomas Hunt Morgan crossed his red-eyed F1 generation flies to each other, the F2 generation included both red- and white-eyed flies. Remarkably, all the white-eyed flies were male. What was the explanation for this result?
a.
 The involved gene was on the X chromosome.
b.
 The involved gene was on the Y chromosome.
c.
 The involved gene was on an autosome.
d.
 Other male-specific factors influence eye color in flies.
e.
 Other female-specific factors influence eye color in flies.
 79.
Which of the following statements is (are) true?
a.
 The closer two genes are on a chromosome, the higher the probability that a crossover will occur between them.
b.
 The observed frequency of recombination of two genes that are far apart from each other has a maximum value of 50%.
c.
 Two of the traits that Mendel studied-seed color and flower color-are linked on the same chromosome.
d.
 Only B and C are correct.
e.
 A, B, and C are correct.
 80.
How would one explain a testcross involving F1 dihybrid flies in which more parental-type offspring than recombinant-type offspring are produced?
a.
 The two genes are linked.
b.
 The two genes are unlinked.
c.
 Recombination did not occur in the cell during meiosis.
d.
 The testcross was improperly performed.
e.
 Both of the characters are controlled by more than one gene.
 81.
New combinations of linked genes are due to which of the following?
a.
 nondisjunction
b.
 crossing over
c.
 independent assortment
d.
 mixing of sperm and egg
e.
 both A and C
 82.
What does a frequency of recombination of 50% indicate?
a.
 The two genes likely are located on different chromosomes.
b.
 All of the offspring have combinations of traits that match one of the two parents.
c.
 The genes are located on sex chromosomes.
d.
 Abnormal meiosis has occurred.
e.
 Independent assortment is hindered.

The following questions refer to the data and figures below.

CROSS I. Purebred lines of wild-type fruit flies (gray body and normal wings) are mated to flies with black bodies and vestigial wings.

nar009-1.jpg

F1 offspring all have a normal phenotype.

nar009-2.jpg

CROSS II. F1 flies are crossed with flies recessive for both traits (a testcross).

Resulting Offspring Normal Percentage
Gray body; normal wings
575
25.1
Black body; vestigial wings
571
24.9
Black body; normal wings
577
25.2
Gray body; vestigial wings
568
24.8

KEY:
A. CROSS I results give evidence supporting the statement.
B. CROSS I results give evidence against the statement.
C. CROSS II results give evidence supporting the statement.
D. CROSS II results give evidence against the statement.
E. Neither CROSS I nor CROSS II results support the statement.
 83.
Vestigial wings are a recessive trait.
a.
 A
b.
 B
c.
 C
d.
 D
e.
 E
 84.
The genes for body color and wing shape are linked.
a.
 A
b.
 B
c.
 C
d.
 D
e.
 E
 85.
An F1 cross should produce flies that will fall into a Mendelian 9:3:3:1 ratio.
a.
 A
b.
 B
c.
 C
d.
 D
e.
 E
 86.
There are 25 centimorgans (map units) between the genes for body color and wing shape.
a.
 A
b.
 B
c.
 C
d.
 D
e.
 E
 87.
A 0.1% frequency of recombination is observed
a.
 only in sex chromosomes.
b.
 only on genetic maps of viral chromosomes.
c.
 on unlinked chromosomes.
d.
 in any two genes on different chromosomes.
e.
 in genes located very close to one another on the same chromosome.
 88.

The following is a map of four genes on a chromosome:

mc088-1.jpg
Between which two genes would you expect the highest frequency of recombination?

a.
 A and W
b.
 W and E
c.
 E and G
d.
 A and E
e.
 A and G
 89.
The reason that linked genes are inherited together is that
a.
 they are located on the same chromosome.
b.
 the number of genes in a cell is greater than the number of chromosomes.
c.
 chromosomes are unbreakable.
d.
 alleles are paired.
e.
 genes align that way during metaphase I.
 90.
What is the mechanism for the production of genetic recombinants?
a.
 X inactivation
b.
 methylation of cytosine
c.
 crossing over and independent assortment
d.
 nondisjunction
e.
 deletions and duplications during meiosis
 91.
There is good evidence for linkage when
a.
 two genes occur together in the same gamete.
b.
 a gene is associated with a specific phenotype.
c.
 two genes work together to control a specific characteristic.
d.
 genes do not segregate independently during meiosis.
e.
 two characteristics are caused by a single gene.

Refer to the figure below to answer the following questions.

nar010-1.jpg
 92.
In a series of mapping experiments, the recombination frequencies for four different linked genes of Drosophila were determined as shown in the figure. What is the order of these genes on a chromosome map?
a.
 rb-cn-vg-b
b.
 vg-b-rb-cn
c.
 cn-rb-b-vg
d.
 b-rb-cn-vg
e.
 vg-cn-b-rb
 93.
Which of the following two genes are closest on a genetic map of Drosophila?
a.
 b and vg
b.
 vg and cn
c.
 rb and cn
d.
 cn and b
e.
 b and rb
X, Y, and Z are three genes in Drosophila. The recombination frequencies for two of the three genes are shown below.

nar011-1.jpg
 94.
Genes X and Y could be
a.
 located on different chromosomes.
b.
 located very near to each other on the same chromosome.
c.
 located far from each other on the same chromosome.
d.
 both A and B
e.
 both A and C
 95.
If the recombination frequency for Y and Z was found to be 50%, this would mean that
a.
 genes X and Y are on the same chromosome.
b.
 genes X and Y are on different chromosomes.
c.
 genes Y and Z are on different chromosomes.
d.
 both A and C.
e.
 both B and C
 96.
Which of the following is true regarding linkage maps? They
a.
 always have a total of 100 map units.
b.
 can be used to pinpoint the precise physical position of a gene on a chromosome.
c.
 are a genetic map based on recombination frequencies.
d.
 require preparation of karyotypes.
e.
 reflect the frequency of crossing over between X and Y chromosomes.
 97.
The frequency of crossing over between any two linked genes is
a.
 higher if they are recessive.
b.
 different between males and females.
c.
 determined by their relative dominance.
d.
 the same as if they were not linked.
e.
 proportional to the distance between them.
 98.
Sturtevant provided genetic evidence for the existence of four pairs of chromosomes in Drosophila by showing that
a.
 there are four major functional classes of genes in Drosophila.
b.
 Drosophila genes cluster into four distinct groups of linked genes.
c.
 the overall number of genes in Drosophila is a multiple of four.
d.
 the entire Drosophila genome has approximately 400 map units.
e.
 Drosophila genes have, on average, four different alleles.
 99.
Map units on a linkage map cannot be relied upon to calculate physical distances on a chromosome because
a.
 the frequency of crossing over varies along the length of the chromosome.
b.
 the relationship between recombination frequency and map units is different in every individual.
c.
 physical distances between genes change during the course of the cell cycle.
d.
 the gene order on the chromosomes is slightly different in every individual.
e.
 all of the above
 100.
A map of a chromosome that includes the positions of genes relative to visible chromosomal features, such as stained bands, is called a
a.
 linkage map.
b.
 physical map.
c.
 recombination map.
d.
 cytogenetic map.
e.
 banded map.
 101.
Males are more often affected by sex-linked traits than females because
a.
 males are hemizygous for the X chromosome.
b.
 male hormones such as testosterone often exacerbate the effects of mutations on the X chromosome.
c.
 female hormones such as estrogen often compensate for the effects of mutations on the X.
d.
 X chromosomes in males generally have more mutations than X chromosomes in females.
e.
 mutations on the Y chromosome often exacerbate the effects of X-linked mutations.
 102.
SRY is
a.
 a gene present on the Y chromosome that triggers male development.
b.
 a gene present on the X chromosome that triggers female development.
c.
 an autosomal gene that is required for the expression of genes on the Y chromosome.
d.
 an autosomal gene that is required for the expression of genes on the X chromosome.
e.
 required for development, and males or females lacking the gene do not survive past early childhood.
 103.
In cats, black fur color is caused by an X-linked allele; the other allele at this locus causes orange color. The heterozygote is tortoiseshell. What kinds of offspring would you expect from the cross of a black female and an orange male?
a.
 tortoiseshell female; tortoiseshell male
b.
 black female; orange male
c.
 orange female; orange male
d.
 tortoiseshell female; black male
e.
 orange female; black male
 104.
Red-green color blindness is a sex-linked recessive trait in humans. Two people with normal color vision have a color-blind son. What are the genotypes of the parents?
a.
 XcXc and XcY
b.
 XcXc and XCY
c.
 XCXC and XcY
d.
 XCXC and XCY
e.
 XCXc and XCY
 105.
In the following list, which term is least related to the others?
a.
 Duchenne muscular dystrophy
b.
 autosome
c.
 sex-linked genes
d.
 color blindness
e.
 hemophilia
 106.
Cinnabar eyes is a sex-linked recessive characteristic in fruit flies. If a female having cinnabar eyes is crossed with a wild-type male, what percentage of the F1 males will have cinnabar eyes?
a.
 0%
b.
 25%
c.
 50%
d.
 75%
e.
 100%
 107.
Most calico cats are female because
a.
 a male inherits only one of the two X-linked genes controlling hair color.
b.
 the males die during embryonic development.
c.
 the Y chromosome has a gene blocking orange coloration.
d.
 only females can have Barr bodies.
e.
 multiple crossovers on the Y chromosome prevent orange pigment production.
 108.
A recessive allele on the X chromosome is responsible for red-green color blindness in humans. A woman with normal vision whose father is color-blind marries a color-blind male. What is the probability that a son of this couple will be color-blind?
a.
 0
b.
 1/4
c.
 1/2
d.
 3/4
e.
 1
 109.
In birds, sex is determined by a ZW chromosome scheme. Males are ZZ and females are ZW. A lethal recessive allele that causes death of the embryo is sometimes present on the Z chromosome in pigeons. What would be the sex ratio in the offspring of a cross between a male that is heterozygous for the lethal allele and a normal female?
a.
 2:1 male to female
b.
 1:2 male to female
c.
 1:1 male to female
d.
 4:3 male to female
e.
 3:1 male to female
 110.
A man who carries an X-linked allele will pass it on to
a.
 all of his daughters.
b.
 half of his daughters.
c.
 all of his sons.
d.
 half of his sons.
e.
 all of his children.

Refer to the information below to answer the following questions.

An achondroplastic male dwarf with normal vision marries a color-blind woman of normal height. The man’s father was six-feet tall, and both the woman’s parents were of average height. Achondroplastic dwarfism is autosomal dominant, and red-green color blindness is X-linked recessive.
 111.
How many of their daughters might be expected to be color-blind dwarfs?
a.
 all
b.
 none
c.
 half
d.
 one out of four
e.
 three out of four
 112.
How many of their sons would be color-blind and of normal height?
a.
 all
b.
 none
c.
 half
d.
 one out of four
e.
 three out of four
 113.
They have a daughter who is a dwarf with normal color vision. What is the probability that she is heterozygous for both genes?
a.
 0
b.
 0.25
c.
 0.50
d.
 0.75
e.
 1.00
 114.
Male calico cats could be the result of
a.
 sex-linked inheritance.
b.
 nondisjunction, leading to the male calico having two X chromosomes.
c.
 incomplete dominance of multiple alleles.
d.
 recessive alleles retaining their fundamental natures even when expressed.
e.
 a reciprocal translocation.
 115.
A Barr body is normally found in the nucleus of which kind of human cell?
a.
 unfertilized egg cells only
b.
 sperm cells only
c.
 somatic cells of a female only
d.
 somatic cells of a male only
e.
 both male and female somatic cells
 116.
Which of these syndromes afflicts mostly males?
a.
 Turner syndrome
b.
 Down syndrome
c.
 Duchenne muscular dystrophy
d.
 cri du chat syndrome
e.
 chronic myelogenous leukemia
 117.
If a human interphase nucleus of a person contains three Barr bodies, it can be assumed that the person
a.
 has hemophilia.
b.
 is a male.
c.
 has four X chromosomes.
d.
 has Turner syndrome.
e.
 has Down syndrome.
 118.
If nondisjunction occurs in meiosis II during gametogenesis, what will be the result at the completion of meiosis?
a.
 All the gametes will be diploid.
b.
 Two gametes will be n + 1, and two will be n – 1.
c.
 One gamete will be n + 1, one will be n – 1, and two will be n.
d.
 There will be three extra gametes.
e.
 Two of the four gametes will be haploid, and two will be diploid.
 119.

The figure below represents the stained nucleus from a cheek epithelial cell of an individual whose genotype would probably be

mc119-1.jpg

a.
 XX.
b.
 XY.
c.
 XYY.
d.
 XXX.
e.
 XXY.
 120.
If a pair of homologous chromosomes fails to separate during anaphase of meiosis I, what will be the chromosome number of the four resulting gametes with respect to the normal haploid number (n)?
a.
 n + 1; n + 1; n – 1; n – 1
b.
 n + 1; n – 1; n; n
c.
 n + 1; n – 1; n – 1; n – 1
d.
 n + 1; n + 1; n; n
e.
 n – 1; n – 1; n; n
 121.
A cell that has 2n + 1 chromosomes is
a.
 trisomic.
b.
 monosomic.
c.
 aneuploid.
d.
 polyploid.
e.
 both A and C
 122.
If a chromosome lacks certain genes, what has most likely occurred?
a.
 disjunction
b.
 an inversion
c.
 a deletion
d.
 a translocation
e.
 a nonduplication
 123.
One possible result of chromosomal breakage is for a fragment to join a nonhomologous chromosome. This is called a (an)
a.
 deletion.
b.
 disjunction.
c.
 inversion.
d.
 translocation.
e.
 duplication.
 124.
In the following list, which term is least related to the others?
a.
 trisomic
b.
 monosomic
c.
 aneuploid
d.
 triploid
e.
 nondisjunction
 125.
A nonreciprocal crossover causes which of the following products?
a.
 deletion
b.
 duplication
c.
 nondisjunction
d.
 A and B
e.
 B and C
 126.
One possible result of chromosomal breakage can be that a fragment reattaches to the original chromosome in a reverse orientation. This is called
a.
 disjunction.
b.
 translocation.
c.
 deletion.
d.
 inversion.
e.
 aneuploidy.
 127.
A human individual is phenotypically female, but her interphase somatic nuclei do not show the presence of Barr bodies. Which of the following statements concerning her is probably true?
a.
 She has Klinefelter syndrome.
b.
 She has an extra X chromosome.
c.
 She has Turner syndrome.
d.
 She has the normal number of sex chromosomes.
e.
 She has two Y chromosomes.
 128.

The karyotype shown below is associated with which of the following genetic disorders?

mc128-1.jpg

a.
 Turner syndrome
b.
 Down syndrome
c.
 Klinefelter syndrome
d.
 hemophilia
e.
 male-pattern baldness
 129.
In humans, male-pattern baldness is controlled by a gene that occurs in two allelic forms. Allele Hn determines nonbaldness, and allele Hb determines pattern baldness. In males, because of the presence of testosterone, allele Hb is dominant over Hn. If a man and woman both with genotype HnHb have a son, what is the chance that he will eventually be bald?
a.
 0%
b.
 25%
c.
 33%
d.
 50%
e.
 75%
 130.
Of the following human trisomies, the one that generally has the most severe impact on the health of the individual is
a.
 trisomy 21.
b.
 Klinefelter syndrome (XXY).
c.
 trisomy X.
d.
 XYY.
e.
 All of the above have equal impact.
 131.
What do all human males inherit from their mother?
a.
 mitochondrial DNA
b.
 an X chromosome
c.
 the SRY gene
d.
 A and B only
e.
 A, B, and C
 132.
Which of the following statements is true regarding genomic imprinting?
a.
 It explains cases in which the gender of the parent from whom an allele is inherited affects the expression of that allele.
b.
 It is greatest in females because of the larger maternal contribution of cytoplasm.
c.
 It may explain the transmission of Duchenne muscular dystrophy.
d.
 It involves an irreversible alteration in the DNA sequence of imprinted genes.
e.
 All of the above are correct.
 133.

The pedigree in the figure below shows the transmission of a trait in a particular family. Based on this pattern of transmission, the trait is most likely

mc133-1.jpg

a.
 mitochondrial.
b.
 autosomal recessive.
c.
 sex-linked dominant.
d.
 sex-linked recessive.
e.
 autosomal dominant.
 134.
Which of the following statements about mitochondria is false?
a.
 Because of the role of the mitochondria in producing cellular energy, mitochondrial diseases often affect the muscles and nervous system.
b.
 Because mitochondria are present in the cytoplasm, mitochondrial diseases are transmitted maternally.
c.
 Like nuclear genes, mitochondrial genes usually follow Mendelian patterns of inheritance.
d.
 Mitochondria contain circular DNA molecules that code for proteins and RNAs.
e.
 Many mitochondrial genes encode proteins that play roles in the electron transport chain and ATP synthesis.

 

AP Unit 1 – Biochemistry

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AP Unit 1     Biocehemistry

 

 

Multiple Choice
Identify the choice that best completes the statement or answers the question.
 1.
Which of the following properties or processes do we associate with living things?
a.
 evolutionary adaptations
b.
 energy processing
c.
 responding to the environment
d.
 growth and reproduction
e.
 all of the above
 2.
Which of the following sequences represents the hierarchy of biological organization from the most to the least complex level?
a.
 organelle, cell, organ system, population, community, ecosystem
b.
 ecosystem, community, organism, tissue, cell, organelle
c.
 biosphere, population, organism, cell, tissue, molecule
d.
 biosphere, community, tissue, organ system, molecule, organelle
e.
 organism, population, organ system, tissue, molecule, cell
 3.
What is a localized group of organisms that belong to the same species?
a.
 biosystem
b.
 community
c.
 population
d.
 ecosystem
e.
 organ system
 4.
A maple leaf is at which level in the hierarchy of biological organization?
a.
 tissue
b.
 cell
c.
 organelle
d.
 organ
e.
 organ system
 5.
Which of these is an example of an organelle?
a.
 chloroplast
b.
 muscle
c.
 epidermis
d.
 intestine
e.
 maple leaf
 6.
Plants convert the energy of sunlight into
a.
 the energy of motion.
b.
 carbon dioxide and water.
c.
 the potential energy of chemical bonds.
d.
 minerals.
e.
 kinetic energy.
 7.
As a result of photosynthesis, plants release ____ into the atmosphere.
a.
 methane
b.
 carbon dioxide
c.
 water
d.
 minerals
e.
 oxygen
 8.
The dynamics of any ecosystem include the following major processes:
a.
 the flow of energy from sunlight to producers
b.
 the flow of energy from sunlight to producers and then to consumers
c.
 the recycling of chemical nutrients
d.
 the flow of energy to producers and the recycling of nutrients
e.
 the flow of energy from sunlight to producers and then to consumers, and the recycling of chemical nutrients
 9.
For most ecosystems ____ is (are) the ultimate source of energy, and energy leaves the ecosystem in the form of ____.
a.
 sunlight; heat
b.
 heat; light
c.
 plants; animals
d.
 plants; heat
e.
 producers; consumers
 10.
The lowest level of biological organization that can perform all the activities required for life is the
a.
 organelle-for example, a chloroplast.
b.
 cell-for example, a skin cell.
c.
 tissue-for example, nervous tissue.
d.
 organ system-for example, the reproductive system.
e.
 organism-for example, an amoeba, dog, human, or maple tree.
 11.
Which of the following is true regarding deoxyribonucleic acid (DNA)?
a.
 Each deoxyribonucleic acid molecule is composed of two long chains of nucleotides arranged in a double helix.
b.
 Genes are composed of deoxyribonucleic acid.
c.
 DNA is composed of chemical building blocks called nucleotides.
d.
 Only A and C are correct.
e.
 A, B, and C are correct.
 12.
What are the basic “building blocks” of deoxyribonucleic acid (DNA)?
a.
 100,000 different kinds of proteins
b.
 26 different kinds of chromosomes
c.
 20 different kinds of amino acids
d.
 4 different kinds of nucleotides
e.
 3 different kinds of genomes
 13.
Which of the following types of cells utilize deoxyribonucleic acid (DNA) as their genetic material?
a.
 animal
b.
 plant
c.
 archaea
d.
 A and B only
e.
 A, B, and C
 14.
The chemical reactions within cells are regulated by organic catalysts called
a.
 feedback activators.
b.
 feedback inhibitors.
c.
 enzymes.
d.
 metabolites.
e.
 nutrients.
 15.
Once labor begins in childbirth, contractions increase in intensity and frequency until delivery. The increasing labor contractions of childbirth are an example of
a.
 a bioinformatic system.
b.
 positive feedback.
c.
 negative feedback.
d.
 feedback inhibition.
e.
 both C and D
 16.
When blood glucose level rises, the pancreas secretes insulin, and as a result blood glucose level declines. When blood glucose level is low, the pancreas secretes glucagon, and as a result blood glucose level rises. Such regulation of blood glucose level is the result of
a.
 catalytic feedback.
b.
 positive feedback.
c.
 negative feedback.
d.
 bioinformatic regulation.
e.
 both A and B
 17.
Which of the following are characteristics shared by members of both domain Bacteria and domain Archaea?
a.
 cytosol
b.
 nucleus
c.
 DNA
d.
 A and C only
e.
 A, B, and C
 18.
All eukaryotes belong to which group(s)?
a.
 domain Bacteria
b.
 domain Archaea
c.
 domain Eukarya
d.
 kingdom Protista
e.
 both C and D
 19.
Species that are in the same ____ are more closely related than species that are only in the same ____.
a.
 phylum; class
b.
 family; order
c.
 class; order
d.
 family; genus
e.
 kingdom; phylum
 20.
Which of these is reflective of the hierarchical organization of life from most to least inclusive?
a.
 kingdom, order, family, phylum, class, genus, species
b.
 phylum, class, order, kingdom, family, genus, species
c.
 kingdom, phylum, class, order, family, genus, species
d.
 genus, species, kingdom, phylum, class, order, family
e.
 class, order, kingdom, phylum, family, genus, species
 21.
About 25 of the 92 natural elements are known to be essential to life. Which four of these 25 elements make up approximately 96% of living matter?
a.
 carbon, sodium, chlorine, nitrogen
b.
 carbon, sulfur, phosphorus, hydrogen
c.
 oxygen, hydrogen, calcium, sodium
d.
 carbon, hydrogen, nitrogen, oxygen
e.
 carbon, oxygen, sulfur, calcium
 22.
Which of the following statements is false?
a.
 Atoms of the various elements differ in their number of subatomic particles.
b.
 All atoms of a particular element have the same number of protons in their nuclei.
c.
 The neutrons and protons present in the nucleus of an atom are almost identical in mass; each has a mass of about 1 dalton.
d.
 An atom is the smallest unit of an element that still retains the properties of the element.
e.
 Protons and electrons are electrically charged particles. Protons have one unit of negative charge, and electrons have one unit of positive charge.
 23.
Each element is unique and different from other elements because of the number of protons in the nuclei of its atoms. Which of the following indicates the number of protons in an atom’s nucleus?
a.
 atomic mass
b.
 atomic weight
c.
 atomic number
d.
 mass weight
e.
 mass number
 24.
The mass number of an element can be easily approximated by adding together the number of ____ in an atom of that element.
a.
 protons and neutrons
b.
 energy levels
c.
 protons and electrons
d.
 neutrons and electrons
e.
 isotopes
 25.
Calcium has an atomic number of 20 and an atomic mass of 40. Therefore, a calcium atom must have
a.
 20 protons.
b.
 40 electrons.
c.
 40 neutrons.
d.
 A and B only
e.
 A, B, and C
 26.
An atom with an atomic number of 9 and a mass number of 19 would have an atomic mass of approximately
a.
 9 daltons.
b.
 9 grams.
c.
 10 daltons.
d.
 20 grams.
e.
 19 daltons.
 27.
How do isotopes of the same element differ from each other?
a.
 number of protons
b.
 number of electrons
c.
 number of neutrons
d.
 valence electron distribution
e.
 amount of radioactivity
 28.
One difference between carbon-12 and carbon-14 is that carbon-14 has
a.
 two more protons than carbon-12.
b.
 two more electrons than carbon-12.
c.
 two more neutrons than carbon-12.
d.
 A and C only
e.
 B and C only
 29.
Electrons exist only at fixed levels of potential energy. However, if an atom absorbs sufficient energy, a possible result is that
a.
 an electron may move to an electron shell farther out from the nucleus.
b.
 an electron may move to an electron shell closer to the nucleus.
c.
 the atom may become a radioactive isotope.
d.
 the atom would become a positively charged ion, or cation.
e.
 the atom would become a negatively charged ion, or anion.

Use the figure below to answer the following questions.

nar001-1.jpg
 30.
Which drawing depicts the electron configuration of neon (Ne)?
a.
 Drawing A
b.
 Drawing B
c.
 Drawing C
d.
 Drawing D
e.
 Drawing E
 31.
Which drawing depicts the electron configuration of oxygen (O)?
a.
 Drawing A
b.
 Drawing B
c.
 Drawing C
d.
 Drawing D
e.
 Drawing E
 32.
Which drawing is of an atom with the atomic number of 6?
a.
 Drawing A
b.
 Drawing B
c.
 Drawing C
d.
 Drawing D
e.
 Drawing E
 33.
Which drawing depicts an atom that is inert or chemically unreactive?
a.
 Drawing A
b.
 Drawing B
c.
 Drawing C
d.
 Drawing D
e.
 Drawing E

Use the information extracted from the periodic table in the figure below to answer the following questions.

nar002-1.jpg
 34.
How many electrons does nitrogen have in its valence shell?
a.
 2
b.
 5
c.
 7
d.
 8
e.
 14
 35.
How many electrons does phosphorus have in its valence shell?
a.
 1
b.
 2
c.
 3
d.
 4
e.
 5
 36.
What do atoms form when they share electron pairs?
a.
 elements
b.
 ions
c.
 aggregates
d.
 isotopes
e.
 molecules
 37.
If an atom of sulfur (atomic number 16) were allowed to react with atoms of hydrogen (atomic number 1), which of the molecules below would be formed?
a.
 S-H
b.
 H-S-H
c.
 H-S-H
|
H
d.
 H
|
H-S-H
|
H
e.
 H=S=H
 38.
What is the maximum number of covalent bonds an element with atomic number 8 can make with hydrogen?
a.
 1
b.
 2
c.
 3
d.
 4
e.
 6
 39.
A molecule of carbon dioxide (CO2) is formed when one atom of carbon (atomic number 6) is covalently bonded with two atoms of oxygen (atomic number 8). What is the total number of electrons that must be shared between the carbon atom and the oxygen atoms in order to complete the outer electron shell of all three atoms?
a.
 1
b.
 2
c.
 3
d.
 4
e.
 5
 40.
When two atoms are equally electronegative, they will interact to form
a.
 equal numbers of isotopes.
b.
 ions.
c.
 polar covalent bonds.
d.
 nonpolar covalent bonds.
e.
 ionic bonds.
 41.
What results from an unequal sharing of electrons between atoms?
a.
 a nonpolar covalent bond
b.
 a polar covalent bond
c.
 an ionic bond
d.
 a hydrogen bond
e.
 a hydrophobic interaction
 42.
In a single molecule of water, the two hydrogen atoms are bonded to a single oxygen atom by
a.
 hydrogen bonds.
b.
 nonpolar covalent bonds.
c.
 polar covalent bonds.
d.
 ionic bonds.
e.
 van der Waals interactions.
 43.
What determines the cohesiveness of water molecules?
a.
 hydrophobic interactions
b.
 nonpolar covalent bonds
c.
 ionic bonds
d.
 hydrogen bonds
e.
 both A and C
 44.
What do cohesion, surface tension, and adhesion have in common with reference to water?
a.
 All increase when temperature increases.
b.
 All are produced by ionic bonding.
c.
 All are properties related to hydrogen bonding.
d.
 All have to do with nonpolar covalent bonds.
e.
 C and D only
 45.
Which of the following is possible due to the high surface tension of water?
a.
 Lakes don’t freeze solid in winter, despite low temperatures.
b.
 A water strider can walk across the surface of a small pond.
c.
 Organisms resist temperature changes, although they give off heat due to chemical reactions.
d.
 Water can act as a solvent.
e.
 The pH of water remains exactly neutral.
 46.
Water’s high specific heat is mainly a consequence of the
a.
 small size of the water molecules.
b.
 high specific heat of oxygen and hydrogen atoms.
c.
 absorption and release of heat when hydrogen bonds break and form.
d.
 fact that water is a poor heat conductor.
e.
 inability of water to dissipate heat into dry air.
 47.
Desert rabbits are adapted to the warm climate because their large ears aid in the removal of heat due to the
a.
 high surface tension of water.
b.
 high heat of vaporization of water.
c.
 high specific heat of water.
d.
 buffering capacity of water.
e.
 dissociation of water molecules.
 48.
The formation of ice during colder weather helps moderate the seasonal transition to winter. This is mainly because
a.
 the breaking of hydrogen bonds absorbs heat.
b.
 the formation of hydrogen bonds releases heat.
c.
 the formation of hydrogen bonds absorbs heat.
d.
 there is greater evaporative cooling of lakes.
e.
 ice is denser than liquid water.
 49.
Why does ice float in liquid water?
a.
 The liquid water molecules have more kinetic energy and thus support the ice.
b.
 The ionic bonds between the molecules in ice prevent the ice from sinking.
c.
 Ice always has air bubbles that keep it afloat.
d.
 Hydrogen bonds stabilize and keep the molecules of ice farther apart than the water molecules of liquid water.
e.
 The crystalline lattice of ice causes it to be denser than liquid water.
 50.
Which of the following solutions has the greatest concentration of hydrogen ions [H+]?
a.
 gastric juice at pH 2
b.
 vinegar at pH 3
c.
 tomato juice at pH 4
d.
 black coffee at pH 5
e.
 household bleach at pH 12
 51.
Which of the following solutions has the greatest concentration of hydroxide ions [OH-]?
a.
 lemon juice at pH 2
b.
 vinegar at pH 3
c.
 tomato juice at pH 4
d.
 urine at pH 6
e.
 seawater at pH 8
 52.
Organic chemistry is a science based on the study of
a.
 functional groups.
b.
 vital forces interacting with matter.
c.
 carbon compounds.
d.
 water and its interaction with other kinds of molecules.
e.
 inorganic compounds.
 53.
Which property of the carbon atom gives it compatibility with a greater number of different elements than any other type of atom?
a.
 Carbon has 6 to 8 neutrons.
b.
 Carbon has a valence of 4.
c.
 Carbon forms ionic bonds.
d.
 A and C only
e.
 A, B, and C
 54.
How many electron pairs does carbon share in order to complete its valence shell?
a.
 1
b.
 2
c.
 3
d.
 4
e.
 8
 55.
What type(s) of bond(s) does carbon have a tendency to form?
a.
 ionic
b.
 hydrogen
c.
 covalent
d.
 A and B only
e.
 A, B, and C
 56.

The two molecules shown in the following figure are best described as

mc056-1.jpg

a.
 optical isomers.
b.
 radioactive isotopes.
c.
 structural isomers.
d.
 nonradioactive isotopes.
e.
 geometric isomers.
 57.
A compound contains hydroxyl groups as its predominant functional group. Which of the following statements is true concerning this compound?
a.
 It lacks an asymmetric carbon, and it is probably a fat or lipid.
b.
 It should dissolve in water.
c.
 It should dissolve in a nonpolar solvent.
d.
 It won’t form hydrogen bonds with water.
e.
 It is hydrophobic.
 58.

What is the name of the functional group shown in the following figure?

a.
 carbonyl
b.
 ketone
c.
 aldehyde
d.
 carboxyl
e.
 hydroxyl
 59.
Which two functional groups are always found in amino acids?
a.
 ketone and aldehyde
b.
 carbonyl and carboxyl
c.
 carboxyl and amino
d.
 phosphate and sulfhydryl
e.
 hydroxyl and aldehyde

Use the figure below to answer the following questions.

nar003-1.jpg
 60.
Which is a hydroxyl functional group?
a.
 Group A
b.
 Group B
c.
 Group C
d.
 Group D
e.
 Group E
 61.
Which is an amino functional group?
a.
 Group A
b.
 Group B
c.
 Group C
d.
 Group D
e.
 Group E
 62.
Which is a carbonyl functional group?
a.
 Group A
b.
 Group B
c.
 Group C
d.
 Group D
e.
 Group E
 63.
Which is a functional group that helps stabilize proteins by forming covalent cross-links within or between protein molecules?
a.
 Group A
b.
 Group B
c.
 Group C
d.
 Group D
e.
 Group E

Use the molecules shown in the figure below to answer the following questions..

nar004-1.jpg
 64.
Which molecule contains a sulfhydryl functional group?
a.
 Molecule A
b.
 Molecule B
c.
 Molecule C
d.
 Molecule D
e.
 Molecule E
 65.
Which of the following is not one of the four major groups of macromolecules found in living organisms?
a.
 glucose
b.
 carbohydrates
c.
 lipids
d.
 proteins
e.
 nucleic acids
 66.
Polymers of polysaccharides, fats, and proteins are all synthesized from monomers by which process?
a.
 connecting monosaccharides together (condensation reactions)
b.
 the addition of water to each monomer (hydrolysis)
c.
 the removal of water (dehydration reactions)
d.
 ionic bonding of the monomers
e.
 the formation of disulfide bridges between monomers
 67.
Which of the following best summarizes the relationship between dehydration reactions and hydrolysis?
a.
 Dehydration reactions assemble polymers, and hydrolysis breaks down polymers.
b.
 Hydrolysis only occurs in the urinary system, and dehydration reactions only occur in the digestive tract.
c.
 Dehydration reactions can occur only after hydrolysis.
d.
 Hydrolysis creates monomers, and dehydration reactions break down polymers.
e.
 A and C are correct.
 68.
A molecule with the chemical formula C16H32O16 is probably a
a.
 carbohydrate.
b.
 lipid.
c.
 protein.
d.
 nucleic acid.
e.
 hydrocarbon.
 69.

If 128 molecules of the general type shown in the figure below were covalently joined together in sequence, the single molecule that would result would be a

mc069-1.jpg

a.
 polysaccharide.
b.
 polypeptide.
c.
 polyunsaturated lipid.
d.
 monosaccharide.
e.
 disaccharide.
 70.
Lactose, a sugar in milk, is composed of one glucose molecule joined by a glycosidic linkage to one galactose molecule. How is lactose classified?
a.
 as a pentose
b.
 as a hexose
c.
 as a monosaccharide
d.
 as a disaccharide
e.
 as a polysaccharide
 71.
Which of the following are polysaccharides?
a.
 glycogen
b.
 starch
c.
 chitin
d.
 A and B only
e.
 A, B, and C
 72.
Which of the following is (are) true for the class of large biological molecules known as lipids?
a.
 They are insoluble in water.
b.
 They are an important constituent of cell membranes.
c.
 They contain twice as much energy as an equivalent weight of polysaccharide.
d.
 Only A and B are correct.
e.
 A, B, and C are correct.
 73.
Saturated fatty acids
a.
 are the predominant fatty acid in corn oil.
b.
 have double bonds between carbon atoms of the fatty acids.
c.
 have a higher ratio of hydrogen to carbon than do unsaturated fatty acids.
d.
 are usually liquid at room temperature.
e.
 are usually produced by plants.
 74.

What is the molecule illustrated in the figure below?

mc074-1.jpg

a.
 a saturated fatty acid
b.
 an unsaturated fatty acid
c.
 a polyunsaturated triacylglyceride
d.
 a trans polyunsaturated triacylglyceride
e.
 a steroid similar to cholesterol
 75.

The molecule shown in the figure below is a

mc075-1.jpg

a.
 polysaccharide.
b.
 polypeptide.
c.
 saturated fatty acid.
d.
 triacylglycerol.
e.
 unsaturated fatty acid.
 76.
The 20 different amino acids found in polypeptides exhibit different chemical and physical properties because of different
a.
 carboxyl groups attached to an alpha carbon
b.
 amino groups attached to an alpha carbon
c.
 side chains (R groups).
d.
 alpha carbons.
e.
 asymmetric carbons.
 77.

The chemical reaction illustrated in the figure below results in the formation of a (an)

mc077-1.jpg

a.
 ionic bond.
b.
 peptide bond.
c.
 glycosidic linkage.
d.
 ester linkage.
e.
 phosphodiester linkage.
 78.

The figure below shows the

mc078-1.jpg

a.
 1-4 linkage of the glucose monomers of starch.
b.
 1-4 linkage of the glucose monomers of cellulose.
c.
 double helical structure of a DNA molecule.
d.
 helix secondary structure of a polypeptide.
e.
 pleated sheet secondary structure of a polypeptide.
 79.
What is the term used for a change in a protein’s three-dimensional shape or conformation due to disruption of hydrogen bonds, disulfide bridges, or ionic bonds?
a.
 hydrolysis
b.
 stabilization
c.
 destabilization
d.
 renaturation
e.
 denaturation
 80.
Which of the following best describes the flow of information in eukaryotic cells?
a.
 DNA RNA proteins
b.
 RNA proteins DNA
c.
 proteins DNA RNA
d.
 RNA DNA proteins
e.
 DNA proteins RNA

 
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