Author: Biology Junction Team

Cells and Their Functions

Use this question bank to review cell structure, organelles, membranes, transport, and signaling. It retains the original 108 question numbers so teachers can assign selected items.

How to use: Choose one answer, A–E, and record it on paper or in your own answer document. Explain your reasoning for selected questions. This version does not submit, save, or automatically grade responses.

Before starting, review cell parts and their functions and the membrane transport study guide. Teachers should choose items that match their course and review the figures before assigning them.

Learning goals: relate cellular structures to their functions; interpret diagrams and scale; distinguish passive, active, and vesicular transport; and explain how cells communicate.

Cell theory, size, and microscopy

Question 1

The smallest unit that can carry out all activities we associate with life is:

  1. atom.
  2. organelle.
  3. cell.
  4. tissue.
  5. organ.

Question 2

Which observation best illustrates cellular homeostasis?

  1. Organic molecules are present.
  2. Inorganic molecules are present.
  3. All intracellular concentrations change without regulation.
  4. The cell regulates internal conditions within a range despite external changes.
  5. The cell contains no water.

Question 3

Which of the following is not found in single celled organisms?

  1. atoms
  2. cells
  3. tissues
  4. Neither A nor B is found in single celled organisms.
  5. Neither A, nor B, nor C is found in single celled organisms.

Question 4

Evidence that all living cells have a common origin is provided by:

  1. the cell theory, which states that the cell is the basic unit of life.
  2. the fact that all new cells come from previously existing cells.
  3. the fact that cells are the building blocks of the most complex plants.
  4. basic similarities in cell structure and chemistry.
  5. the fact that cells are the smallest units that can carry out all life activities.

Question 5

Which molecule stores the hereditary sequence information used to direct protein synthesis?

  1. proteins
  2. mitochondria
  3. cell membranes
  4. DNA
  5. ribosomes

Question 6

The function of the plasma membrane is to:

  1. serve as a highly selective barrier.
  2. completely isolate the cell from the external environment.
  3. equalize the chemical composition inside and outside the cell.
  4. allow cells to accumulate materials and energy.
  5. Both A and D.

Question 7

It is advantageous for cells to be small because:

  1. a small cell size prevents a cell from weighing too much.
  2. a small cell size occupies less space in nature where space is limited.
  3. a small cell has a small volume relative to surface area, thereby increasing efficient transport.
  4. a small cell has a small surface area relative to volume, thereby facilitating ion balance.
  5. a small cell is better able to conserve energy than a larger cell.
Groups of cube-shaped cells labeled A and B, with side dimensions in micrometers.
Figure 04-01

Question 8

Which of the following statements about Figure 04-01 is true?

  1. Figure B has a greater surface area than Figure A.
  2. Figure B has a greater volume than Figure A.
  3. Figure B has a smaller volume than Figure A.
  4. Figure B has a greater surface area to volume ratio than Figure A.
  5. Figure B has a smaller surface area to volume ratio than Figure A.

Question 9

For the 100 µm cube B in Figure 04-01, what is its surface-area-to-volume ratio in µm⁻¹?

  1. 0.01.
  2. 0.06.
  3. 100.
  4. 1,000.
  5. This cannot be determined from the information provided.

Question 10

One strategy that allows larger cells to have an effective surface area to volume ratio is:

  1. having a completely spherical shape.
  2. being short and fat.
  3. having thin, finger-like projections.
  4. having a thinner plasma membrane.
  5. locomotion.

Question 11

Which statement does not describe cellular homeostasis?

  1. A cell regulates its internal pH within a suitable range.
  2. A cell regulates its internal ion concentrations.
  3. A cell adjusts water balance as conditions change.
  4. A cell uses feedback mechanisms to regulate internal conditions.
  5. A cell allows all internal conditions to vary without regulation.

Question 12

Which of the following descriptions or structures does not match the cell type?

  1. Sperm cells have flagella.
  2. Nerve cells have long, thin extensions.
  3. All epithelial cells have exactly the same shape.
  4. White blood cells can change shape.
  5. All of the above are correct.

Question 13

Which scientist first viewed living cells?

  1. Robert Hooke
  2. Matthias Schleiden
  3. Theodor Schwann
  4. Anton van Leeuwenhoek
  5. August Weismann

Question 14

The ratio of the size of the image seen with the microscope to the actual size of the object is:

  1. magnification.
  2. resolution.
  3. resolving power.
  4. centrifugation.
  5. None of the above.

Question 15

Electron microscopes have a much higher resolution than either the human eye or any light microscope because:

  1. of their higher magnification.
  2. the lenses used are of much higher quality.
  3. the electron beam has a much shorter effective wavelength than visible light.
  4. the images are viewed on screens, rather than directly using an eyepiece or ocular lens.
  5. All of the above.

Question 16

The advantage of studying cells using a phase contrast microscope is that:

  1. the magnification is greater.
  2. the resolving power is greater.
  3. it is faster.
  4. it permits us to view internal structures of live cells.
  5. it uses a beam of electrons to allow us to see the organelles enclosed by the plasma membrane.
Micrograph showing the exterior surface of a ciliated organism, with a 100 micrometer scale bar.
Micrograph for question 17

Question 17

The accompanying figure is the product of a:

  1. phase-contrast light microscope.
  2. Nomarski differential interference microscope.
  3. transmission electron microscope.
  4. scanning electron microscope.
  5. confocal fluorescence microscope.

Question 18

Which feature is especially characteristic of a conventional scanning electron microscope rather than a conventional transmission electron microscope?

  1. It routinely images living specimens.
  2. It uses visible light instead of electrons.
  3. It images internal structures by transmitting electrons through thin sections.
  4. It requires no specimen preparation.
  5. It produces detailed surface images with a three-dimensional appearance.

Question 19

Differential centrifugation is a process that:

  1. separates different components of the cell that function differently.
  2. separates components of the cell that have a different chemical makeup.
  3. analyzes the chemical components of the cell.
  4. separates cell components by differences in sedimentation rate, influenced by size and density.
  5. allows researchers to view the contents of the cells.

Cell structures and organelles

Question 20

Which structure is found in eukaryotic cells but is absent from prokaryotic cells?

  1. cell wall
  2. flagellum
  3. ribosomes
  4. Golgi apparatus
  5. DNA

Question 21

Membrane-bounded organelles facilitate faster chemical reactions because:

  1. reactants are within close proximity to each other.
  2. membranes lower the activation energy of biochemical reactions.
  3. membrane-bounded organelles act as catalysts for biochemical reactions.
  4. reactants move faster within membrane-bounded organelles.
  5. reactants are less likely to encounter each other within membrane-bounded organelles.

Question 22

A eukaryotic cell:

  1. is usually smaller than a prokaryotic cell.
  2. has its DNA concentrated in one area of the cell without a nuclear membrane.
  3. typically has a cell wall, in addition to a plasma membrane.
  4. is a bacteria-like organism.
  5. has a variety of membranous organelles.

Question 23

Which task is performed by genetic sequence information rather than being a direct function of cellular membranes?

  1. facilitating the formation of energy-yielding gradients.
  2. acting as barriers to ions.
  3. acting as important "work benches" within cells.
  4. specifying the amino-acid sequence of a protein.
  5. maintaining the identity of different cellular compartments.

Question 24

Which structure is generally absent from ordinary nonphotosynthetic cells in underground plant roots?

  1. mitochondria
  2. chloroplasts
  3. endoplasmic reticulum
  4. nucleus
  5. All of the above would be found in cells of a plant's root.

Question 25

Which organelle-function pairing is incorrect?

  1. Mitochondria: ATP production associated with cellular respiration.
  2. Ribosomes: assembly of polypeptides.
  3. Smooth endoplasmic reticulum: assembly of polypeptides from amino acids.
  4. Chloroplasts: photosynthesis in plant leaf cells.
  5. Golgi apparatus: modification and sorting of proteins.

Question 26

Which organelle is not part of the endomembrane system?

  1. smooth endoplasmic reticulum
  2. lysosome
  3. transport vesicle
  4. peroxisome
  5. Golgi apparatus

Question 27

DNA is associated with proteins, forming a complex known as:

  1. chromosomes.
  2. nucleoli.
  3. nucleus.
  4. genes.
  5. chromatin.

Question 28

In the classic experiments by Bracht and Hammerling, the nucleus of Acetabularia was removed, the cap was cut off, a nucleus of a different species was inserted, and the cap was allowed to regenerate. The new cap was then removed. After the second regeneration, the cap was observed, and the following conclusion was made:

  1. The shape of the cap was controlled by the nucleus, thus, the nucleus was the control center of the cell.
  2. The shape of the cap was under the control of the stalk, which produced a control substance.
  3. The shape of the cap was independent of both the stalk and the holdfast.
  4. The "cren" caps were defective due to some mutation in the cap. Thus, "cren" caps are independent of control from both the base and the holdfast.
  5. At the time no conclusion could be made because in the early 20th century, biologists did not know about the composition of DNA.

Question 29

Chromosomal regions within the nucleolus include genes transcribed to produce which major component of ribosomes?

  1. cellulose
  2. ribosomal RNA (rRNA)
  3. phospholipids
  4. glycogen
  5. cholesterol

Question 30

If a toxin, such as a bacterial toxin, destroys ribosomes, what cellular activity will be affected first?

  1. protein synthesis
  2. DNA synthesis
  3. movement
  4. energy storage
  5. active transport

Question 31

Proteins made on ribosomes may be further modified within the:

  1. lysosomes.
  2. nucleus.
  3. mitochondria.
  4. Golgi complex.
  5. peroxisomes.

Question 32

The smooth endoplasmic reticulum:

  1. is absent in most plant cells.
  2. synthesizes proteins.
  3. provides structural support.
  4. synthesizes lipids.
  5. is required for ribosome synthesis.
Membrane network with an arrow pointing to surface particles and a boxed region.
Figure 04-02

Question 33

The cellular structure indicated by the arrow in Figure 04-02 is responsible for:

  1. lipid and fatty acid metabolism.
  2. protein synthesis.
  3. digestion of unused organelles.
  4. replication.
  5. None of the above.

Question 34

Which of the following statements about the structure surrounded by the box in Figure 04-02 is true?

  1. This structure is only found in plant cells.
  2. This structure is characteristic of both prokaryotic and eukaryotic cells.
  3. This structure plays a central role in the process of transcription.
  4. This structure typically represents a significant portion of the overall cell volume.
  5. This structure represents the main storage area for the cell.

Question 35

Which of the following pairs is correctly matched?

  1. chloroplast – storage of enzymes
  2. lysosome – powerhouse of the cell
  3. nucleolus – site of ribosomal subunit synthesis
  4. plastids – structural support of the cell
  5. Golgi complex – production of energy

Question 36

Which of the following organelles plays an important role in apoptosis, or programmed cell death?

  1. ribosomes
  2. mitochondria
  3. chloroplasts
  4. vacuoles
  5. peroxisomes

Question 37

One function of peroxisomes involves the process of:

  1. cell death.
  2. water storage.
  3. protein synthesis.
  4. DNA replication.
  5. detoxification.

Question 38

During an infection, white blood cells travel to the infected site and phagocytize the pathogens. After phagocytosis, primary lysosomes fuse with the phagocytic vesicle to form a larger vesicle called a secondary lysosome. The reason for this is:

  1. to introduce antibodies to the phagocytic vesicles.
  2. to wrap the pathogen in additional membrane, rendering them harmless.
  3. to coat the bacteria in lipids derived from the Golgi complex, which cover and smother them.
  4. to mix the pathogens with strong hydrolytic enzymes and destroy them.
  5. to prepare the bacteria for export from the body.

Question 39

All of the following functions are performed by plant vacuoles except:

  1. maintaining hydrostatic (turgor) pressure.
  2. waste storage and recycling.
  3. storage of proteins.
  4. breakdown of unneeded cellular materials.
  5. storage of nucleic acids.

Question 40

The theory that chloroplasts and mitochondria had their evolutionary beginnings in eukaryotic cells as endosymbionts is supported by all of the following except:

  1. chloroplasts and mitochondria are completely autonomous within eukaryotic cells.
  2. chloroplasts and mitochondria have DNA.
  3. chloroplasts and mitochondria have small ribosomes for protein synthesis.
  4. chloroplasts and mitochondria are approximately the same size as prokaryotic cells.
  5. chloroplasts and mitochondria contain genetic material with features related to bacterial genetic material.

Question 41

A cellular structure found in plant but not animal cells is the:

  1. chloroplast.
  2. ribosome.
  3. endoplasmic reticulum.
  4. microtubule.
  5. microfilament.
Cutaway chloroplast diagram with labeled structures A through E.
Figure 04-03

Question 42

Refer to Figure 04-03. The formation of ATP occurs in the portion of the chloroplast labeled:

  1. structure A.
  2. structure B.
  3. structure C.
  4. structure D.
  5. structure E.

Question 43

The formation of carbohydrates from carbon dioxide and water occurs in the portion of the chloroplast in Figure 04-03 labeled:

  1. structure A.
  2. structure B.
  3. structure C.
  4. structure D.
  5. structure E.

Question 44

Which of the following is a key component of the cytoskeleton?

  1. membranes
  2. microtubules
  3. DNA
  4. ribosomes
  5. None of the above.

Question 45

The force necessary to cause microtubules of cilia and flagella to slide alongside one another is provided through the action of _________ proteins, which derive the energy to perform their work directly from ______ molecules.

  1. kinesin; ADP
  2. kinesin; glucose
  3. tubulin; ATP
  4. dynein; ATP
  5. dynein; ADP
Cross-sections of cylindrical cellular structures with a 0.5 micrometer scale bar.
Micrograph for question 46

Question 46

The structures in the micrograph could be:

  1. chloroplasts.
  2. cilia.
  3. RER.
  4. flagella.
  5. B and D
Cutaway organelle diagram with arrows pointing to folds of the inner membrane.
Figure 04-04

Question 47

The organelle featured in Figure 04-04:

  1. is present in a few prokaryotes.
  2. is the major site of protein synthesis in the cell.
  3. plays a vital role in packaging materials to be secreted.
  4. plays a central role in energy metabolism.
  5. is located in the nucleus.

Question 48

The structures indicated by the arrows in Figure 04-04 are:

  1. thylakoid lamellae.
  2. grana.
  3. cristae.
  4. matrices.
  5. plastids.

Question 49

The main process that occurs at the site of the structures marked by arrows in Figure 04-04 is:

  1. protein synthesis.
  2. photosynthesis.
  3. conversion of food molecules to ATP.
  4. processing and packaging of proteins.
  5. transcription.

Question 50

A single cell in a smoker's lung has become cancerous. It doubles its DNA and divides much faster than a normal lung cell. The most likely change that would have caused this condition took place in the:

  1. nucleus.
  2. nucleolus.
  3. microtubule.
  4. mitochondria.
  5. lysosome.

Question 51

Cells have internal structures called organelles. Which is not a function of organelles?

  1. Store genetic information.
  2. Convert energy to more usable forms.
  3. Synthesize polymers.
  4. Manufacture membranes.
  5. All of the above are organelle functions.

Question 52

Which of the following is not a cell covering or part of a cell covering?

  1. glycocalyx
  2. extracellular matrix
  3. cristae
  4. cell wall
  5. integrins

Question 53

The principle cell adhesion molecules in vertebrates and in many invertebrates are cadherins. These are important in:

  1. preventing the invasiveness of some malignant tumors.
  2. calcium-dependent adhesion between cells that form multicellular sheets.
  3. embryonic development.
  4. cell adhesion in vertebrates and in many invertebrates.
  5. All of the above.

Membranes and transport proteins

Question 54

All of the following are functions of the cell membrane except:

  1. transmitting signals.
  2. participating in energy transfer.
  3. being freely permeable.
  4. regulating the passage of materials.
  5. participating in chemical reactions.

Question 55

Which of the following structures is composed of two layers of phospholipids associated with proteins integrated within or attached to these layers?

  1. cell wall
  2. plasma membrane
  3. microfilaments
  4. flagellum
  5. ribosomes

Question 56

Phospholipids can form bilayer structures because of their:

  1. rectangular shapes.
  2. amphipathic nature.
  3. ability to dissolve well in water.
  4. inability to associate with other phospholipids.
  5. lack of fatty acids.

Question 57

Phospholipids can form bilayers because the molecules:

  1. have two distinct regions, one strongly hydrophobic and the other strongly hydrophilic.
  2. are amphipathic molecules.
  3. have cylindrical shapes that allow them to associate with water most easily as a bilayer structure.
  4. Both A and B.
  5. A, B, and C.

Question 58

A key discovery that weakened the Davson-Danielli "sandwich" model of cell membranes was that:

  1. membrane proteins form a solid sheet on either side of the phospholipid bilayer.
  2. membrane proteins form a solid sheet separating the phospholipid layer.
  3. the phospholipids do not associate with each other in the hydrophobic region of membranes.
  4. membrane proteins were not uniform and did not form flattened sheets.
  5. membrane proteins occurred in regular organized patterns on the surface of membranes.

Question 59

Proposed the fluid mosaic model of cell membrane structure in 1972:

  1. S. Jonathan Singer.
  2. Garth Nicolson.
  3. Hugh Davson.
  4. Both A and B.
  5. A, B, and C.

Question 60

Which is a typical lipid component of an animal cell plasma membrane?

  1. DNA
  2. glucose
  3. cholesterol
  4. water
  5. All of the above.

Question 61

Cholesterol within membranes functions as a(an) ____________ through its interactions with both hydrophobic and hydrophilic parts of phospholipids.

  1. water blocker
  2. pH buffer
  3. energy source
  4. temperature controller
  5. fluidity buffer

Question 62

In a lipid bilayer, ___________ fatty acid tails face each other within the bilayer and form a region that excludes water.

  1. hypertonic
  2. hyperosmotic
  3. hypotonic
  4. hydrophilic
  5. hydrophobic

Question 63

Which of the following functions best explains the reason for the asymmetrically oriented structure of the proteins in the cell membrane?

  1. These proteins are manufactured by free ribosomes.
  2. Each type of protein has its own function.
  3. These proteins pass through the ER membrane into the ER lumen.
  4. Enzymes are needed to modify the carbohydrate chains on these proteins.
  5. These proteins are initially formed by ribosomes on the rough ER.

Question 64

Which of the following is not a function associated with membrane proteins?

  1. Recognition of surface antigens of bacterial cells.
  2. Forming junctions between adjacent cells.
  3. Identify the cell as belonging to a particular individual.
  4. Serve as anchoring points for networks of cytoskeletal elements.
  5. All of the above are functions associated with membrane proteins.

Question 65

Which statement best describes the function of aquaporins?

  1. They pump water against its gradient using ATP directly.
  2. They form channels that facilitate passive water movement across a membrane.
  3. They synthesize phospholipids.
  4. They digest proteins inside lysosomes.
  5. They carry DNA into the nucleus.

Question 66

Catalysts are reusable. Enzymes are protein catalysts, and are reusable. Select the protein(s) below that is (are) not used up by the process carried out:

  1. Sodium-potassium pump carrier proteins
  2. Aquaporins
  3. Proteins involved in facilitated diffusion
  4. Both A and B.
  5. A, B, and C.

Question 67

Integral proteins:

  1. are weakly bound to the surface of the membrane.
  2. are strongly bound to the cytosolic surface of the membrane.
  3. have no hydrophobic portions.
  4. are completely embedded within the lipid bilayer.
  5. are amphipathic.

Question 68

What is meant by the term "fluid mosaic model"?

  1. It is the diffusion of lipid-soluble substances through the lipid bilayer.
  2. It is the movement of lipids and integral proteins within the lipid bilayer.
  3. It is the solubility of water in the membrane.
  4. It is the method of substance transport across the membrane.
  5. It is the movement of surface proteins through the membrane.

Question 69

A transmembrane protein differs from other membrane proteins because it:

  1. is covalently linked to the outer surface of the plasma membrane.
  2. is a glycoprotein with carbohydrates attached.
  3. is attached to the inside of the membrane by an ionic bond .
  4. completely extends through the membrane.
  5. is completely embedded within the membrane.

Question 70

Peripheral proteins are linked to either surface of the plasma membrane by:

  1. covalent disulfide bonds.
  2. associating with fatty acids through hydrophobic interactions.
  3. embedding in one side of the membrane and, thus, not extending through to the other side.
  4. associating with glycoproteins on the inner membrane surface.
  5. bonding to integral proteins through weak linkages.

Question 71

Which of the following statements explaining the differences in number and types of peripheral proteins found on the inner and outer surfaces of cell membranes is correct?

  1. The functions of the membrane differ on the inside and outside of the cell.
  2. Not all proteins can pass through the membrane and, thus, more accumulate on the inside.
  3. Proteins on the outside of the membrane are synthesized at a slower rate than proteins on the inside of the membrane.
  4. Proteins on the outside of membrane are made extracellularly and are unable to penetrate the phospholipid bilayer and enter the cell.
  5. The external peripheral proteins are weakly attached to the membrane and are readily washed away.

Question 72

Proteins that are destined to become associated with the inner surface of the plasma membrane are:

  1. manufactured in the same way as protein hormones.
  2. manufactured in the same way as proteins destined to become external peripheral proteins.
  3. made on free ribosomes in the cytoplasm.
  4. made on ribosomes located on the rough endoplasmic reticulum.
  5. transported to the plasma membrane within a secretory vesicle.

Diffusion, osmosis, and transport

Question 73

Biological membranes are normally permeable to:

  1. large, hydrophilic molecules.
  2. small, hydrophilic molecules.
  3. large, hydrophobic molecules.
  4. small, hydrophobic molecules.
  5. None of the above.

Question 74

A bottle of perfume is opened on the opposite side of the room and within minutes you begin to smell the perfume. This phenomenon is a classic example of:

  1. dialysis.
  2. osmosis.
  3. active transport.
  4. facilitated diffusion.
  5. diffusion.

Question 75

Which of the following molecules is least likely to cross a cellular membrane by simple diffusion?

  1. carbon dioxide
  2. nitrogen
  3. oxygen
  4. potassium ion
  5. water

Question 76

The passive movement of a substance along its concentration gradient is termed:

  1. active transport.
  2. dialysis.
  3. diffusion.
  4. exocytosis.
  5. osmosis.

Question 77

Which type of molecule generally passes most readily through the hydrophobic core of a phospholipid bilayer without a transport protein?

  1. small polar molecules
  2. small nonpolar molecules
  3. large polar molecules
  4. large nonpolar molecules
  5. water

Question 78

The difference between dialysis and osmosis is that:

  1. in osmosis, the solute moves through a selectively permeable membrane.
  2. in dialysis, the solvent moves through a selectively permeable membrane.
  3. in osmosis, the solute moves from a region of high concentration to a region of low concentration.
  4. in dialysis, the solute moves from a region of high concentration to a region of low concentration.
  5. in dialysis, the solvent moves from a region of high concentration to a region of low concentration through a selectively permeable membrane.

Question 79

If the concentration of solutes in a cell is less than the concentration of solutes in the surrounding fluid, then the extracellular fluid is said to be:

  1. hypertonic.
  2. hypotonic.
  3. isotonic.
  4. stable.
  5. amphipathic.

Question 80

The higher the concentration of solute in a solution, the _________ the effective water concentration and the ________ the osmotic pressure.

  1. lower; lower
  2. lower; higher
  3. higher; higher
  4. higher; lower
  5. Answer cannot be determined from the information provided.
Red blood cells in beakers and micrographs labeled samples A and B.
Figure 05-01

Question 81

Which of the following statements about the red blood cells in Figure 05-01 Sample B is true?

  1. These red blood cells have been placed in an isotonic solution.
  2. These red blood cells have swollen in response to a hypertonic external solution.
  3. These red blood cells have swollen in response to a hypotonic external solution.
  4. These red blood cells have shrunken in response to a hypertonic external solution.
  5. These red blood cells have shrunken in response to a hypotonic external solution.

Question 82

Which of the following statements about the red blood cells in Figure 05-01 Sample A is true?

  1. There has been no net water movement.
  2. There has been a net flow of water out of the cell.
  3. There has been a net flow of water into the cell.
  4. Pinocytosis has occurred.
  5. Plasmolysis has occurred.

Question 83

A patient who has had a severe hemorrhage accidentally receives a large transfusion of distilled water directly into a major blood vessel. You would expect this mistake to:

  1. have no unfavorable effect as long as the water is free of bacteria.
  2. have serious, perhaps fatal consequences because there would be too much fluid to pump.
  3. have serious, perhaps fatal consequences because the red blood cells could shrink.
  4. have serious, perhaps fatal consequences because the red blood cells could swell and burst.
  5. have no serious effect because the kidney could quickly eliminate excess water.

Question 84

A plant cell placed in a hypertonic solution will:

  1. remain unchanged.
  2. undergo lysis.
  3. undergo plasmolysis.
  4. swell slightly.
  5. become crenated.

Question 85

Penicillin is toxic to certain dividing bacterial cells because it prevents cell wall formation, causing the cells to burst. This indicates that the bacteria live in:

  1. a hypotonic medium.
  2. a hypertonic medium.
  3. an isotonic medium.
  4. a medium with higher osmotic pressure than the cell.
  5. Both B and D.

Question 86

A wilted flower placed in a vase of water for several hours became stiff and stood erect. When it was placed in a salt solution, it wilted. From this information we can say that the cells of the flower are:

  1. hypotonic to both fresh water and the salt solution.
  2. hypertonic to both the fresh water and the salt solution.
  3. hypertonic to fresh water but hypotonic to the salt solution.
  4. hypotonic to fresh water but hypertonic to the salt solution.
  5. isotonic to fresh water but hypotonic to the salt solution.

Question 87

Which of the following membrane activities does not require the expenditure of energy by the cell?

  1. active transport
  2. osmosis
  3. endocytosis
  4. exocytosis
  5. synthesis of more membrane

Question 88

Facilitated diffusion:

  1. requires a transmembrane protein.
  2. requires ATP.
  3. can move molecules against a concentration gradient.
  4. is typically used to transport small nonpolar molecules.
  5. All of the above.

Question 89

A bacterium accumulates sodium ions uphill against their electrochemical gradient. Which mechanism can drive this accumulation?

  1. active transport.
  2. endocytosis.
  3. diffusion.
  4. facilitated diffusion.
  5. osmosis.

Question 90

The energy-requiring movement of materials against a concentration gradient is termed:

  1. active transport.
  2. dialysis.
  3. facilitated diffusion.
  4. osmosis.
  5. plasmolysis.

Question 91

Which immediate conversion helps maintain a low concentration of free glucose inside a cell after glucose enters?

  1. conversion of glucose directly into protein
  2. excretion of glucose into the surrounding fluid
  3. phosphorylation of glucose to glucose-6-phosphate
  4. active pumping of all glucose out of the cell
  5. engulfment of glucose by pinocytosis

Question 92

Which of the following statements about the sodium-potassium pump is true?

  1. It transports hydrogen ions out of the cell.
  2. It transports 3 sodium ions out of the cell in exchange for 2 potassium ions.
  3. It transports 2 sodium ions out of the cell in exchange for 2 potassium ions.
  4. It transports 2 sodium ions out of the cell in exchange for 3 potassium ions.
  5. It transports water directly out of the cell.

Question 93

A person has a genetic disease that prevents the phospholipids in the plasma membrane of the white blood cells from freely fusing with the other membranes within the cell. How would this disease affect phagocytosis?

  1. Lysosomes would not be formed.
  2. Facilitated diffusion would not occur.
  3. Lysosomes would be formed lacking hydrolytic enzymes.
  4. The phagocytic vacuole would not fuse with the lysosome.
  5. Endocytosis would not occur.

Question 94

Which of the following are forms of carrier-mediated transport?

  1. Facilitated diffusion.
  2. Carrier-mediated active transport.
  3. Osmosis.
  4. Both A and B.
  5. A, B, and C.

Question 95

Which statement describes facilitated diffusion itself?

  1. A substance moves downhill through a channel or carrier without direct ATP use by that transport step.
  2. A substance is pumped uphill against its electrochemical gradient.
  3. ATP must bind and be hydrolyzed in every transport cycle.
  4. Transport requires a membrane vesicle.
  5. Only small nonpolar molecules can be transported.

Vesicles, junctions, and cell signaling

Question 96

Pinocytosis:

  1. is engulfment of large particles by the cell.
  2. occurs in protozoans and algae but not in more complex organisms.
  3. involves the specific binding of molecules to receptors on the cell surface.
  4. is the nonspecific uptake of fluids by an invagination of the cell membrane.
  5. is movement of molecules against the concentration gradient through a permeable membrane.

Question 97

Receptor-mediated endocytosis:

  1. is a passive process.
  2. involves only membrane transport proteins.
  3. brings about the selective uptake of materials by enclosing them in membranous vesicles.
  4. does not require energy.
  5. is most likely to be found in cells that release large amounts of hormones.

Question 98

A human white blood cell engulfs a bacterial cell by:

  1. carrier-mediated facilitated diffusion.
  2. exocytosis.
  3. phagocytosis.
  4. pinocytosis.
  5. the sodium-potassium pump.

Question 99

Which event occurs before a coated vesicle forms during receptor-mediated endocytosis?

  1. The incoming cargo is digested in a lysosome.
  2. A ligand binds to a receptor at the cell surface.
  3. The vesicle releases its cargo outside the cell by exocytosis.
  4. The newly internalized receptor is recycled to the surface.
  5. The ligand separates from its receptor inside an endosome.

Question 100

In cells that are constantly involved in secretion, an equivalent amount of membrane must be returned to the interior of the cell for each vesicle that fuses with the plasma membrane; if this does not occur, then what would happen?

  1. The ratio of cell surface would decrease, compared to cell volume.
  2. The cell surface would shrivel.
  3. The surface area would remain constant.
  4. The number of membrane receptor proteins would decrease.
  5. The cell surface will keep expanding.
Three numbered stages showing a vesicle approaching and merging with a plasma membrane.
Figure 05-02

Question 101

The process illustrated in Figure 05-02 is called:

  1. facilitated diffusion.
  2. pinocytosis.
  3. cotransport.
  4. lysis.
  5. exocytosis.

Question 102

The process illustrated in Figure 05-02 would most likely be used to transport:

  1. glucose.
  2. hormones.
  3. potassium ions.
  4. carbon dioxide.
  5. bacteria.

Question 103

One difference between tight junctions and desmosomes is that tight junctions:

  1. form continuous seals that restrict movement between neighboring epithelial cells.
  2. occur only in plants.
  3. involve connective microfilaments that traverse the space between adjacent cells.
  4. are anchored by microfilaments on the insides of the cell membranes of adjacent cells.
  5. contain a 24 nm space between two adjacent membranes.

Question 104

Plasmodesmata of plant cells are functionally equivalent to ____________ of animal cells.

  1. gap junctions
  2. desmosomes
  3. tight junctions
  4. cell surface receptors
  5. microvilli
Adjacent cell membranes connected by channel-like complexes.
Diagram for question 105

Question 105

The structures in this figure:

  1. provide anchorage points between adjacent cells.
  2. allow the transport of small molecules and ions between adjacent cells.
  3. allow passage of materials through intercellular spaces.
  4. prevent the passage of materials through intercellular spaces.
  5. can only be found in plants.

Question 106

Which of the following is not part of the process of cell signaling?

  1. Synthesis and release of signaling molecules.
  2. Facilitated transport.
  3. Transport to target cells.
  4. Response by the cell.
  5. Termination of signaling.

Question 107

The process in which cells convert and amplify an extracellular signal into an intracellular signal:

  1. Synthesis and release of signaling molecules.
  2. Transport to target cells.
  3. Signal transduction.
  4. Response by the cell.
  5. Termination of signaling.

Question 108

In a signaling pathway, the second messenger is often:

  1. GTP.
  2. GDP.
  3. cyclic AMP.
  4. cyclic ADP.
  5. ATP.

Teacher notes and sources

This is a classroom question bank, not a timed online test. No complete answer key is supplied. Use a separate answer sheet and discuss the evidence for each selected response. Small, inherited image labels may be easier to read at full size. Retain existing figure credits and check permissions before redistributing the figures.

For the membrane-protein terminology in question 69, see the existing ionic bond resource.

Return to Cells and Transport Teaching Resources.

Chapter 2 Study Guide

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Multiple Choice
Identify the choice that best completes the statement or answers the question.
 1.
Atoms are composed of
a.
 protons with a positive charge.
b.
 neutrons with no charge.
c.
 electrons with a negative charge.
d.
 All of the above
 2.
The smallest particle of carbon that can retain the chemical properties of carbon is
a.
 a carbon molecule.
b.
 a carbon macromolecule.
c.
 a carbon atom.
d.
 the nucleus of a carbon atom.
 3.
A substance that is composed of only one type of atom is called a(n)
a.
 nucleus.
c.
 element.
b.
 cell.
d.
 molecule.
 4.
All matter in the universe is composed of
a.
 cells.
c.
 atoms.
b.
 molecules.
d.
 carbon.
 5.
The electrons of an atom
a.
 are found in the nucleus along with the protons.
b.
 orbit the nucleus in various energy levels.
c.
 have a positive charge.
d.
 are attracted to the positive charge of neutrons.
 6.
Atoms that have gained energy
a.
 have protons and neutrons that move farther apart.
b.
 lose neutrons from the nucleus.
c.
 have electrons that move to higher energy levels.
d.
 absorb electrons into the nucleus.
 7.
Which of the following states of matter contain(s) particles that are tightly linked together in a definite shape?
a.
 solid
c.
 gas
b.
 liquid
d.
 solid and liquid
 8.
Because carbon has four electrons in its outer energy level,
a.
 it can form bonds with carbon atoms only.
b.
 these atoms are naturally chemically stable.
c.
 it can react with up to four other atoms to form covalent bonds.
d.
 it cannot react with anything other than organic molecules.
 9.
The bond formed when two atoms share a pair of electrons is called a
a.
 hydrogen bond.
c.
 covalent bond.
b.
 nonpolar bond.
d.
 water bond.
 10.
Sharing of electrons between atoms of two or more elements
a.
 results in the formation of an ion.
b.
 results in the formation of a compound.
c.
 results in the formation of noble gases.
d.
 results in destabilization of the atoms involved.
 11.
An atom that has gained or lost electrons is called a(n)
a.
 molecule.
c.
 ion.
b.
 nucleon.
d.
 element.
 12.
Which of the following statements most accurately describes the difference between an ionic bond and a covalent bond?
a.
 Atoms held together by ionic bonds separate when placed in water, while atoms held together by covalent bonds do not separate in water.
b.
 Ionic bonds hold together atoms of two different types, while covalent bonds hold together atoms of the same type.
c.
 Electrons are exchanged between atoms held together by an ionic bond, but they are shared between atoms held together by a covalent bond.
d.
 Ionic bonds form between atoms that carry opposite charges, while covalent bonds form between uncharged atoms.
nar001-1.jpg
 13.
Refer to the graph above. Reaction 1 in the graph
a.
 is an energy-storing reaction.
b.
 requires a greater activation energy than reaction 2.
c.
 may use the same initial reactant condition needed to form product Y.
d.
 All of the above
 14.
Refer to the graph above. Reaction 3 in the graph
a.
 probably occurred in the presence of a catalyst.
b.
 requires a greater activation energy than reaction 2.
c.
 is the same as reaction 1, but faster.
d.
 takes longer than reaction 2.
 15.
Refer to the graph above. Which of these statements regarding the graph is true?
a.
 Reaction 2 occurs faster than reaction 3 because reaction 2 requires more energy than reaction 3.
b.
 The difference in the graphs shown for reaction 2 and reaction 3 is due to a difference in the activation energy needed for these reactions.
c.
 Reactant X contains more energy at the beginning of the reaction than product Z has after the reaction.
d.
 All of the above
 16.
Changing the course or pathway of a chemical reaction so that it requires less activation energy
a.
 is a violation of the laws of nature.
b.
 requires higher temperatures than those found within cells.
c.
 occurs only when reactants are quickly added to the reaction mixture.
d.
 is accomplished by the action of catalysts on reactants.
 17.
Enzymes
a.
 are able to heat up molecules so that they can react.
b.
 provide CO2 for chemical reactions.
c.
 are biological catalysts.
d.
 absorb excess heat so that reactions occur at low temperatures.
 18.
A single organism may contain
a.
 thousands of different enzymes, each one specific to a different chemical reaction.
b.
 one enzyme that plays a role in thousands of different chemical reactions.
c.
 approximately 100 kinds of enzymes, each one specific to a different chemical reaction.
d.
 one enzyme that is specific to photosynthesis and one enzyme that is specific to cellular respiration.
 19.
When a molecule gains an electron, it has been
a.
 oxidized.
c.
 digested.
b.
 reduced.
d.
 inactivated.
 20.
Oxidation-reduction reactions are important in organisms because they
a.
 allow the passage of energy from molecule to molecule.
b.
 prevent nuclear reactions from occurring.
c.
 allow the creation and destruction of energy.
d.
 None of the above; oxidation-reduction reactions do not occur in living organisms.
 21.
The concentration of a solution is
a.
 the number of particles of a substance in a solvent.
b.
 the amount of a solvent that is dissolved in a fixed amount of a solution.
c.
 the amount of a solute that is dissolved in a fixed amount of a solution.
d.
 the ratio of solute to solvent in a solution.
 22.
A neutral solution has an equal number of
a.
 hydrogen and hydronium ions.
b.
 hydroxide and hydronium ions.
c.
 hydrogen and hydroxide ions.
d.
 oxygen and hydrogen ions.
 23.
The terms base and alkaline refer to solutions that
a.
 contain dissolved sodium hydroxide.
b.
 contain more hydronium ions than hydroxide ions.
c.
 contain more hydroxide ions than hydronium ions.
d.
 contain more hydroxide ions than hydrogen ions.
 24.
A solution with a pH of 11 is
a.
 acidic.
c.
 neutral.
b.
 alkaline.
d.
 a buffer.
 25.
Acidic solutions have a pH that is
a.
 less than 7.
c.
 a negative number.
b.
 between 0 and 14.
d.
 more than 7.
 26.
Buffers
a.
 are of relatively little importance in living things.
b.
 are formed when a large number of hydroxide ions are released in a solution.
c.
 are formed when a large number of hydronium ions are released in a solution.
d.
 tend to prevent great fluctuations in pH.
 27.
Atoms become more stable when they form compounds because
a.
 they always lose electrons when they form compounds.
b.
 their outer orbitals become filled when they form compounds.
c.
 they always gain electrons when they form compounds.
d.
 their nucleus loses extra protons when they form compounds.
 28.
A water molecule is polar because its hydrogen and oxygen atoms
a.
 both lose electrons.
b.
 become ions.
c.
 both gain electrons.
d.
 do not share the electrons equally.
 29.
Polar molecules such as water have
a.
 no negative or positive poles.
b.
 both negative and positive poles.
c.
 only a negative pole.
d.
 only a positive pole.
 30.
A molecule that has a partial positive charge on one side and a partial negative charge on the other side is called a
a.
 nonpolar molecule.
c.
 charged molecule.
b.
 polar molecule.
d.
 bipolar molecule.
 31.
Water is a polar molecule because
a.
 it contains two hydrogen atoms for each oxygen atom.
b.
 it has a charge.
c.
 different parts of the molecule have slightly different charges.
d.
 it does not have a charge.
 32.
Water molecules break up other polar substances
a.
 such as salts.
b.
 because of the uneven charge distribution that exists in water molecules.
c.
 thus freeing ions in these substances for use by the body.
d.
 All of the above
 33.
Which of the following characteristics of water is not a result of hydrogen bonding?
a.
 adhesive strength
b.
 capillarity
c.
 cohesive strength
d.
 All of the above are a result of hydrogen bonding.
 

Completion
Complete each statement.
 34.
Substances that are changed when they become involved in chemical reactions are called ____________________, while the new substances that are formed are called ____________________.
 35.
The energy needed to break existing chemical bonds during the initiation of a chemical reaction is called ____________________.
 36.
Chemical reactions in the body can be speeded up by adding a(n) ____________________, which lowers the amount of activation energy required to start the reaction.
 37.
The loss of electrons from a molecule is called ____________________, while the gain of electrons by a molecule is called ____________________.
 38.
A substance that dissolves in another is called a(n) ____________________.
 39.
____________________ is the most common solvent in cells.
 40.
____________________ and ____________________ ions form when water dissociates.
 41.
An acidic solution is one that has more ____________________ than ____________________ ions.
 42.
A solution with a pH of 3 has ____________________ times more hydronium ions than a solution with a pH of 6.
 43.
Buffers are important because body fluids must be maintained within a relatively narrow range of ____________________.
 44.
Water is very effective at dissolving other polar substances because of its ____________________.
 45.
Breaking of ____________________ bonds is the first thing that happens when water is heated, which means that it takes a great deal of thermal energy to raise the temperature of water.
 

Problem
 46.

pr046-1.jpg

Refer to the illustration above. The graph depicts the relative energy levels of the products and reactants for the following chemical reaction: A + B C + D. Write your answers to the following in the spaces below.

a.      Which substances, A, B, C, and/or D, are present at point 1 on the graph?
b.      Which substances, A, B, C, and/or D, are present at point 3 on the graph?
c.      Why is point 2 at a higher energy level than point 1?
d.      Why is point 3 at a lower energy level than point 1?
e.      Draw a dashed line on the graph indicating how the energy level of this reaction over time would be different if the enzyme that catalyzes the reaction were not present.
 

Essay
 47.
Plant growers often use sprinkler irrigation to protect crops they are growing from frost damage. The water that lands on the leaves turns to ice. How does this protect the plants from frost damage? Write your answer in the space below.
 48.
Define enzyme, and describe how an enzyme can function in speeding up a chemical reaction within a cell. Write your answer in the space below.
 49.
How does water’s polar nature affect its ability to dissolve different substances? Write your answer in the space below.
 50.
Explain the relationship between hydrogen bonding and the observation that a full sealed bottle of water breaks when it freezes. Write your answer in the space below.

 
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Chapter 5 Homeostasis and Transport RETEST

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Multiple Choice
Identify the choice that best completes the statement or answers the question.
 1.
As a result of diffusion, the concentration of many types of substances
a.
 always remains greater inside a membrane.
b.
 eventually becomes balanced on both sides of a membrane.
c.
 always remains greater on the outside of a membrane.
d.
 becomes imbalanced on both sides of a membrane.
 2.
Diffusion takes place
a.
 only through a lipid bilayer membrane.
b.
 from an area of low concentration to an area of high concentration.
c.
 only in liquids.
d.
 from an area of high concentration to an area of low concentration.
            Concentration of Water and Solutes in Four Adjacent Cells

nar001-1.jpg
 3.
Refer to the illustration above. Which cell is most likely to lose both water molecules and solute molecules as the system approaches equilibrium?
a.
 cell “A”
c.
 cell “C”
b.
 cell “B”
d.
 cell “D”
 4.
Refer to the illustration above. In this system, solute molecules in cell “B” are most likely to
a.
 remain in cell “B.”
c.
 diffuse into cell “A.”
b.
 adhere to cell “B’s” membrane.
d.
 diffuse into cell “D”
 5.
Refer to the illustration above. In this system, water molecules are most likely to diffuse in which direction?
a.
 from “A” to “B”
c.
 from “D” to “C”
b.
 from “B” to “D”
d.
 from “C” to “A”
 6.
The dispersal of ink in a beaker of water is an example of
a.
 diffusion.
c.
 active transport.
b.
 osmosis.
d.
 endocytosis.
 7.
heavy rains : flooding ::
a.
 osmosis : proton pumping
b.
 high solute concentration : isotonic solution
c.
 active transport : ATP
d.
 concentration difference : osmosis
 8.
Sugar molecules can enter cells through the process of
a.
 exocytosis.
c.
 osmosis.
b.
 facilitated diffusion.
d.
 ion pumps.
 9.
Channels utilizing facilitated diffusion
a.
 work in two directions.
b.
 require an electrical signal to function.
c.
 Both a and b
d.
 None of the above
 10.
Which of the following is not characteristic of facilitated diffusion?
a.
 It requires a carrier protein.
b.
 It moves substances against a concentration gradient.
c.
 It requires no energy input.
d.
 It involves a change in the shape of its carrier.
 11.
Which of the following is true of ions and their transport across cell membranes?
a.
 The “gates” for ion channels are always open.
b.
 Ions are very small and thus can cross cell membranes readily.
c.
 Electrical or chemical signals may control the movement of ions across cell membranes.
d.
 Because they are charged particles, the movement of ions across cell membranes requires energy input.
 12.
Which of the following does not expend energy?
a.
 diffusion
c.
 active transport
b.
 chemiosmosis
d.
 a sodium-potassium pump
 13.
Which of the following enters a cell by active transport?
a.
 glucose
c.
 sodium ion
b.
 water
d.
 potassium ion
 14.
The process by which water passes into or out of a cell is called
a.
 solubility.
c.
 selective transport.
b.
 osmosis.
d.
 endocytosis.
nar002-1.jpg
 15.
Refer to the illustration above. The process shown is called
a.
 osmosis.
c.
 active transport.
b.
 facilitated diffusion.
d.
 diffusion.
 16.
The sodium-potassium pump usually pumps
a.
 potassium out of the cell.
b.
 sodium into the cell.
c.
 potassium into the cell.
d.
 only a potassium and sugar molecule together.
 17.
proton pump : protons ::
a.
 ATP : protons
c.
 sodium-potassium pump : ATP
b.
 channel : protons
d.
 sodium-potassium pump : sodium
 18.
Ridding the cell of material by discharging it from sacs at the cell surface is called
a.
 chemiosmosis.
c.
 exocytosis.
b.
 exorcism.
d.
 endocytosis.
 19.
Molecules that are too large to be moved across a cell membrane can be removed from the cell by
a.
 diffusion.
c.
 lipid carriers.
b.
 exocytosis.
d.
 osmosis.
 20.
Molecules that are too large to be moved through the membrane can be transported into the cell by
a.
 osmosis.
c.
 lipid carriers.
b.
 endocytosis.
d.
 diffusion.
 21.
endocytosis : exocytosis ::
a.
 phagocytosis : bacteria
c.
 cold : hot
b.
 secrete : exocytosis
d.
 white blood cell : bacteria

 
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Chapter 1 Introduction Study Guide

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Modified True/False
Indicate whether the statement is true or false.  If false, change the identified word or phrase to make the statement true.
 1.
Accepting ideas is the cornerstone of scientific thought. _________________________
 2.
Skepticism is a habit of mind in which a person accepts the validity of accepted ideas. _________________________
 3.
The law of gravity and the law of conservation of energy are national laws. _________________________
 4.
Scientific investigations require ethical behavior. _________________________
 5.
Most scientific investigations begin with observations that lead to universal laws. _________________________
 6.
A hypothesis is a possible explanation that can be tested by observation or experimentation. _________________________
 7.
The control group and the experimental group are identical except for one variable. _________________________
 8.
A hypothesis is a general explanation for a broad range of data. _________________________
 9.
International System of Units (SI) is the official name of the metric system. _________________________
 10.
A centimeter is equal to 10 millimeters. _________________________
 11.
Light and electron autoclaves help magnify objects. _________________________
 12.
A technique is a way of doing something. _________________________
 13.
In the event of a lab accident, one thing you should always do is remain calm. _________________________
 14.
Biology is the study of nonliving things. _________________________
 15.
A student who wants to study bacteria would take microbiology classes. _________________________
 16.
Reproduction insures ongoing generations of both one-celled organisms and frogs. _________________________
 17.
Homeostasis is the maintenance of a stable internal environment in spite of changes in the external environment. _________________________
 18.
The bacterium that causes cholera is an example of a pathogen. _________________________
 19.
Scientists discovered that predicting the spread of cholera involves understanding reproductive behavior of plankton. _________________________
 20.
The study of all the factors in the spread of cholera in human populations is an example of ecology. _________________________
 21.
Scientists in the 21st century are better able to prevent disease because of their improved understanding of biology. _________________________
 22.
The completion of the Human Genome Project was one minor contribution to the ability to cure disease. _________________________
 23.
Scientists expect people to live longer lives because of advances in the science of biology. _________________________
 24.
The application of technology to medicine has greatly increased the ability of people to live healthy lives. _________________________
 25.
Genetic engineering is the only practical application of biotechnology. _________________________
 26.
Genetic engineering is widely used in agriculture to produce crops that are pest-resistant. _________________________
 27.
Surrounding a drug compound with a layer of atoms that allows for the slow release of the drug is an example of genetic engineering. _________________________
 28.
Making a new kind of fastener modeled on the way an aquatic animal fastens onto rocks on the ocean floor is an example of nanotechnology. _________________________
 29.
Biometrics involves analyzing large amounts of data on biological characteristics. _________________________
 30.
Unique genetic traits, such as hair color, are the most important source of data for biometrics. _________________________
 31.
Advances in biotechnology have been slowed by ethical concerns. _________________________
 32.
The ethics of different kinds of biotechnology will be decided by individuals and scientists. _________________________
 33.
One good way to protect the environment is to learn more about it. _________________________
 34.
Environmental science involves neither the study of organisms nor their physical surroundings. _________________________
 35.
One reason that wildlife biologists collect DNA samples from endangered species is the hope that these species can be cloned if they become extinct. _________________________
 36.
Genetic engineering is used to track the movements of animals in the wild. _________________________
 37.
Community environmental groups make problems for environmental research. _________________________
 

Multiple Choice
Identify the choice that best completes the statement or answers the question.
 38.
Which of the following do scientists not use to support ideas?
a.
 opinions
c.
 experiments
b.
 evidence
d.
 investigations
 39.
Which of the following applies to all branches of science?
a.
 cell organization
c.
 gravity
b.
 earthquakes
d.
 reproduction
 40.
Which of the following is unethical behavior in scientific investigations?
a.
 allowing peers to review investigations
b.
 following guidelines for medical experiments
c.
 reporting inaccurate data
d.
 basing investigations on someone else’s work
 41.
Scientific thinking can be used
a.
 only by scientists.
c.
 by all living things.
b.
 only in experiments.
d.
 by everyone in daily life.
 42.
A scientist noticed that the number of salamanders in ponds in the Rocky Mountains was declining. This was a(n)
a.
 hypothesis.
c.
 observation.
b.
 theory.
d.
 control.
 43.
A hypothesis is a
a.
 definite answer to a given problem.
b.
 testable possible explanation of an observation.
c.
 proven statement.
d.
 concluding statement.
 44.
observation : hypothesis ::
a.
 theory : observation
c.
 certainty : prediction
b.
 guess : hypothesis
d.
 hypothesis : investigation
 45.
Most typically, the order in which the steps of scientific investigations are applied is
a.
 controlled experiment, hypothesis, analysis of results, observations, questions, conclusions.
b.
 observations, controlled experiment, hypothesis, analysis of results, conclusions, questions.
c.
 observations, questions, hypothesis, controlled experiment, analysis of results, conclusions.
d.
 questions, observations, analysis of results, controlled experiment, conclusions, hypothesis.
 46.
If experiments are not possible or ethical, scientists
a.
 cannot test a hypothesis.
b.
 test more than one variable at a time.
c.
 do not use a control group.
d.
 look for connections in data gathered.
 47.
Scientific hypotheses are most often tested by the process of
a.
 communicating.
c.
 experimenting.
b.
 inferring.
d.
 analyzing data.
 48.
A planned procedure to test a hypothesis is called a(n)
a.
 prediction.
c.
 control.
b.
 experiment.
d.
 variable.
 49.
The variable that is measured in an experiment is the _____ variable.
a.
 dependent
c.
 control
b.
 independent
d.
 experimental
 50.
A general explanation for a broad range of data is called a
a.
 hypothesis.
c.
 prediction.
b.
 theory.
d.
 controlled experiment.
 51.
A scientific theory is
a.
 absolutely certain and never questioned.
b.
 unchangeable.
c.
 revised as new evidence is presented.
d.
 a controlled experiment.
 52.
Scientists build theories from many
a.
 experiments that support hypotheses.
b.
 hypotheses that are rejected.
c.
 experiments with different variables.
d.
 untested ideas.
 53.
The metric system of measurement is based on powers of
a.
 1.
c.
 100.
b.
 10.
d.
 1000.
 54.
A specialized tool used to magnify organisms so that they can be observed is a
a.
 pipet.
c.
 satellite.
b.
 microscope.
d.
 laminar-flow hood.
 55.
Which of the following would scientists use to prevent contamination in an experiment?
a.
 electron microscope
c.
 remote collection of data
b.
 light microscope
d.
 sterile technique
 56.
Which of the following is the most recent tool available to scientists?
a.
 remote tracking devices
c.
 autoclaves
b.
 microscopes
d.
 sterilized pipets
 57.
You can work safely in the science lab by
a.
 taking shortcuts in procedures.
b.
 waiting until the end of experiments to clean area.
c.
 estimating measurements of chemicals.
d.
 following all instructions.
 58.
All of the following are important for working safely in a science laboratory except
a.
 tasting chemicals.
c.
 working cautiously.
b.
 measuring chemicals precisely.
d.
 wearing safety goggles.
 59.
Biology is the study of
a.
 life.
c.
 weather.
b.
 minerals.
d.
 energy.
 60.
The branch of biology that is the study of the human body is
a.
 ecology.
c.
 cell biology.
b.
 evolutionary theory.
d.
 physiology.
 61.
Which of the following is not one of the seven properties of life?
a.
 metabolism
c.
 responsiveness
b.
 homeostasis
d.
 photosynthesis
 62.
As a characteristic of all living things, homeostasis relates most directly to which of the following biological themes?
a.
 interacting systems
c.
 stability
b.
 scale and structure
d.
 evolution
 63.
chemical reactions : metabolism ::
a.
 cells : an organism
c.
 reproduction : living
b.
 heredity : homeostasis
d.
 experimentation : observation
 64.
All living things maintain a balance within their cells and with the environment through the process of
a.
 growth.
c.
 homeostasis.
b.
 development.
d.
 evolution.
 65.
The energy that drives metabolism in animals comes from
a.
 homeostasis.
c.
 water.
b.
 food.
d.
 heredity.
 66.
Children tend to resemble their parents due to
a.
 heredity.
c.
 metabolism.
b.
 responsiveness.
d.
 homeostasis.
 67.
A field of sunflowers facing the sun is an example of
a.
 metabolism.
c.
 responsiveness.
b.
 growth.
d.
 heredity.
 68.
The changes in human babies during their first year of life is an example of
a.
 heredity.
c.
 evolution.
b.
 responsiveness.
d.
 development.
 69.
Filtering contaminated water through a sari is
a.
 an ineffective way to reduce cases of cholera.
b.
 the best way to prevent the spread of cholera.
c.
 a low-tech solution to reducing cases of cholera.
d.
 another factor that causes cholera to spread rapidly.
 70.
All of the following should be researched in studying the epidemiology of waterborne diseases except the
a.
 genomes of the pathogens.
b.
 habitat of pathogens.
c.
 food chain of the pathogens.
d.
 environmental factors that affect pathogens.
 71.
One of the most important tools in preventing the spread of disease is
a.
 computer modeling.
c.
 genetic engineering.
b.
 DNA fingerprinting.
d.
 giving vaccinations.
 72.
computer modeling : epidemiology ::
a.
 genetics : DNA fingerprinting
b.
 cloning : biotechnology
c.
 genome : vaccination
d.
 human health : disease prevention
 73.
Which of the following terms is used to refer to a piece of equipment made for a specific use?
a.
 process
c.
 device
b.
 cure
d.
 treatment
 74.
Which of the following is least likely to help humans live longer?
a.
 epidemiology
c.
 genetics
b.
 medicine
d.
 DNA fingerprinting
 75.
knowledge of biology : human potential ::
a.
 assistive technologies : everyday lives
b.
 human potential : epidemiology
c.
 populations : disease outbreaks
d.
 genomes : genetics
 76.
The technology of changing the genetic material of a living cell is called
a.
 biometrics.
c.
 genetics.
b.
 genetic engineering.
d.
 DNA fingerprinting.
 77.
Planting Bt corn helps farmers decrease the use of
a.
 fertilizers.
c.
 pesticides.
b.
 herbicides.
d.
 cultivators.
 78.
All of the following are known advantages of planting Bt corn except it
a.
 adds some bacterial genes to food supplies.
b.
 lowers a farmer’s cost of production.
c.
 improves a farmer’s crop yield.
d.
 reduces chemical contaminants in the environment.
 79.
The application of a biological structure or process to solve design problems is called
a.
 adaptation.
c.
 cloning.
b.
 biomimetics.
d.
 decoding.
 80.
Which of these biotechnologies has the potential to repair tissues inside the body?
a.
 biometrics
c.
 epidemiology
b.
 biomimetics
d.
 nanotechnology
 81.
clam shell formation : ceramics ::
a.
 CAT scanning : modeling fossils
b.
 strong fabrics : spider silk
c.
 spider silk : strong fabrics
d.
 modeling fossils : CAT scanning
 82.
The analysis of biological traits to identify people is called
a.
 arithmetics.
c.
 genetics.
b.
 biometrics.
d.
 statistics.
 83.
Which of the following traits of an individual would be most useful for identifying a victim in a forensic investigation?
a.
 eye color
c.
 blood type
b.
 hair color
d.
 DNA fingerprint
 84.
The ethical concerns about biotechnology must be addressed by
a.
 scientists only.
c.
 both individuals and scientists.
b.
 societies only.
d.
 both individuals and societies.
 85.
All of the following biotechnologies are considered by some to be unethical except
a.
 biomimetic products.
c.
 human stem cell research.
b.
 biometrics data bases.
d.
 genetically modified foods.
 86.
Which of the following would be an unethical use of biometric data and methods?
a.
 linking criminals to crime scenes
b.
 eliminating innocent people from a list of criminal suspects
c.
 excluding people with certain genes from getting jobs
d.
 protecting citizens from bioterrorism
 87.
Which of the following is considered to be one of the most important applications of biology?
a.
 biometrics
c.
 environmental science
b.
 genetic engineering
d.
 assistive technologies
 88.
In order to make wise decisions about the use of natural resources, citizens will need to have a better understanding of
a.
 biomimetics.
c.
 environmental science.
b.
 genetics.
d.
 genetic engineering.
 89.
ecology : environmental science ::
a.
 biomolecules : strong glues
c.
 forensics : biometrics
b.
 genetics : genetic engineering
d.
 spider silk : clam shells
 90.
What do the initials GIS stand for?
a.
 geological inference standard
c.
 geographic information system
b.
 genetic improvement survey
d.
 global investigation society
 91.
Satellite tagging is a technology that is most likely to be used in
a.
 assisting the disabled.
c.
 developing maps of the world.
b.
 conservation of wildlife.
d.
 tracking the spread of disease.
 92.
Each of the following is a part of a GIS program except
a.
 access to data from different sources.
b.
 computer mapping.
c.
 environmental databases.
d.
 genetic analysis tools.
 93.
Which of the following must be done before an environmental study is begun locally?
a.
 contact several scientists
c.
 identify a problem
b.
 buy a GIS program
d.
 gather up volunteers
 94.
At the Raptor Rehabilitation Center, students in an environmental club help take care of injured and orphaned birds of prey. Based on this information, what does the term raptor refer to?
a.
 a bird of prey
c.
 orphaned wildlife
b.
 the environment
d.
 debilitating injury
 

Completion
Complete each statement.
 95.
The medical treatment for ulcers changed after scientists discovered that ____________________ cause stomach ulcers.
 96.
The questioning and often doubtful attitude required for scientific thought is called ____________________.
 97.
The truths that govern science and are valid everywhere in the universe are universal ____________________.
 98.
____________________ are a system of moral principles and values.
 99.
Most scientific investigations begin with ____________________ that lead to questions.
 100.
A reason to set up an experiment is to test a ____________________.
 101.
A(n) ____________________ experiment is a procedure that tests one factor at a time and that uses a(n) ____________________ group and an experimental group.
 102.
In a controlled experiment, the ____________________ group is the group that has one variable changed.
 103.
In an experiment, the ____________________ group receives no experimental treatment.
 104.
Factors that may change as a result of experimental treatment are ____________________ variables.
 105.
A(n) ____________________ is a specific, testable prediction for a limited set of conditions, and a(n) ____________________ is a general explanation for a broad range of data.
 106.
Scientists use the ______________________________ system to make measurements.
 107.
SI is the abbreviation for the ____________________ System of Units.
 108.
The SI base unit for length is the ____________________.
 109.
A kilogram is equal to ____________________ grams.
 110.
In a light microscope, light passes through one or more ____________________ to produce an enlarged image of an object.
 111.
Scientists use ____________________ techniques to minimize the risk of contamination.
 112.
The study of the interactions of living organisms with one another and with the nonliving part of their environment is called ____________________.
 113.
The branch of biology that studies the changes in types of organisms over time is called ___________________ theory.
 114.
Scientists who study whales, bats, or bears in their natural habitat are called ____________________ biologists.
 115.
The process of _________________ traits changing over time is called evolution.
 116.
Every living organism is composed of one or more ____________________.
 117.
All cells have the same basic ____________________.
 118.
The sum of all chemical reactions carried out in an organism is ____________________.
 119.
The energy used by living organisms originates from the ____________________.
 120.
The study of ____________________ involves finding out how diseases are spread.
 121.
Cholera bacteria can cause the disease only when ____________________ increases.
 122.
A ____________________ is a medical procedure that allows a person to resist infection by a certain disease.
 123.
Many new tools for studying and treating diseases caused by problems in genes have come from the study of ____________________.
 124.
In developed countries, the length of human lives has nearly ____________________ in the past century.
 125.
One example of an assistive technology that helps people in everyday life is ____________________.
 126.
The gene that was added to Bt corn came from a(n) ____________________.
 127.
Bt corn contains a gene that produces a ____________________ that kills the European core borer.
 128.
The robotic items produced through nanotechnology often resemble tiny ____________________.
 129.
Imitating biological structures, processes, and systems to solve engineering problems is called ____________________.
 130.
Because of ____________________, dissection is no longer needed to determine the shapes and locations of internal organs.
 131.
Fingerprints and iris patterns are useful in identification because they are ____________________ to individuals.
 132.
Material used in ____________________ is obtained from hair and skin cells.
 133.
Research that involves human stem cells is limited because many people think that such research is ____________________.
 134.
The study of living organisms and their environments is called _________________________.
 135.
The existence of undiscovered resources is an important reason to study and ____________________ natural environments.
 136.
The movements of wildlife can be studied through the technology of ____________________.
 137.
Wildlife agents use the technology of ____________________ to identify the remains of endangered animals and to identify who killed them.
 138.
The people in communities who make contributions to environmental research are called ____________________.
 139.
Students make contributions to environmental conservation by helping to care for ____________________ or ____________________ wildlife.
 

Short Answer
 140.
What universal law applies in a study of the flight of birds? How does it apply?
 141.
How could you use scientific thought to investigate a claim about a product?
 142.
Write a hypothesis to explain why the water level in an aquarium is going down.
 143.
What two groups are part of a controlled experiment?
 144.
What is the difference between an independent variable and dependent variables in a controlled experiment?
 145.
How does a scientist verify the conclusions of an experiment?
 146.
What is the difference between a hypothesis and a theory?
 147.
What makes SI easy to use?
 148.
What are the base SI units for volume, length, and mass?
 149.
What are two common kinds of microscopes. How do they differ?
 150.
What is sterile technique? What are four tools of sterile technique?
 151.
Suppose you are a scientist who studies sharks in their natural habitat. What are two names that describe the kind of biologist you are?
 152.
What is heredity?
 153.
Name the seven properties of life.
 154.
How are data from weather and climate satellites used in epidemiology?
 155.
How does a vaccination help people and animals resist disease?
 156.
How will the completion of the Human Genome Project contribute to biological research in the 21st Century?
 157.
List two examples of assistive technologies that will improve the lives of people with injuries and diseases.
 158.
How does genetic engineering that produced Bt corn help to increase the yield in a farmer’s corn field?
 159.
List two practical applications of biotechnology other than genetic engineering.
 160.
How has genetic engineering improved the treatment of people who have diabetes?
 161.
From what biological structure did engineers get the idea for a submarine?
 162.
What makes iris scans an effective technology for identifying people?
 163.
List two biological characteristics of individuals, besides fingerprints and iris patterns, that can be analyzed by computers to identify people.
 164.
List two concerns that people have expressed about the ethics of biotechnology.
 165.
List three important resources that all living things get from the environment.
 166.
What do the initials GIS stand for?
 167.
What is satellite tagging?
 168.
List three steps that students could take to get involved in environmental research.
 

Essay
 169.
Explain why accurate data and peer review are important in science.
 170.
The results of an experiment do not support the hypothesis that the experiment was designed to test. Was the experiment a waste of time? Explain your answer.
 171.
Explain the difference between an independent variable and a dependent variable in a controlled experiment. Also indicate whether or not each kind of variable would be found in a control group and an experimental group.
 172.
Summarize the steps in the development of a theory.
 173.
Before doing experiments, what should you know about lab safety? What procedure should you follow if an accident occurs during an experiment in your class?
 174.
List and describe the seven properties of life shared by all living organisms.
 175.
Toads that live in hot, dry regions bury themselves in the soil during the day. How might this be important to toads?
nar001-1.jpg
 176.
Refer to the map above. West Nile Virus is a virus that attacks the nervous system of birds, humans, and many other mammals. The virus first appeared in the United States in 1999, when an outbreak was reported in the New York City area. Based on this background and the information shown in the map, write a paragraph that summarizes the state of West Nile Virus incidence in the United States as of 2006.
 177.
Explain how increased understanding of biology and science in general should enable humans to live longer and healthier lives.
 178.
Compare and contrast fingerprints and DNA fingerprints as a means of identifying individuals.
 179.
Ethics is the study of whether human actions are moral (right or wrong, acceptable or unacceptable). Summarize the role of ethics in guiding the future of biotechnology.
 180.
What important lesson can be learned from the recent discovery of new kinds of organisms in a remote area of New Guinea?

 
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Chapter 1 Introduction

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Chapter 1 Introduction
 

Multiple Choice
Identify the choice that best completes the statement or answers the question.
 1.
Biology is the study of
a.
 minerals.
c.
 the weather.
b.
 life.
d.
 energy.
 2.
All organisms possess DNA. DNA
a.
 creates energy for cells.
b.
 allows sensitivity to environmental stimuli.
c.
 contains information for growth and development.
d.
 captures energy from the sun.
 3.
Instructions for traits that are passed from parents to offspring are known as
a.
 a species plan.
c.
 genes.
b.
 organ codes.
d.
 natural selections.
 4.
Homeostasis means
a.
 a change over long periods of time.
b.
 keeping things the same.
c.
 rapid change.
d.
 the same thing as evolution.
 5.
Ecology
a.
 refers to change in species over time.
b.
 refers to a delicate internal balance within organisms.
c.
 is inconsistent with evolution.
d.
 is the study of communities or organisms in relation to their environment.
 6.
Which of the following is not necessarily a characteristic of living things?
a.
 homeostasis
c.
 complexity
b.
 metabolism
d.
 reproduction
 7.
The smallest units that can carry on all the functions of life are called
a.
 molecules.
c.
 organelles.
b.
 cells.
d.
 species.
 8.
Living things
a.
 need energy for life processes.
b.
 have the ability to reproduce.
c.
 are composed of cells.
d.
 All of the above
 9.
All organisms are composed of
a.
 diatoms.
c.
 cells.
b.
 cellulose.
d.
 None of the above
 10.
All living things maintain a balance within their cells and the environment through the process of
a.
 growth.
c.
 homeostasis.
b.
 development.
d.
 evolution.
 11.
Which of the following is a characteristic of all living things?
a.
 movement
c.
 development
b.
 photosynthesis
d.
 cellular organization
 12.
Which of the following is not a partial explanation for our lack of understanding of many of the living things on Earth?
a.
 Many organisms are microscopic in size and therefore difficult to observe.
b.
 Many organisms are so different from other organisms that it is difficult to understand them.
c.
 Many organisms live in areas of the world that are difficult to explore.
d.
 Tropical rain forests contain many species, and it is difficult to find all of them in these dense forests.
 13.
A scientist noticed that in acidic pond water some salamanders developed with curved spines. This was a(n)
a.
 hypothesis.
c.
 observation.
b.
 theory.
d.
 control.
 14.
Which example of scientific methodology is incorrect?
a.
 observation—a number of people in a certain place dying of a disease outbreak
b.
 measurement—a record of the number of people with symptoms of a disease and the number of people who had died from the disease
c.
 analysis of data—comparison of the effects of mixing monkey cells with virus-containing blood in test tubes and the effects of mixing liquid from these test tubes with fresh monkey cells
d.
 inference making—identification of the Ebola virus as the cause of a disease by taking electron micrographs of substances found in the blood of persons affected with the disease
 15.
The English physician Ronald Ross wanted to try to find the cause of malaria. Based on his observations, Dr. Ross suggested that the Anopheles mosquito might spread malaria from person to person. This suggestion was a
a.
 prediction.
c.
 theory.
b.
 hypothesis.
d.
 scientific “truth.”
 16.
The English physician Ronald Ross knew that the parasite Plasmodium was always found in the blood of malaria patients. He thought that if the Anopheles mosquitoes were responsible for spreading malaria, then Plasmodium would be found in the mosquitoes. This idea was a
a.
 prediction.
c.
 theory.
b.
 hypothesis.
d.
 scientific “truth.”
 17.
Scientific hypotheses are most often tested by the process of
a.
 communicating.
c.
 experimenting.
b.
 inferring.
d.
 analyzing data.
 18.
A hypothesis is
a.
 a definite answer to a given problem.
b.
 a testable possible explanation of an observation.
c.
 a proven statement.
d.
 a concluding statement.
 19.
A unifying explanation for a broad range of observations is a
a.
 hypothesis.
c.
 prediction.
b.
 theory.
d.
 controlled experiment.
 20.
A hypothesis that does not explain an observation
a.
 is known as an inaccurate forecast.
b.
 often predicts a different observation.
c.
 is rejected.
d.
 None of the above
 21.
Scientists usually design experiments
a.
 with a good idea of the expected experimental results.
b.
 based on wild guesses.
c.
 in order to develop new laboratory tools.
d.
 All of the above
 22.
A scientific theory
a.
 is absolutely certain.
b.
 is unchangeable.
c.
 may be revised as new evidence is presented.
d.
 is a controlled experiment.
 23.
The word theory used in a scientific sense means
a.
 a highly tested, generally accepted principle.
b.
 a guess made with very little knowledge to support it.
c.
 an absolute scientific certainty.
d.
 None of the above
 24.
observation : hypothesis ::
a.
 theory : observation
c.
 hypothesis : experiment
b.
 guess : hypothesis
d.
 theory : control
 25.
Which of the following components of a scientific investigation would benefit from communication between scientists?
a.
 observing
c.
 analyzing data
b.
 measuring
d.
 All of the above
 26.
Typically, the order in which the steps of the scientific method are applied is
a.
 observations, predictions, hypothesis, controlled testing, theory, verification.
b.
 predictions, observations, hypothesis, theory, controlled testing, verification.
c.
 observations, hypothesis, predictions, controlled testing, theory, verification.
d.
 observations, hypothesis, predictions, controlled testing, verification, theory.
 27.
A light microscope that has an objective lens of 10 and an ocular lens of 20 has a magnification of
a.
 30.
c.
 300.
b.
 200.
d.
 2000.
 28.
Which of the following is not a correct association between an SI base unit abbreviation and its base quantity?
a.
 A—area
b.
 m—length
c.
 s—time
d.
 mol—amount of a substance
 29.
Which of the following is not an example of good laboratory practice?
a.
 working alone in the lab
b.
 asking permission before using equipment
c.
 working with a partner in the lab
d.
 wearing goggles in the lab
 30.
Scientists share their research results by
a.
 publishing in scientific journals.
b.
 presenting at scientific meetings.
c.
 avoiding conflicts of interest.
d.
 Both a and b
 

Completion
Complete each statement.
 31.
____________________ is the study of the interaction of organisms with their environment and with each other.
 32.
To function properly, all living things must maintain a constant internal environment through the process of ____________________.
 33.
An educated guess, or a(n) ____________________, may be tested by experimentation.
 34.
Stating in advance the result that may be obtained from testing a hypothesis is called ____________________.
 35.
A unifying explanation for a broad range of observations is a ____________________.
 36.
A ____________________ experiment is one in which the condition suspected to cause the effect is compared to the same situation without the suspected condition.
 37.
The base unit for length in the Système International d’Unités (International System of Units) is the ____________________.
 38.
A ____________________ electron microscope passes a beam of electrons over a specimen’s surface, whereas a ____________________ electron microscope passes a beam of electrons through a thin slice of a specimen.
 

Problem
 39.
Some scientists conducted an experiment in which they evaluated various measurements of human health in people who drank at least one cup of coffee a day. They found no significant differences in these health indicators between the subjects who drank only one cup of coffee a day and those who drank as many as 20 cups a day. They concluded that coffee has no adverse effects on human health. Write your answers to the following in the spaces below.
a. What were the independent and dependent variables in this experiment?
b. Was this a controlled experiment? If so, what were the control and experimental groups?
c. Do you agree with the conclusion the scientists drew from their results? Why or why not?
 

Essay
 40.
Briefly discuss some of the major themes in biology that we will examine this year. Write your answer in the space below.
 41.
Name five characteristics that are considered distinct properties of all living things. Write your answer in the space below.
 42.
Toads that live in hot, dry regions bury themselves in the soil during the day. How might this be important to the toad? Write your answer in the space below.
 43.
The results of an experiment do not support the hypothesis that the experiment was designed to test. Was the experiment a waste of time? Explain. Write your answer in the space below.
 44.
Why is it important to study biology even if you are not planning a career in biology? Write your answer in the space below.

 
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