Category: 1st Semester

Chapter 3 Biochemistry Studyguide

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Chapter 3 Biochemistry Study Guide

 

 

Modified True/False
Indicate whether the statement is true or false.  If false, change the identified word or phrase to make the statement true.
 1.
Atoms have a positive charge. _________________________
 2.
Electrons have very little mass. _________________________
 3.
Molecules are atoms that have gained or lost one or more electrons. _________________________
 4.
An atom with more electrons than protons has a positive charge. _________________________
 5.
A covalent bond forms between two atoms that share electrons to form a molecule. _________________________
 6.
Water molecules attract nonpolar molecules such as oil. _________________________
 7.
The ability of water to retain heat helps cells maintain a constant internal temperature. _________________________
 8.
The role of carbohydrates in cells is to supply energy. _________________________
 9.
RNA is made up of a double strand of nucleotides. _________________________
 10.
When cells break down food, the energy from the food is temporarily stored as ATP. _________________________
 11.
The amount of energy needed to cause a chemical reaction to start is called activation energy. _________________________
 12.
Without enzymes, chemical reactions necessary for life would not occur quickly or easily enough to sustain life. _________________________
 13.
When an enzyme binds with its substrate, the activation energy needed for the chemical reaction to occur is increased. _________________________
 

Multiple Choice
Identify the choice that best completes the statement or answers the question.
 14.
Atoms are not composed of
a.
 protons.
c.
 electrons.
b.
 neutrons.
d.
 chemical bonds
 15.
The electrons of an atom
a.
 are found in the nucleus along with the protons.
b.
 occupy the space surrounding the nucleus.
c.
 have a positive charge.
d.
 are attached to the positive charge of neutrons.
 16.
The smallest particle of matter that can retain the chemical properties of carbon is a carbon
a.
 molecule.
c.
 atom.
b.
 macromolecule.
d.
 element.
 17.
A substance that is composed of only one type of atom is called a(n)
a.
 compound.
c.
 element.
b.
 cell.
d.
 molecule.
 18.
All matter is composed of
a.
 cells.
c.
 atoms.
b.
 molecules.
d.
 carbon.
 19.
Covalent bonds form when
a.
 two molecules of water share electrons.
b.
 a molecule of water becomes an ion.
c.
 two hydrogen atoms share electrons with one oxygen atom.
d.
 two hydronium ions are attracted to each other.
 20.
Ionic bonds form between particles that have
a.
 opposite charges.
c.
 no charges.
b.
 the same charge.
d.
 neutral charges.
 21.
The bond formed when two atoms share a pair of electrons is called a(n)
a.
 hydrogen bond.
c.
 covalent bond.
b.
 ionic bond.
d.
 water bond.
 22.
Sharing of electrons in the outer energy levels of two atoms
a.
 results in ion formation.
b.
 makes both atoms stable.
c.
 only occurs if both are atoms of the same element.
d.
 is found only among carbon atoms.
 23.
A molecule that has a partial positive charge on one side and a partial negative charge on the other side is called a(n)
a.
 nonpolar molecule.
c.
 charged molecule.
b.
 polar molecule.
d.
 ion.
 24.
Nonpolar molecules have
a.
 no negative or positive ends.
c.
 only a negative end.
b.
 both negative and positive ends.
d.
 only a positive end.
 25.
When placed in the same container, oil and water do not mix because
a.
 they are both polar.
c.
 they are both nonpolar.
b.
 water is polar and oil is nonpolar.
d.
 water is nonpolar and oil is polar.
 26.
Attractions between water molecules are called
a.
 covalent bonds.
c.
 polar bonds.
b.
 ionic bonds.
d.
 hydrogen bonds.
 27.
Water is a polar molecule because
a.
 it contains two hydrogen atoms for each oxygen atom.
b.
 it has a charge.
c.
 different parts of the molecule have slightly different charges.
d.
 it does not have a charge.
 28.
Which is not a unique property of water?
a.
 Frozen water floats.
b.
 Water retains a large amount of heat.
c.
 Water molecules stick to each other.
d.
 Water cools rapidly.
 29.
Acidic solutions have a pH that is
a.
 less than 7.
c.
 a negative number.
b.
 between 7 and 14.
d.
 more than 7.
 30.
Hydronium ions, H+, react with hydroxide ions, OH-, to form
a.
 water.
c.
 a base.
b.
 an acid.
d.
 a buffer.
 31.
Which of the following is not a large biomolecule?
a.
 carbohydrate
c.
 lipid
b.
 ice
d.
 nucleic acid
 32.
The building blocks of most biomolecules contain the element
a.
 carbon.
c.
 calcium.
b.
 nitrogen.
d.
 sodium.
 33.
Which of the following molecules are classified as carbohydrates?
a.
 amino acids
c.
 nucleotides
b.
 fats
d.
 sugars
 34.
Polysaccharides are
a.
 carbohydrates.
c.
 proteins.
b.
 lipids.
d.
 nucleic acids.
nar001-1.jpg
nar001-2.jpg
Molecule A
Molecule B
 35.
Refer to the illustration above. Molecule A is a
a.
 carbohydrate.
c.
 nucleic acid.
b.
 lipid.
d.
 protein.
 36.
Plants store glucose in the form of
a.
 starch.
c.
 cellulose.
b.
 glycogen.
d.
 chitin.
 37.
Which of the following is a carbohydrate?
a.
 ATP
c.
 wax
b.
 steroid
d.
 sucrose
 38.
Lipids are
a.
 soluble in water.
b.
 made of chains of amino acids.
c.
 linked together with peptide bonds.
d.
 used by the body for storing energy.
 39.
All of the following are examples of lipids except
a.
 oil.
c.
 steroids.
b.
 starch.
d.
 candle wax.
 40.
Which molecules are most closely related to lipids?
a.
 amino acids
b.
 long chains of carbon and hydrogen
c.
 nucleotides
d.
 sugars
 41.
Which of the following molecules are most closely related to proteins?
a.
 amino acids
c.
 nucleotides
b.
 monosaccharides
d.
 sugars
 42.
Long chains of amino acids are found in
a.
 carbohydrates.
c.
 proteins.
b.
 lipids.
d.
 sugars.
 43.
The overall shape of a single chain of amino acids in a protein is that protein’s
a.
 primary structure.
c.
 tertiary structure.
b.
 secondary structure.
d.
 quaternary structure.
 44.
The amino group of one amino acid is linked to the carboxyl group of another amino acid in a protein. This link is a(n)
a.
 peptide bond.
c.
 ionic bond.
b.
 hydrogen bond.
d.
 polar bond.
 45.
What gives each amino acid its unique properties?
a.
 its side group
c.
 its carboxyl group
b.
 its amino group
d.
 its sequence
 46.
The two types of nucleic acids are
a.
 RNA and ATP.
c.
 DNA and ATP.
b.
 DNA and RNA.
d.
 nucleotides and ATP.
 47.
Which of the following molecules are most closely related to nucleic acids?
a.
 amino acids
c.
 nucleotides
b.
 fats
d.
 sugars
 48.
DNA stores
a.
 fat.
c.
 energy.
b.
 carbohydrates.
d.
 hereditary information.
 49.
The two strands of a DNA molecule are held together by
a.
 ionic bonds.
c.
 hydrogen bonds.
b.
 covalent bonds.
d.
 peptide bonds.
 50.
Which of the following is not part of a nucleotide in a DNA molecule?
a.
 three phosphate groups
c.
 a base
b.
 a sugar
d.
 a phosphate group
 51.
ATP (adenosine triphosphate) stores energy in the bonds between its
a.
 hydrogen atoms.
c.
 nucleotides.
b.
 carbon atoms.
d.
 phosphate groups.
 52.
When paper burns, the paper combines with oxygen to form carbon dioxide and water vapor. How does the mass of carbon dioxide plus water vapor compare with the mass of the paper plus oxygen?
a.
 The mass of carbon dioxide plus water vapor is greater than that of paper plus oxygen.
b.
 The mass of carbon dioxide plus water vapor is less than that of paper plus oxygen.
c.
 It is impossible to tell.
d.
 The mass of carbon dioxide plus water vapor is identical to that of paper plus oxygen.
 53.
The law of conservation of energy states that energy cannot be
a.
 changed from one form to another.
b.
 taken from the surroundings in a reaction.
c.
 released into the surroundings in a reaction.
d.
 created or destroyed in a chemical reaction.
 54.
A chemical reaction will probably occur between two substrate molecules if they
a.
 are far apart.
b.
 are aligned in the wrong spatial orientation.
c.
 have large amounts of kinetic energy.
d.
 have little kinetic energy.
 55.
Reducing activation energy
a.
 is a violation of the laws of nature.
b.
 requires higher temperatures than those found within cells.
c.
 occurs only when reactants are quickly added to the reaction mixture.
d.
 is accomplished by the action of enzymes on reactants.
nar002-1.jpg
 56.
Refer to the illustration above. Which of the following statements regarding the graph is true?
a.
 Reaction 2 occurs faster than Reaction 3 because Reaction 2 requires more energy than Reaction 3.
b.
 The difference between the graphs shown for Reaction 2 and Reaction 3 occurs because of a difference in the activation energy of these reactions.
c.
 Reactant A contains more energy at the beginning of the reaction than product C has at the end of the reaction.
d.
 Product B contains more energy at the end of the reaction than reactant A has at the beginning of the reaction.
 57.
Refer to the illustration above. Reaction 3 in the graph
a.
 probably occurred in the presence of an enzyme.
b.
 requires more activation energy than Reaction 2.
c.
 is the same as Reaction 1, but faster.
d.
 is slower than Reaction 2.
 58.
The molecule on which an enzyme acts is called a(n)
a.
 active site.
c.
 polar molecule.
b.
 inactive site.
d.
 substrate.
 59.
An enzyme
a.
 is used up in a reaction.
b.
 raises the activation energy of a reaction.
c.
 bonds with an active site on a substrate molecule.
d.
 lowers the activation energy of a reaction.
 60.
Enzymes
a.
 are able to heat up molecules so that they can react.
b.
 always provide carbon dioxide for chemical reactions.
c.
 hold substrate molecules in the correct alignment.
d.
 absorb excess heat so that reactions occur at low temperatures.
 61.
A cell contains
a.
 thousands of different kinds of enzymes, each assisting in a different chemical reaction.
b.
 one kind of enzyme that assists in thousands of different chemical reactions.
c.
 approximately 100 kinds of enzymes, each assisting in a different chemical reaction.
d.
 one enzyme that assists in reactions involving protein substrates and one enzyme that assists in reactions involving substrates that are not proteins.
 

Completion
Complete each statement.
 62.
The negatively charged particles in an atom are ____________________.
 63.
Protons and neutrons are found in the ____________________ of an atom.
 64.
A(n) ____________________ is a group of atoms held together by covalent bonds.
 65.
Sodium chloride, NaCl, is an example of a(n) _________________.
 66.
A(n) ____________________ bond forms between two atoms sharing electrons.
 67.
The attraction between oppositely charged ions results in the formation of a(n) ____________________.
 68.
Weak chemical attractions between polar molecules are ____________________ bonds.
 69.
Lipids are ____________________ molecules because they have no negative and positive poles.
 70.
Water heats and cools ____________________.
 71.
The attraction that causes water and other liquids to form drops and thin films is ____________________.
 72.
The medium in which most cellular events take place is ____________________.
 73.
Substances with a pH less than 7 are ____________________.
 74.
Substances with a pH greater than 7 are ____________________.
 75.
The pH scale measures the concentration of ____________________ ions in solutions.
 76.
A carbon atom can bond with four other atoms because it has ____________________ valence electrons.
 77.
A(n) ____________________ contains carbon, hydrogen, and oxygen in a ratio of 1:2:1.
 78.
Amino acids are the building blocks of __________________.
 79.
Most proteins consist of two or more ________________ that twist and fold around each other.
 80.
Long chains of nucleotides are called ____________________.
 81.
The ability to move or change matter is ____________________.
 82.
All living things require a source of ____________________ to carry out their life activities.
 83.
The starting materials for chemical reactions are called ____________________, while the new substances that are formed are called ____________________.
 84.
The energy needed to start a chemical reaction is called ____________________.
 85.
A biochemical reaction can be speeded up by adding a(n) ____________________, which lowers the amount of activation energy required to start the reaction.
 86.
The portion of an enzyme molecule into which a specific substrate can fit is called the ____________________.
 

Short Answer
 87.
How many different kinds of atoms are there in an element?
 88.
How does an atom become an ion?
 89.
An ionic bond forms between what two kinds of particles?
 90.
What makes a water molecule polar?
 91.
How well do nonpolar molecules dissolve in water?
 92.
What is an attraction between particles of different substances called?
 93.
What are the two most common elements found in large biomolecules?
 94.
What is the function of lipids in cells?
 95.
What determines the primary structure of a protein?
 96.
Where do your cells get most of the energy they need for metabolism?
 97.
How do enzymes speed up a chemical reaction?
 

Problem
 98.

The following statements are about the molecule ATP (adenosine triphosphate). For each statement, first determine whether it is true or false. Then, if it is false, rewrite the statement so that it is correct.

a. ATP is chemically similar to a carbohydrate.
b. Cells require ATP to function.
c. None of the energy in food molecules is stored in ATP.
d. ATP is the primary source of energy for chemical reactions occurring in all cells of all living organisms.

nar003-1.jpg
 99.

Refer to the illustration above. The graph depicts the relative energy levels of the products and reactants for the following chemical reaction: A + B « C + D.

a. Which substances, A, B, C, and/or D, are present at point 1 on the graph?
b. Which substances, A, B, C, and/or D, are present at point 3 on the graph?
c. Why is point 2 at a higher energy level than point 1?
d. Why is point 3 at a lower energy level than point 1?
e. Draw a dashed line on the graph indicating how the energy level of this reaction over time would be different if the enzyme that catalyzes the reaction were not present.

Enzymes catalyze a variety of biological reactions. The extent to which they can speed up the rate of a reaction is dependent on a number of factors. Draw a graph for the following condition(s), showing the effect of altering one factor on the relative rate of a reaction. Use “0” to indicate no activity, and “1” through “10” to indicate increasing rate of reaction from very low to very high. Include a label for your graph(s).
 100.
Refer to the paragraph above, and then draw your graph in the space below. Enzyme #1 is inactive between 0°C and 10°C. It is active above 10°C, with the rate increasing steadily until the temperature reaches 40°C. At 40°C, the rate of the reaction is very high. Above 40°C, the rate decreases steadily until the temperature reaches 60°C, at which point the enzyme is no longer active.
 101.
Refer to the paragraph above, and draw your graph. Enzyme #2 is inactive at a pH of 1–4. It is active above a pH of 4, with the rate increasing slowly until the pH reaches 6. Above a pH of 6, the rate increases sharply until the pH reaches 7. Above a pH of 7, the rate decreases sharply until the pH reaches 8. Above a pH of 8, the rate decreases gradually until the pH reaches 10, at which point the enzyme is no longer active.
 102.
Refer to the paragraph above, and draw your graph. Enzyme #3 is inactive when the concentration of the substrate it acts upon is zero. The enzyme is active when the substrate concentration is above zero, with the rate increasing only very slightly until the concentration reaches 30%. Above 30%, the rate increases very sharply to a high level, until the concentration reaches 60%. Above a concentration of 60%, the rate increases very little. The rate does not increase when the substrate concentration is above 80%.
 

Essay
 103.
Describe how an enzyme can function in speeding up a chemical reaction within a cell.

 
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Chapter 4 Cell Structure Study Guide

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Chapter 4 Cell Structure Study Guide

 

  

Modified True/False
Indicate whether the statement is true or false.  If false, change the identified word or phrase to make the statement true.
 
 1.
Robert Hooke first observed cells by looking at a thin slice of cork under a microscope. _________________________
 


 
 2.
Mathias Schleiden concluded that cells make up every part of a plant. _________________________
 


 
 3.
Differences in the colors of cells enable different cells to perform different functions. _________________________
 


 
 4.
All cells have a cell wall that surrounds them. _________________________
 


 
 5.
All multicellular organisms are made up of prokaryotic cells. _________________________
 


 
 6.
The cells of animals are prokaryotic. _________________________
 


 
 7.
The cytoskeleton is a web of protein fibers in eukaryotic cells. _________________________
 


 
 8.
Substances made in the nucleus, such as RNA messages, move into the nucleolus by passing through nuclear pores. _________________________
 


 
 9.
Flattened, membrane-bound sacs that package and distribute proteins are called the Golgi apparatus. _________________________
 


 
 10.
Ribosomes attached to the smooth ER make proteins. _________________________
 


 
 11.
Lysosomes contain specific enzymes that break down large molecules, such as food particles. _________________________
 


 
 12.
Ribosomes are the sites of ATP production in animals. _________________________
 


 
 13.
Most of a cell’s ATP is produced in the cell’s mitochondria. _________________________
 


 
 14.
A typical animal cell contains one or more chloroplasts. _________________________
 


 
 15.
A chloroplast is an organelle that uses light energy to make sugar from carbon dioxide and water. _________________________
 


 
 16.
Prokaryotes are always multicellular organisms. _________________________
 


 
 17.
Many prokaryotes have flagella that allow them to attach to surfaces. _________________________
 


 
 18.
A tissue is a distinct group of cells that have similar structures and functions. _________________________
 


 
 19.
A leaf is made up of different tissues that work together. _________________________
 


 
 20.
In multicellular organisms, a single cell must carry out all of the organism’s activities. _________________________
 


 
 21.
A unicellular organism is composed of many individual, permanently associated cells that coordinate their activities. _________________________
 


 
 22.
Colonial organisms are unicellular organisms that can live as a connected group or survive when separated. _________________________
 


 
 23.
Some protists and most fungi have a multicellular body. _________________________
 


 
 24.
Most multicellular organisms begin as a single cell. _________________________
 


 
  

Multiple Choice
Identify the choice that best completes the statement or answers the question.
 
 25.
Which of the following led to the discovery of cells?
a.
 electricity
c.
 microscopes
b.
 computers
d.
 calculators
 
 26.
Which of the following is part of the cell theory?
a.
 All living things are made of one cell.
b.
 Cells are the basic units of structure and function in organisms.
c.
 Most cells arise from existing cells.
d.
 Cells are nonliving units that make up organisms.
 
 27.
When the volume of a cell increases, its surface area
a.
 increases at the same rate.
c.
 increases at a faster rate.
b.
 remains the same.
d.
 increases at a slower rate.
 
 28.
Surface area is an important factor in limiting cell growth because
a.
 the cell can burst if the membrane becomes too large.
b.
 materials cannot enter the cell if it is too large.
c.
 the cell may become too large to take in enough food and to remove enough wastes.
d.
 waste products cannot leave the cell if it is too small.
 
 29.
The size to which cells can grow is limited by their
a.
 location.
c.
 function.
b.
 structure.
d.
 surface area-to-volume ratio.
 
 30.
As cell size increases, the surface area-to-volume ratio
a.
 decreases.
c.
 increases then decreases.
b.
 increases.
d.
 remains the same.
 
 31.
To function most efficiently, a cell’s size must be
a.
 large.
c.
 small.
b.
 medium.
d.
 any size.
 
 32.
Which of the following shapes would allow a cell to have the greatest surface area-to-volume ratio?
a.
 sphere
c.
 egg-shaped
b.
 cube
d.
 broad and flat
 
 33.
A cube with a side length of 6 mm has a surface area-to-volume ratio of
a.
 1:1.
c.
 3:1.
b.
 2:1.
d.
 6:1.
 
 34.
One difference between prokaryotes and eukaryotes is that prokaryotes do not have
a.
 DNA.
c.
 cytoplasm.
b.
 a cell membrane.
d.
 a nucleus.
 
 35.
Which cells have a cell membrane, cytoplasm, ribosomes, and DNA?
a.
 only animal cells
c.
 only eukaryotic cells
b.
 only prokaryotic cells
d.
 all cells
 
 36.
The genetic material that provides instructions for making proteins is
a.
 DNA.
c.
 cytoplasm.
b.
 cytosol.
d.
 a ribosome.
 
 37.
A structure within a eukaryotic cell that carries out specific activities inside the cell is called a(n)
a.
 organelle.
c.
 nucleus.
b.
 cytoplasm.
d.
 membrane.
 
 38.
Which of the following statements about prokaryotes is correct?
a.
 They have a nucleus.
b.
 Their evolution preceded that of eukaryotes.
c.
 The organelles in their cytoplasm are surrounded by membranes.
d.
 They are multicellular organisms.
 
 39.
Only eukaryotic cells have
a.
 DNA.
c.
 ribosomes.
b.
 membrane-bound organelles.
d.
 cytoplasm.
 
   
 
nar001-1.jpg
 
 40.
Refer to the illustration above. Which structure acts as a boundary between the outside environment and the inside of the cell?
a.
 structure 1
c.
 structure 3
b.
 structure 2
d.
 structure 4
 
 41.
Refer to the illustration above. Which structure immediately identifies this cell as a eukaryote?
a.
 structure 1
c.
 structure 3
b.
 structure 2
d.
 structure 4
 
 42.
Refer to the illustration above. In eukaryotic cells, DNA is found in
a.
 structure 1.
c.
 structure 3.
b.
 structure 2.
d.
 structure 5.
 
 43.
Refer to the illustration above. Structure 2 is
a.
 rough endoplasmic reticulum.
c.
 a mitochondrion.
b.
 a Golgi apparatus.
d.
 the nucleus.
 
 44.
Refer to the illustration above. Which structure produces vesicles filled with proteins?
a.
 structure 1
c.
 structure 4
b.
 structure 2
d.
 structure 5
 
 45.
Refer to the illustration above. Structure 5 is
a.
 part of the endoplasmic reticulum.
c.
 a mitochondrion.
b.
 a Golgi apparatus.
d.
 the nucleus.
 
 46.
Refer to the illustration above. The cell uses structure 3 to
a.
 transport material from one part of the cell to another.
b.
 package proteins so they can be stored by the cell.
c.
 use light energy to make sugar.
d.
 use energy from organic compounds to make ATP.
 
 47.
Refer to the illustration above. The cell shown is probably an animal cell because it
a.
 has mitochondria.
c.
 has a cell membrane.
b.
 does not have a cell wall.
d.
 does not have a nucleus.
 
 48.
Microfilaments, microtubules, and intermediate fibers are three kinds of cytoskeleton
a.
 protein fibers.
c.
 organelles.
b.
 membranes.
d.
 DNA.
 
 49.
What kind of cytoskeleton fibers could help a cell change shape to fit into a space?
a.
 microfilaments
c.
 intermediate fibers
b.
 microtubules
d.
 tubulin fibers
 
 50.
Which of the following is true of both DNA and some proteins?
a.
 made in nucleus
b.
 made in ribosomes
c.
 must be kept separate from cytoplasm
d.
 must be kept separate from nucleus
 
 51.
cell : cell membrane ::
a.
 nucleus : DNA
c.
 organelle : cell
b.
 nucleus : nuclear envelope
d.
 cell : DNA
 
 52.
The double membrane surrounding the nucleus is called the
a.
 nucleolus.
c.
 ribosome.
b.
 nuclear wall.
d.
 nuclear envelope.
 
 53.
In a cell, proteins are made on the
a.
 mitochondria.
c.
 nucleus.
b.
 ribosomes.
d.
 cell membrane.
 
 54.
Where are bound ribosomes located?
a.
 suspended in the cytosol
b.
 inside the nucleus
c.
 attached to membranes of another organelle
d.
 outside the cell membrane
 
 55.
The organelle that moves proteins and other substances through the cell is the
a.
 endoplasmic reticulum.
c.
 Golgi apparatus.
b.
 mitochondrion.
d.
 cytoplasm.
 
 56.
The organelle that modifies, sorts, and packages proteins is the
a.
 endoplasmic reticulum.
c.
 lysosome.
b.
 ribosome.
d.
 Golgi apparatus.
 
   
 
nar002-1.jpg
 
 57.
Refer to the illustration above. The structures labeled 4 are
a.
 vesicles.
c.
 ribosomes.
b.
 lysosomes.
d.
 chloroplasts.
 
 58.
Refer to the illustration above. Which structure packages proteins for distribution?
a.
 structure 1
c.
 structure 3
b.
 structure 2
d.
 structure 4
 
 59.
Refer to the illustration above. Structure 3 is a(n)
a.
 mitochondrion.
c.
 ribosome.
b.
 endoplasmic reticulum.
d.
 vesicle.
 
 60.
Plant cells have a large membrane-bound compartment in which water, waste products, and nutrients can be stored. This compartment is called the
a.
 mitochondrion.
c.
 Golgi apparatus.
b.
 chloroplast.
d.
 central vacuole.
 
 61.
A cell that requires a lot of energy might contain large numbers of
a.
 chromosomes.
c.
 mitochondria.
b.
 vacuoles.
d.
 lysosomes.
 
 62.
The organelles associated with plant photosynthesis are the
a.
 mitochondria.
c.
 Golgi apparatus.
b.
 chloroplasts.
d.
 vacuoles.
 
 63.
sunlight : chloroplasts ::
a.
 chloroplasts : lysosomes
c.
 organic compounds : ribosomes
b.
 organic compounds : mitochondria
d.
 ATP : vesicles
 
 64.
What do chloroplasts and mitochondria have in common?
a.
 absorption of light energy
c.
 production of ATP
b.
 presence in all cells
d.
 digestion of cell wastes
 
 65.
All the following are found in both plant and animal cells, except
a.
 a cell wall.
c.
 mitochondria.
b.
 a cell membrane.
d.
 endoplasmic reticulum.
 
 66.
Short, thick outgrowths that allow prokaryotes to attach to surfaces or each other are called
a.
 flagella.
c.
 microfilaments.
b.
 microtubules.
d.
 pili.
 
 67.
Which of the following is an example of a prokaryotic cell?
a.
 chloroplast
c.
 bacterium
b.
 fungus
d.
 muscle cell
 
 68.
Which of the following pairs contains unrelated items?
a.
 eukaryote-plant
c.
 cell wall-animal cell
b.
 ribosome-protein
d.
 mitochondria-ATP
 
 69.
What level of organization is the small intestine?
a.
 cell
c.
 organ
b.
 tissue
d.
 organ system
 
 70.
Which of the following statements about colonial organisms is correct?
a.
 They are multicellular.
b.
 Their cell activities are integrated.
c.
 They are a collection of different kinds of cells.
d.
 They can survive when separated.
 
  

Completion
Complete each statement.
 
   71.
All cells arise from ____________________.
 
 

 
   72.
The basic unit of structure and function in an organism is the ____________________.
 
 

 
   73.
The statement that “cells arise only from existing cells” is part of the ____________________.
 
 

 
   74.
As a cell’s size decreases, its surface area-to-volume ratio ____________________.
 
 

 
   75.
The surface area-to-volume ratio limits a cell’s ____________________.
 
 

 
   76.
Eukaryotic cells contain specialized structures called ____________________.
 
 

 
   77.
A cell with a nucleus is a(n) ____________________ cell.
 
 

 
   78.
Scientists think that ____________________ cells evolved about 1.5 billion years ago.
 
 

 
   79.
All substances that enter or leave a cell must cross the cell ____________________.
 
 

 
   80.
The ____________________ houses a cell’s DNA, which contains genetic material.
 
 

 
   81.
The organelles where protein synthesis occurs in a cell are called ____________________.
 
 

 
   82.
Prokaryotic cells have a cell ____________________ that surrounds the cell membrane.
 
 

 
   83.
Some prokaryotic cells have a ____________________ that surrounds the cell wall.
 
 

 
   84.
____________________ cells have a system of internal membranes that divides the cytoplasm into compartments.
 
 

 
   85.
The web of protein fibers that supports the shape of the cell is called the ____________________.
 
 

 
   86.
The cytoskeleton’s network of ____________________ fibers anchors cell organelles.
 
 

 
   87.
A ribosome is made of ____________________ and many proteins.
 
 

 
   88.
DNA instructions are copied as ____________________ messages.
 
 

 
   89.
Ribosomes use RNA messages to assemble ____________________.
 
 

 
   90.
The ____________________ is a structure that makes ribosome parts in the nucleus.
 
 

 
   91.
Rough endoplasmic reticulum has ____________________ attached to its surface.
 
 

 
   92.
____________________ endoplasmic reticulum has no attached ribosomes.
 
 

 
   93.
Vesicles that contain newly made proteins move through the ____________________ from the ER to the Golgi apparatus.
 
 

 
   94.
Vesicles help maintain ____________________ by storing and releasing various substances as the cell needs them.
 
 

 
   95.
Lysosomes work by fusing with other ____________________.
 
 

 
   96.
Photosynthesis takes place in the ____________________ of plant cells.
 
 

 
   97.
Both plant cells and animal cells have cell membranes. In addition, plant cells are surrounded by a(n) ____________________.
 
 

 
   98.
In multicellular organisms, similar cells group together to make ____________________.
 
 

 
   99.
A group of identical cells that can survive alone if separated are called ____________________ organisms.
 
 

 
  

Short Answer
 
   100.
Why did it take more than 150 years for scientists to appreciate the discoveries of Hook and Leeuwenhoek?
 

 
   101.
What are the three parts of the cell theory?
 

 
   102.
What happens to a cell’s surface area-to-volume ratio as the cell gets larger?
 

 
   103.
How can a large cell have a large surface area-to-volume ratio?
 

 
   104.
What is the difference in the location of DNA in a prokaryotic cell and in a eukaryotic cell?
 

 
   105.
What is the function of organelles in eukaryotic cells?
 

 
   106.
Describe the characteristics of DNA in a prokaryotic cell.
 

 
   107.
What are three kinds of cytoskeleton in eukaryotic cells?
 

 
   108.
What are three functions of the cytoskeleton?
 

 
   109.
Where are ribosome parts made and assembled?
 

 
   110.
What kind of ribosomes makes proteins that remain inside the cell?
 

 
   111.
How does the appearance of the two kinds of endoplasmic reticulum differ? What causes the difference?
 

 
   112.
What happens to the vesicle membrane of a vesicle that migrates to the cell membrane and releases proteins to the outside of the cell?
 

 
   113.
What is the function of a contractile vacuole in a protist?
 

 
   114.
Describe what happens in a protist after the cell membrane surrounds food outside the cell.
 

 
   115.
What is the difference between the energy source of chloroplasts and mitochondria? What do the two organelles have in common?
 

 
   116.
Compare the functions of flagella and pili in prokaryotes.
 

 
   117.
What are three structures present in plant cells but not in animal cells?
 

 
   118.
What are the levels of organization of cells in a multicellular organism?
 

 
   119.
How does a multicellular organism develop from a single cell?
 

 
  

Essay
 
   120.
Small cells function more efficiently than large cells do. Briefly explain why this is true, using the concept of surface area-to-volume ratio.
 

 
   121.
Describe the making of a ribosome. Include the difference between the two kinds of ribosomes.
 

 
   122.
Describe the movement of proteins through the internal membrane system of a cell.
 

 

 

 
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Chapter 5 Homeostasis and Transport RETEST

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Multiple Choice
Identify the choice that best completes the statement or answers the question.
 1.
As a result of diffusion, the concentration of many types of substances
a.
 always remains greater inside a membrane.
b.
 eventually becomes balanced on both sides of a membrane.
c.
 always remains greater on the outside of a membrane.
d.
 becomes imbalanced on both sides of a membrane.
 2.
Diffusion takes place
a.
 only through a lipid bilayer membrane.
b.
 from an area of low concentration to an area of high concentration.
c.
 only in liquids.
d.
 from an area of high concentration to an area of low concentration.
            Concentration of Water and Solutes in Four Adjacent Cells

nar001-1.jpg
 3.
Refer to the illustration above. Which cell is most likely to lose both water molecules and solute molecules as the system approaches equilibrium?
a.
 cell “A”
c.
 cell “C”
b.
 cell “B”
d.
 cell “D”
 4.
Refer to the illustration above. In this system, solute molecules in cell “B” are most likely to
a.
 remain in cell “B.”
c.
 diffuse into cell “A.”
b.
 adhere to cell “B’s” membrane.
d.
 diffuse into cell “D”
 5.
Refer to the illustration above. In this system, water molecules are most likely to diffuse in which direction?
a.
 from “A” to “B”
c.
 from “D” to “C”
b.
 from “B” to “D”
d.
 from “C” to “A”
 6.
The dispersal of ink in a beaker of water is an example of
a.
 diffusion.
c.
 active transport.
b.
 osmosis.
d.
 endocytosis.
 7.
heavy rains : flooding ::
a.
 osmosis : proton pumping
b.
 high solute concentration : isotonic solution
c.
 active transport : ATP
d.
 concentration difference : osmosis
 8.
Sugar molecules can enter cells through the process of
a.
 exocytosis.
c.
 osmosis.
b.
 facilitated diffusion.
d.
 ion pumps.
 9.
Channels utilizing facilitated diffusion
a.
 work in two directions.
b.
 require an electrical signal to function.
c.
 Both a and b
d.
 None of the above
 10.
Which of the following is not characteristic of facilitated diffusion?
a.
 It requires a carrier protein.
b.
 It moves substances against a concentration gradient.
c.
 It requires no energy input.
d.
 It involves a change in the shape of its carrier.
 11.
Which of the following is true of ions and their transport across cell membranes?
a.
 The “gates” for ion channels are always open.
b.
 Ions are very small and thus can cross cell membranes readily.
c.
 Electrical or chemical signals may control the movement of ions across cell membranes.
d.
 Because they are charged particles, the movement of ions across cell membranes requires energy input.
 12.
Which of the following does not expend energy?
a.
 diffusion
c.
 active transport
b.
 chemiosmosis
d.
 a sodium-potassium pump
 13.
Which of the following enters a cell by active transport?
a.
 glucose
c.
 sodium ion
b.
 water
d.
 potassium ion
 14.
The process by which water passes into or out of a cell is called
a.
 solubility.
c.
 selective transport.
b.
 osmosis.
d.
 endocytosis.
nar002-1.jpg
 15.
Refer to the illustration above. The process shown is called
a.
 osmosis.
c.
 active transport.
b.
 facilitated diffusion.
d.
 diffusion.
 16.
The sodium-potassium pump usually pumps
a.
 potassium out of the cell.
b.
 sodium into the cell.
c.
 potassium into the cell.
d.
 only a potassium and sugar molecule together.
 17.
proton pump : protons ::
a.
 ATP : protons
c.
 sodium-potassium pump : ATP
b.
 channel : protons
d.
 sodium-potassium pump : sodium
 18.
Ridding the cell of material by discharging it from sacs at the cell surface is called
a.
 chemiosmosis.
c.
 exocytosis.
b.
 exorcism.
d.
 endocytosis.
 19.
Molecules that are too large to be moved across a cell membrane can be removed from the cell by
a.
 diffusion.
c.
 lipid carriers.
b.
 exocytosis.
d.
 osmosis.
 20.
Molecules that are too large to be moved through the membrane can be transported into the cell by
a.
 osmosis.
c.
 lipid carriers.
b.
 endocytosis.
d.
 diffusion.
 21.
endocytosis : exocytosis ::
a.
 phagocytosis : bacteria
c.
 cold : hot
b.
 secrete : exocytosis
d.
 white blood cell : bacteria

 
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Biochemistry PCC

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Multiple Choice
Identify the choice that best completes the statement or answers the question.
 1.
At what temperature is water most dense?
a.
 0 degrees Celsius
b.
 1 degrees Celsius
c.
 4 degrees Celsius
d.
 10 degrees Celsius
e.
 100 degrees Celsius
 2.
Which property of water enables living things to survive in it?
a.
 high heat of vaporization
b.
 high specific heat
c.
 degree of surface tension
d.
 cohesion
e.
 density of ice
 3.
Which characteristic of water makes the existence of pH possible?
a.
 ionization
b.
 polarity
c.
 adhesion
d.
 cohesion
e.
 None of the above.
 4.
Which of the following types of biologist would need an understanding of chemistry?
a.
 molecular biologist
b.
 ecologist
c.
 evolutionary biologist
d.
 botanist
e.
 All of the above.
 5.
All of the following are inorganic compounds except:
a.
 glucose.
b.
 hydrochloric acid.
c.
 sodium chloride.
d.
 sodium hydroxide.
e.
 water.
 6.
An element is defined as a substance that:
a.
 is composed of more than one kind of atom.
b.
 is held together by covalent bonds.
c.
 cannot be broken into simpler substances by chemical reactions.
d.
 cannot burn.
e.
 is soluble in both acid and water.
 7.
Which of the following determines the type of element?
a.
 the number of electrons
b.
 the number of protons
c.
 the number of neutrons
d.
 the number of valence electrons
e.
 the number of energy levels
 8.
Which of the following elements is not responsible for a significant portion of the mass of living organisms?
a.
 O
b.
 S
c.
 N
d.
 H
e.
 C
 9.
An element found in minute quantities in living organisms is called:
a.
 a heavy element.
b.
 a vitamin.
c.
 an organic compound.
d.
 an isotope.
e.
 a trace element.
 10.
Select the incorrectly matched pair:
a.
 The 1st principal energy level contains 1 orbital.
b.
 The 2nd principal energy level contains 4 orbitals.
c.
 The 1st principal energy level contains a maximum of 2 electrons.
d.
 The 2nd energy level contains a maximum of 10 electrons.
e.
 All of the above are correctly matched.
 11.
Chlorine has seven electrons in its valence shell. The number of electrons it must gain to complete its valence shell is:
a.
 one.
b.
 two.
c.
 three.
d.
 seven.
e.
 eight.
 12.
An atom has six protons and eight neutrons. Its atomic mass is ____________ atomic mass units.
a.
 two
b.
 four
c.
 six
d.
 eight
e.
 fourteen
 13.
This determines the chemical properties of an element:
a.
 the atomic number.
b.
 the atomic weight.
c.
 the number of energy levels.
d.
 the number of valence electrons.
e.
 orbitals.
 14.
The difference between an electrically neutral atom and an ion is that:
a.
 an ion has an unequal number of protons and electrons, while an atom has an equal number.
b.
 an ion has an equal number of protons and electrons, while an atom has an unequal number.
c.
 an atom has an unequal number of neutrons and protons, while an ion has an equal number.
d.
 an atom has its electrons in orbitals, while an ion has its electrons in its nucleus.
e.
 an atom must have an equal number of neutrons and electrons, while an ion does not.
 15.
The difference between a stable isotope and a radioisotope is that:
a.
 the stable isotope emits radiation.
b.
 the radioisotope emits radiation.
c.
 the stable isotope emits light.
d.
 the stable isotope absorbs radiation.
e.
 the radioisotope has an unequal number of protons and electrons.
Figure 02-01
Use the figure below to answer the corresponding questions.nar001-1.jpg
 16.
Figure 02-01 represents:
a.
 two isotopes of the same element.
b.
 two different elements.
c.
 two different ions.
d.
 an acid and a base.
e.
 a cation and an anion.
 17.
The atomic mass of the atom identified as A in Figure 02-01 is:
a.
 2.
b.
 6.
c.
 8.
d.
 12.
e.
 18.
 18.
The difference between the two atoms in Figure 02-01 is:
a.
 pH.
b.
 the number of electrons.
c.
 the number of protons.
d.
 the number of neutrons.
e.
 electric charge.
 19.
Radioisotopes are used in all of the following scientific applications except:
a.
 dating fossils.
b.
 determining the sequence of genetic information in DNA.
c.
 localization of a drug, such as marijuana.
d.
 the treatment of cancer.
e.
 monitoring changes in the salinity of an estuary.
 20.
Isotopes differ from each other with respect to the number of:
a.
 protons.
b.
 electrons.
c.
 neutrons.
d.
 protons and electrons.
e.
 neutrons and protons.
 21.
When a chemical reaction is at equilibrium:
a.
 the forward reaction is going faster.
b.
 the reverse reaction is going faster.
c.
 the forward and reverse reactions are proceeding at equal rates.
d.
 the forward reaction stops.
e.
 the reverse reaction stops.
 22.
Any chemical interaction between atoms:
a.
 involves neutrons.
b.
 may potentially involve any electron.
c.
 involves protons.
d.
 involves only valence electrons.
e.
 involves only the nuclear subatomic particles.
 23.
The molecular mass of C6H12O6 is 180 amu. 0.25 moles of this substance contain:
a.
 180 daltons.
b.
 45 g.
c.
 1.8 g.
d.
 45 daltons.
e.
 180 g.
 24.
How many molecules are present in one mole of C6H12O6?
a.
 1.7 ´ 10-10 molecules
b.
 1.3 ´ 1010 molecules
c.
 5 molecules
d.
 1.7 ´ 1022 molecules
e.
 6.02 ´ 1023 molecules
Figure 02-02
Use the figure below to answer the corresponding questions.nar002-1.jpg
 25.
Figure 02-02 represents:
a.
 elemental helium.
b.
 molecular hydrogen.
c.
 molecular helium.
d.
 a water molecule.
e.
 molecular oxygen.
 26.
The type of bond illustrated in Figure 02-02 is:
a.
 an ionic bond.
b.
 a polar bond.
c.
 a single covalent bond.
d.
 a hydrogen bond.
e.
 a double covalent bond.
 27.
Select the covalent bond that involves 2 electrons:
a.
 single
b.
 double
c.
 triple
d.
 Both A and B.
e.
 Both A and C.
 28.
The representation H – O – H is known as:
a.
 a structural formula.
b.
 a simplest formula.
c.
 a molecular formula.
d.
 a Lewis structure.
e.
 an orbital diagram.
 29.
Which of the following choices correctly identifies a reactant in the following chemical equation? CO2 + H2O « H2CO3
a.
 carbonic acid
b.
 oxygen
c.
 water
d.
 sugar
e.
 carbon monoxide
 30.
In a chemical reaction, the product is:
a.
 generally written on the right side of the equation.
b.
 always in equilibrium with the reactants.
c.
 the substance that is generated by the reaction.
d.
 only joined by an ionic bond.
e.
 Both A and C.
 31.
A covalent bond:
a.
 can form only between identical atoms.
b.
 involves a sharing of only one pair of electrons.
c.
 is always polar.
d.
 may be polar or nonpolar depending on the atoms involved.
e.
 always forms between identical molecules.
 32.
In a water molecule, because oxygen is more electronegative than hydrogen, the shared electrons are more commonly found around the ____________ nucleus than the ____________ nucleus.
a.
 oxygen; hydrogen
b.
 hydrogen; oxygen
c.
 hydrogen; other hydrogen
d.
 oxygen; nitrogen
e.
 nitrogen; oxygen
 33.
The covalent bond between a hydrogen atom and the oxygen atom in water is formed when:
a.
 hydrogen gains an electron from oxygen.
b.
 hydrogen and oxygen share an electron pair.
c.
 hydrogen and oxygen both lose electrons from their outer shells.
d.
 hydrogen and oxygen both gain electrons in their outer shells.
e.
 hydrogen gains an electron from oxygen.
 34.
Covalently bonded atoms with similar electronic negativities are:
a.
 ionic.
b.
 polar.
c.
 nonpolar.
d.
 partially positive.
e.
 partially negative.
 35.
An atom becomes a cation if:
a.
 it gains one or more electron.
b.
 it loses one or more electron.
c.
 it shares electrons.
d.
 one or more of its electrons changes energy levels.
e.
 it emits radiation.
 36.
In the formation of common table salt, sodium and chlorine interact because:
a.
 sodium and chlorine share a pair of electrons.
b.
 sodium and chlorine share two pairs of electrons.
c.
 chlorine donates seven electrons to sodium.
d.
 there is no electron exchange.
e.
 sodium donates one electron to chlorine.
 37.
Table salt dissolves easily in water because:
a.
 water can form covalent linkages with salt molecules.
b.
 water can remove electrons from the chloride ion, which causes the latter to dissociate from the sodium and dissolve.
c.
 water can add electrons to the sodium ion.
d.
 water is polar and salt is nonpolar. Nonpolar compounds are more soluble in polar solvents because they are able to form strong covalent bonds that result in a breaking up of the molecule being dissolved.
e.
 the partial positive charge of the hydrogens in the water molecule can associate with the negative charge of the chloride ion, and the partial negative charge of the oxygen of the water molecule can associate with the positive charge of the sodium atom.
 38.
Which one of the following atoms would most likely be involved in an ionic bond?
a.
 hydrogen
b.
 oxygen
c.
 sodium
d.
 Both A and B.
e.
 Both A and C.
 39.
The process whereby water molecules surround ions during the process of dissolving is called:
a.
 reduction.
b.
 hydration.
c.
 buffering.
d.
 oxidation.
e.
 vaporization.
 40.
Which component becomes oxidized in the following chemical reaction?
4 Fe + 3 O2 ® 2 Fe2O3
a.
 water
b.
 iron
c.
 oxygen
d.
 rust
e.
 hydrogen
 41.
Which component is the oxidizing agent in the following chemical reaction?
4 Fe + 3 O2 ® 2 Fe2O3
a.
 water
b.
 iron
c.
 oxygen
d.
 rust
e.
 hydrogen
 42.
Which of the following statements is not correct?
a.
 Water heats up and cools down very quickly.
b.
 The amount of heat required to raise the temperature of 1 g of water 1 °C is one calorie.
c.
 Due to hydrogen bonds, water has a high surface tension.
d.
 Large bodies of water have relatively constant temperatures.
e.
 When one gram of water evaporates, it removes heat.
 43.
It takes one calorie of heat to raise the temperature of one gram of water one degree Celsius at sea level. This is referred to as the _______________________ of water.
a.
 heat of fusion
b.
 heat of vaporization
c.
 specific heat
d.
 heat of transformation
e.
 heat of homeostasis
 44.

Which characteristic of water molecules directly contributes to the remarkable “water walking” success of the aquatic insects pictured in the accompanying figure?

mc044-1.jpg

a.
 hydrogen bonds
b.
 capillary action
c.
 nonpolar covalent bonds
d.
 ionic bonds
e.
 adhesive forces
 45.
The cohesiveness between water molecules is due largely to:
a.
 hydrogen bonds.
b.
 polar covalent bonds.
c.
 nonpolar covalent bonds.
d.
 ionic bonds.
e.
 hydrophobic interactions.
 46.
A stalk of celery is placed in a solution of blue colored dye. After one hour, the leaves have blue fluid in their veins. Which property of water is being demonstrated?
a.
 adhesion and cohesion
b.
 evaporation and cooling
c.
 lower density as a solid than as a liquid
d.
 high specific heat
e.
 surface tension
 47.
Evaporative cooling is a process whereby ____________ moving ____________ molecules vaporize, thus ____________ large amounts of heat.
a.
 slow; water; adding
b.
 fast; water; removing
c.
 slow; oxygen; adding
d.
 fast; oxygen; removing
e.
 fast; carbon dioxide; removing
 48.
In a mixture, which one would be present in the least amount?
a.
 solvent
b.
 solute
c.
 water
d.
 Both A and B.
e.
 Both A and C.
 49.
This characteristic of a molecule determines the ability of hydrogen bonds to form between it and hydrogen:
a.
 A non polar atom
b.
 An atom with a partial positive charge
c.
 An atom with a partial negative charge
d.
 None of the above.
e.
 All of the above.
 50.
A pH of 4 is ____________ times more ____________ than a pH of 7.
a.
 3; basic
b.
 3; acidic
c.
 1000; neutral
d.
 1000; basic
e.
 1000; acidic
 51.
What is the OH- concentration of a solution having a pH of 2?
a.
 1 ´ 10-12
b.
 1 ´ 10-10
c.
 1 ´ 10-7
d.
 1 ´ 10-2
e.
 1 ´ 10-1
 52.
When a small amount of hydrochloric acid (HCl) is added to a solution of Na2HPO4, the pH of the solution does not change markedly. The pH also does not change drastically when a small amount of sodium hydroxide (NaOH) is added to this same solution. Based on these observations, the compound Na2HPO4 is:
a.
 able to donate hydrogen atoms to HCl.
b.
 able to remove hydrogen ions from the OH- of NaOH.
c.
 acting as a buffer.
d.
 an enzyme facilitating the reaction between HCl and NaOH.
e.
 All of the above.
 53.
A salt is a compound in which the hydrogen ion of _________________ is replaced by some other cation.
a.
 a base
b.
 an acid
c.
 an anion
d.
 a hydroxide ion
e.
 water
 54.
Which concentration(s) results in a pH of 7?
a.
 higher concentrations of hydrogen ions than hydroxide ions
b.
 higher concentrations of hydroxide ions than hydrogen ions
c.
 equal concentrations of hydroxide ions than hydrogen ions
d.
 Both A and B.
e.
 None of the above.
 55.
Identify the chemical(s) that act(s) as a buffer in human blood:
a.
 bicarbonate
b.
 hydrogen ions
c.
 carbon dioxide
d.
 water
e.
 None of the above.
 56.
Identify the hydrogen ion concentration that represents the lowest pH from the following list:
a.
 1 ´ 10-3
b.
 1 ´ 10-4
c.
 1 ´ 10-7
d.
 1 ´ 10-11
e.
 1 ´ 10-14
 57.
Which of the following has a pH closest to that of human blood?
a.
 beer
b.
 coffee
c.
 rain water
d.
 sea water
e.
 oven cleaner
 58.
Which of the following would most likely form electrolytes in water?
a.
 glucose
b.
 ethanol
c.
 An organic compound
d.
 An inorganic compound
e.
 None of the above.
 59.
Which of the following is not a property of carbon?
a.
 Carbon-to-carbon bonds are limited to single bonds.
b.
 Carbon has four valence electrons.
c.
 Carbon can form bonds to various other atoms.
d.
 Two carbon atoms can share three electron pairs with each other.
e.
 Carbon-to-carbon bonds are strong.
 60.
What aspect of long carbon chains makes them ideal for forming the backbones of long biomolecules?
a.
 The carbon atom itself is strong and hard to split.
b.
 Carbon can form a maximum of five covalent bonds with other atoms.
c.
 Carbons can form a maximum of three covalent bonds with other atoms.
d.
 Carbon-to-carbon covalent bonds are strong.
e.
 Carbon-to-carbon hydrogen bonds are weak and transitory.
 61.
The highly polarized nature of compounds containing carboxyl groups can be attributed to:
a.
 the presence of two highly electronegative carbon atoms.
b.
 the presence of two highly electropositive carbon atoms.
c.
 the presence of two highly electronegative oxygen atoms.
d.
 the presence of two highly electropositive oxygen atoms.
e.
 None of the above.
 62.

The number of electron pairs shared between carbon 2 and 3 in the accompanying figure is:

mc062-1.jpg

a.
 one.
b.
 one and a half.
c.
 two.
d.
 three.
e.
 None of the above.
 63.

The two molecules in the following figure represent:

mc063-1.jpg

a.
 ionized structures.
b.
 enantiomers.
c.
 secondary structures.
d.
 geometric isomers.
e.
 polymers.
 64.
This functional group is weakly basic because it can accept an H+ ion:
a.
 hydroxyl
b.
 carbonyl
c.
 amino
d.
 phosphate
e.
 sulfhydryl
 65.
This functional group forms cross bridges that help stabilize protein tertiary structure:
a.
 hydroxyl
b.
 carbonyl
c.
 amino
d.
 phosphate
e.
 sulfhydryl
 66.
The chemical interactions of large hydrocarbons are largely determined by:
a.
 their solubility in water.
b.
 their functional groups.
c.
 their polar nature.
d.
 isomerization of these hydrocarbons into other forms.
e.
 the hydrogens bonded to the carbon atoms.
 67.
Hydrocarbons are hydrophobic because:
a.
 the covalent bonds between hydrogen and carbon are nonpolar.
b.
 they contain functional groups.
c.
 they exist as isomers.
d.
 Both A and B.
e.
 Both A and C.
 68.
Which pair is mismatched?
a.
 monsaccharide:maltose
b.
 disaccharide:sucrose
c.
 polysaccharide:cellulose
d.
 None of these pairs are correctly matched.
e.
 All of these pairs are correctly matched.
 69.
Which of these terms is most inclusive?
a.
 monosaccharide
b.
 starch
c.
 polysaccharide
d.
 disaccharide
e.
 carbohydrate
 70.
Glucose dissolves in water because:
a.
 it ionizes.
b.
 it is a polysaccharide.
c.
 it has polar hydroxyl groups that interact with polar water molecules.
d.
 it has a very reactive primary structure.
e.
 it is hydrophobic.
 71.
Carbohydrate molecules:
a.
 serve as structural components of human cell walls.
b.
 form the regulatory compounds known as enzymes.
c.
 are a source of energy.
d.
 help protect vital organs from damage.
e.
 contain the genetic information of a cell.
 72.
A chemical reaction in which organic compounds are synthesized from their building blocks is called:
a.
 hydrolysis.
b.
 condensation.
c.
 oxidation.
d.
 reduction.
e.
 dissociation.
Figure 03-01
Use the figure below to answer the corresponding questions.nar003-1.jpg
 73.
The process illustrated in Figure 03-01 is called:
a.
 condensation.
b.
 protein synthesis.
c.
 hydrolysis.
d.
 dehydration synthesis.
e.
 denaturation.
 74.
The products of the process in Figure 03-01 are:
a.
 amino acids.
b.
 molecules of glycerol.
c.
 representative of a glycoside linkage.
d.
 enzymes.
e.
 monosaccharides.
 75.
Which one of the following carbohydrates is the most structurally complex?
a.
 sucrose
b.
 fructose
c.
 cellulose
d.
 glucose
e.
 a disaccharide
 76.
In which of the following reactions must the equivalent of a water molecule be added in order to break a bond?
a.
 fatty acids + glycerol ® fat
b.
 glucose + fructose ® sucrose
c.
 glycogen ® glucose
d.
 alanine + glycine ® dipeptide
e.
 glucose ® cellulose
 77.
Which of the following illustrates hydrolysis?
a.
 the reaction of two monosaccharides to form a disaccharide
b.
 the reaction of two amino acids to form a dipeptide
c.
 the reaction of a hydrogen atom and a hydroxide ion to form water
d.
 the reaction of a fat to form glycerol and fatty acids
e.
 the formation of ATP from ADP and inorganic phosphate
 78.
The difference between a hexose and a pentose is that:
a.
 a hexose is saturated, and a pentose is undersaturated.
b.
 a hexose is hydrophilic, and a pentose is hydrophobic.
c.
 a hexose always has six hydroxyl groups, and a pentose always has five.
d.
 a hexose always has six carbons, but a pentose always has five carbons.
e.
 a hexose can be polymerized, but a pentose cannot.
 79.
Monosaccharides are water soluble because:
a.
 they contain a large number of methyl groups.
b.
 they have a large number of polar hydroxyl groups.
c.
 they have at least one double bond between adjacent carbons.
d.
 they have large numbers of nonpolar carbons in their backbones.
e.
 they can form ring structures.
 80.
A carbohydrate energy storage molecule found in animal liver and muscle cells is:
a.
 starch.
b.
 glycogen.
c.
 cellulose.
d.
 fatty acids.
e.
 cholesterol.
 81.
Amyloplasts are organelles that store:
a.
 fat.
b.
 starch.
c.
 protein.
d.
 lipids.
e.
 DNA.
 82.
The major function(s) of lipids includes:
a.
 storing energy.
b.
 serving as structural components of cellular membranes.
c.
 serving as hormones.
d.
 Both A and B.
e.
 A, B, and C are correct.
 83.
The hydrolysis of triacylglycerol will yield:
a.
 three fatty acids and one glycerol.
b.
 three glycerols and one fatty acid.
c.
 two fatty acids and three glycerols.
d.
 one fatty acid, one amino acid, and one glucose.
e.
 one fatty acid, one phosphate, and one glycerol.
 84.
A molecule of a saturated triacylglycerol contains:
a.
 the maximum number of double bonds between carbons in the fatty acid chains.
b.
 the maximum number of triple bonds between carbons in the fatty acid chains.
c.
 the maximum number of hydrogen atoms in the fatty acid chains.
d.
 fatty acid chains with both amino and carboxyl groups.
e.
 alternating single and double bonds between carbons in the fatty acid chains.
 85.
Which of the following statements concerning unsaturated fats is correct?
a.
 They are more common in animals.
b.
 They have no double bonds in the carbon chains of their fatty acids.
c.
 They are generally liquids at room temperature.
d.
 They contain more hydrogen than do saturated fats having the same number of carbon atoms.
e.
 They have fewer fatty acids per fat molecule than do saturated fats.
 86.
The major difference between a structural lipid, such as those in cell membranes, and a storage fat is the fact that the structural lipid:
a.
 most commonly contains phosphate.
b.
 does not contain glycerol.
c.
 has four fatty acids attached to glucose.
d.
 is entirely hydrophobic.
e.
 is nonpolar.
 87.
An amphipathic molecule has:
a.
 two polar ends.
b.
 two hydrophobic ends.
c.
 a hydrophobic and a hydrophilic portion.
d.
 only one hydrophobic end.
e.
 only one hydrophilic end.
 88.

The most abundant molecules in this structure are:

mc088-1.jpg

a.
 structural proteins.
b.
 polysaccharides.
c.
 triacylglycerols.
d.
 phospholipids.
e.
 polypeptides.
 89.
Which of the following molecules is not grouped with the lipids?
a.
 prostaglandins
b.
 steroids
c.
 cholesterol
d.
 carotenoids
e.
 None of the above, all are lipids.
 90.
The hydrogenation process used to make margarine from cooking oil produces fatty acids that:
a.
 are known to increase the risk of cardiovascular disease.
b.
 contain fewer double bonds.
c.
 can contain rearrange double bonds to the cis configuration.
d.
 Both A and B are correct.
e.
 A, B, and C are correct.
 91.
Which statement is false?
a.
 Trans fatty acids are unsaturated.
b.
 Trans fatty acids are more solid at room temperature than cis fatty acids.
c.
 Unsaturated fatty acids are liquid at room temperature.
d.
 Saturated fatty acids are solid at room temperature.
e.
 All of these statements are true.
 92.
The major function(s) of proteins includes:
a.
 catalyzing chemical reactions.
b.
 controlling the expression of genes.
c.
 strengthening and protecting cells and tissues.
d.
 Both A and B.
e.
 A, B, and C are correct.
 93.
There are 20 different amino acids in the proteins that make up the tissues of living organisms. The primary difference between these amino acids is in their:
a.
 R or variable groups.
b.
 number of potassium groups.
c.
 number of phosphate groups.
d.
 number of carbonyl groups.
e.
 number of asymmetric carbons.
Figure 03-02
Use the figure below to answer the corresponding questions.nar004-1.jpg
 94.
In Figure 03-02, ionic attractions would form between the R groups of which amino acids?
a.
 1 and 3
b.
 2 and 4
c.
 3 and 5
d.
 4 and 6
e.
 None of the above.
 95.
Hydrophobic interactions would occur between the R groups of which two amino acids in Figure 03-02?
a.
 1 and 4
b.
 2 and 5
c.
 3 and 6
d.
 2 and 4
e.
 3 and 5
 96.
Which of the following is responsible for the alpha-helical structure of proteins?
a.
 hydrophobic interactions
b.
 nonpolar covalent bonds
c.
 ionic interactions
d.
 hydrogen bonds
e.
 polar covalent bonds
 97.
At which level of protein structure are peptide bonds most important?
a.
 primary
b.
 secondary
c.
 tertiary
d.
 quaternary
e.
 globular
 98.
Proteins with alpha helical forms exhibit this property:
a.
 strength
b.
 elasticity
c.
 heat stability
d.
 rigidity
e.
 All of the above.
 99.
Which of the following would help stabilize a protein the most?
a.
 alpha helix
b.
 beta pleated sheet
c.
 hydrogen bonds
d.
 hydrophobic interactions
e.
 disulfide bonds
 100.
Some proteins are important biological buffers because:
a.
 they react with water to produce carbon dioxide, which neutralizes acids.
b.
 they contain weakly acidic and weakly basic groups.
c.
 they are able to absorb great amounts of carbon dioxide during condensation reactions.
d.
 they produce carbonic acid upon hydrolysis.
e.
 All of the above.
 101.
The tertiary structure of proteins is typified by the:
a.
 association of several polypeptide chains by weak bonds.
b.
 order in which amino acids are joined in a peptide chain.
c.
 bonding of two amino acids to form a dipeptide.
d.
 folding of a peptide chain to form an alpha helix.
e.
 three-dimensional shape of an individual polypeptide chain.
 102.

All of the following types of chemical bonds are responsible for maintaining the tertiary structure of this polypeptide except:

mc102-1.jpg

a.
 ionic bonds.
b.
 hydrogen bonds.
c.
 hydrophobic interactions.
d.
 disulfide bonds.
e.
 peptide bonds.
 103.
Regulatory proteins:
a.
 defend against foreign invaders.
b.
 store nutrients.
c.
 catalyze a specific chemical reaction.
d.
 control the expression of specific genes.
e.
 strengthen and protect cells and tissues.
 104.
Molecular chaperones are proteins that mediate the folding process of:
a.
 other proteins.
b.
 amino acids.
c.
 lipids.
d.
 DNA.
e.
 sugars.
 105.

The following amino acid would be characterized as __________ based on the chemical properties of its side chain.

mc105-1.jpg

a.
 nonpolar
b.
 acidic
c.
 basic
d.
 hydrophilic
e.
 electrically charged
 106.
Which of the following statements is true of proteins?
a.
 Proteins lose some or all of their normal activity if their three-dimensional structure is disrupted.
b.
 Proteins are composed of ribose, phosphate, and a nitrogen-containing base.
c.
 The activity of proteins is independent of temperature and pH.
d.
 Denaturation is usually reversible.
e.
 All proteins are enzymes.
 107.

If the differently shaded portions of this molecule represent different polypeptide chains, then this figure is representative of:

mc107-1.jpg

a.
 an amino acid.
b.
 the quaternary structure of a protein.
c.
 a steroid hormone.
d.
 cellulose.
e.
 a carotenoid.
 108.
Which of the following statements is false?
a.
 DNA is usually composed of two nucleotide strands.
b.
 DNA contains deoxyribose.
c.
 DNA does not normally contain uracil.
d.
 The nucleotides of DNA are linked by phosphodiester linkages.
e.
 DNA does not normally contain a phosphate group.
 109.
ATP is important in living organisms because:
a.
 like all other nucleic acids, it stores hereditary information.
b.
 like RNA, it acts as a source code for the formation of proteins.
c.
 it can transfer some of its energy to other chemicals.
d.
 it is an important structural component of cell membranes.
e.
 it is easily converted to starch for long-term storage.
 110.
Which of the following statements best summarizes the differences between RNA and DNA?
a.
 RNA is a protein and DNA is a nucleic acid.
b.
 DNA is a polymer and RNA is a monomer.
c.
 DNA comprises the genes, while RNA is a direct participant in the process of protein synthesis.
d.
 RNA is a single-stranded form of DNA.
e.
 DNA is the primary energy currency of all cells.
 111.
Analysis of a certain complex compound shows that it contains phosphate groups, ribose groups, and pyrimidines. Based on this information, which of the following is the best description of this compound?
a.
 It is most likely ribonucleic acid.
b.
 It is DNA.
c.
 It is an inorganic compound.
d.
 It contains thymine.
e.
 It is a polypeptide.
 112.
Which of the following are most directly arranged from DNA structure?
a.
 polysaccharides
b.
 polypeptides
c.
 nucleotides
d.
 triglycerides
e.
 fatty acids
 113.
This molecule transmits heredity information:
a.
 cholesterol
b.
 adenosine triphosphate
c.
 nucleic acid
d.
 fatty acid
e.
 polysaccharide
Figure 03-03
Use the figure to answer the corresponding questions.
nar005-1.jpg
 114.
The molecular fragment represented in Figure 03-03 is:
a.
 ATP.
b.
 RNA.
c.
 a protein.
d.
 a nucleotide.
e.
 a polysaccharide.
 115.
The type of connection between the atoms at the point labeled 1 in Figure 03-03 is:
a.
 a peptide bond.
b.
 a glycoside linkage.
c.
 a disulfide bond.
d.
 a phosphodiester linkage.
e.
 a hydrogen bond.
 116.

Which portion of the following molecule is easily transferred and therefore responsible for the energy transfer property of this molecule?

mc116-1.jpg

a.
 1
b.
 2
c.
 3
d.
 1 and 2
e.
 None of the above.
 117.
Ester linkages would not be formed during condensation reactions that produce:
a.
 polysaccahrides.
b.
 triacylglycerols.
c.
 polypeptides.
d.
 nucleic acids.
e.
 All of the above contain ester linkages that are formed during condensation reactions.
 118.
Which monomer is incorrectly matched with the corresponding polymer?
a.
 Amino acids are used to build proteins.
b.
 Monosaccharides are used to build polysaccharides.
c.
 Fatty acids are used to build nucleic acids.
d.
 Glucose molecules are used to build starches.
e.
 All of these monomers are correctly matched with the corresponding polymer.

 
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Chapter 1 Introduction Study Guide

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Chapter 1 Introduction Study Guide

 

 

Modified True/False
Indicate whether the statement is true or false.  If false, change the identified word or phrase to make the statement true.
 1.
Accepting ideas is the cornerstone of scientific thought. _________________________
 2.
Skepticism is a habit of mind in which a person accepts the validity of accepted ideas. _________________________
 3.
The law of gravity and the law of conservation of energy are national laws. _________________________
 4.
Scientific investigations require ethical behavior. _________________________
 5.
Most scientific investigations begin with observations that lead to universal laws. _________________________
 6.
A hypothesis is a possible explanation that can be tested by observation or experimentation. _________________________
 7.
The control group and the experimental group are identical except for one variable. _________________________
 8.
A hypothesis is a general explanation for a broad range of data. _________________________
 9.
International System of Units (SI) is the official name of the metric system. _________________________
 10.
A centimeter is equal to 10 millimeters. _________________________
 11.
Light and electron autoclaves help magnify objects. _________________________
 12.
A technique is a way of doing something. _________________________
 13.
In the event of a lab accident, one thing you should always do is remain calm. _________________________
 14.
Biology is the study of nonliving things. _________________________
 15.
A student who wants to study bacteria would take microbiology classes. _________________________
 16.
Reproduction insures ongoing generations of both one-celled organisms and frogs. _________________________
 17.
Homeostasis is the maintenance of a stable internal environment in spite of changes in the external environment. _________________________
 18.
The bacterium that causes cholera is an example of a pathogen. _________________________
 19.
Scientists discovered that predicting the spread of cholera involves understanding reproductive behavior of plankton. _________________________
 20.
The study of all the factors in the spread of cholera in human populations is an example of ecology. _________________________
 21.
Scientists in the 21st century are better able to prevent disease because of their improved understanding of biology. _________________________
 22.
The completion of the Human Genome Project was one minor contribution to the ability to cure disease. _________________________
 23.
Scientists expect people to live longer lives because of advances in the science of biology. _________________________
 24.
The application of technology to medicine has greatly increased the ability of people to live healthy lives. _________________________
 25.
Genetic engineering is the only practical application of biotechnology. _________________________
 26.
Genetic engineering is widely used in agriculture to produce crops that are pest-resistant. _________________________
 27.
Surrounding a drug compound with a layer of atoms that allows for the slow release of the drug is an example of genetic engineering. _________________________
 28.
Making a new kind of fastener modeled on the way an aquatic animal fastens onto rocks on the ocean floor is an example of nanotechnology. _________________________
 29.
Biometrics involves analyzing large amounts of data on biological characteristics. _________________________
 30.
Unique genetic traits, such as hair color, are the most important source of data for biometrics. _________________________
 31.
Advances in biotechnology have been slowed by ethical concerns. _________________________
 32.
The ethics of different kinds of biotechnology will be decided by individuals and scientists. _________________________
 33.
One good way to protect the environment is to learn more about it. _________________________
 34.
Environmental science involves neither the study of organisms nor their physical surroundings. _________________________
 35.
One reason that wildlife biologists collect DNA samples from endangered species is the hope that these species can be cloned if they become extinct. _________________________
 36.
Genetic engineering is used to track the movements of animals in the wild. _________________________
 37.
Community environmental groups make problems for environmental research. _________________________
 

Multiple Choice
Identify the choice that best completes the statement or answers the question.
 38.
Which of the following do scientists not use to support ideas?
a.
 opinions
c.
 experiments
b.
 evidence
d.
 investigations
 39.
Which of the following applies to all branches of science?
a.
 cell organization
c.
 gravity
b.
 earthquakes
d.
 reproduction
 40.
Which of the following is unethical behavior in scientific investigations?
a.
 allowing peers to review investigations
b.
 following guidelines for medical experiments
c.
 reporting inaccurate data
d.
 basing investigations on someone else’s work
 41.
Scientific thinking can be used
a.
 only by scientists.
c.
 by all living things.
b.
 only in experiments.
d.
 by everyone in daily life.
 42.
A scientist noticed that the number of salamanders in ponds in the Rocky Mountains was declining. This was a(n)
a.
 hypothesis.
c.
 observation.
b.
 theory.
d.
 control.
 43.
A hypothesis is a
a.
 definite answer to a given problem.
b.
 testable possible explanation of an observation.
c.
 proven statement.
d.
 concluding statement.
 44.
observation : hypothesis ::
a.
 theory : observation
c.
 certainty : prediction
b.
 guess : hypothesis
d.
 hypothesis : investigation
 45.
Most typically, the order in which the steps of scientific investigations are applied is
a.
 controlled experiment, hypothesis, analysis of results, observations, questions, conclusions.
b.
 observations, controlled experiment, hypothesis, analysis of results, conclusions, questions.
c.
 observations, questions, hypothesis, controlled experiment, analysis of results, conclusions.
d.
 questions, observations, analysis of results, controlled experiment, conclusions, hypothesis.
 46.
If experiments are not possible or ethical, scientists
a.
 cannot test a hypothesis.
b.
 test more than one variable at a time.
c.
 do not use a control group.
d.
 look for connections in data gathered.
 47.
Scientific hypotheses are most often tested by the process of
a.
 communicating.
c.
 experimenting.
b.
 inferring.
d.
 analyzing data.
 48.
A planned procedure to test a hypothesis is called a(n)
a.
 prediction.
c.
 control.
b.
 experiment.
d.
 variable.
 49.
The variable that is measured in an experiment is the _____ variable.
a.
 dependent
c.
 control
b.
 independent
d.
 experimental
 50.
A general explanation for a broad range of data is called a
a.
 hypothesis.
c.
 prediction.
b.
 theory.
d.
 controlled experiment.
 51.
A scientific theory is
a.
 absolutely certain and never questioned.
b.
 unchangeable.
c.
 revised as new evidence is presented.
d.
 a controlled experiment.
 52.
Scientists build theories from many
a.
 experiments that support hypotheses.
b.
 hypotheses that are rejected.
c.
 experiments with different variables.
d.
 untested ideas.
 53.
The metric system of measurement is based on powers of
a.
 1.
c.
 100.
b.
 10.
d.
 1000.
 54.
A specialized tool used to magnify organisms so that they can be observed is a
a.
 pipet.
c.
 satellite.
b.
 microscope.
d.
 laminar-flow hood.
 55.
Which of the following would scientists use to prevent contamination in an experiment?
a.
 electron microscope
c.
 remote collection of data
b.
 light microscope
d.
 sterile technique
 56.
Which of the following is the most recent tool available to scientists?
a.
 remote tracking devices
c.
 autoclaves
b.
 microscopes
d.
 sterilized pipets
 57.
You can work safely in the science lab by
a.
 taking shortcuts in procedures.
b.
 waiting until the end of experiments to clean area.
c.
 estimating measurements of chemicals.
d.
 following all instructions.
 58.
All of the following are important for working safely in a science laboratory except
a.
 tasting chemicals.
c.
 working cautiously.
b.
 measuring chemicals precisely.
d.
 wearing safety goggles.
 59.
Biology is the study of
a.
 life.
c.
 weather.
b.
 minerals.
d.
 energy.
 60.
The branch of biology that is the study of the human body is
a.
 ecology.
c.
 cell biology.
b.
 evolutionary theory.
d.
 physiology.
 61.
Which of the following is not one of the seven properties of life?
a.
 metabolism
c.
 responsiveness
b.
 homeostasis
d.
 photosynthesis
 62.
As a characteristic of all living things, homeostasis relates most directly to which of the following biological themes?
a.
 interacting systems
c.
 stability
b.
 scale and structure
d.
 evolution
 63.
chemical reactions : metabolism ::
a.
 cells : an organism
c.
 reproduction : living
b.
 heredity : homeostasis
d.
 experimentation : observation
 64.
All living things maintain a balance within their cells and with the environment through the process of
a.
 growth.
c.
 homeostasis.
b.
 development.
d.
 evolution.
 65.
The energy that drives metabolism in animals comes from
a.
 homeostasis.
c.
 water.
b.
 food.
d.
 heredity.
 66.
Children tend to resemble their parents due to
a.
 heredity.
c.
 metabolism.
b.
 responsiveness.
d.
 homeostasis.
 67.
A field of sunflowers facing the sun is an example of
a.
 metabolism.
c.
 responsiveness.
b.
 growth.
d.
 heredity.
 68.
The changes in human babies during their first year of life is an example of
a.
 heredity.
c.
 evolution.
b.
 responsiveness.
d.
 development.
 69.
Filtering contaminated water through a sari is
a.
 an ineffective way to reduce cases of cholera.
b.
 the best way to prevent the spread of cholera.
c.
 a low-tech solution to reducing cases of cholera.
d.
 another factor that causes cholera to spread rapidly.
 70.
All of the following should be researched in studying the epidemiology of waterborne diseases except the
a.
 genomes of the pathogens.
b.
 habitat of pathogens.
c.
 food chain of the pathogens.
d.
 environmental factors that affect pathogens.
 71.
One of the most important tools in preventing the spread of disease is
a.
 computer modeling.
c.
 genetic engineering.
b.
 DNA fingerprinting.
d.
 giving vaccinations.
 72.
computer modeling : epidemiology ::
a.
 genetics : DNA fingerprinting
b.
 cloning : biotechnology
c.
 genome : vaccination
d.
 human health : disease prevention
 73.
Which of the following terms is used to refer to a piece of equipment made for a specific use?
a.
 process
c.
 device
b.
 cure
d.
 treatment
 74.
Which of the following is least likely to help humans live longer?
a.
 epidemiology
c.
 genetics
b.
 medicine
d.
 DNA fingerprinting
 75.
knowledge of biology : human potential ::
a.
 assistive technologies : everyday lives
b.
 human potential : epidemiology
c.
 populations : disease outbreaks
d.
 genomes : genetics
 76.
The technology of changing the genetic material of a living cell is called
a.
 biometrics.
c.
 genetics.
b.
 genetic engineering.
d.
 DNA fingerprinting.
 77.
Planting Bt corn helps farmers decrease the use of
a.
 fertilizers.
c.
 pesticides.
b.
 herbicides.
d.
 cultivators.
 78.
All of the following are known advantages of planting Bt corn except it
a.
 adds some bacterial genes to food supplies.
b.
 lowers a farmer’s cost of production.
c.
 improves a farmer’s crop yield.
d.
 reduces chemical contaminants in the environment.
 79.
The application of a biological structure or process to solve design problems is called
a.
 adaptation.
c.
 cloning.
b.
 biomimetics.
d.
 decoding.
 80.
Which of these biotechnologies has the potential to repair tissues inside the body?
a.
 biometrics
c.
 epidemiology
b.
 biomimetics
d.
 nanotechnology
 81.
clam shell formation : ceramics ::
a.
 CAT scanning : modeling fossils
b.
 strong fabrics : spider silk
c.
 spider silk : strong fabrics
d.
 modeling fossils : CAT scanning
 82.
The analysis of biological traits to identify people is called
a.
 arithmetics.
c.
 genetics.
b.
 biometrics.
d.
 statistics.
 83.
Which of the following traits of an individual would be most useful for identifying a victim in a forensic investigation?
a.
 eye color
c.
 blood type
b.
 hair color
d.
 DNA fingerprint
 84.
The ethical concerns about biotechnology must be addressed by
a.
 scientists only.
c.
 both individuals and scientists.
b.
 societies only.
d.
 both individuals and societies.
 85.
All of the following biotechnologies are considered by some to be unethical except
a.
 biomimetic products.
c.
 human stem cell research.
b.
 biometrics data bases.
d.
 genetically modified foods.
 86.
Which of the following would be an unethical use of biometric data and methods?
a.
 linking criminals to crime scenes
b.
 eliminating innocent people from a list of criminal suspects
c.
 excluding people with certain genes from getting jobs
d.
 protecting citizens from bioterrorism
 87.
Which of the following is considered to be one of the most important applications of biology?
a.
 biometrics
c.
 environmental science
b.
 genetic engineering
d.
 assistive technologies
 88.
In order to make wise decisions about the use of natural resources, citizens will need to have a better understanding of
a.
 biomimetics.
c.
 environmental science.
b.
 genetics.
d.
 genetic engineering.
 89.
ecology : environmental science ::
a.
 biomolecules : strong glues
c.
 forensics : biometrics
b.
 genetics : genetic engineering
d.
 spider silk : clam shells
 90.
What do the initials GIS stand for?
a.
 geological inference standard
c.
 geographic information system
b.
 genetic improvement survey
d.
 global investigation society
 91.
Satellite tagging is a technology that is most likely to be used in
a.
 assisting the disabled.
c.
 developing maps of the world.
b.
 conservation of wildlife.
d.
 tracking the spread of disease.
 92.
Each of the following is a part of a GIS program except
a.
 access to data from different sources.
b.
 computer mapping.
c.
 environmental databases.
d.
 genetic analysis tools.
 93.
Which of the following must be done before an environmental study is begun locally?
a.
 contact several scientists
c.
 identify a problem
b.
 buy a GIS program
d.
 gather up volunteers
 94.
At the Raptor Rehabilitation Center, students in an environmental club help take care of injured and orphaned birds of prey. Based on this information, what does the term raptor refer to?
a.
 a bird of prey
c.
 orphaned wildlife
b.
 the environment
d.
 debilitating injury
 

Completion
Complete each statement.
 95.
The medical treatment for ulcers changed after scientists discovered that ____________________ cause stomach ulcers.
 96.
The questioning and often doubtful attitude required for scientific thought is called ____________________.
 97.
The truths that govern science and are valid everywhere in the universe are universal ____________________.
 98.
____________________ are a system of moral principles and values.
 99.
Most scientific investigations begin with ____________________ that lead to questions.
 100.
A reason to set up an experiment is to test a ____________________.
 101.
A(n) ____________________ experiment is a procedure that tests one factor at a time and that uses a(n) ____________________ group and an experimental group.
 102.
In a controlled experiment, the ____________________ group is the group that has one variable changed.
 103.
In an experiment, the ____________________ group receives no experimental treatment.
 104.
Factors that may change as a result of experimental treatment are ____________________ variables.
 105.
A(n) ____________________ is a specific, testable prediction for a limited set of conditions, and a(n) ____________________ is a general explanation for a broad range of data.
 106.
Scientists use the ______________________________ system to make measurements.
 107.
SI is the abbreviation for the ____________________ System of Units.
 108.
The SI base unit for length is the ____________________.
 109.
A kilogram is equal to ____________________ grams.
 110.
In a light microscope, light passes through one or more ____________________ to produce an enlarged image of an object.
 111.
Scientists use ____________________ techniques to minimize the risk of contamination.
 112.
The study of the interactions of living organisms with one another and with the nonliving part of their environment is called ____________________.
 113.
The branch of biology that studies the changes in types of organisms over time is called ___________________ theory.
 114.
Scientists who study whales, bats, or bears in their natural habitat are called ____________________ biologists.
 115.
The process of _________________ traits changing over time is called evolution.
 116.
Every living organism is composed of one or more ____________________.
 117.
All cells have the same basic ____________________.
 118.
The sum of all chemical reactions carried out in an organism is ____________________.
 119.
The energy used by living organisms originates from the ____________________.
 120.
The study of ____________________ involves finding out how diseases are spread.
 121.
Cholera bacteria can cause the disease only when ____________________ increases.
 122.
A ____________________ is a medical procedure that allows a person to resist infection by a certain disease.
 123.
Many new tools for studying and treating diseases caused by problems in genes have come from the study of ____________________.
 124.
In developed countries, the length of human lives has nearly ____________________ in the past century.
 125.
One example of an assistive technology that helps people in everyday life is ____________________.
 126.
The gene that was added to Bt corn came from a(n) ____________________.
 127.
Bt corn contains a gene that produces a ____________________ that kills the European core borer.
 128.
The robotic items produced through nanotechnology often resemble tiny ____________________.
 129.
Imitating biological structures, processes, and systems to solve engineering problems is called ____________________.
 130.
Because of ____________________, dissection is no longer needed to determine the shapes and locations of internal organs.
 131.
Fingerprints and iris patterns are useful in identification because they are ____________________ to individuals.
 132.
Material used in ____________________ is obtained from hair and skin cells.
 133.
Research that involves human stem cells is limited because many people think that such research is ____________________.
 134.
The study of living organisms and their environments is called _________________________.
 135.
The existence of undiscovered resources is an important reason to study and ____________________ natural environments.
 136.
The movements of wildlife can be studied through the technology of ____________________.
 137.
Wildlife agents use the technology of ____________________ to identify the remains of endangered animals and to identify who killed them.
 138.
The people in communities who make contributions to environmental research are called ____________________.
 139.
Students make contributions to environmental conservation by helping to care for ____________________ or ____________________ wildlife.
 

Short Answer
 140.
What universal law applies in a study of the flight of birds? How does it apply?
 141.
How could you use scientific thought to investigate a claim about a product?
 142.
Write a hypothesis to explain why the water level in an aquarium is going down.
 143.
What two groups are part of a controlled experiment?
 144.
What is the difference between an independent variable and dependent variables in a controlled experiment?
 145.
How does a scientist verify the conclusions of an experiment?
 146.
What is the difference between a hypothesis and a theory?
 147.
What makes SI easy to use?
 148.
What are the base SI units for volume, length, and mass?
 149.
What are two common kinds of microscopes. How do they differ?
 150.
What is sterile technique? What are four tools of sterile technique?
 151.
Suppose you are a scientist who studies sharks in their natural habitat. What are two names that describe the kind of biologist you are?
 152.
What is heredity?
 153.
Name the seven properties of life.
 154.
How are data from weather and climate satellites used in epidemiology?
 155.
How does a vaccination help people and animals resist disease?
 156.
How will the completion of the Human Genome Project contribute to biological research in the 21st Century?
 157.
List two examples of assistive technologies that will improve the lives of people with injuries and diseases.
 158.
How does genetic engineering that produced Bt corn help to increase the yield in a farmer’s corn field?
 159.
List two practical applications of biotechnology other than genetic engineering.
 160.
How has genetic engineering improved the treatment of people who have diabetes?
 161.
From what biological structure did engineers get the idea for a submarine?
 162.
What makes iris scans an effective technology for identifying people?
 163.
List two biological characteristics of individuals, besides fingerprints and iris patterns, that can be analyzed by computers to identify people.
 164.
List two concerns that people have expressed about the ethics of biotechnology.
 165.
List three important resources that all living things get from the environment.
 166.
What do the initials GIS stand for?
 167.
What is satellite tagging?
 168.
List three steps that students could take to get involved in environmental research.
 

Essay
 169.
Explain why accurate data and peer review are important in science.
 170.
The results of an experiment do not support the hypothesis that the experiment was designed to test. Was the experiment a waste of time? Explain your answer.
 171.
Explain the difference between an independent variable and a dependent variable in a controlled experiment. Also indicate whether or not each kind of variable would be found in a control group and an experimental group.
 172.
Summarize the steps in the development of a theory.
 173.
Before doing experiments, what should you know about lab safety? What procedure should you follow if an accident occurs during an experiment in your class?
 174.
List and describe the seven properties of life shared by all living organisms.
 175.
Toads that live in hot, dry regions bury themselves in the soil during the day. How might this be important to toads?
nar001-1.jpg
 176.
Refer to the map above. West Nile Virus is a virus that attacks the nervous system of birds, humans, and many other mammals. The virus first appeared in the United States in 1999, when an outbreak was reported in the New York City area. Based on this background and the information shown in the map, write a paragraph that summarizes the state of West Nile Virus incidence in the United States as of 2006.
 177.
Explain how increased understanding of biology and science in general should enable humans to live longer and healthier lives.
 178.
Compare and contrast fingerprints and DNA fingerprints as a means of identifying individuals.
 179.
Ethics is the study of whether human actions are moral (right or wrong, acceptable or unacceptable). Summarize the role of ethics in guiding the future of biotechnology.
 180.
What important lesson can be learned from the recent discovery of new kinds of organisms in a remote area of New Guinea?

 
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