Category: Practice Tests

Introduction Quiz

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Name: 

Introduction Quiz  

 

 

True/False
Indicate whether the sentence or statement is true or false.
      introduction_quiz_files/i0020000.jpg      introduction_quiz_files/i0020001.jpg
1.
Refer to the illustration above. Reproduction ensures the ongoing success of both species.
2.
Refer to the illustration above. The sand dollar and paramecium both show organization.
3.
Scientists have not discovered any new species on Earth in more than 20 years.
4.
Publication of the results of scientific investigations enables other scientists to verify these results.
5.
Resolution is a microscope’s power to increase an object’s apparent size.
 

Multiple Choice
Identify the letter of the choice that best completes the statement or answers the question.
6.
Biology is the study of
a.
minerals.
c.
the weather.
b.
life.
d.
energy.
7.
Homeostasis means
a.
a change over long periods of time.
c.
rapid change.
b.
keeping things the same.
d.
the same thing as evolution.
8.
Which of the following is a means by which heterotrophs can obtain energy?
a.
using water, carbon dioxide, and energy from the sun to produce sugars
b.
using water and carbon dioxide to produce energy-rich compounds
c.
consuming autotrophs
d.
consuming simple chemicals from the environment and using them to assemble complex chemicals and structures needed by the organism
9.
Which of the following is not necessarily a distinct property of living things?
a.
homeostasis
c.
complexity
b.
metabolism
d.
reproduction
10.
All organisms are composed of
a.
diatoms.
c.
cells.
b.
cellulose.
d.
None of the above
11.
Which example of scientific methodology is incorrect?
a.
Observation—A number of people in Zaire dying of a disease outbreak
b.
Measurement—A record of the number of people with symptoms of the disease and the number of people who had died from the disease
c.
Analysis of data—Comparison of the effects of mixing monkey cells with virus-containing blood in test tubes and the effects of mixing of liquid from these test tubes with fresh monkey cells
d.
Inference making—Identification of the Ebola virus as the cause of the disease by taking electron micrographs of substances found in the blood of persons affected with the disease
12.
Scientific hypotheses are most often tested by the process of
a.
communicating.
c.
experimenting.
b.
inferring.
d.
analyzing data.
13.
A hypothesis is
a.
a definite answer to a given problem.
b.
a testable possible explanation of an observation.
c.
a proven statement.
d.
a concluding statement.
14.
A hypothesis that does not explain an observation
a.
is known as an inaccurate forecast.
c.
is rejected.
b.
often predicts a different observation.
d.
None of the above
15.
A scientific theory
a.
is absolutely certain.
b.
is unchangeable.
c.
may be revised as new evidence is presented.
d.
is a controlled experiment.
16.
observation : hypothesis ::
a.
theory : observation
c.
certainty : investigation
b.
guess : hypothesis
d.
theory : control
17.
Which of the following components of a scientific investigation would benefit from communication between scientists?
a.
observing
c.
analyzing data
b.
measuring
d.
All of the above
18.
Most typically, the order in which the steps of the scientific method are applied is
a.
observations, predictions, hypothesis, controlled testing, theory, verification.
b.
predictions, observations, hypothesis, theory, controlled testing, verification.
c.
observations, hypothesis, predictions, controlled testing, theory, verification.
d.
observations, hypothesis, predictions, controlled testing, verification, theory.
19.
A light microscope that has an objective lens of 10´ and an ocular lens of 20´ has a magnification of
a.
30´.
c.
300´.
b.
200´.
d.
2000´.
20.
Which of the following associations between an SI base unit abbreviation and its base quantity is incorrect?
a.
A—area
c.
s—second
b.
m—length
d.
mol—amount of a substance

 

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Chemistry Quiz

Name: 

Chemistry Quiz

 

True/False
Indicate whether the sentence or statement is true or false.
1.
The types of particles that are located in the nucleus of an atom are protons and neutrons, and the types of particles that are located in the energy levels surrounding the nucleus are electrons.
2.
The atomic number of carbon is 6, so it must contain 12 electrons.
3.
Most elements are stable if their outermost energy level contains an even number of electrons.
4.
Atoms in a gas move more rapidly than atoms in a liquid or a solid do.
5.
The products of an endergonic chemical reaction possess more energy than the reactants from which they are produced.
6.
The amount of energy needed to cause a chemical reaction to start is called activation energy.
7.
When an enzyme binds with its substrate, the activation energy needed for the chemical reaction to occur is raised.
8.
Enzymes speed up a chemical reaction by increasing the activation energy of the reaction.
9.
Free hydrogen ions can react with water molecules and form a positively charged ion, the hydronium ion.
10.
Buffers can neutralize acids, but they do not affect bases.
 

Multiple Choice
Identify the letter of the choice that best completes the statement or answers the question.
11.
The smallest particle of matter that can retain the chemical properties of carbon is
a.
a carbon molecule.
c.
a carbon atom.
b.
a carbon macromolecule.
d.
an element.
12.
The bond formed when two atoms share a pair of electrons is called a
a.
hydrogen bond.
c.
covalent bond.
b.
nonpolar bond.
d.
water bond.
13.
Sharing of electrons in the outer energy levels of two atoms
a.
results in ion formation.
b.
occurs in covalent bonds.
c.
only occurs if both are atoms of the same element.
d.
is found only among carbon atoms.
14.
An atom that has gained or lost electrons is called a(n)
a.
molecule.
c.
ion.
b.
nucleon.
d.
element.
15.
Which of the following statements most accurately describes the difference between an ionic bond and a covalent bond?
a.
Atoms held together by ionic bonds separate when placed in water while atoms held together by covalent bonds do not separate in water.
b.
Ionic bonds hold together atoms of two different types, while covalent bonds hold together atoms of the same type.
c.
Electrons are exchanged between atoms held together by an ionic bond, but they are shared between atoms held together by a covalent bond.
d.
Ionic bonds form between atoms that carry opposite charges, while covalent bonds form between uncharged atoms.
16.
A reaction in which the products have less energy than the reactants is
a.
an endergonic reaction.
c.
a filamentous reaction.
b.
an exergonic reaction.
d.
impossible.
      chemistry_quiz_files/i0190000.jpg
17.
Refer to the graph above. Reaction “1” in the graph
a.
is an energy-storing reaction.
b.
requires a greater activation energy than Reaction “2.”
c.
may use the same initial reactant condition needed to form Product “B.”
d.
All of the above
18.
Refer to the graph above. Which of these statements is true regarding the graph?
a.
Reaction “2” occurs faster than Reaction “3” because Reaction “2” requires more energy than Reaction “3.”
b.
The difference in the graphs shown for Reaction “2” and Reaction “3” is due to a difference in the activation energy needed for these reactions.
c.
Reactant “A” contains more energy at the beginning of the reaction than Product “C” has after the reaction.
d.
All of the above
19.
Changing the course or pathway of a chemical reaction so that it requires less activation energy
a.
is a violation of the laws of nature.
b.
requires higher temperatures than those found within cells.
c.
occurs only when reactants are quickly added to the reaction mixture.
d.
is accomplished by the action of catalysts on reactants.
20.
Oxidation-reduction reactions are important in organisms because they
a.
allow the passage of energy from molecule to molecule.
b.
prevent nuclear reactions from occurring.
c.
allow the creation and destruction of energy.
d.
None of the above; oxidation-reduction reactions do not occur in living organisms.

 

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Protein Synthesis Quiz

Name: 

DNA & Protein Synthesis

 

 

True/False
Indicate whether the sentence or statement is true or false.
1.
When a tRNA anticodon binds to an mRNA codon, the amino acid detaches from the tRNA molecule and attaches to the end of a growing protein chain.
2.
Only ribosomal RNA plays a role in translation.
3.
During DNA replication, the molecule unzips and the exposed DNA nucleotides pair with other
specific nucleotides present in the nucleus
4.
Humans pass exact copies of their DNA to their offspring.
5.
Watson and Crick proposed a model of DNA
6.
Amino acids are linked together by hydrogen bonds.
7.
During transcription, the information on a DNA molecule is “rewritten” into an mRNA molecule.
8.
All codons encode amino acids.
 

Multiple Choice
Identify the letter of the choice that best completes the statement or answers the question.
9.
Purines and pyrimidines are
a.
bases found in amino acids.
b.
able to replace phosphate groups from defective DNA.
c.
names of specific types of DNA molecules.
d.
bases found in nucleotides.
10.
Chargaff’s rules, or the base-pairing rules, state that in DNA
a.
the amount of adenine equals the amount of thymine.
b.
the amount of guanine equals the amount of cytosine.
c.
the amount of guanine equals the amount of thymine.
d.
Both a and b
11.
ATTG : TAAC ::
a.
AAAT : TTTG
c.
GTCC : CAGG
b.
TCGG : AGAT
d.
CGAA : TGCG
12.
Which of the following types of RNA carries instructions for making proteins?
a.
mRNA
c.
tRNA
b.
rRNA
d.
All of the above
13.
Which of the following is not found in DNA?
a.
adenine
c.
uracil
b.
cytosine
d.
None of the above
14.
Suppose that you are given a polypeptide sequence containing the following sequence of amino acids: tyrosine, proline, aspartic acid, isoleucine, and cysteine. Use the portion of the genetic code given in the table below to determine the DNA sequence that codes for this polypeptide sequence.
mRNA
Amino acid
UAU, UAC
tyrosine
CCU, CCC, CCA, CCG
proline
GAU, GAC
aspartic acis
AUU, AUC, AUA
isoleucine
UGU, UGC
cysteine
a.
AUGGGUCUAUAUACG
c.
GCAAACTCGCGCGTA
b.
ATGGGTCTATATACG
d.
ATAGGGCTTTAAACA
15.
In order for protein synthesis to occur, mRNA must migrate to the
a.
ribosomes.
c.
RNA polymerase.
b.
lac operon.
d.
heterochromatin.
16.
After the primary structure of a protein has been completed
a.
the codons and anticodons unite.
b.
an enzyme attaches adjacent amino acids to each other to form a chain.
c.
the protein folds into the secondary and tertiary structures.
d.
the tRNA molecules remain attached until the protein is secreted from the cell.
17.
Which of the following is  not  part of a molecule of DNA?
a.
deoxyribose
c.
phosphate
b.
nitrogenous base
d.
ribose
18.
During replication in a molecule of DNA, one separation likely to occur is between
a.
cytosine and guanine
c.
ribose and adenine
b.
phosphate and deoxyribose
d.
uracil and thymine
19.
A gene may be described as
a.
a sequence of amino acids.
b.
special proteins found in chromosomes.
c.
a sequence of nucleotides that controls the production of a certain protein.
d.
a sequence of nucleotides coding for the production of starches and sugars.
20.
The synthesis of a new double strand of DNA begins when the two strand of the original DNA helix
a.
‘unzip’.
c.
attract nitrogenous bases.
b.
act as a template.
d.
destroy a genetic code.
21.
Genes(DNA) affect cell structure and function by directing the synthesis of
a.
nucleic acids
c.
nucleotides
b.
hereditary traits
d.
proteins
22.
Protein molecules are made up of
a.
fats
c.
lipids
b.
nucleotides
d.
amino acids
23.
During, DNA replication, DNA
a.
converts to RNA
c.
joins mRNA
b.
joins tRNA
d.
strands separate
24.
Which is not true about proteins?
a.
They control biochemical pathways within the cell.
b.
They direct the synthesis of lipids.
c.
They are composed of sugars.
d.
They take responsibility for cell movement.
25.
Molecules of DNA are composed of long chains of
a.
amino acids.
c.
monosaccharides.
b.
fatty acids.
d.
nucleotides.
26.
Watson and Crick were the first scientists to state that DNA
a.
contains phosphate groups
c.
has four nitrogen bases
b.
undergoes transcription
d.
has a double helix shape
27.
The two chains of a DNA molecule are connected by
a.
nitrogen bonds
c.
bases
b.
relatively weak chemical bonds
d.
nucleotides
28.
All nucleotide molecules contain the same kind of
a.
ribose sugar
c.
pyrimidine
b.
purine
d.
phosphate group
29.
After DNA replication, the two DNA molecules that are made
a.
are complementary.
c.
must replicate again.
b.
are identical.
d.
cannot replicate again.
30.
Sixty-four codons for 20 amino acids requires that
a.
some amino acids lack codons
b.
some amino acids have more than one codon
c.
all amino acids have two codons
d.
none of the above
31.
Which of the following combines with amino acids
a.
DNA
c.
tRNA
b.
mRNA
d.
B and C
32.
rRNA has a function in
a.
synthesizing DNA.
c.
forming ribosomes.
b.
synthesizing mRNA.
d.
transferring amino acids to ribosomes.
33.
The DNA code consists of sequences of nucleotides arranged in groups of
a.
variable number
c.
threes
b.
twos
d.
fours
34.
Unlike mRNA, the DNA molecule is
a.
double-stranded
c.
like a ladder
b.
single-stranded
d.
both A and C
35.
The number of bases in a row in a gene that codes a protein composed of 200 amino acids is
a.
200
c.
600
b.
400
d.
800
36.
A DNA molecule unzips during
a.
replication
c.
translation
b.
transcription
d.
both A and B
37.
A DNA chain has the following sequence of bases, TAG.  The corresponding messenger RNA
chain should have the sequence
a.
ATC
c.
ATG
b.
UTC
d.
AUC
38.
Unlike DNA, RNA
a.
contains deoxyribose.
c.
contains thymine.
b.
is double stranded.
d.
contains uracil.
39.
Which molecule contains deoxyribose
a.
DNA
c.
tRNA
b.
mRNA
d.
both B and C
40.
Each combination of three nitrogenous bases on messenger RNA forms a (an)
a.
anticodon.
c.
enzyme.
b.
codon.
d.
nuclei acid.
41.
In RNA, uracil is complementary to:
a.
guanine
c.
thymine
b.
adenine
d.
cytosine
42.
Once a molecule of transfer RNA has released its amino acid, the tRNA
a.
becomes attached to messenger RNA.
b.
becomes attached to ribosomal RNA.
c.
is destroyed as an individual molecule.
d.
moves away to pick up another amino acid.
43.
If the sequence of bases in a segment of a DNA strand were cytosine, guanine, adenine, thymine, adenine, then the sequence in a complimentary strand of newly-made mRNA would be
a.
cytosine, uracil, adenine, guanine, uracil
c.
uracil, adenine, cytosine, uracil, guanine
b.
guanine, cytosine, uracil, adenine, uracil
d.
cytosine, guanine, uracil, uracil, adenine
44.
Which sugar is present in RNA
a.
glucose
c.
ribose
b.
sucrose
d.
deoxyribose
45.
RNA differs from DNA, in that RNA
a.
is single-stranded.
c.
contains the nitrogen base uracil.
b.
contains a different sugar molecule.
d.
All of the above are correct.

 

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