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Introduction to Animals

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Introduction to Animals

 

 

Multiple Choice
Identify the choice that best completes the statement or answers the question.
 1.
Which of the following attributes is not used to characterize animals?
a.
 locomotion at some time during the life cycle
b.
 multicellular eukaryotes
c.
 heterotrophic
d.
 sexual reproduction involving motile sperm
e.
 None of the above, all of the attributes are typical of animals.
 2.
The kingdom Animalia is divided into about:
a.
 325 phyla.
b.
 16 classes.
c.
 32 classes.
d.
 35 phyla.
e.
 6 phyla.
 3.
The diverse body plans seen in Animalia apparently developed during the:
a.
 Precambrian
b.
 Cambrian.
c.
 Mesozoic.
d.
 Silurian.
e.
 Devonian.
 4.
Traditional phylogenies of Animalia are being reconsidered and changed due to:
a.
 newly discovered prokaryotes in soil.
b.
 extensive fossil finds in China.
c.
 new phyla of Protista.
d.
 better pictures from scanning electron microscopes.
e.
 recent molecular data.
 5.
Which of the following group of animals is sessile?
a.
 sponge
b.
 jellyfish
c.
 ctenophore
d.
 planarian
e.
 fluke
 6.
Animals apparently evolved:
a.
 in freshwater.
b.
 in the ocean.
c.
 during the Cambrian explosion.
d.
 in swamps.
e.
 during the Devonian.
 7.
Fewer animals live in freshwater than in the ocean, because:
a.
 freshwater is hypotonic and animals must spend energy to remove water from their bodies.
b.
 freshwater is a less constant temperature environment.
c.
 freshwater contains less food.
d.
 freshwater is a much more variable environment.
e.
 All of the above.
 8.
All of the following are characteristic of life in marine environments except:
a.
 many nutrients and gases are dissolved in the water and are readily available.
b.
 buoyancy helps to support the organisms.
c.
 currents may wash organisms away from suitable habitats.
d.
 osmotic balance is very difficult for invertebrates to maintain.
e.
 temperatures are relatively stable.
 9.
The first air-breathing land animals were:
a.
 vertebrates.
b.
 amphibians.
c.
 snails.
d.
 reptiles.
e.
 arthropods.
 10.
The first land animals, arthropods, moved onto land about:
a.
 650 million years ago.
b.
 450 million years ago.
c.
 250 million years ago.
d.
 230 million years ago.
e.
 65 million years ago.
 11.
Amphibians appeared on land about:
a.
 543 million years ago.
b.
 450 million years ago.
c.
 420 million years ago.
d.
 250 million years ago.
e.
 65 million years ago.
 12.
To adapt to land the primary problem was:
a.
 mating.
b.
 locomotion.
c.
 predation.
d.
 desiccation.
e.
 acquiring enough nitrogen.
 13.
Adaptations of animals to land include:
a.
 internal fertilization.
b.
 egg shell.
c.
 embryo development within the female.
d.
 internal respiratory surfaces.
e.
 All of the above.
 14.
The only extant Parazoa are the:
a.
 jellyfish.
b.
 sponges.
c.
 flatworms.
d.
 roundworms.
e.
 ribbon worms.
 15.
A true body cavity completely surrounded by __________ is called a coelom.
a.
 ectoderm
b.
 mesoderm
c.
 endoderm
d.
 exoderm
e.
 mesoglea
 16.
Because sponges function in ways similar to colonial unicellular protozoans, they are classified among the ____________. All other animals are considered ____________, which are distinct from sponges.
a.
 protozoa; metazoa
b.
 parazoa; metazoa
c.
 parazoa; eumetazoa
d.
 metazoa; protozoa
e.
 protozoa; parazoa
 17.
Bilateral symmetry:
a.
 evolved along with a corresponding trend toward cephalization.
b.
 is characteristic of Cnidarians.
c.
 characterizes the surfaces of an animal as dorsal and ventral.
d.
 results from schizocoelous development.
e.
 describes ectoderm and endoderm, the first two germ layers that developed.
 18.
The major phylum of animals that has an asymmetrical body plan is:
a.
 Cnidaria.
b.
 Ctenophora.
c.
 Echinodermata.
d.
 Porifera.
e.
 All of the above.
 19.
Ctenophores exhibit:
a.
 bilateral symmetry.
b.
 spherical symmetry.
c.
 linear symmetry.
d.
 radial symmetry.
e.
 circular symmetry.
 20.
The head end of an animal is termed its:
a.
 posterior end.
b.
 ventral end.
c.
 inferior end.
d.
 lateral end.
e.
 anterior end.
 21.
A ___________ plane divides the animal body into dorsal and ventral parts:
a.
 median.
b.
 frontal.
c.
 sagittal.
d.
 cross.
e.
 transverse.
 22.
Cnidarians and flatworms:
a.
 are coelomate.
b.
 are pseudocoelomate.
c.
 are acoelomate.
d.
 have two germ layers.
e.
 have three germ layers.
 23.
The __________ gives rise to muscles, bones, and the circulatory system.
a.
 endoderm
b.
 ectoderm
c.
 mesoderm
d.
 blastopore
e.
 mesoglea
 24.
The lining of the digestive tube is formed from:
a.
 endoderm.
b.
 ectoderm.
c.
 germ cells.
d.
 mesoderm.
e.
 pseudoderm.
 25.
Diploblastic animals, such as cnidarians and ____________, have only two germ layers, ectoderm and ____________.
a.
 sponges; ectoderm
b.
 sponges; mesoderm
c.
 ctenophores; mesoderm
d.
 ctenophores; endoderm
e.
 ctenophores; metaderm
Figure 28-01
Use the figure below to answer the corresponding questions.nar001-1.jpg
 26.
In Figure 28-01, the tissue layer labeled 5 will give rise to the:
a.
 skeletal system.
b.
 muscles.
c.
 circulatory system.
d.
 lining of the digestive system.
e.
 All of the above.
 27.
In Figure 28-01, the development pattern labeled Type A is characteristic of:
a.
 Ctenophores.
b.
 Chordates.
c.
 Cnidarians.
d.
 Annelids.
e.
 Echinoderms.
 28.
The first opening which develops in deuterostomes develops into the:
a.
 coelom.
b.
 gut.
c.
 anus.
d.
 mouth.
e.
 nostril.
 29.
Radial cleavage is found in the:
a.
 arthropods.
b.
 mollusks.
c.
 echinoderms.
d.
 annelids.
e.
 cnidarians.
 30.
Pseudocoelomates have a body cavity that is not completely lined with ____________. These animals include ____________ and the roundworms.
a.
 endoderm; nemerteans
b.
 endoderm; flatworms
c.
 mesoderm; rotifers
d.
 mesoderm; flatworms
e.
 mesoderm; nemerteans
 31.
In most deuterostomes, the mesoderm forms by:
a.
 duplication of the ectoderm.
b.
 schizocoely.
c.
 migration.
d.
 enterocoely.
e.
 blastocoely.
 32.
Determinate cleavage takes place in ____________ and is characterized by a pattern of development where the ultimate fate of each cell is ____________.
a.
 protostomes; not fixed until late in the developmental process
b.
 protostomes; fixed early in the developmental process
c.
 deuterostomes; not fixed until late in the developmental process
d.
 deuterostomes; fixed early in the developmental process
e.
 coelomates; fixed early in the developmental process
 33.
All of the following are protostomes except:
a.
 Porifera.
b.
 Mollusca.
c.
 Annelida.
d.
 Arthropoda.
e.
 Echinodermata.
Figure 28-02
Use the figure below to answer the corresponding questions.nar002-1.jpg
 34.
Radial symmetry developed at the point on Figure 28-02 labeled _________.
a.
 2
b.
 3
c.
 4
d.
 5
e.
 6
 35.
In Figure 28-02, three germ layers arose in a common ancestor at the point labeled:
a.
 1.
b.
 4.
c.
 5.
d.
 6.
e.
 None of the above.
 36.
The placozoans are the simplest animals, and appear to have evolved:
a.
 from poriferans.
b.
 from more complex invertebrates.
c.
 independently from the remainder of the kingdom Animalia.
d.
 from fungi.
e.
 None of the above.
 37.
Sponges are believed to have arisen from the choanoflagellates because they possess:
a.
 amebocytes.
b.
 spicules.
c.
 spongin.
d.
 collar cells.
e.
 oscula.
 38.
Sponge larvae:
a.
 are miniature sponges that float about in the plankton.
b.
 crawl along the bottom like an amoeba.
c.
 are flagellated and able to swim.
d.
 bud off the adult sponge.
e.
 float out of the adult, fall to the bottom, and attach to form a new sponge.
 39.
Most sponges are ______________, meaning that one individual can produce both male and female gametes.
a.
 asexual
b.
 hermaphroditic
c.
 indeterminate
d.
 heterozygous
e.
 enterocoelous
 40.
Digestion in a sponge takes place in:
a.
 the osculum.
b.
 individual cells.
c.
 the spongocoel.
d.
 the spicule.
e.
 the mesohyl.
 41.
Most representatives of the phylum Porifera gain nutrition as:
a.
 parasites.
b.
 predators.
c.
 autotrophs.
d.
 herbivores.
e.
 None of the above.
 42.
Within the phylum Cnidaria, corals are most closely related to:
a.
 Hydra.
b.
 jellyfish.
c.
 sea anemones.
d.
 Portuguese man-of-war.
e.
 hydrozoans.
 43.
From an evolutionary perspective, true nerve cells are first seen in the phylum:
a.
 Porifera.
b.
 Cnidaria.
c.
 Ctenophora.
d.
 Mollusca.
e.
 Arthropoda.
 44.
In the class Anthozoa are found:
a.
 Hydra.
b.
 Obelia.
c.
 Cyanea.
d.
 corals.
e.
 jellyfish.
 45.
Cnidarians are _______________, meaning they have two tissue layers.
a.
 diploid
b.
 protostomes
c.
 diploblastic
d.
 bilateral
e.
 hermaphroditic
 46.
The Portuguese man-of-war belongs to the class:
a.
 Cnidozoa.
b.
 Scyphozoa.
c.
 Hydrozoa.
d.
 Anthozoa.
e.
 Cubezoa.
 47.
In cnidarians, nematocysts are housed in specialized cells, the ___________, located primarily on the tentacles.
a.
 choanocytes
b.
 cnidocils
c.
 pseudopodia
d.
 nerve nets
e.
 cnidocytes
 48.
Hundreds or thousands of individuals of certain _________ form colonies in which each polyp has a special function such as feeding, reproduction, or defense.
a.
 sea anemones
b.
 hydrozoans
c.
 jellyfish
d.
 ctenophores
e.
 sponges
 49.
The larvae of some cnidarians are known as ____________ larvae.
a.
 veliger
b.
 trochophore
c.
 planula
d.
 nauplius
e.
 zoea
 50.
Corals can capture prey, but also depend for nutrition on:
a.
 symbiotic photosynthetic zooxanthellae.
b.
 symbiotic lichens.
c.
 dead animals they colonize on the bottom.
d.
 photosynthesis in the shallow water since they are part animal and plant.
e.
 suspended materials captured by filter feeding.
 51.
Among the scyphozoans, the ____________ stage is reduced or absent.
a.
 polyp
b.
 hydra
c.
 medusa
d.
 larval
e.
 juvenile
 52.
Sea anemones, unlike scyphozoans, have a partitioned gastrovascular cavity. This serves as a means of:
a.
 harboring enteric bacteria.
b.
 digesting very large food items.
c.
 harboring photosynthetic zooxanthellae.
d.
 digesting different categories of organic molecules in different areas.
e.
 decreasing the surface area of the gastrovascular cavity.
Figure 28-03
Use the figure below to answer the corresponding questions.nar003-1.jpg
 53.
The type of larva pictured at # 4 in Figure 28-03 is a:
a.
 planula.
b.
 miracidium.
c.
 cercaria.
d.
 polyp.
e.
 medusa.
 54.
In Figure 28-03, asexual reproduction is occurring at point:
a.
 1.
b.
 2.
c.
 4.
d.
 7.
e.
 9.
 55.
In Figure 28-03, which of the following structures was produced by meiosis?
a.
 1
b.
 3
c.
 4
d.
 5
e.
 6
 56.
Members of the phylum _______________ are the simplest organisms that have a separate mouth and anus.
a.
 Platyhelminthe
b.
 Ctenophora
c.
 Cnidaria
d.
 Porifera
e.
 Placozoa
 57.
Ctenophores capture food by:
a.
 sticky mucus on their tentacles that capture small invertebrates.
b.
 adhesive glue cells that trap prey.
c.
 stinging hair cells that immobilize small invertebrates.
d.
 digging through the bottom muds for small invertebrates.
e.
 filter feeding.
 58.
Comb jellies move by:
a.
 floating in the water, since they are so small.
b.
 flagella.
c.
 ameboid movements in the water.
d.
 rows of cilia.
e.
 jet propulsion of water from the gastrovascular cavity.
 59.
The body wall of cnidarians and ctenophores consist of:
a.
 three tissue layers.
b.
 a single epidermal layer.
c.
 loosely organized cells.
d.
 two epidermal layers with scattered mesophyll cells in between.
e.
 inner and outer cell layers separated by a jelly-like mesoglea.
 60.
Deuterostomes are characterized by ____________ and ____________ cleavage.
a.
 radial; determinate
b.
 radial; indeterminate
c.
 spiral; determinate
d.
 spiral; indeterminate
e.
 None of the above.
 61.
Deuterostomes evolved during the:
a.
 Cambrian.
b.
 Precambrian.
c.
 Paleozoic.
d.
 Cenozoic.
e.
 Devonian.
 62.
Molecular data suggests that hemichordates are most closely related to:
a.
 tunicates
b.
 lancelets.
c.
 echinoderms.
d.
 vertebrates.
e.
 annelids
 63.
Echinoderms are unusual invertebrates as they have:
a.
 an endoskeleton.
b.
 pentaradial symmetry.
c.
 a water vascular system.
d.
 pedicellariae present in some classes.
e.
 All of the above.
 64.
All Echinodermata are found:
a.
 in marine habitats.
b.
 in freshwater.
c.
 on land.
d.
 on the bottom of the ocean or lakes.
e.
 in shallow ocean waters.
 65.
Class ___________ includes mostly extinct species and a few extant species such as feather stars and sea lilies.
a.
 Asteroidea
b.
 Holothuroidea
c.
 Ophiuroidea
d.
 Echinoidea
e.
 Crinoidea
 66.
Echinoderms are unique because:
a.
 the larvae are radially symmetrical and the adult is bilaterally symmetrical.
b.
 the adults and larva are both pentaradially symmetrical.
c.
 the adult and larva are both radially symmetrical.
d.
 the adult and larva are both biradially symmetrical.
e.
 their larvae are bilaterally symmetrical while the adult is pentaradially symmetrical.
 67.
Which class within the echinoderms has the greatest species diversity?
a.
 Asteroidea
b.
 Holothuroidea
c.
 Ophiuroidea
d.
 Echinoidea
e.
 Crinoidea
 68.
The most unique feature of the echinoderms is their:
a.
 digestive system.
b.
 nervous system.
c.
 closed circulatory system.
d.
 water vascular system.
e.
 mantle.
 69.
Prominent spines are found on __________ of the phylum Echinodermata.
a.
 Ophiuroidea
b.
 Echinoidea
c.
 Asteroidea
d.
 Concentricycloidea
e.
 Holothuroidea
 70.
One characteristic of the class Holothuroidea is:
a.
 that most are predators that consume partially digested prey.
b.
 that most of the species are extinct.
c.
 that they have a reduced endoskeleton consisting of microscopic plates embedded in the body wall.
d.
 that moveable spines are used to facilitate locomotion.
e.
 that they have a distinct central disk with very long, slender arms.
 71.
Sea stars eat:
a.
 large fish.
b.
 mostly algae.
c.
 sea weed.
d.
 mostly bivalves.
e.
 debris on the bottom.
 72.
Sea cucumbers will __________ when environmental conditions deteriorate.
a.
 eject their digestive tract, respiratory structures, and gonads.
b.
 crawl to an area with more favorable conditions.
c.
 form a resistant spore.
d.
 float to the surface and then later drop to a more favorable location.
e.
 crawl deep into the ocean muds on the bottom.
 73.
Which of the following is not a characteristic shared by all chordates at some point in their life cycle?
a.
 possession of a coelom
b.
 three primary cell layers
c.
 dorsal tubular nerve cord
d.
 pharyngeal gill slits
e.
 vertebrae
 74.
Urochordates are odd chordates, as typically only the ____________ shows the basic chordate characteristics.
a.
 head end
b.
 tail end
c.
 adult
d.
 larva
e.
 egg
 75.
Adult tunicates resemble ______________ and are _________________.
a.
 eels; carnivorous.
b.
 corals; photosynthetic
c.
 starfish; carnivorous
d.
 sponges; filter feeders
e.
 earthworms; detritivores
 76.
The neural crest cells of vertebrates influence the development of all of the following except the:
a.
 lungs.
b.
 nerves.
c.
 cranium.
d.
 jaws.
e.
 head muscles.
 77.
The most closely related animal to vertebrates are the:
a.
 Hemichordata.
b.
 Urodela.
c.
 Cephalochordata.
d.
 Ophiuroidea.
e.
 Urochordates.
Figure 30-01
Use the figure below to answer the corresponding questions.nar004-1.jpg
 78.
The organism in Figure 30-01 is a representative of:
a.
 the phylum Hemichordata.
b.
 the phylum Echinodermata.
c.
 the phylum Chordata.
d.
 the subphylum Urochordata.
e.
 the subphylum Cephalochordata.
 79.
The structure in Figure 30-01 labeled ___________ is characteristic of the phylum to which this organism belongs.
a.
 9
b.
 6
c.
 5
d.
 4
e.
 10
 80.
Lancelets are:
a.
 carnivores.
b.
 filter feeders.
c.
 parasites.
d.
 herbivores.
e.
 algae feeders.
 81.
There are about _______________ identified species of vertebrates.
a.
 2,000
b.
 6,000
c.
 32,000
d.
 48,000
e.
 124,000
 82.
The coelacanth is found in the class:
a.
 Dipnoi.
b.
 Actinistia.
c.
 Placoderms.
d.
 Cephalochordata.
e.
 Urochordata.
 83.
The two groups representing the “jawless” fishes are:
a.
 Cephalochordata and Placoderms.
b.
 Chondrichthyes and Actinistia.
c.
 Myxiniformes and Cephalaspidormorphi.
d.
 Dipnoi and Actinistia.
e.
 Placoderms and Petromyzontiformes.
 84.
Which of the following characteristics is used to characterize vertebrates?
a.
 a bony endoskeleton
b.
 blood containing hemoglobin
c.
 a four-chambered heart
d.
 lungs
e.
 live birth
 85.
The superclass Tetrapods includes:
a.
 fish, amphibians, reptiles, and mammals.
b.
 lancelets, cartilage, and bony fish.
c.
 amphibians and reptiles.
d.
 amphibians, reptiles, birds, and mammals.
e.
 echinoderms and chordates.
 86.
Hagfishes are differentiated from lampreys and all other fishes in that:
a.
 hagfishes do not have gills.
b.
 hagfishes lack a jaw.
c.
 hagfishes are parasitic.
d.
 hagfishes lack vertebrae.
e.
 All of the above.
 87.
Extinct jawless fish include the:
a.
 lungfish.
b.
 lancelets.
c.
 placoderms.
d.
 acanthodians.
e.
 ostracoderms.
 88.
A fish with a cartilaginous skeleton and paired fins would be:
a.
 an Agnathan.
b.
 a Crinoid.
c.
 a Cephalochordate.
d.
 a Urochordate.
e.
 a Chondrichthyean.
 89.
Scales of enamel are found on:
a.
 lungfish.
b.
 sharks.
c.
 ray-finned fish.
d.
 lob-finned.
e.
 snakes.
 90.
Sharks may detect their prey using all of the following except:
a.
 olfaction.
b.
 their lateral lines.
c.
 electroreceptors.
d.
 sight.
e.
 None of the above, all are used by sharks to detect their prey.
 91.
Sharks detect motion in the water or waves by their:
a.
 lateral lines.
b.
 electroreceptors.
c.
 keen olfaction.
d.
 sight.
e.
 dorsal fin.
 92.
Sharks that are __________________ incubate their eggs in the uterus.
a.
 oviparous
b.
 viviparous
c.
 ovoviviparous
d.
 placental
e.
 eutherial
 93.
The chordate class with the most species is the:
a.
 Osteichythyes.
b.
 Reptilia.
c.
 Amphibia.
d.
 Mammalia.
e.
 Chondrichthyes.
 94.
The first members of classes Osteichythyes and Chondrichthyes appeared in the ____________ period.
a.
 Permian
b.
 Paleozoic
c.
 Devonian
d.
 Jurassic
e.
 Cretaceous
Figure 30-02
Use the figure below to answer the corresponding questions.nar005-1.jpg
 95.
The structure labeled 18 in Figure 30-02 is the:
a.
 brain.
b.
 gills.
c.
 heart.
d.
 stomach.
e.
 swim bladder.
 96.
The function of the structure labeled ________ in Figure 30-02 is to aid buoyancy regulation of the fish.
a.
 4
b.
 16
c.
 14
d.
 5
e.
 None of the above.
 97.
Based on Figure 30-02, which of the following structures places this fish in the class Actinopterygii?
a.
 5
b.
 19
c.
 6
d.
 13
e.
 7
 98.
The amphibians are believed to have arisen from ancestral:
a.
 chondrichthyean fish.
b.
 actinopterygian fish.
c.
 reptiles.
d.
 dipnoi.
e.
 actinistia.
 99.
The first amphibians were the ____________.
a.
 squamata
b.
 anurans
c.
 lungfish
d.
 labyrinthodonts
e.
 coelacanths
 100.
Which taxon is not part of the class Amphibia?
a.
 Squamata
b.
 Anura
c.
 Apoda
d.
 Urodela
e.
 None of the above, all belong to the class Amphibia.
 101.
Salamanders are members of the order:
a.
 Apoda.
b.
 Urodela.
c.
 Anuran.
d.
 Tetrapoda.
e.
 Squamata.
 102.
Metamorphosis occurs in which of the following vertebrate classes?
a.
 Chondrichthyes
b.
 Reptilia
c.
 Myxiniformes
d.
 Amphibia
e.
 All of the above.
 103.
At some point in their life cycle, amphibians may respire via all of the following except:
a.
 gills.
b.
 lungs.
c.
 swim bladder.
d.
 skin.
e.
 book lungs.
 104.
The heart of amphibians has ________ chambers. The hearts of birds and mammals have _______ chambers.
a.
 two; three
b.
 three; four
c.
 two; four
d.
 three; five
e.
 three; two
 105.
Which of the following is not an adaptation of reptiles for life in a terrestrial habitat?
a.
 internal fertilization
b.
 an amniotic egg
c.
 excretion of uric acid
d.
 dry, scaly skin
e.
 None of the above, all are adaptations of reptiles for life in a terrestrial habitat.
 106.
Because most reptiles are terrestrial, fertilization is ____________ and they are ____________.
a.
 external; ovoviviparous
b.
 external; oviparous
c.
 internal; ovoviviparous
d.
 internal; oviparous
e.
 external; viviparous
 107.
Which of these pairings is correct?
a.
 diapsids: lizards
b.
 diapsids: turtles
c.
 synapsids: dinosaurs
d.
 anapsids: mammals
e.
 synapsids: crocodiles
 108.
Fish excrete nitrogenous wastes in the form of ____________; reptiles and birds excrete it as __________.
a.
 uric acid; ammonia
b.
 ammonia; uric acid
c.
 urea; ammonia
d.
 urea; uric acid
e.
 ammonia; urea
 109.
Order ____________ includes the snakes.
a.
 Apoda
b.
 Chelonia
c.
 Aves
d.
 Squamata
e.
 Reptilia
 110.
Order ____________ includes the turtles and tortoises.
a.
 Crocodilia
b.
 Squamata
c.
 Chelonia
d.
 Apoda
e.
 Anapsida
 111.
Snakes are most closely related to:
a.
 lizards.
b.
 turtles.
c.
 eels.
d.
 caecilians.
e.
 synapsids.
 112.
Birds are most closely related to:
a.
 lizards.
b.
 turtles.
c.
 mammals.
d.
 labyrinthodonts.
e.
 terrapins.
 113.
Within the chordate classes, the unique characteristic of the class Aves is:
a.
 flight.
b.
 production of uric acid.
c.
 feathers.
d.
 endothermy.
e.
 All of the above.
 114.
The only living descendant of the dinosaurs are the:
a.
 marsupials
b.
 monotremes.
c.
 birds.
d.
 mammals.
e.
 amphibians.
 115.
Which of the following functions is not associated with the presence of feathers in birds?
a.
 temperature regulation
b.
 minimization of water loss
c.
 respiration
d.
 flight
e.
 protection
 116.
Feathers probably first provided primarily _________ before they aided flight.
a.
 protection from predators
b.
 insulation
c.
 camouflage
d.
 bright colors
e.
 protection from parasites
 117.
Which of the following adaptations is associated with the ability of birds to fly?
a.
 high metabolic rate
b.
 broad, keeled breast bone
c.
 “one-way” air flow through the respiratory system
d.
 hollow bones
e.
 All of the above.
 118.
About ____________ species of birds have been described.
a.
 1,000
b.
 2,000
c.
 4,500
d.
 9,000
e.
 20,000
 119.
A characteristic seen only in mammals is:
a.
 hair.
b.
 mammary glands.
c.
 three middle ear bones.
d.
 incisors, canines, premolars, and molars.
e.
 All of the above.
 120.
Mammals descended from a group of reptiles known as:
a.
 euthurians.
b.
 lancelets.
c.
 therapsids.
d.
 holothurians.
e.
 labyrnthodonts.
 121.
The earliest mammals resembled small:
a.
 dogs.
b.
 koalas.
c.
 kangaroos.
d.
 monkeys.
e.
 shrews.
 122.
The wide adaptive radiation of mammals occurred during the early:
a.
 Cenozoic.
b.
 Paleozoic.
c.
 Tertiary.
d.
 Devonian.
e.
 Jurassic.
 123.
Marsupials include the:
a.
 cat.
b.
 armadillo.
c.
 opossum.
d.
 crocodile.
e.
 spiny anteater.
 124.
The monotremes are unusual as they:
a.
 lack mammary glands.
b.
 lack hair.
c.
 lay eggs.
d.
 have pouches.
e.
 exhibit parthenogenesis.
 125.
Horses and cattle are in different mammalian orders based on differences in their:
a.
 diet.
b.
 foot structure.
c.
 locomotion.
d.
 teeth.
e.
 reproductive mechanisms.
Figure 30-03
Use the figure below to answer the corresponding questions.nar006-1.jpg
 126.
The animals pictured in Figure 30-03 belong to the order:
a.
 Xenarthra.
b.
 Rodentia.
c.
 Lagomorpha.
d.
 Perissodactyla.
e.
 Insectivora.
 127.
Which of the following characteristics does not apply to members of the order in Figure 30-03?
a.
 nocturnal
b.
 insectivores
c.
 aquatic
d.
 placental mammals
e.
 some weigh less than 5 g
Figure 30-04
Use the figure below to answer the corresponding questions.nar007-1.jpg
 128.
The animal pictured in Figure 30-04 belongs to the order:
a.
 Xenarthra.
b.
 Rodentia.
c.
 Lagomorpha.
d.
 Perissodactyla.
e.
 Insectivora.
 129.
Which of the following characteristics does not apply to members of the order in Figure 30-04?
a.
 teeth reduced or absent
b.
 insectivores
c.
 some are arboreal
d.
 complex social interactions
e.
 All of the above, none of these characteristics apply to this order.
 130.
All of the following are linked to the development of the coelom except:
a.
 a hydrostatic skeleton.
b.
 protection of internal organs.
c.
 transport of food and wastes.
d.
 the pumping action of the heart.
e.
 None of the above, all are linked to the development of the coelom.
 131.
The protostome coelomates are divided into 2 major groups, the:
a.
 flatworms and roundworms.
b.
 Lophotrochozoa and Ecdysozoa.
c.
 Mollusca and Arthropoda.
d.
 invertebrates and vertebrates
e.
 Chelicerata and Mandibulata.
 132.
A coelom provides several benefits, including:
a.
 a hydrostatic skeleton.
b.
 transport of materials.
c.
 independent movement of the digestive system and the body wall.
d.
 a space for internal organs.
e.
 All of the above.
 133.
A lophophore is:
a.
 a ciliated ring of tentacles surrounding the mouth.
b.
 Lophotrochozoa and Ecdysozoa.
c.
 a muscular foot for locomotion.
d.
 invertebrates and vertebrates.
e.
 Chelicerata and Mandibulata.
 134.
The trend toward cephalization is first seen in the:
a.
 scyphozoans.
b.
 poriferans.
c.
 platyhelminths.
d.
 nematodes.
e.
 nemerteans.
 135.
The type of excretory structures characteristic of platyhelminths are:
a.
 protonemas.
b.
 protonephridia.
c.
 nephridia.
d.
 Malpighian tubules.
e.
 antennal organs.
 136.
Like the cnidarians, flatworms depend on ____________ for achieving circulation and gas exchange.
a.
 blood
b.
 hemolymph
c.
 diffusion
d.
 hearts
e.
 lungs
 137.
The intermediate host for many flukes is a:
a.
 human.
b.
 cow.
c.
 dog.
d.
 cat.
e.
 snail
Figure 29-01
Use the figure below to answer the corresponding questions.nar008-1.jpg
 138.
In Figure 29-01, which structure is responsible for circulation in this animal?
a.
 1
b.
 4
c.
 5
d.
 6
e.
 None of the above.
 139.
In Figure 29-01, the structure labeled 5 is used for:
a.
 food intake.
b.
 digestion.
c.
 locating food.
d.
 coordination of movement.
e.
 locomotion.
 140.
The anterior end of a tapeworm is known as the:
a.
 proglottid.
b.
 cnidocyte.
c.
 auricle.
d.
 protonephridia.
e.
 scolex.
 141.
The nervous system of flatworms:
a.
 consists of a single, large ganglia in the head region.
b.
 is sometimes referred to as tube like.
c.
 includes two dorsal nerve cords.
d.
 is diffuse and net like.
e.
 None of the above.
 142.
Free-living flatworms belong to the class:
a.
 Monogena.
b.
 Lophotrochozoa.
c.
 Turbellaria.
d.
 Cestoda.
e.
 Chelicerata.
 143.
Planaria are:
a.
 detritivores.
b.
 omnivores.
c.
 herbivores.
d.
 carnivores.
e.
 parasites.
 144.
Tapeworm(s):
a.
 have a tube like digestive system.
b.
 have a closed circulatory system.
c.
 bodies consist of hundreds of reproductive segments.
d.
 have a well developed sensory system to find vertebrate hosts.
e.
 life cycles are simple and completed in their vertebrate hosts.
 145.
Which of the following characteristics is not associated with nemerteans?
a.
 presence of a true coelomic space, the rhynchocoel
b.
 blood vessels
c.
 a heart
d.
 a proboscis
e.
 None of the above, all are characteristic of nemerteans.
 146.
Ribbons worms have a unique ___________ that is used to capture prey.
a.
 proboscis
b.
 tentacle
c.
 set of jaws
d.
 claw
e.
 forked leg
 147.
Which of the following terms can be associated with many molluscan species?
a.
 chelicerae
b.
 pupa
c.
 radula
d.
 pen
e.
 internal shell
 148.
Most molluscs are:
a.
 found in freshwater.
b.
 marine.
c.
 terrestrial.
d.
 arboreal.
e.
 None of the above.
 149.
The veliger larval form is unique to:
a.
 insects.
b.
 annelids.
c.
 molluscs.
d.
 arthropods.
e.
 crustaceans.
 150.
Closed circulatory systems are found in the:
a.
 Cephalopoda.
b.
 Mollusca.
c.
 Bivalvia.
d.
 Gastropoda.
e.
 Polyplacophora.
 151.
An animal found in the rocky intertidal zone has eight overlapping plates and is tightly adhering to the rock with a muscular foot. This animal is most likely a member of the class:
a.
 Polyplacophora.
b.
 Polychaeta.
c.
 Bivalvia.
d.
 Gastropoda.
e.
 Cephalopoda.
 152.
Members of the class Bivalvia:
a.
 have gills that secrete the shell.
b.
 have a mantle that may form pearls.
c.
 are all sessile.
d.
 all have a radula.
e.
 have a broad foot used for locomotion.
 153.
Bivalves are:
a.
 detritivores.
b.
 herbivores
c.
 omnivores.
d.
 carnivores.
e.
 filter feeders.
 154.
Torsion may be an adaptation in __________ that allows the ___________ to be withdrawn first into the shell.
a.
 bivalves; foot
b.
 bivalves; head
c.
 gastropods; foot
d.
 gastropods; head
e.
 cephalopods; head
 155.
Which of the following are shell-less molluscs?
a.
 nudibranchs
b.
 scallops
c.
 pulmonate gastropods
d.
 chitons
e.
 squids
 156.
Which of the following is an adaptation that enables cephalopods to escape from their predators?
a.
 torsion
b.
 poisonous salivary secretions
c.
 a hard shell
d.
 rapidly changing colors
e.
 a modified radula
 157.
Which of the following terms is associated with polychaetes?
a.
 radula
b.
 metamorphosis
c.
 parapodia
d.
 mantle
e.
 visceral mass
 158.
Annelids:
a.
 have a visceral mass.
b.
 have a segmented body.
c.
 surround their body with a mantle.
d.
 move with a muscular foot.
e.
 have an open circulatory system.
 159.
In both mollusks and annelids, the first larval stage is known as:
a.
 a veliger.
b.
 a glochidium.
c.
 a zoea.
d.
 a protostome.
e.
 a trochophore.
 160.
Critical to polychaete and oligochaete locomotion are:
a.
 jointed appendages.
b.
 parapodia.
c.
 setae.
d.
 fins.
e.
 tentacles.
Figure 29-02
Use the figure below to answer the corresponding questions.nar009-1.jpg
 161.
The larva in Figure 29-02 is:
a.
 a veliger.
b.
 a glochidium.
c.
 a trochophore.
d.
 a nauplius.
e.
 a pupa.
 162.
The larva in Figure 29-02 is representative of the phyla:
a.
 Annelida and Arthropoda.
b.
 Mollusca and Annelida.
c.
 Nemertea and Rotifera.
d.
 Nemertea and Nematoda.
e.
 Rotifera and Arthropoda.
 163.
Members of the class ________________ include blood-sucking parasites.
a.
 Oligochaeta
b.
 Polychaeta
c.
 Polyplacophora
d.
 Hirudinea
e.
 Cephalopoda
 164.
The class __________ includes Lumbricus terrestris, the common earthworm.
a.
 Oligochaeta
b.
 Polychaeta
c.
 Polyplacophora
d.
 Hirudinea
e.
 Malacostraca
 165.
Some spawning marine polychaetes ensure fertilization by:
a.
 synchronizing release of sperm and eggs.
b.
 using internal fertilization.
c.
 being hermaphroditic.
d.
 living in close colonies.
e.
 None of the above.
 166.
Hermaphroditic earthworms reproduce sexually by connecting their bodies by their ____________. This allows transfer of ____________ from one worm to the other.
a.
 setae; zygotes
b.
 setae; eggs
c.
 setae; sperm
d.
 clitellum; eggs
e.
 clitellum; sperm
 167.
Segmentation is important in annelids as an aid in:
a.
 respiration.
b.
 reproduction.
c.
 movement.
d.
 sensation.
e.
 eating.
Figure 29-03
Use the figure below to answer the corresponding questions.nar010-1.jpg
 168.
The dorsal blood vessel is the structure labeled ____ in Figure 29-03.
a.
 1
b.
 2
c.
 3
d.
 5
e.
 6
 169.
The cross section in Figure 29-03 is representative of the architecture found in:
a.
 phoronids.
b.
 nemerteans.
c.
 Diplopoda.
d.
 Polyplacophora.
e.
 oligochaetes.
 170.
_________________ is an anticoagulant used by leeches.
a.
 Chitin
b.
 Calcium carbonate
c.
 Hirudin
d.
 Pheromone
e.
 Saxitoxin
 171.
________________ superficially resemble bivalves.
a.
 Brachiopods
b.
 Rotifera
c.
 Mollusca
d.
 Bryozoa
e.
 Chelicerata
 172.
After embryonic development, members of the phylum Rotifera are incapable of:
a.
 locomotion.
b.
 cell division.
c.
 ingestion.
d.
 reproduction.
e.
 None of the above, all are functions of post-embryonic rotifers.
 173.
Animals with a crown of cilia that look like a spinning wheel are the:
a.
 bryozoans.
b.
 phoronids.
c.
 ctenophores.
d.
 rotifers.
e.
 platyhelminths.
 174.
You have a sample of cat emesis (vomit) and find worms in the sample. The cylindrical worms are long and slender, pointed at each end, with no other distinguishing characteristics. They are members of the phylum:
a.
 Platyhelminthes.
b.
 Nematoda.
c.
 Cnidaria.
d.
 Annelida.
e.
 Nemertea.
 175.
The ____________ of roundworms allows them to resist desiccation in terrestrial environments.
a.
 epidermis
b.
 endodermis
c.
 shell
d.
 cuticle
e.
 mesoglea
 176.
________________ are parasites that infect humans, and, as adults, reside in the small intestines of the host.
a.
 Pinworms
b.
 Ascarid worms
c.
 Trichina worms
d.
 Rotifers
e.
 Caenorhabditis elegans
 177.
A Trichinella infection is most common in persons who:
a.
 eat undercooked beef.
b.
 eat undercooked pork.
c.
 eat undercooked fish.
d.
 walk barefoot in a cow pasture.
e.
 walk barefoot in a rice field.
 178.
The phylum name Arthropoda refers to:
a.
 a hard exoskeleton.
b.
 the ability to fly.
c.
 jointed appendages.
d.
 respiratory capabilities.
e.
 a segmented coelom.
 179.
Which of the following does not characterize arthropods?
a.
 presence of a coelom
b.
 segmentation
c.
 an open circulatory system
d.
 an exoskeleton
e.
 an incomplete digestive tract
 180.
One of the disadvantages of exoskeletons in arthropods is that:
a.
 they severely limit locomotion.
b.
 they interfere with ingestion.
c.
 they must be shed when the animal grows.
d.
 they do not provide adequate protection from predators.
e.
 they do not prevent desiccation.
 181.
Velvet worms belong to the phylum:
a.
 Nematoda.
b.
 Annelida.
c.
 Mollusca.
d.
 Onychophora.
e.
 Arthropoda.
 182.
The ___________ are very common arthropod Paleozoic fossils, and are extinct today.
a.
 moss animals
b.
 trilobites
c.
 lophophorate animals
d.
 tardigrades
e.
 phoronids
 183.
Members of the subphylum ________ lack antenna but possess unique mouthparts, which are not mandibles.
a.
 Crustacea
b.
 Uniramia
c.
 Chelicerata
d.
 Chilopoda
e.
 Arachnida
 184.
Segmentation in arthropods differs from that of annelids because arthropod segments are:
a.
 smaller.
b.
 less specialized.
c.
 only present in adults.
d.
 more specialized.
e.
 only present in larvae.
 185.
Biramous appendages in arthropods are only present in:
a.
 crustaceans.
b.
 horseshoe crabs.
c.
 insects.
d.
 arachnids.
e.
 centipedes.
 186.
The dragline that is laid by many spiders serves as a means of:
a.
 capturing prey.
b.
 capturing a mate.
c.
 detecting the pull of gravity.
d.
 communicating with other spiders of the same species.
e.
 holding the eggs of spiders.
 187.
An arthropod with chelicerae, pedipalps, and silk glands would be:
a.
 a scorpion.
b.
 a tick.
c.
 a mite.
d.
 a spider.
e.
 a barnacle.
 188.
Scorpion pincers are enlarged:
a.
 chelicerae.
b.
 maxillae.
c.
 mandibles.
d.
 pedipalps.
e.
 legs.
 189.
_________________ are the most economically important chelicerate pests.
a.
 Spiders
b.
 Scorpions
c.
 Mites and ticks
d.
 Horseshoe crabs
e.
 Trilobites and eurypterids
 190.
Arthropods with mandibles, gills, antennal glands, and statocysts are the:
a.
 insects.
b.
 spiders.
c.
 scorpions.
d.
 crustaceans.
e.
 mites.
 191.
Arthropods with mandibles, a single pair of antennae, and two legs on most body segments are:
a.
 ribbon worms.
b.
 centipedes.
c.
 millipedes.
d.
 trilobites.
e.
 mites.
 192.
As adults, ______________ are sessile crustaceans.
a.
 ticks
b.
 the decapods
c.
 shrimp
d.
 the uniramids
e.
 barnacles
 193.
A nauplius larva is characteristic of:
a.
 echinoderms.
b.
 gastropods.
c.
 molluscs.
d.
 crustaceans.
e.
 ctenophores.
 194.
__________________ are used by crustaceans for detecting the pull of gravity.
a.
 Antennal glands
b.
 Maxillae
c.
 Draglines
d.
 Statocysts
e.
 Swimmerets
 195.
Insects are most closely related to:
a.
 mites.
b.
 ticks.
c.
 millipedes.
d.
 lobsters.
e.
 crustaceans.
 196.
Gas exchange in terrestrial insects is accomplished through:
a.
 the use of gills.
b.
 the use of book lungs.
c.
 the use of tracheae.
d.
 diffusion across the epidermal layer.
e.
 a closed circulatory system.
 197.
The largest class of animals in terms of the number of different species is the class:
a.
 Arachnida.
b.
 Insecta.
c.
 Gastropoda.
d.
 Bivalvia.
e.
 Arthropoda.
 198.
Horseshoe crabs belong to:
a.
 the subphylum Uniramia.
b.
 the subphylum Crustacea.
c.
 the class Chilopoda.
d.
 the class Merostomata.
e.
 the class Malacostraca.
 199.
One adaptation of insects that is specific to this group among all arthropods is:
a.
 cephalization.
b.
 hard exoskeletons.
c.
 segmentation.
d.
 specialized mouthparts.
e.
 wings.
 200.
An elongate uniramid with many legs as well as poison claws is called:
a.
 a mite.
b.
 a tick.
c.
 an insect.
d.
 a centipede.
e.
 a millipede.
 201.
Which of the following arthropod groups is almost exclusively aquatic in habitat?
a.
 Arachnida
b.
 Crustacea
c.
 Insecta
d.
 Chilopoda
e.
 Diplopoda
 202.
Which of the following animals has an open circulatory system?
a.
 clams
b.
 crabs
c.
 insects
d.
 snails
e.
 All of the above.
Figure 29-04
Use the figure below to answer the corresponding questions.nar011-1.jpg
 203.
Which of the insects in Figure 29-04 represents orders that have incomplete metamorphosis?
a.
 2 and 3
b.
 1 and 4
c.
 3 and 5
d.
 1 and 6
e.
 5 and 6
 204.
Which insect in Figure 29-04 represents a group that parasitizes plants?
a.
 1
b.
 2
c.
 3
d.
 4
e.
 5

 

Introduction to Biology

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Introduction to Biology

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  1. Biology is the study of Minerals Organisms Weather Energy
  2. All organisms possess DNA because DNA creates energy for cells DNA allows sensitivity to environmental stimuli

    DNA contains information for growth & development

    DNA helps capture energy from the sun

  3. Hoeostasis means a slow change over a long period of time Keeping things the same or in balance

    Producing enzymes for metabolism

    Responding to environmental stimuli

Introduction to Plants Study Guide

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Introduction to Plants Quiz

 

 

Modified True/False
Indicate whether the statement is true or false.  If false, change the identified word or phrase to make the statement true.
 1.
Plants are multicellular prokaryotes. _________________________
 2.
The plant life cycle includes a diploid gamete and a haploid spore. _________________________
 3.
Mosses are most often found in dry environments. _________________________
 4.
Mosses and liverworts lack a vascular system for transporting water and nutrients. _________________________
 5.
Water must be present for fertilization to take place in mosses. _________________________
 6.
In mosses and liverworts, eggs are formed through mitosis in the antheridia. _________________________
 7.
Gametophytes of conifers are physically much larger than their sporophytes. _________________________
 8.
One important difference between mosses and ferns is that mosses have a vascular system. _________________________
 9.
Shoots, stems, and roots characterize the bodies of vascular plant sporophytes. _________________________
 10.
Ferns are characterized by fronds and fiddleheads. _________________________
 11.
Haploid fern spores are produced by gametophytes. _________________________
 12.
In ferns, a large sporophyte with leaves called fronds alternates with a heart-shaped gametophyte. _________________________
 13.
Ferns need water to reproduce because their sperm must swim to eggs. _________________________
 14.
Both mosses and ferns require a thin film of water for gametes to meet. _________________________
 15.
In both mosses and ferns, eggs are formed through mitosis in the antheridia. _________________________
 16.
Gymnosperm seeds are enclosed in a fruit. _________________________
 17.
Gametophytes of seed plants are large and easily viewed with the unaided eye. _________________________
 18.
Sexual reproduction in seed plants involves the transfer of pollen from the male reproductive structures of a plant to the female reproductive structures. _________________________
 19.
Seed plants cannot reproduce without a film of water for transferring of gametes. _________________________
 20.
A seed is a structure that contains a plant embryo. _________________________
 21.
A plant embryo is a new sporophyte. _________________________
 22.
In flowering plants, the embryos of monocots have two cotyledons. _________________________
 23.
Pollen is produced in the tip of the stamen, a structure called the sepal. _________________________
 24.
The lower portion of the pistil produces pollen. _________________________
 25.
Gametophytes develop within flowers. _________________________
 26.
Pollen tubes grow through the style toward the ovule. _________________________
 27.
Many seeds have appendages that aid in dispersal. _________________________
 28.
Asexual reproduction produces new plants that are genetically different from the parent plant. _________________________
 29.
Vegetative reproduction does require a plant to have flowers. _________________________
 30.
In vegetative reproduction, new plants may be generated from stems or roots. _________________________
 

Multiple Choice
Identify the choice that best completes the statement or answers the question.
 31.
The ancestors of today’s land plants were probably
a.
 brown algae.
c.
 green algae.
b.
 red algae.
d.
 lichens.
 32.
Among the challenges that faced early land plants were
a.
 eliminating excess water.
b.
 obtaining sunlight for photosynthesis.
c.
 absorbing minerals from the rocky surface.
d.
 avoiding being eaten by grazing mammals.
 33.
The waxy protective covering of a land plant is called a
a.
 cuticle.
c.
 rhizome.
b.
 capsule.
d.
 stoma.
 34.
Some land plants developed an internal system of interconnected tubes and vessels called
a.
 cuticles.
c.
 a circulatory system.
b.
 nonvascular canals.
d.
 vascular tissue.
 35.
sporophytes : spores ::
a.
 sporophytes : gametophytes
c.
 gametes : gametophytes
b.
 gametophytes : gametes
d.
 sporophytes : gametes
 36.
The diploid form in a plant’s life cycle is called the
a.
 sporophyte.
c.
 parental generation.
b.
 gametophyte.
d.
 alternate generation.
 37.
The haploid form in a plant’s life cycle is called the
a.
 sporophyte.
c.
 parental generation.
b.
 gametophyte.
d.
 alternate generation.
 38.
A haploid stage following a diploid stage in a plant’s life cycle is called
a.
 generational recycling.
c.
 alternating forms.
b.
 periodic gametogenesis.
d.
 alternation of generations.
 39.
In plants, haploid gametes are produced as a result of
a.
 fertilization.
c.
 encapsulation.
b.
 meiosis.
d.
 mitosis.
 40.
sporophytes : meiosis ::
a.
 sporophytes : spores
c.
 gametophytes : gametes
b.
 gametophytes : mitosis
d.
 sporophytes : gametes
 41.
Mosses, hornworts, and liverworts all possess
a.
 fibrous roots.
c.
 tap roots.
b.
 spore capsules.
d.
 green leaves.
 42.
In nonvascular plants, structures in which spores are produced are known as
a.
 meristems.
c.
 cones.
b.
 pollen grains.
d.
 sporangia.
 43.
Which of the following statements about moss spores is not true?
a.
 They are produced by the sporophyte.
b.
 They are dispersed and then germinate.
c.
 They are produced in a capsule-like top.
d.
 They are diploid.
 44.
The sporophyte generation in mosses produces spores by
a.
 meiosis.
c.
 sexual reproduction.
b.
 mitosis.
d.
 asexual reproduction.
 45.
The most noticeable form of a moss life cycle is the
a.
 sporophyte.
c.
 rhizoid.
b.
 gametophyte.
d.
 zygote.
 46.
In which of the following structures do seedless plants produce eggs?
a.
 antheridia
c.
 archegonia
b.
 capsules
d.
 cones
 47.
antheridia : sperm ::
a.
 rhizoids : gametes
c.
 archegonia : eggs
b.
 seeds : gametophytes
d.
 sperm : megaspores
 48.
Both mosses and ferns produce
a.
 seeds.
c.
 flowers.
b.
 fruit.
d.
 spores.
 49.
Fern sporophytes consist of rhizomes,
a.
 large leaves, and flowers.
c.
 pollen grains, and ovules.
b.
 cones, and stems.
d.
 roots, and fronds.
 50.
Unlike mosses, ferns possess
a.
 spore capsules.
c.
 antheridia.
b.
 archegonia.
d.
 vascular tissue.
 51.
Fiddleheads are produced by
a.
 whisk ferns.
c.
 ferns.
b.
 club mosses.
d.
 horsetails.
 52.
Both mosses and ferns produce gametes through
a.
 mitosis.
c.
 osmosis.
b.
 meiosis.
d.
 diffusion.
 53.
vascular plants : sporophytes ::
a.
 sporophytic plants : gametophytes
c.
 spores : gametes
b.
 gametes : sporophytes
d.
 nonvascular plants : gametophytes
The diagram below shows the plant life cycle.

nar001-1.jpg
 54.
Refer to the diagram above. At which point in the life cycle does fertilization take place?
a.
 1
c.
 3
b.
 2
d.
 4
 55.
Refer to the diagram above. The structures produced at 3 are called
a.
 sporangia.
c.
 spores.
b.
 archegonia.
d.
 antheridia.
 56.
Which of the following were the first land plants to evolve seeds?
a.
 angiosperms
c.
 mosses
b.
 gymnosperms
d.
 horsetails
 57.
liverworts, hornworts, and mosses : nonvascular plants ::
a.
 gymnosperms and angiosperms : bryophytes
b.
 ferns : mosses
c.
 gymnosperms and angiosperms : seed plants
d.
 bryophytes and liverworts : vascular plants
 58.
gymnosperms : naked seeds ::
a.
 pollen : mosses
c.
 liverwort : vascular tissue
b.
 liverwort : pollen
d.
 angiosperms : enclosed seeds
 59.
In seed plants, female gametophytes produce
a.
 sperm.
c.
 cells.
b.
 eggs.
d.
 spores.
 60.
A male gametophyte of a seed plant develops into a
a.
 pollen grain.
c.
 pollen tube.
b.
 spore capsule.
d.
 seed coat.
 61.
The partially developed plant found in seeds is known as a(n)
a.
 gametophyte.
c.
 embryo.
b.
 spore capsule.
d.
 sporophyte.
 62.
A typical seed contains all of the following except a(n)
a.
 seed coat.
c.
 embryo.
b.
 nutritious tissue.
d.
 spore case.
 63.
The tallest trees in the world are a species of
a.
 conifers.
c.
 liverworts.
b.
 dicots.
d.
 angiosperms.
 64.
The process of transferring pollen from a male cone to a female cone in gymnosperms is called
a.
 fertilization.
c.
 pollination.
b.
 seed formation.
d.
 asexual reproduction.
 65.
In conifers, the diploid condition is resumed following
a.
 pollination.
c.
 respiration.
b.
 fertilization.
d.
 sporulation.
 66.
The seeds of monocots have
a.
 one embryo and two cotyledons.
c.
 one embryo and one cotyledon.
b.
 two embryos and two cotyledons.
d.
 two embryos and one cotyledon.
 67.
Flowering plants are classified as monocots or dicots according to the number of their
a.
 leaves.
c.
 meristems.
b.
 flowers.
d.
 cotyledons.
 68.
Monocots and dicots are subdivisions of
a.
 angiosperms.
c.
 ferns.
b.
 gymnosperms.
d.
 mosses.
nar002-1.jpg
 69.
Refer to the diagram above. The structure labeled f
a.
 supports the anther.
c.
 supports the pistil.
b.
 produces pollen.
d.
 develops into a fruit.
 70.
Refer to the diagram above. The structure labeled c
a.
 produces pollen.
b.
 contains sperm cells.
c.
 is the area where pollen lands and sticks.
d.
 contains meristematic tissue.
 71.
Removing a flower’s stigma would initially affect
a.
 fertilization.
c.
 pollination.
b.
 seed production.
d.
 seed dispersal.
 72.
Pollen is produced in a structure called the
a.
 anther.
c.
 ovary.
b.
 stigma.
d.
 pistil.
 73.
In angiosperms, immediately following pollination,
a.
 the seed develops.
c.
 fertilization occurs.
b.
 an egg cell is formed.
d.
 the pollen tube begins to form.
 74.
During fertilization in flowering plants, one sperm fuses with an egg to form an embryo, and another fuses with two nuclei to form nutritive tissue. This event is called
a.
 self-pollination.
c.
 maximization.
b.
 adaptation.
d.
 double fertilization.
 75.
fruit : mature ovary
a.
 gametophyte : sporophyte
c.
 cotyledon : food reserve
b.
 gymnosperm : angiosperm
d.
 vascular plant : nonvascular plant
 76.
If a plant’s flowers are very colorful and produce nectar, the plant is probably pollinated by
a.
 water.
c.
 insects.
b.
 wind.
d.
 self-pollination.
 77.
One way that flowers produced by angiosperms help ensure the transfer of gametes is by
a.
 traveling in the air currents.
b.
 bursting open and projecting gametes onto the landscape.
c.
 attracting animals that carry pollen from one flower to another.
d.
 producing tasty fruits that animals depend on for food.
 78.
What function do all fruits produced by angiosperms perform?
a.
 produce nutrients for the plant
b.
 nourish the embryos
c.
 disperse the seeds
d.
 ensure pollination
 79.
Which structure allows plants to reproduce asexually?
a.
 tuber
c.
 archegonium
b.
 flower
d.
 antheridium
 80.
The production of offspring genetically identical to the parent plant is the result of
a.
 sexual reproduction.
c.
 alternation of generations.
b.
 asexual reproduction.
d.
 double fertilization.
 

Completion
Complete each statement.
 81.
The surface of a vascular plant is covered by a waxy, waterproof layer called a(n) ____________________.
 82.
One of the first environmental challenges that early land plants had to overcome was developing a way to conserve ____________________.
 83.
The sporophyte generation produces spores by the process of ____________________.
 84.
The haploid form of a plant is known as the ____________________ generation.
 85.
Nonvascular plants transport materials within their bodies through the process of ____________________.
 86.
A green, hornlike sporophyte growing upward from the gametophyte is typical of plants known as ____________________.
 87.
In mosses and liverworts, the ____________________ generation is the dominant generation.
 88.
The very tiny liverwort ____________________ grow from the archegonia under the caps of female stalks.
 89.
The gametophytes of ____________________ plants are larger and more noticeable than the sporophytes.
 90.
The seedless plants produce sperm within the ____________________.
 91.
True roots, stems, and leaves are associated with ____________________ plants.
 92.
A fern is an example of a(n) ____________________ vascular plant.
 93.
Both mosses and ferns produce eggs within structures called ____________________.
 94.
Like the nonvascular plants, the seedless vascular plants can reproduce sexually only when a film of ____________________ covers the gametophyte.
 95.
Unlike mosses, ferns have sporophytes that are much ____________________ than their gametophytes.
 96.
Seed plants whose seeds do not develop within a sealed container (fruit) are called ____________________.
 97.
Fruit is a characteristic associated only with the flowering plants, or ____________________.
 98.
A male gametophyte of a seed plant develops into a(n) ____________________.
 99.
The ____________________ is the protective cover that surrounds a seed.
 100.
The seed coat prevents the embryo from drying out, from mechanical injury, and from ____________________.
 101.
A(n) ____________________ is a specialized structure that develops from an ovule and serves to protect a plant embryo from harsh conditions.
 102.
The four major groups of gymnosperms are gnetophytes, cycads, ginkgoes, and ____________________.
 103.
A mature pine tree produces both male and female ____________________.
 104.
Gymnosperms are pollinated by ____________________, which makes sexual reproduction possible even during dry conditions.
 105.
The life cycle of a conifer is characterized by a large ____________________ generation.
 106.
In conifers, seeds form on the ____________________ of cones.
 107.
A plant that has flower parts that occur in fours or fives or multiples of four or five is a member of a subgroup called a(n) ____________________.
nar002-1.jpg
 108.
Refer to the diagram above. The structure labeled f is called the ____________________.
 109.
Refer to the diagram above. The structure labeled b is called the ____________________.
 110.
Refer to the diagram above. A flower like this one has all four basic flower parts and thus is an example of a(n) ____________________ flower.
 111.
The transfer of pollen grains from an anther to a stigma is known as ____________________.
 112.
In angiosperms, seeds develop from the ____________________ inside a(n) ____________________ after an egg has been fertilized.
 113.
The event in which one sperm fertilizes an egg and a second sperm fuses with two nuclei is called _________________________.
 114.
A flower is a(n) ____________________ structure that produces pollen and seeds.
 115.
Flowers are a source of ____________________ for pollinators.
 116.
The seeds of angiosperms are enclosed in ____________________.
 117.
Because flowering plants are rooted in the ground and cannot move from place to place, they must disperse their ____________________ so that their offspring can grow in new environments.
 118.
Many fruits are spread by ____________________ that are attracted to sweet, fleshy fruits, which they use for food.
 119.
Many of the structures by which plants reproduce vegetatively are modified ____________________.
 120.
Bulbs, stolons, and tubers are examples of modified stems that allow plants to reproduce ____________________.

 
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Mendel Quiz

%CODE1% Mendel Quiz

 

 

 

1. If a heterozygous yellow pea is crossed with a green pea, what proportion of the offspring will be green?

a. none
b. 1/4
c. 1/2
d. 3/4

 

2. If you cross two plants with blue flowers and get both blue and white-flowered plants in the next generation, you can conclude that

a. both parents are heterozygotes
b. blue is the dominant trait (B)
c. white should be symbolized b
d. all of the above

 

3. Albinism is a recessive trait. If a brown mouse whose father was albino is mated with an albino mouse, what proportion of the offspring would be expected to be brown?

a. none
b. 1/4
c. 1/2
d. 3/4

 

4. A monohybrid cross is carried out between parents of genotype Aa. What proportion of the offspring will look like their parents?

a. none
b. 1/4
c. 1/2
d. 3/4

 

5. The genotype of a homozygote would be

a. aa
b. Aa
c. AB
d. bB

 

6. Alternative forms of a gene that influence a given trait are

a. chromosomes
b. gametes
c. alleles
d. cistrons

 

7. A red flower (RR) and a red flower (Rr) have the same

a. alleles
b. genotype
c. haplotype
d. phenotype

 

8. If plants with orange berries (OO) are crossed with plants with yellow berries (oo), what kinds of offspring will result?

a. homozygous orange-fruited plants
b. homozygous yellow-fruited plants
c. heterozygous yellow-fruited plants
d. heterozygous orange-fruited plants

 

9. In an organism of genotype Aa, half the reproductive cells carry ‘A’ and half carry ‘a’. Mendel called this phenomenon

a. segregation
b. dominance
c. recessiveness
d. independent assortment

 

10. A homozygous brown rabbit is crossed to a homozygous white rabbit. If brown is the dominant trait, they should produce

a. all white rabbits
b. all brown rabbits
c. brown and white spotted rabbits
d. a litter of brown and white rabbits in a 1:1 ratio

 

 

Nucleic Acids and Genetics Study Guide

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Nucleic Acids and Genetics Study Guide

 

 

Multiple Choice
Identify the choice that best completes the statement or answers the question.
 1.
Mendel verified true-breeding pea plants for certain traits before undertaking his experiments. The term "true-breeding" refers to:
a.
 genetically pure lines.
b.
 organisms that have a high rate of reproduction.
c.
 organisms that will produce identical copies of themselves upon reproduction.
d.
 organisms that are heterozygous for a given trait.
e.
 organisms that are homozygous for all possible traits.
 2.
Mating a true-breeding pink rose plant with a true-breeding pink rose plant will produce:
a.
 plants with pink, red, and white roses.
b.
 only plants with pink roses.
c.
 plants with red or white roses in a 3:1 ratio.
d.
 plants with white or red roses in a 3:1 ratio.
e.
 None of the above.
 3.
The term "dominant" means that:
a.
 both alleles can be expressed in a hybrid.
b.
 all members of the F2 generation of a hybrid cross exhibit the dominant phenotype.
c.
 one allele can mask the expression of another in a hybrid.
d.
 the dominant phenotype shows up in 100% of the offspring in all generations.
e.
 the dominant phenotype is more beneficial than the recessive phenotype.
 4.
Mendel's principle of segregation states that:
a.
 alleles from one parent mask the expression of alleles from the other parent.
b.
 alleles separate from each other before forming gametes.
c.
 hybrids will express a phenotype intermediate between the two parental phenotypes.
d.
 true-breeding parents produce offspring of the same phenotype.
e.
 different loci separate from each other.
 5.
A pear plant with the genotype Aa can produce gametes containing:
a.
 either A or Aa.
b.
 only the dominant A.
c.
 only the recessive a.
d.
 either A or a.
e.
 either AA, Aa or aa.
 6.
The physical appearance of an organism for a given trait is termed:
a.
 genetics.
b.
 dominance.
c.
 synapsis.
d.
 genotype.
e.
 phenotype.
 7.
The physical location of a particular gene on a chromosome is called:
a.
 an allele.
b.
 a locus.
c.
 a trait.
d.
 a chromatid.
e.
 None of the above.
 8.
____________ are alternative forms of a gene that govern the same feature, such as eye color, and occupy corresponding positions on homologous chromosomes.
a.
 Alleles
b.
 Loci
c.
 Homozygotes
d.
 Coupled traits
e.
 None of the above.
 9.
Using standard conventions for naming alleles, which of the following pairs is correct?
a.
 Tt—recessive phenotype
b.
 TT—heterozygous
c.
 tt—homozygous
d.
 tt—dominant phenotype
e.
 All of the above.
 10.
The separation of alleles of a gene takes place during:
a.
 anaphase of mitosis.
b.
 cytokinesis of mitosis.
c.
 anaphase I of meiosis.
d.
 telophase II of meiosis.
e.
 cytokinesis of meiosis.
 11.
Which of the following represents the possible genotype(s) resulting from a cross between an individual homozygous (BB) and one heterozygous (Bb) individual?
a.
 BB and Bb
b.
 BB, Bb, and bb
c.
 BB only
d.
 Bb only
e.
 bb only
 12.
Which of the following represents the possible genotype(s) resulting from a cross between two individuals that are heterozygous (Bb)?
a.
 BB and Bb
b.
 BB, Bb, and bb
c.
 BB only
d.
 Bb only
e.
 bb only
 13.
Which of the following represents the possible genotype(s) resulting from a cross between an individual heterozygous (Bb) and one that is homozygous (bb)?
a.
 BB and Bb
b.
 Bb, and bb
c.
 BB only
d.
 Bb only
e.
 bb only
 14.
Mating an individual expressing a dominant phenotype, but whose genotype is unknown, with an individual expressing the corresponding recessive phenotype is an example of:
a.
 a heterozygous cross.
b.
 an F1 cross.
c.
 an F2 cross.
d.
 a parental cross.
e.
 a test cross.
 15.
The genotype for a pea plant that is homozygous recessive for both height and pea color would be:
a.
 tt.
b.
 YY.
c.
 TtYy.
d.
 ttyy.
e.
 TTYY.
 16.
In peas, Mendel found that tall plants and yellow peas are dominant. The phenotype for a pea plant with the genotype TTyy would be:
a.
 heterozygous.
b.
 Ty.
c.
 short with yellow peas.
d.
 tall with green peas.
e.
 tall with yellow peas.
 17.
In peas, Mendel found that tall plants and yellow peas are dominant. The phenotype for a pea plant with the genotype TtYy would be:
a.
 heterozygous.
b.
 Ty.
c.
 short with yellow peas.
d.
 tall with green peas.
e.
 tall with yellow peas.
 18.
The height of pea plants from a cross between parent plants heterozygous for height, in which tall is dominant, would be:
a.
 all short.
b.
 all tall.
c.
 1 tall : 3 short.
d.
 2 short : 2 tall.
e.
 3 tall : 1 short.
 19.
Which of the following represents the possible genotype(s) resulting from a cross between an individual homozygous for black hair (BB) and an individual homozygous for blonde hair (bb)?
a.
 BB and Bb
b.
 BB, Bb, and bb
c.
 BB only
d.
 Bb only
e.
 bb only
 20.
What is the probability that two lizards that are heterozygous for stripes on their tails (Ss) will produce an offspring that is homozygous for no stripes (ss)?
a.
 1
b.
 1/2
c.
 1/4
d.
 1/8
e.
 0
 21.
In humans, assume that brown eyes is dominant and blue eyes is recessive. If two brown-eyed individuals have a child with blue eyes, that means:
a.
 both parents are homozygous for brown eyes.
b.
 both parents are heterozygous for eye color.
c.
 there is a 1/4 chance that their second child will have brown eyes.
d.
 there is a 50/50 chance that their second child will have blue eyes.
e.
 None of the above.
 22.
If a couple is planning on having two children, what is the probability that both will be male?
a.
 0
b.
 1/4
c.
 1/2
d.
 3/4
e.
 1
 23.
If a couple is planning on having three children, what is the probability that only one will be male?
a.
 0
b.
 1/4
c.
 3/8
d.
 1/2
e.
 3/4
 24.
A brown-eyed couple already has a child with blue eyes. What is the probability that their next child will have blue eyes, assuming that brown eyes is dominant and blue eyes is recessive?
a.
 0
b.
 1/4
c.
 1/2
d.
 3/4
e.
 1
 25.
A couple has already had 3 girls with cystic fibrosis, and were hoping to have a normal child for their fourth. What are the chances that the fourth child will be a normal male?
a.
 0
b.
 1/8
c.
 1/4
d.
 3/8
e.
 1/2
 26.
A brown-eyed couple heterozygous for eye color are planning on having two children. What is the probability that both children will have blue eyes, assuming brown eyes is dominant and blue eyes is recessive?
a.
 0
b.
 1/32
c.
 1/16
d.
 1/4
e.
 1/2
 27.
Two Martians fall in love and marry. One Martian is homozygous for red eyes and the other is heterozygous. The recessive eye color is purple. What is the probability that they will have a child with purple eyes?
a.
 1/1
b.
 1/2
c.
 1/4
d.
 3/4
e.
 0
 28.
Two Martians fall in love and marry. One Martian is homozygous for red eyes and the other is heterozygous. The recessive eye color is purple. What are the chances that the alien couple will have a child with red eyes?
a.
 1
b.
 1/2
c.
 1/4
d.
 3/4
e.
 0
 29.
Two Martians fall in love and marry. One Martian is homozygous for red eyes and the other is heterozygous. The recessive eye color is purple. What is the probability that the alien couple will have a child that is heterozygous for eye color?
a.
 1
b.
 1/2
c.
 1/4
d.
 3/4
e.
 0
 30.
The principle of independent assortment is not true for:
a.
 incomplete dominance.
b.
 mutations.
c.
 heterozygotes.
d.
 homozygotes.
e.
 X-linked genes.
 31.
The probability that two genes will be separated by crossing-over is related to:
a.
 the phenotype that they control.
b.
 how far the two genes are from the centromere.
c.
 the distance between the two genes on the chromosome.
d.
 whether the two genes are located on a sex chromosome.
e.
 how far the genes are from the kinetochore.
 32.
Genes that tend to be inherited together are said to be:
a.
 associated.
b.
 related.
c.
 similar.
d.
 linked.
e.
 alleles.
 33.
A ______________ is best used to demonstrate the linkage of two genes.
a.
 monohybrid cross
b.
 dihybrid cross
c.
 monohybrid test cross
d.
 two-allele test cross
e.
 two-point test cross
 34.
In genetics, map units express the distance between:
a.
 chromosomes during metaphase.
b.
 two loci on a chromosome.
c.
 alleles.
d.
 polar bodies.
e.
 homologous chromosomes.
 35.
In a two-point test cross, 36 of the offspring were recombinant types. The remaining 64 offspring were parental types. How many map units separate the two loci?
a.
 28
b.
 36
c.
 64
d.
 78
e.
 100
 36.
The sex of most mammals, birds, and insects is determined by:
a.
 the temperature.
b.
 the environment.
c.
 sex chromosomes.
d.
 chance.
e.
 None of the above.
 37.
The sex of a human is determined by:
a.
 the number of chromosomes.
b.
 the number of autosomes.
c.
 the presence of only one X chromosome.
d.
 the number of sex chromosomes.
e.
 the presence of Y chromosome.
 38.
The offspring of two heterozygous gray-bodied, normal-winged flies should be 50% gray-bodied/normal wings (BbRr) and 50% black-bodied/vestigial wings (bbrr) because these alleles are linked. If a small number, say 15%, of the offspring are instead black-bodied with normal wings, this is most likely the result of:
a.
 crossing-over.
b.
 incomplete dominance.
c.
 codominance.
d.
 an error in meiosis.
e.
 mutation.
 39.
An organism with the genotype of AaXx can produce gametes containing _________ if the two genes are unlinked.
a.
 either Aa or Xx
b.
 either AX, Ax, aX, ax
c.
 AaXx
d.
 AX or ax
e.
 None of the above.
 40.
A lizard with a striped tail is crossed with one having a spotted head, producing normal looking (no stripes or spots) lizard progeny. What progeny would be expected to be produced by mating these progeny with each other, if the genes conferring stripes and spots were on different chromosomes?
a.
 equal numbers of normal, striped, spotted and striped and spotted
b.
 3 striped : 1 spotted
c.
 9 striped and spotted : 3 spotted : 3 striped : 1 normal
d.
 9 striped : 3 spotted : 1 striped or spotted
e.
 9 normal : 3 striped : 3 spotted : 1 striped and spotted
 41.
A lizard with striped tails is crossed with one having a spotted head, producing normal looking (no stripes or spots) progeny. What progeny would be expected to be produced by mating one of these lizards with another that had a striped tail and spotted head, if the genes conferring stripes and spots were close together on the same chromosome?
a.
 equal numbers of normal, striped, spotted and striped and spotted
b.
 3 striped : 1 spotted
c.
 mostly progeny that are striped or spotted
d.
 mostly progeny that are normal or striped and spotted
e.
 9 normal : 3 striped : 3 spotted : 1 striped and spotted
 42.
Why is color-blindness more common in males than in females?
a.
 Because females would have to receive two copies of the recessive color blindness gene to actually express the trait.
b.
 Because a male only needs to receive the recessive gene from his mother to be color-blind.
c.
 Because color-blindness is an X-linked trait.
d.
 All of the above.
e.
 None of the above.
 43.

What are the possible phenotypes of the children if the mother has Type A blood and the father has type AB blood? (Use the Punnett square to verify your answer.)

 

a.
 all AB
b.
 A, B
c.
 A, AB
d.
 A, B, AB
e.
 A, B, O
 44.

What are the possible phenotypes of the children if the mother's genotype is IAi for blood type and the father is IBi? (Use the Punnett square to verify your answer.)

 

a.
 all AB
b.
 A, B
c.
 A, AB
d.
 A, B, O
e.
 A, B, AB, O
 45.

What are the predicted phenotypes of the male children from the union of a woman who is heterozygous for hemophilia and a man who has normal blood clotting characteristics? (Use the Punnett square to verify your answer.)

 

a.
 all normal
b.
 3 normal : 1 hemophilia
c.
 1 hemophilia : 1 normal
d.
 1 hemophilia : 3 normal
e.
 all hemophiliacs
 46.

What are the predicted phenotypes of the female children from the union of a woman who is heterozygous for hemophilia and a man who has normal blood clotting characteristics? (Use the Punnett square to verify your answer.)

 

a.
 all carriers
b.
 3 homozygous normal : 1 carrier
c.
 1 homozygous normal : 1 carrier
d.
 1 hemophilia: 2 homozygous normal : 1 carrier
e.
 all hemophiliacs
 47.
What are the possible genotypes of a female child from the union of a woman who is heterozygous for hemophilia and a man who has normal blood clotting characteristics?
a.
 XHXH or XHXh
b.
 XHXh
c.
 XHYH
d.
 Hh
e.
 HH
 48.
A Barr body in a mammalian female cell represents:
a.
 an inactivated oocyte.
b.
 a polar body.
c.
 a degenerate nucleus.
d.
 an inactivated X chromosome.
e.
 an inactivated Y chromosome.
 49.
Calico cats are never male because:
a.
 recessive genes are not usually expressed on their X chromosome.
b.
 male hormones prevent expression of the calico phenotype.
c.
 two different X chromosomes are needed for the expression of the calico phenotype.
d.
 two different Y chromosomes are needed for the expression of the calico phenotype.
e.
 one X chromosome and one Y chromosome are needed for the expression of the calico phenotype.
 50.
A diploid individual has a maximum of ____________ different alleles for a particular locus.
a.
 one
b.
 two
c.
 three
d.
 four
e.
 more than four
 51.
A particular gene that controls seed coat color in peas also determines the susceptibility of these peas to a particular disease. This situation is referred to as:
a.
 variegation.
b.
 additive dominance.
c.
 codominance.
d.
 pleiotropy.
e.
 incomplete dominance.
 52.
When certain medium height hybrid plants were crossed, they produced offspring that were dwarf, medium, and tall in a ratio of 1 : 2 : 1. This is an example of:
a.
 variegation.
b.
 hybrid vigor.
c.
 incomplete dominance.
d.
 epistasis.
e.
 a polygenic trait.
 53.
Breeding a yellow dog with a brown dog produced puppies with both yellow and brown hairs intermixed. This is an example of:
a.
 variegation.
b.
 codominance.
c.
 incomplete dominance.
d.
 epistasis.
e.
 a polygenic trait.
 54.
A gene that affects, prevents, or masks the expression of a gene at another locus is a(n) _________ gene.
a.
 recessive
b.
 dominant
c.
 epistatic
d.
 codominant
e.
 plieotropic
 55.
The range of phenotypic possibilities that can develop from a certain dog genotype under different environmental conditions is called the:
a.
 epistatic interaction.
b.
 norm of reaction.
c.
 nurture limit.
d.
 genotype range.
e.
 maximum phenotype.
 56.
________________________ refers to multiple independent pairs of genes having similar and additive effects on the same characteristic.
a.
 Codominance
b.
 Epistasis
c.
 Polygenic inheritance
d.
 Complete dominance
e.
 Additive dominance
 57.
In the experiments of Griffith, the conversion of non-lethal R-strain bacteria to lethal S-strain bacteria:
a.
 was the result of genetic mutation.
b.
 was an example of the genetic exchange known as transformation.
c.
 supported the case for proteins as the genetic material.
d.
 could not be reproduced by other researchers.
e.
 was an example of conjugation.
 58.
The first experimenters to use Griffith's transformation assay to identify the genetic material were:
a.
 Meselson and Stahl.
b.
 Watson and Crick.
c.
 Franklin and Wilkins.
d.
 Avery, MacLeod, and McCarty.
e.
 Hershey and Chase.
 59.
The bacteriophages used in Alfred Hershey's and Martha Chase's experiments showed that:
a.
 DNA was injected into bacteria.
b.
 DNA and protein were injected into bacteria.
c.
 DNA remained on the outer coat of bacteria.
d.
 proteins were injected into bacteria.
e.
 proteins were responsible for the production of new viruses within the bacteria.
 60.
The main reason scientists thought that proteins, rather than DNA, were the carriers of genetic material in the cell was:
a.
 their presence within the nucleus.
b.
 their abundance within the cell.
c.
 the large number of possible amino acid combinations.
d.
 their ability to self replicate within the cytoplasm.
e.
 their ability to be exported from the cell.
 61.
Which of the following statements about DNA is false?
a.
 DNA is capable of forming many different sequences.
b.
 DNA contains thymine instead of uracil.
c.
 DNA is double-stranded rather than single-stranded.
d.
 DNA is only found in eukaryotic cells.
e.
 DNA contains the sugar deoxyribose.
 62.
The information carried by DNA is incorporated in a code specified by the:
a.
 phosphodiester bonds of the DNA strand.
b.
 number of separate strands of DNA.
c.
 size of a particular chromosome.
d.
 specific nucleotide sequence of the DNA molecule.
e.
 number of bases in a DNA strand.
 63.
X-ray diffraction studies are used to determine:
a.
 the sequence of amino acids in protein molecules.
b.
 the sequence of nucleic acids in nucleic acid molecules.
c.
 the distances between atoms of molecules.
d.
 the type of chemical under investigation.
e.
 the wavelength of light emitted by chemicals.
 64.
The two molecules that alternate to form the backbone of a polynucleotide chain are:
a.
 adenine and thymine.
b.
 cytosine and guanine.
c.
 sugar and phosphate.
d.
 base and sugar.
e.
 base and phosphate.
 65.
______________________ used x-ray diffraction to provide images of DNA.
a.
 Watson and Crick
b.
 Crick and Wilkins
c.
 Franklin
d.
 Franklin and Crick
e.
 Watson and Wilkins
 66.
______________________ determined the structure of the molecule DNA.
a.
 Crick and Wilkins
b.
 Watson and Crick
c.
 Franklin and Crick
d.
 Franklin
e.
 Watson, Crick, and Wilkins
 67.
Chargaff determined that DNA from any source contains about the same amount of guanine as __________.
a.
 uracil
b.
 thymine
c.
 adenine
d.
 cytosine
e.
 guanine
 68.
X-ray crystallography showed that DNA:
a.
 had the bases in the center of the molecule.
b.
 had the sugars and phosphates on the outside of the molecule.
c.
 was a very long molecule.
d.
 was made of 2 strands.
e.
 was a helix.
 69.
Why is DNA able to store large amounts of information?
a.
 It contains a large number of different nucleotides.
b.
 Its nucleotides can be arranged in a large number of possible sequences.
c.
 It is capable of assuming a wide variety of shapes.
d.
 The sugar and phosphates can be arranged in many different sequences.
e.
 The nucleotides can be altered to form many different letters in the sequence.
 70.
In DNA, the genetic information:
a.
 is contained in each strand.
b.
 is contained in only one of the strands.
c.
 is contained in both strands together.
d.
 is contained in the differences between the 2 strands.
e.
 None of the above.
 71.
Two chains of DNA must run in ____________ direction(s) and must be ____________ if they are to bond with each other.
a.
 the same; uncomplementary
b.
 opposite; uncomplementary
c.
 parallel; uncomplementary
d.
 parallel; complementary
e.
 antiparallel; complementary
 72.
Hydrogen bonds can form between guanine and ____________, and between adenine and ____________.
a.
 phosphate; sugar
b.
 thymine; cytosine
c.
 cytosine; thymine
d.
 sugar; phosphate
e.
 adenine; guanine
Figure 11-01
Use the figure below to answer the corresponding questions.nar001-1.jpg
 73.
The portion of the molecule in box 5 of Figure 11-01 is:
a.
 a hydrogen bond.
b.
 a phosphate.
c.
 a nucleotide.
d.
 a pyrimidine.
e.
 a protein.
 74.
In Figure 11-01, the portion of the molecule in box _________ is a pyrimidine.
a.
 1
b.
 3
c.
 4
d.
 1 and 3
e.
 3 and 4
 75.
The portion of the molecule in box 3 of Figure 11-01 is:
a.
 a sugar.
b.
 a protein.
c.
 a pyrimidine.
d.
 a purine.
e.
 a nucleotide.
 76.
Which of the following nucleotide sequences represents the complement to the DNA strand 5´ - AGATCCG- 3´?
a.
 5´ – AGATCCG- 3´
b.
 3´ – AGATCCG- 5´
c.
 5´ – CTCGAAT- 3´
d.
 3´ – CTCGAAT- 5´
e.
 3´ – TCTAGGC- 5´
 77.
How is a single strand of DNA able to serve as a template for the synthesis of another strand?
a.
 Nucleotides pair with those of the original strand to form a new strand.
b.
 Hydrogen bonds holding the two strands together are easy to break, allowing one strand to be a template.
c.
 A single strand of DNA is not able to serve as a template.
d.
 One strand of DNA directs the synthesis of a new strand on its partner.
e.
 Both A and B.
 78.
Which of the following best describes semiconservative replication?
a.
 The translation of a DNA molecule into a complementary strand of RNA.
b.
 A DNA molecule consists of one parental strand and one new strand.
c.
 The number of DNA molecules is doubled with every other replication.
d.
 The replication of DNA never takes place with 100% accuracy.
e.
 The replication of DNA takes place at a defined period in the cell cycle.
 79.
Who first confirmed that the replication of DNA was semiconservative?
a.
 Chargaff and Hershey
b.
 Watson and Crick
c.
 Avery and Griffith
d.
 Meselson and Stahl
e.
 Watson, Crick, and Wilkins
 80.
If DNA replication rejoined the 2 parental strands, it would be termed:
a.
 dispersive.
b.
 gradient.
c.
 semiconservative.
d.
 parental.
e.
 conservative.
 81.
Meselson and Stahl separated DNA from different generations using:
a.
 density gradient centrifugation.
b.
 gel electrophoresis.
c.
 an electron microscope.
d.
 differential radioisotope labeling.
e.
 None of the above.
 82.
When a DNA molecule containing a wrong base at one location in one strand is replicated:
a.
 the mutation is corrected by the DNA polymerase enzyme.
b.
 the mutation is ignored by the DNA polymerase enzyme.
c.
 the mutation is copied into one of the two daughter molecules.
d.
 the mutation is copied into both of the daughter molecules.
e.
 the replication is stopped.
 83.
What prevents knot formation in replicating DNA?
a.
 protosomes
b.
 topoisomerases
c.
 scaffolding proteins
d.
 chromatin
e.
 histones
 84.
Why does DNA synthesis only proceed in the 5´to 3´ direction?
a.
 Because DNA polymerases can only add nucleotides to the 3´ end of a polynucleotide strand.
b.
 Because the 3´ end of the polynucleotide molecule is more electronegative than the 5´ end.
c.
 Because that is the direction in which the two strands of DNA unzip.
d.
 Because that is the only direction that the polymerase can be oriented.
e.
 Because the chromosomes are always aligned in the 5´ to 3´ direction in the nucleus.
 85.
How is the chromosome of a bacterial cell replicated?
a.
 The linear DNA molecule is replicated from multiple origins of replication bidirectionally.
b.
 The linear DNA molecule is replicated from one origin of replication bidirectionally.
c.
 The circular DNA molecule is replicated from multiple origins of replication bidirectionally.
d.
 The circular DNA molecule is replicated from one origin of replication bidirectionally.
e.
 The circular DNA molecule is replicated from one origin of replication unidirectionally.
 86.
How are the chromosomes of a eukaryote cell replicated?
a.
 The linear DNA molecules are replicated from multiple origins of replication bidirectionally.
b.
 The linear DNA molecules are replicated from one origin of replication bidirectionally.
c.
 The circular DNA molecules are replicated from multiple origins of replication bidirectionally.
d.
 The circular DNA molecules are replicated from one origin of replication bidirectionally.
e.
 The linear DNA molecules are replicated from one origin of replication unidirectionally.
 87.
Which of the following adds new nucleotides to a growing DNA chain?
a.
 DNA polymerase
b.
 DNA helicase
c.
 RNA primer
d.
 primase
e.
 RNA polymerase
 88.
Which of the following cause the unwinding of the DNA double helix?
a.
 DNA polymerase
b.
 DNA helicase
c.
 RNA primer
d.
 primosome
e.
 RNA polymerase
 89.
In DNA replication, the lagging strand:
a.
 is synthesized as a series of Okazaki fragments.
b.
 is synthesized as a complementary copy of the leading strand.
c.
 pairs with the leading strand by complementary base pairing.
d.
 is made up entirely of RNA primers.
e.
 is not synthesized until the synthesis of the leading strand is completed.
Figure 11-02
Use the figure below to answer the corresponding questions.nar002-1.jpg
 90.
The correct designation for the DNA strand labeled C in Figure 11-02 is:
a.
 the leading strand.
b.
 3´.
c.
 Okazaki fragments.
d.
 polymerase.
e.
 None of the above.
 91.
The segments labeled F in Figure 11-02 are responsible for:
a.
 linking short DNA segments.
b.
 synthesizing the leading strand.
c.
 forming the replication fork.
d.
 initiating DNA synthesis.
e.
 unwinding the DNA double helix.
 92.
The enzyme represented by the letter D in Figure 11-02 is responsible for:
a.
 linking short DNA segments.
b.
 synthesizing the leading strand.
c.
 forming the replication fork.
d.
 forming nucleosomes.
e.
 unwinding the DNA double helix.
 93.
The structures represented by the letter E in Figure 11-02 are called:
a.
 leading fragments
b.
 Okazaki fragments.
c.
 replication forks.
d.
 nucleosomes.
e.
 DNA polymerases.
 94.
In replication, once the DNA strands have been separated, reformation of the double helix is prevented by:
a.
 DNA helicase enzyme.
b.
 helix-destabilizing proteins.
c.
 DNA polymerases.
d.
 ATP.
e.
 GTP.
 95.
Enzymes called ____________ form nicks in the DNA molecules to prevent the formation of knots in the DNA helix during replication.
a.
 topoisomerases
b.
 helix-destabilizing enzymes
c.
 DNA polymerases
d.
 RNA polymerases
e.
 DNA ligases
 96.
The DNA strand that is replicated smoothly and continuously is called the:
a.
 primary strand.
b.
 first strand.
c.
 leading strand.
d.
 alpha strand.
e.
 lagging strand.
 97.
The final product of DNA replication is:
a.
 mRNA, tRNA, and rRNA molecules.
b.
 a wide variety of proteins.
c.
 DNA fragments.
d.
 two DNA molecules, each of which contains one new and one old DNA strand.
e.
 the enzymes needed for further processes, such as DNA polymerase.
 98.
A replication fork:
a.
 is only seen in prokaryotic chromosomes.
b.
 is only seen in bacterial cells.
c.
 is a Y-shaped structure where both DNA strands are replicated simultaneously.
d.
 is a site where one DNA strand serves as a template, but the other strand is not replicated.
e.
 is created by the action of the enzyme RNA polymerase.
 99.
The 5´ end of each Okazaki fragment begins with:
a.
 the same RNA primer that began synthesis on the leading strand.
b.
 a DNA primer binding to the template DNA.
c.
 DNA polymerase binding to the template DNA.
d.
 a separate RNA primer.
e.
 a small DNA primer.
 100.
Okazaki fragments are joined together by:
a.
 RNA polymerase.
b.
 DNA ligase.
c.
 DNA polymerase.
d.
 RNA ligase.
e.
 primase.
 101.
Primase is the enzyme responsible for:
a.
 unwinding the DNA double strand to allow DNA polymerase access to the template DNA.
b.
 introducing nicks into the DNA double strand in order to prevent the formation of knots.
c.
 hydrolyzing ATP to facilitate DNA unwinding.
d.
 making short strands of RNA at the site of replication initiation.
e.
 forming a replication fork in the DNA double helix.
 102.
____________, the ends of eukaryotic chromosomes, shorten with every cell replication event.
a.
 Centromeres
b.
 Telomeres
c.
 Kinetochores
d.
 Primosomes
e.
 Nucleosomes
 103.
The ends of eukaryotic chromosomes can be lengthened by:
a.
 apoptosis.
b.
 reverse transcriptase.
c.
 primase.
d.
 telomerase.
e.
 DNA polymerase.
 104.
Cancer cells differ from noncancerous cells in that:
a.
 they have elevated levels of telomerase.
b.
 they are virtually immortal.
c.
 they have the ability to resist apoptosis.
d.
 they can maintain telomere length as they divide.
e.
 All of the above.
 105.
In 1998, Bodnar and her colleagues found that by introducing genes coding for telomeres into cultured human cells:
a.
 the cells underwent more cell divisions than normal.
b.
 the cells underwent fewer cell divisions than normal.
c.
 the cells all lived indefinitely.
d.
 the cells underwent gene expression more vigorously.
e.
 the cell cycle shortened.
 106.
Which of the following is not a reason why Neurospora is an ideal organism to study the effects of genetic mutations?
a.
 Neurospora is easy to grow.
b.
 Neurospora grows as a haploid organism.
c.
 Neurospora is easy to genetically manipulate.
d.
 Neurospora reproduces both sexually and asexually.
e.
 Neurospora contains homologous chromosomes that are easily viewed with a light microscope.
 107.
Garrod first proposed that:
a.
 metabolic defects were due to a lack of an enzyme.
b.
 metabolic defects were due to excess enzyme.
c.
 metabolic defects were due to chromosomal changes.
d.
 mutations were inheritable.
e.
 metabolic defects did not occur in humans.
 108.
Why was it important in the studies of Beadle and Tatum that Neurospora is haploid?
a.
 Because it is easier to grow haploid molds in the laboratory.
b.
 Because haploid molds have simpler nutritional requirements than do diploid molds.
c.
 Because a mutation that arises is not masked by a normal allele on a homologous chromosome.
d.
 Because haploid Neurospora will always mutate.
e.
 Because diploid Neurospora will always mutate.
 109.
Beadle and Tatum began their studies with wild-type Neurospora, which is:
a.
 Neurospora that only grows in the wild.
b.
 a mutant strain that will only grow in the lab on complete medium.
c.
 a strain that will not grow in the lab.
d.
 a virulent strain of Neurospora.
e.
 a normal phenotype that will grow on minimal medium.
 110.
Beadle and Tatum irradiated Neurospora and initially grew the mutant strains on complete medium. How were they able to determine what type of mutation each strain had?
a.
 By growing the mold on a complete medium with extra vitamins and nutrients.
b.
 By growing the mold on minimal media supplemented with different combinations of amino acids, vitamins, etc.
c.
 By growing the mold in its diploid form to see which traits were masked.
d.
 By comparing Neurospora to other species of mold.
e.
 By observing the marked differences in morphology between the different strains.
 111.
What conclusions did Beadle and Tatum reach with their studies of Neurospora?
a.
 Each mutant gene affected several enzymes.
b.
 Each mutant gene affected a pair of enzymes.
c.
 Each mutant gene affected only one enzyme.
d.
 Mutant genes had no effect on the enzymes produced by the cells.
e.
 None of the above.
 112.
Linus Pauling demonstrated that:
a.
 the structure of hemoglobin was altered by a mutation of a single gene.
b.
 mutations only caused defects in enzymes.
c.
 mutations alter the structure of RNA, but not proteins.
d.
 mutations were inherited.
e.
 the structure of hemoglobin was altered by mutations in any of a dozen genes.
Figure 12-01
Use the figure below to answer the corresponding questions.nar003-1.jpg
 113.
The experimental design in Figure 12-01 was used to examine:
a.
 the relationship between genetic changes and metabolic enzymes.
b.
 the mutation rate of Neurospora.
c.
 resistance of Neurospora to genetic poisons.
d.
 toxicity of arginine metabolites.
e.
 growth of Neurospora in the presence of different antibiotics.
 114.
The conclusion associated with mutant strain III in Figure 12-01 was that:
a.
 it contained all the enzymes needed for normal metabolism.
b.
 it was missing all the enzymes for metabolism of amino acids.
c.
 it was missing an enzyme for metabolism and could not synthesize arginine.
d.
 it was missing an enzyme for metabolism and could not synthesize citrulline.
e.
 it was missing an enzyme for metabolism and could not synthesize ornithine.
 115.
One of the mRNA codons specifying the amino acid leucine is 5´-CUA-3´. Its corresponding anticodon is:
a.
 5´-GAT-3´.
b.
 3´-AUC-5´.
c.
 3´-GAU-5´.
d.
 3´-GAT-5´.
e.
 5´-GAU-3´.
 116.
Which of the following is a characteristic of uracil?
a.
 The ability to bond with adenine.
b.
 The ability to bond with guanine.
c.
 It is a purine.
d.
 The ability to bond with cytosine.
e.
 It contains two nitrogenous rings.
 117.
RNA differs from DNA in all the following except:
a.
 RNA is single stranded and DNA is double stranded.
b.
 RNA is a larger molecule than DNA.
c.
 RNA contains uracil and DNA contains thymine.
d.
 RNA contains ribose and DNA contains deoxyribose.
e.
 None of the above.
 118.
Ribose differs from deoxyribose by having:
a.
 two attached bases.
b.
 one less oxygen.
c.
 an extra hydroxyl group.
d.
 an extra carbon in the ring.
e.
 None of the above.
 119.
Uracil forms a complementary pair with ____________ in RNA and _____________ in DNA.
a.
 adenine; adenine
b.
 adenine; thymine
c.
 thymine; thymine
d.
 uracil; adenine
e.
 adenine; uracil
 120.
RNA synthesis is also known as:
a.
 elongation.
b.
 reverse transcription.
c.
 termination.
d.
 translation.
e.
 transcription.
 121.
All RNA except for _________ is made from DNA.
a.
 tRNA
b.
 mRNA
c.
 rRNA
d.
 snRNA
e.
 None of the above.
 122.
The total number of different three-base combinations of the four nucleic acid bases is:
a.
 12.
b.
 16.
c.
 20.
d.
 64.
e.
 256.
 123.
During protein synthesis, ribosomes:
a.
 attach to the mRNA molecule and travel along its length.
b.
 attach to the DNA molecule and travel along its length to produce an mRNA molecule.
c.
 translate mRNA into tRNA.
d.
 transcribe mRNA to tRNA.
e.
 translate mRNA into DNA.
 124.
How is the four-letter language of nucleic acids converted into the 20-word language of amino acids?
a.
 The 4 nucleic acid bases combine in 2-letter combinations that define different amino acids.
b.
 The 4 nucleic acid bases combine in 3-letter sequences that define different amino acids.
c.
 Triplets of the 2-letter nucleic acid bases are translated into the 20 different amino acids.
d.
 The 4 bases each specify 1 amino acid, which give rise to the remaining 16 amino acids.
e.
 The 4 bases are first converted into tRNA molecules, which can each attach to 5 amino acids.
 125.
Why is only one strand of DNA transcribed into mRNA?
a.
 Because mRNA is only required in small quantities.
b.
 Because transcribing both DNA strands would produce different amino acid sequences.
c.
 Because the other strand would produce the same amino acid sequence in reverse order.
d.
 Because all genes are located on the same DNA strand, while the other strand acts as protection.
e.
 Because the other strand is transcribed directly into amino acids.
 126.
Initiation of transcription requires:
a.
 a promoter sequence.
b.
 DNA polymerase.
c.
 an RNA primer.
d.
 a DNA primer.
e.
 Okazaki fragments.
 127.
A sequence of bases located upstream from a reference point occurs:
a.
 towards the 3´ end of the amino acid sequence.
b.
 towards the 5´ end of the mRNA sequence.
c.
 towards the 3´ end of the mRNA sequence.
d.
 towards the 5´ end of the transcribed DNA strand.
e.
 towards the carboxyl end of the amino acid sequence.
 128.
How does the first nucleotide at the 5´ end of a new mRNA chain differ from the other nucleotides in the chain?
a.
 The first nucleotide is always a uracil.
b.
 The first nucleotide is always a cytosine.
c.
 The first nucleotide retains its triphosphate group, while the others do not.
d.
 The first nucleotide does not retain its triphosphate group, while the others in the chain do.
e.
 The first nucleotide is always a modified cytosine.
Figure 12-02
Use the figure below to answer the corresponding questions.nar004-1.jpg
 129.
In Figure 12-02, the transcription process begins at the area labeled:
a.
 A.
b.
 D.
c.
 E.
d.
 G.
e.
 None of the above.
 130.
The component labeled B in Figure 12-02 is:
a.
 DNase.
b.
 DNA polymerase.
c.
 RNA primase.
d.
 RNA polymerase.
e.
 reverse transcriptase.
 131.
The transcript in Figure 12-02 is labeled:
a.
 D.
b.
 C.
c.
 G.
d.
 H.
e.
 A.
 132.
The process illustrated in Figure 12-02 is:
a.
 DNA synthesis.
b.
 translation.
c.
 transcription.
d.
 a frame shift mutation.
e.
 protein synthesis.
 133.
Leader sequences contain signals that:
a.
 prevent enzymes from degrading the newly synthesized mRNA.
b.
 inhibit ribosome binding until the appropriate time.
c.
 initiate chain termination.
d.
 allow the ribosomes to be properly positioned to translate the message.
e.
 allow tRNA molecules to successfully bind to mRNA.
 134.
Aminoacyl-tRNA synthetases ________ link ________ to their respective tRNA molecules.
a.
 ionically; mRNAs
b.
 loosely; mRNAs
c.
 terminally; codons
d.
 covalently; amino acids
e.
 enzymatically; codons
 135.

Which of the following numbered terms represents the correct order of sequences in a prokaryotic mRNA molecule as it was synthesized?

1. 3´ trailing sequences
2. coding sequences
3. leader sequences
4. termination signals
a.
 1 ® 2 ® 3 ® 4
b.
 3 ® 2 ® 4 ® 1
c.
 2 ® 1 ® 4 ® 3
d.
 4 ® 2 ® 1 ® 3
e.
 3 ® 4 ® 2 ® 1
 136.
Which of the following serves as an "adapter" in protein synthesis and bridges the gap between mRNA and proteins?
a.
 tRNA
b.
 cDNA
c.
 rRNA
d.
 promoter sequences
e.
 DNA
 137.
The codon is found in the:
a.
 template strand of DNA.
b.
 non-template strand of DNA.
c.
 mRNA.
d.
 tRNA.
e.
 rRNA.
 138.
The tRNA:
a.
 must be recognized by ribosomes.
b.
 must have an anticodon.
c.
 must have an attachment site for the amino acid.
d.
 must be recognized by a specific aminoacyl-tRNA synthetase that adds the correct amino acid.
e.
 All of the above.
 139.

Which of the following numbered events represents the correct sequence of events of prokaryotic translation initiation?

1. large ribosomal subunit binds to initiation complex
2. initiation tRNA binds small ribosomal subunit
3. initiation complex binds to ribosome recognition sequence on mRNA
a.
 1 ® 2 ® 3
b.
 1 ® 3 ® 2
c.
 2 ® 1 ® 3
d.
 2 ® 3 ® 1
e.
 3 ® 2 ® 1
 140.
Where is the amino-acid binding site located on the tRNA molecule?
a.
 in the middle of the loop
b.
 at the end of a "stem" that is the 3´ end of the molecule
c.
 in the first loop
d.
 along the longest stretch of base pairing in the molecule
e.
 on the 5´ end of the molecule
Figure 12-03
Use the figure below to answer the corresponding questions.nar005-1.jpg
 141.
In Figure 12-03, the portion of the molecule in the figure that contains the anti-codon is:
a.
 1.
b.
 2.
c.
 3.
d.
 4.
e.
 5.
 142.
In Figure 12-03, the portion of the molecule labeled 5 is:
a.
 the attached amino acid.
b.
 a double-stranded region.
c.
 a single-stranded region.
d.
 the anti-codon.
e.
 the codon.
 143.
The enzyme peptidyl transferase, which catalyzes the transfer of the polypeptide chain attached to the tRNA in the ____________ site to the aminoacyl-tRNA in the ____________ site, is thought to be a(an) ____________ molecule and not a protein.
a.
 A; P; rDNA
b.
 P; A; tRNA
c.
 A; P; mRNA
d.
 P; A; rRNA
e.
 P; A; sugar
 144.
Translocation is the process whereby the __________ moves in order to place the tRNA bound to the growing polypeptide chain in the __________ site, thereby freeing the __________ site for a new aminoacyl-tRNA.
a.
 mRNA; A; P
b.
 ribosome; P; A
c.
 tRNA; P; A
d.
 ribosome; A; P
e.
 tRNA; A; P
 145.
Following peptide bond formation between the amino acid in the A site on the ribosome and the growing polypeptide chain, the tRNA in the A site:
a.
 releases the growing polypeptide chain.
b.
 picks up another amino acid to add to the chain.
c.
 moves to the P site of the ribosome.
d.
 forms a peptide bond with A site of the ribosome.
e.
 forms a covalent bond with the P site of the ribosome.
 146.
If a human gene mRNA were placed into a cell of yeast, it would be:
a.
 degraded immediately.
b.
 translated into a repeating amino acid chain.
c.
 translated into a chain of random amino acids not resembling the protein in humans.
d.
 translated into the protein that is found in humans.
e.
 integrated into the genome of the yeast.
 147.
In all organisms, the AUG codon codes for:
a.
 the initiation of translation.
b.
 the termination of transcription.
c.
 the termination of chain elongation.
d.
 the amino acid valine.
e.
 a termination tRNA molecule.
 148.
A polyribosomes is:
a.
 a complex of many ribosome and an mRNA.
b.
 a complex of many ribosomes in eukaryotes.
c.
 an initiation complex in eukaryotes.
d.
 an elongation complex in eukaryotes.
e.
 a complex of a ribosome with its two subunits and several mRNAs.
 149.
Introns in pre mRNA are known to:
a.
 code for specific protein domains.
b.
 undergo excision, whereby they are spliced out of the message.
c.
 be able to move within the mRNA, thereby giving rise to new exon combinations.
d.
 protect pre mRNA from enzyme degradation.
e.
 code for important amino acid sequences.
 150.
Proteins synthesized in E. coli have which of the following at their amino terminal end?
a.
 N-formyl-methionine
b.
 N-acetyl-adenine
c.
 adenine triphosphate
d.
 the AUG codon
e.
 the UUU codon
 151.
The wobble hypothesis states that:
a.
 more than one ribosome can bind to an mRNA molecule.
b.
 some amino acids are coded for by more than one codon.
c.
 there is more than one stop codon in the genetic code.
d.
 a particular amino acid may be linked to more than one type of tRNA molecule.
e.
 certain tRNA anticodons can pair with more than one codon sequence.
 152.
Binding of the appropriate aminoacyl-tRNA to the A site requires:
a.
 no additional energy.
b.
 the input of two ATP molecules to supply the needed energy.
c.
 energy supplied by GTP.
d.
 activation of the A site.
e.
 phosphorylation of the tRNA molecule.
 153.
Translocation in translation requires:
a.
 no additional energy.
b.
 activation of the P site.
c.
 the input of two ATP molecules to supply the needed energy.
d.
 energy supplied by GTP.
e.
 phosphorylation of the mRNA molecule.
 154.
Interrupted coding sequences include long sequences of bases that do not code for amino acids. These noncoding sequences, called ____________, are found in ____________ cells.
a.
 exons; prokaryotic
b.
 introns; prokaryotic
c.
 exons; eukaryotic
d.
 introns; eukaryotic
e.
 None of the above.
 155.
An mRNA "5´ cap":
a.
 prevents translation.
b.
 facilitates binding of ribosomes.
c.
 marks the mRNA for degradation.
d.
 decreases the half-life of the mRNA.
e.
 protects newly synthesized mRNA from degradation.
 156.
The 3´ end of eukaryotic pre-mRNAs are changed by:
a.
 removing the last phosphate group.
b.
 adding a "cap."
c.
 copying the last few bases so that it can form a duplex structure.
d.
 cutting and adding 100-250 adenine nucleotides.
e.
 phosphorylation of the mRNA molecule.
 157.
Walter Gilbert proposed that exons are:
a.
 remnants of older life forms.
b.
 sequences that code for protein domains that are shuffled to form new proteins.
c.
 the result of mutation of introns.
d.
 not present in prokaryotes.
e.
 sequences that interrupt the coding sequences of proteins.
 158.
Retroviruses or RNA tumor viruses use __________ to make DNA:
a.
 DNA polymerase
b.
 DNA-dependent RNA polymerase
c.
 RNA polymerase
d.
 primase
e.
 reverse transcriptase
 159.
Substitution of one base pair for another can result in a ____________ mutation that results in the conversion of an amino acid specifying codon to a termination codon.
a.
 nonsense
b.
 frameshift
c.
 chromosomal
d.
 missense
e.
 None of the above.
 160.
A mutation that replaces one amino acid in a protein with another is called a ____________ mutation.
a.
 frameshift
b.
 recombinant
c.
 nonsense
d.
 missense
e.
 neutral
 161.
Frameshift mutations result from:
a.
 the substitution of one base pair for another.
b.
 the substitution of more than one base pair.
c.
 the insertion or deletion of one or two base pairs.
d.
 the substitution of a stop codon for an amino acid-specifying codon.
e.
 the substitution of a start codon for an amino acid codon.
 162.
A gene can now be defined as:
a.
 a DNA sequence that carries information to produce a specific RNA or protein product.
b.
 a DNA nucleotide sequence that carries information to produce a specific polypeptide.
c.
 a DNA or RNA sequence that carries information to produce a single polypeptide.
d.
 a DNA nucleotide sequence that carries information to produce an enzyme.
e.
 a DNA or RNA sequence that carries information to produce a specific polypeptide.

 
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