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Protein Synthesis Study Guide

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Protein Synthesis Study Guide

 

 

Multiple Choice
Identify the choice that best completes the statement or answers the question.
 1.
What did Griffith observe when he injected into mice a mixture of heat-killed disease-causing bacteria and live harmless bacteria?
a.
 The disease-causing bacteria changed into harmless bacteria.
b.
 The mice developed pneumonia.
c.
 The harmless bacteria died.
d.
 The mice were unaffected.
 2.
Which of the following is a nucleotide found in DNA?
a.
 ribose + phosphate group + thymine
b.
 ribose + phosphate group + uracil
c.
 deoxyribose + phosphate group + uracil
d.
 deoxyribose + phosphate group + cytosine
 3.
DNA replication results in two DNA molecules,
a.
 each with two new strands.
b.
 one with two new strands and the other with two original strands.
c.
 each with one new strand and one original strand.
d.
 each with two original strands.
 4.
During mitosis, the
a.
 DNA molecules unwind.
b.
 histones and DNA molecules separate.
c.
 DNA molecules become more tightly coiled.
d.
 nucleosomes become less tightly packed.
 5.
Unlike DNA, RNA contains
a.
 adenine.
c.
 phosphate groups.
b.
 uracil.
d.
 thymine.
 6.
Which type(s) of RNA is(are) involved in protein synthesis?
a.
 transfer RNA only
b.
 messenger RNA only
c.
 ribosomal RNA and transfer RNA only
d.
 messenger RNA, ribosomal RNA, and transfer RNA
 7.
During transcription, an RNA molecule is formed
a.
 that is complementary to both strands of DNA.
b.
 that is complementary to neither strand of DNA.
c.
 that is double-stranded.
d.
 inside the nucleus.
 8.
How many codons are needed to specify three amino acids?
a.
 3
c.
 9
b.
 6
d.
 12
 9.
Which of the following terms is LEAST closely related to the others?
a.
 intron
c.
 polypeptide
b.
 tRNA
d.
 anticodon
 10.
Which type of RNA functions as a blueprint of the genetic code?
a.
 rRNA
c.
 mRNA
b.
 tRNA
d.
 RNA polymerase
 11.
Which of the following is NOT a gene mutation?
a.
 inversion
c.
 deletion
b.
 insertion
d.
 substitution
 12.
Which of the following statements is NOT true?
a.
 Mutations do not occur in hox genes.
b.
 Hox genes that are found in different animals are very different from each other.
c.
 Hox genes control the normal development of an animal.
d.
 Hox genes occur in clusters.
 13.
Avery’s experiments showed that bacteria are transformed by
a.
 RNA.
c.
 proteins.
b.
 DNA.
d.
 carbohydrates.
 14.

Figure 12-5 shows the structure of a(an)

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Figure 12–5

a.
 DNA molecule.
c.
 RNA molecule.
b.
 amino acid.
d.
 protein.
 15.
DNA is copied during a process called
a.
 replication.
c.
 transcription.
b.
 translation.
d.
 transformation.
 16.
In eukaryotes, DNA
a.
 is located in the nucleus.
c.
 is located in the ribosomes.
b.
 floats freely in the cytoplasm.
d.
 is circular.
 17.
RNA contains the sugar
a.
 ribose.
c.
 glucose.
b.
 deoxyribose.
d.
 lactose.
 18.
Which RNA molecule carries amino acids?
a.
 messenger RNA
c.
 ribosomal RNA
b.
 transfer RNA
d.
 RNA polymerase
 19.
What is produced during transcription?
a.
 RNA molecules
c.
 RNA polymerase
b.
 DNA molecules
d.
 proteins
 20.

What does Figure 12-6 show?

mc020-1.jpg

Figure 12-6

a.
 anticodons
b.
 the order in which amino acids are linked
c.
 the code for splicing mRNA
d.
 the genetic code
 21.
What happens during the process of translation?
a.
 Messenger RNA is made from DNA.
b.
 The cell uses information from messenger RNA to produce proteins.
c.
 Transfer RNA is made from messenger RNA.
d.
 Copies of DNA molecules are made.
 22.
Genes contain instructions for assembling
a.
 purines.
c.
 proteins.
b.
 nucleosomes.
d.
 pyrimidines.
 23.
A mutation that involves a single nucleotide is called a(an)
a.
 chromosomal mutation.
c.
 point mutation.
b.
 inversion.
d.
 translocation.
 

Completion
Complete each statement.
 24.

The structure labeled X in Figure 12-1 is a(an) ____________________.

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Figure 12–1
 25.
The order of nitrogenous bases in DNA determines the order of ____________________ in proteins.
 26.
There is no ____________________ that is specified by a stop codon on an mRNA molecule.
 27.
The lac repressor releases the operator in the presence of ____________________.
 28.
In eukaryotes, proteins that attract RNA polymerase bind to ____________________ sequences in DNA.
 29.
According to the principle of ____________________, hydrogen bonds can form only between adenine and thymine, and between guanine and cytosine.
 30.
Chromatin contains proteins called ____________________.
 31.

In Figure 12-7, A, B, and C are three types of ____________________.

co031-1.jpg

 

Figure 12–7
 32.
After introns are cut out of an RNA molecule, the remaining ____________________ are spliced back together to form the final messenger RNA.
 33.
A mutation in a series of genes, called the ____________________, can change the organs that develop in specific parts of an embryo.
 

Short Answer
 34.
At the beginning of DNA replication, what two processes “unzip” the two strands of a DNA molecule?
 35.

In Figure 12-2, which molecule is tRNA, and what is its function?

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Figure 12–2
 36.

According to Figure 12-3, what codons specify the amino acid arginine?

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Figure 12–3
 37.
What happens to lac repressors in E. coli when lactose is present?
 38.
What are the three main parts of an RNA nucleotide?
 39.
What must happen to a DNA molecule before RNA polymerase can make RNA?
 40.
What causes translation to stop?
 41.
What is a mutation?
 

Essay
 42.
Describe the structure of a DNA molecule.
 43.
Contrast the functions of the three main types of RNA.
 

Other

USING SCIENCE SKILLS

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Figure 12–4
 44.
Interpreting Graphics What process is illustrated in Figure 12-4?
 45.
Interpreting Graphics Identify structure C in Figure 12-4.
 46.
Interpreting Graphics Which labeled structure in Figure 12-4 is a codon?
 47.
Inferring What is the relationship between the codons and anticodons in Figure 12-4? How is this relationship important?
 48.
Predicting In Figure 12-4, what will happen after the ribosome joins the methionine and phenylalanine?

USING SCIENCE SKILLS

nar002-1.jpg

Figure 12–8
 49.
Classifying What general type of mutation results from processes A, B, C, and D in Figure 12-8?
 50.
Interpreting Graphics In Figure 12-8, which process or processes involve two chromosomes?
 51.
Comparing and Contrasting Contrast process A and process B in Figure 12-8.
 52.
Interpreting Graphics During which process in Figure 12-8 does a segment of a chromosome become oriented in the reverse direction?
 53.
Interpreting Graphics In Figure 12-8, which process produces two chromosomes with translocations?

 
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Protist Study Guide

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Protist Quiz

 

 

Modified True/False
Indicate whether the statement is true or false.  If false, change the identified word or phrase to make the statement true.
 1.
The kingdom Protista contains the eukaryotes that are not plants, animals, or fungi. _________________________
 2.
Sexual reproduction with spores evolved in protists. _________________________
 3.
Tissues, organs, and organ systems evolved in unicellular protists. _________________________
 4.
Sexual reproduction allows Chlamydomonas to delay development of new organisms until environmental conditions are favorable. _________________________
 5.
Amoebas move by means of pseudopodia. _________________________
 6.
Diatoms are the only type of protists with single shells. _________________________
 7.
Paramecium takes in food through its contractile vacuole. _________________________
 8.
Cellular slime molds form a mass of cytoplasm that has many nuclei. _________________________
 9.
Protists have an important effect on humans because they cause disease. _________________________
 10.
Malaria is caused by the protist Plasmodium and is spread by the bite of certain fleas. _________________________
 11.
Carrageenan is a product made by protists that is used to flavor many food products. _________________________
 

Multiple Choice
Identify the choice that best completes the statement or answers the question.
 12.
Which of the following is not true about some or all protists?
a.
 unicellular and heterotrophic
c.
 multicellular and autotrophic
b.
 unicellular and autotrophic
d.
 multicellular and prokaryotic
 13.
The kingdom Protista does not include
a.
 most of the single-celled eukaryotes.
c.
 multicellular seaweed.
b.
 slime and water molds.
d.
 prokaryotes.
 14.
Which of the following characteristics did not evolve in the Kingdom Protista?
a.
 unicellularity
c.
 membrane-bound organelles
b.
 gametes
d.
 complex cilia and flagella
 15.
sexual reproduction : diversity ::
a.
 flagella : cilia
c.
 green algae : flagella
b.
 multicellularity : tissues
d.
 unicellularity : protists
 16.
Eukaryotes that lack the features of animals, plants, or fungi are classified in the kingdom
a.
 Archaebacteria.
c.
 Protista.
b.
 Plantae.
d.
 Animalia.
 17.
You have been given an unknown organism to identify. You find that it is unicellular and has a cell wall. Which of the following must it also have?
a.
 chloroplasts
c.
 pseudopodia
b.
 asexual reproduction
d.
 one or more flagella
 18.
When Chlamydomonas reproduces sexually, it divides by mitosis, producing
a.
 zygospores.
c.
 haploid gametes.
b.
 diploid gametes.
d.
 zoospores.
 19.
Zoospores are
a.
 produced as a result of meiosis.
c.
 produced as a result of mitosis.
b.
 diploid.
d.
 all parasitic.
 20.
The haploid, gamete-producing phase in the life cycle of some multicellular protists is known as the
a.
 zygospore generation.
c.
 conjugation generation.
b.
 gametophyte generation.
d.
 sporophyte generation.
 21.
The marine green alga Ulva reproduces sexually by
a.
 alternation of generations.
c.
 mitosis.
b.
 conjugation.
d.
 aggregation.
 22.
Pseudopodia are used for
a.
 Paramecium conjugation.
c.
 Euglena reproduction.
b.
 movement by amoebas.
d.
 Paramecium mitosis.
 23.
Amoebas capture food by
a.
 engulfing it.
c.
 trapping it with flagella.
b.
 using cilia.
d.
 taking it into an oral groove.
 24.
When an individual diatom gets too small because of repeated division, it
a.
 grows to full size in its existing shell.
b.
 slips out of its shell, grows to full size, and regenerates a new shell.
c.
 slips out of its shell, grows to full size, and reinhabits its old shell.
d.
 slips out of its shell and lives the rest of its life without a shell.
 25.
Algae are
a.
 sometimes heterotrophic.
b.
 always microscopic in size.
c.
 found in fresh water, salt water, and damp soil.
d.
 found only in fresh water.
 26.
Red algae
a.
 are multicellular.
c.
 have eyespots.
b.
 are unicellular.
d.
 have double shells.
 27.
Euglenoids are examples of protists that
a.
 can be both autotrophic and heterotrophic.
b.
 are only parasitic heterotrophs.
c.
 are always autotrophic.
d.
 swim away from light.
 28.
dinoflagellates : flagella ::
a.
 amoebas : pseudopodia
c.
 ciliates : pseudopodia
b.
 sporozoans : flagella
d.
 amoebas : flagella
 29.
The process in which two Paramecia come together to exchange parts of their genetic material is called
a.
 mitosis.
c.
 pollination.
b.
 replication.
d.
 conjugation.
nar001-1.jpg
 30.
Refer to the illustration above. Excess water in the body of the Paramecium is forced back out by the structure labeled
a.
 A
c.
 D
b.
 C
d.
 E
 31.
Refer to the illustration above. The structure that contains the cell’s chromosomes is labeled
a.
 A
c.
 C
b.
 B
d.
 E
 32.
Refer to the illustration above. Structure C is the
a.
 macronucleus.
c.
 oral groove.
b.
 contractile vacuole.
d.
 micronucleus.
 33.
Refer to the illustration above. The structure that controls routine cellular functions is labeled
a.
 A
c.
 C
b.
 B
d.
 D
 34.
Funguslike protists reproduce by releasing
a.
 gametes.
c.
 zoospores.
b.
 spores.
d.
 plasmodia.
 35.
Giardiasis is a disease that is spread
a.
 by direct person-to-person contact.
c.
 through contaminated water.
b.
 through the air.
d.
 by the Anopheles mosquito.
 36.
Chagas disease is spread by
a.
 kissing bugs.
c.
 contaminated food.
b.
 mosquitoes.
d.
 contaminated water.
 37.
Which of the following is not a human disease caused by a protist?
a.
 amebic dysentery
c.
 malaria
b.
 toxoplasmosis
d.
 tuberculosis.
 38.
giardiasis : contaminated water ::
a.
 amebic dysentery : mosquito
c.
 malaria : mosquito
b.
 amebic dysentery : giardiasis
d.
 malaria : food contamination
 39.
The protist that causes malaria reproduces in the
a.
 intestine of a human.
c.
 red blood cells of a human.
b.
 red blood cells of a mosquito.
d.
 stinger of a mosquito.
 40.
Malaria is caused by several species of
a.
 Toxoplasma.
c.
 Giardia.
b.
 Phytophthora.
d.
 Plasmodium.
 41.
The stage in the life cycle of Plasmodium in which it lives in mosquitoes and is injected into humans is called the
a.
 gametophyte.
c.
 sporophyte.
b.
 sporozoite.
d.
 zoospore.
 42.
Symbiotic protists live in all of the following organisms except
a.
 termites.
c.
 cattle.
b.
 corals.
d.
 bacteria.
 43.
Protists that play an important role in aquatic food webs are called
a.
 plankton.
c.
 anchovies.
b.
 lichens.
d.
 cyanobacteria.
 44.
The evolution of the plant kingdom can be inferred by studying
a.
 green algae.
c.
 red algae.
b.
 brown algae.
d.
 dinoflagellates.
 45.
A mass of cytoplasm that has many nuclei is a(n)
a.
 spore.
c.
 colony.
b.
 plasmodium.
d.
 amoeba.
 46.
A protist that almost destroyed the entire potato crop in Ireland in 1846 is a
a.
 plasmodial slime mold.
c.
 dinoflagellate.
b.
 cellular slime mold.
d.
 water mold.
 47.
A downy mildew gets nutrients by
a.
 photosynthesis.
b.
 absorbing them from the environment.
c.
 making them from inorganic chemicals.
d.
 making them from organic building blocks.
 48.
When an algal bloom dies, the bacteria that decompose the algae
a.
 deplete carbon dioxide levels in the water.
b.
 kill the plankton population.
c.
 deplete oxygen levels in the water.
d.
 kill fish.
 49.
A protist used by scientists to study cell movement and cell signaling is a
a.
 dinoflagellate.
c.
 paramecium.
b.
 diatom.
d.
 slime mold.
 50.
Agar is a product used to grow bacteria. Agar comes from
a.
 bacteria.
c.
 diatoms.
b.
 algae.
d.
 amoebas.
 

Completion
Complete each statement.
 51.
Two important features that evolved in the protists were multicellularity and sexual reproduction with the production of ____________________.
 52.
The evolution of ____________________ allowed single-celled organisms to perform many functions at the same time.
 53.
When ______________________________ evolved, protists could become genetically diverse.
 54.
Although protists are diverse, they are all ____________________.
Life Cycle of Chlamydomonas
nar002-1.jpg
 55.
Refer to the illustration above. Arrow B is pointing to a ____________________ in the life cycle.
 56.
Refer to the illustration above. Arrow A is pointing to ____________________ in the life cycle.
 57.
According to the illustration above, Chlamydomonas reproduces both sexually and ____________________.
 58.
Some protists undergo sexual reproduction only at times of environmental ____________________.
 59.
Ulva is characterized by two distinct multicellular phases: a diploid, spore producing phase called the ____________________ generation and a haploid, gamete-producing phase called the ____________________ generation.
nar003-1.jpg
 60.
Refer to the illustration above. The organism shown in A moves and obtains food by means of ____________________.
 61.
Refer to the illustration above. The organism shown in C moves by means of ____________________.
 62.
Refer to the illustration above. The organism shown in B moves by means of ____________________.
 63.
Some amoeboid protists have porous shells called ____________________.
 64.
____________________ have double shells that resemble small boxes with lids.
 65.
The large brown algae that grow along coasts are called ____________________.
 66.
Protists that are strict photoautotrophs are called ____________________.
 67.
Poisonous “red tides” are caused by population explosions of ____________________.
 68.
Brown algae are the only algae that form more than one kind of ____________________.
 69.
Some protists have ____________________ that contain light-sensitive pigments.
 70.
____________________ disease is a protist-caused disease that is transmitted by kissing bugs.
 71.
Disease-causing protists are transmitted mainly by insects or by contaminated ____________________ and ____________________.
 72.
The stage of Plasmodium that infects the liver is called the ____________________; the second stage of the Plasmodium life cycle, which infects red blood cells, is called the ____________________.
 73.
Plantlike protists produce ____________________, which allows most forms of life to live on Earth.
 74.
____________________ are related to green algae and are thought to have evolved from them.
 75.
Funguslike protists resemble fungi in that they reproduce with ____________________ and they ____________________ nutrients from their environment.
 76.
Cellular slime molds usually exist as single-celled amoebas, but they form ____________________ and release ____________________ when food or water is scarce.
 77.
A water mold caused the great potato famine in ____________________ in 1846.
 78.
The empty shells of diatoms are used as ____________________ in cleaning agents.
 79.
Red algae produce carrageenan, which is used in the food industry to ____________________ foods such as ice cream and salad dressings.

 
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PCC Biochemistry

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PCC Biochemistry
 

True/False
Indicate whether the statement is true or false. Write  + for true and  0 for false.
 1.
Atoms have a positive charge.
 2.
An element is made up of more than one kind of atom.
 3.
Hydrogen and oxygen atoms have an equal number of electrons.
 4.
A molecule is an atom that has gained or lost an electron.
 5.
An atom that gains or loses one or more electrons is called an ion.
 6.
An atom with more electrons than protons has a positive charge.
 7.
Ionic bonds form between two negatively charged particles.
 8.
A covalent bond forms between two atoms that share electrons to form a molecule.
 9.
Adhesion is an attraction between different substances.
 10.
The ability of water to retain heat helps cells maintain homeostasis.
 11.
Nonpolar molecules dissolve well in water.
 12.
Water molecules attract nonpolar molecules such as oil.
 13.
Organic compounds contain carbon atoms that are covalently bonded to other elements—typically hydrogen, oxygen, and other carbon atoms.
 14.
A nucleotide has four parts.
 15.
RNA is made up of a double strand of nucleotides.
 16.
DNA stores hereditary information that can be used to make proteins.
 17.
When cells break down food, the energy from the food is temporarily stored as ATP.
 18.
The amount of energy needed to cause a chemical reaction to start is called activation energy.
 19.
Without enzymes, chemical reactions necessary for life would not occur at a rate sufficient to sustain life.
 20.
Enzymes speed up a chemical reaction by increasing the activation energy of the reaction.
 21.
When an enzyme binds with its substrate, the activation energy needed for the chemical reaction to occur is increased.
 22.
Chemical reactions that occur in cells are called biochemical reactions.
 

Multiple Choice
Identify the choice that best completes the statement or answers the question.
 23.
Atoms are composed of
a.
 protons.
c.
 electrons.
b.
 neutrons.
d.
 All of the above
 24.
The electrons of an atom
a.
 are found in the nucleus along with the protons.
b.
 occupy the space surrounding the nucleus.
c.
 have a positive charge.
d.
 are attached to the positive charge of neutrons.
 25.
The smallest particle of matter that can retain the chemical properties of carbon is a(n)
a.
 carbon molecule.
c.
 carbon atom.
b.
 carbon macromolecule.
d.
 element.
 26.
A substance that is composed of only one type of atom is called a(n)
a.
 nucleus.
c.
 element.
b.
 cell.
d.
 molecule.
 27.
All matter is composed of
a.
 cells.
c.
 atoms.
b.
 molecules.
d.
 carbon.
 28.
A molecule that has a partial positive charge on one side and a partial negative charge on the other side is called a
a.
 nonpolar molecule.
c.
 charged molecule.
b.
 polar molecule.
d.
 bipolar molecule.
 29.
A chemical formula shows the
a.
 kinds of bonds found in the molecule.
b.
 kinds of bonds found in the compound.
c.
 kinds of elements found in the compound.
d.
 arrangement of the elements found in the compound.
 30.
Ionic bonds form between molecules that have
a.
 opposite charges.
c.
 no charges.
b.
 the same charge.
d.
 neutral charges.
 31.
The bond formed when two atoms share a pair of electrons is called a(n)
a.
 hydrogen bond.
c.
 covalent bond.
b.
 ionic bond.
d.
 water bond.
 32.
Sharing of electrons in the outer energy levels of two atoms
a.
 results in ion formation.
b.
 occurs in covalent bonds.
c.
 only occurs if both are atoms of the same element.
d.
 is found only among carbon atoms.
 33.
Water is important to life because it
a.
 surrounds all cells.
b.
 is found inside cells.
c.
 influences the shape of the cell membrane.
d.
 All of the above
 34.
Nonpolar molecules have
a.
 no negative or positive poles.
c.
 only a negative pole.
b.
 both negative and positive poles.
d.
 only a positive pole.
 35.
When placed in the same container, oil and water do not mix because
a.
 they are both polar.
c.
 they are both nonpolar.
b.
 water is polar and oil is nonpolar.
d.
 water is nonpolar and oil is polar.
 36.
Due to the polarity of water, compounds that dissolve best in water contain
a.
 nonpolar bonds.
c.
 polar bonds.
b.
 ionic bonds.
d.
 Both (b) and (c)
 37.
Water is a polar molecule because
a.
 it contains two hydrogen atoms for each oxygen atom.
b.
 it has a charge.
c.
 different parts of the molecule have slightly different charges.
d.
 it does not have a charge.
 38.
Acidic solutions have a pH that is
a.
 less than 7.
c.
 a negative number.
b.
 between 7 and 14.
d.
 more than 7.
 39.
Hydrogen ions, H+, react with hydroxide ions, OH-, to form
a.
 water.
c.
 a base.
b.
 an acid.
d.
 None of the above
 40.
Which of the following is not an organic macromolecule?
a.
 carbohydrate
c.
 lipid
b.
 ice
d.
 nucleic acid
 41.
All organic compounds contain the element
a.
 carbon.
c.
 calcium.
b.
 nitrogen.
d.
 sodium.
 42.
Which of the following organic molecules are classified as carbohydrates?
a.
 amino acids
c.
 nucleotides
b.
 fatty acids
d.
 sugars
 43.
Polysaccharides are
a.
 carbohydrates.
c.
 proteins.
b.
 lipids.
d.
 unsaturated fats.
 44.
Lipids are
a.
 polar molecules.
c.
 water soluble.
b.
 similar to water molecules.
d.
 nonpolar molecules.
 45.
Which of the following organic molecules are most closely related to proteins?
a.
 amino acids
c.
 nucleotides
b.
 fatty acids
d.
 sugars
 46.
Long chains of amino acids are found in
a.
 carbohydrates.
c.
 proteins.
b.
 lipids.
d.
 sugars.
 47.
All of the following are examples of lipids except
a.
 saturated fats.
c.
 cholesterol.
b.
 starch.
d.
 earwax.
 48.
Lipids are soluble in
a.
 water.
c.
 oil.
b.
 salt water.
d.
 All of the above
 49.
Which organic molecules below are most closely related to lipids?
a.
 amino acids
c.
 nucleotides
b.
 fatty acids
d.
 sugars
 50.
Which of the following organic molecules are most closely related to nucleic acids?
a.
 amino acids
c.
 nucleotides
b.
 fatty acids
d.
 sugars
 51.
Which of the following is a carbohydrate?
a.
 DNA
c.
 wax
b.
 insulin
d.
 sucrose
 52.
Carbohydrates and lipids have many carbon-hydrogen bonds; therefore, they both
a.
 store energy in these bonds.
c.
 dissolve only in vinegar.
b.
 are easily dissolved in water.
d.
 exist only in cells of plants.
nar001-1.jpg
nar001-2.jpg
Molecule A
Molecule B
 53.
Refer to the illustration above. Molecules like Molecule B are found in
a.
 carbohydrates.
c.
 nucleic acids.
b.
 lipids.
d.
 proteins.
 54.
Liquid fats called oils contain
a.
 mostly unsaturated fatty acids.
c.
 many glucose molecules.
b.
 mostly saturated fatty acids.
d.
 amino acids.
 55.
Animals store glucose in the form of
a.
 cellulose.
c.
 wax.
b.
 glycogen.
d.
 lipids.
 56.
The shape of a protein is primarily determined by
a.
 the type and sequence of its amino acids.
b.
 its size.
c.
 its cell location.
d.
 None of the above
 57.
The two types of nucleic acids are
a.
 chlorophyll and retinal.
c.
 lipids and sugars.
b.
 DNA and RNA.
d.
 glucose and glycogen.
 58.
DNA stores
a.
 fat.
c.
 protein.
b.
 carbohydrates.
d.
 heredity information.
 59.
The two strands of a DNA molecule are held together by
a.
 ionic bonds.
c.
 hydrogen bonds.
b.
 covalent bonds.
d.
 None of the above
 60.
A molecule shaped like a spiral staircase (double helix) is typical of
a.
 deoxyribonucleic acid.
c.
 lipids.
b.
 ribonucleic acid.
d.
 carbohydrates.
 61.
ATP (adenosine triphosphate) stores energy for cells to use in the bonds between its
a.
 amino acids.
c.
 nucleotides.
b.
 carbon atoms.
d.
 phosphates.
nar002-1.jpg
 62.
Refer to the illustration above. Which graph illustrates what happens during an energy-releasing reaction?
a.
 Graph A
b.
 Graph B
c.
 both graphs because they each show a different stage of an energy releasing reaction
d.
 None of the above
 63.
Refer to the illustration above. Which graph illustrates a reaction during which energy is released?
a.
 Graph A
b.
 Graph B
c.
 both graphs because all chemical reactions release energy
d.
 None of the above
nar003-1.jpg
 64.
Refer to the illustration above. Which of the following statements regarding the graph is true?
a.
 Reaction 2 occurs faster than Reaction 3 because Reaction 2 requires more energy than Reaction 3.
b.
 The difference between the graphs shown for Reaction 2 and Reaction 3 is because of a difference in the activation energy of these reactions.
c.
 Reactant A contains more energy at the beginning of the reaction than product C has after the reaction.
d.
 All of the above
 65.
Refer to the illustration above. Reaction 3 in the graph
a.
 probably occurred in the presence of a catalyst.
b.
 requires more activation energy than Reaction 2.
c.
 is the same as Reaction 1, but faster.
d.
 is slower than Reaction 2.
 66.
The molecule on which an enzyme acts is called a(n)
a.
 active site.
c.
 organic molecule.
b.
 inactive site.
d.
 substrate.
 67.
An enzyme
a.
 is not used up when catalyzing a reaction.
b.
 lowers the activation energy of a reaction.
c.
 bonds with a substrate molecule at the enzyme’s active site.
d.
 All of the above
 68.
Which of the following conditions affects the function of enzymes?
a.
 pH
c.
 enzyme concentration
b.
 heat
d.
 All of the above
 69.
Reducing activation energy
a.
 is a violation of the laws of nature.
b.
 requires higher temperatures than those found within cells.
c.
 occurs only when reactants are quickly added to the reaction mixture.
d.
 is accomplished by the action of catalysts on reactants.
 70.
Enzymes
a.
 are able to heat up molecules so that they can react.
b.
 always provide carbon dioxide for chemical reactions.
c.
 are biological catalysts.
d.
 absorb excess heat so that reactions occur at low temperatures.
 71.
A cell contains
a.
 thousands of different kinds of enzymes, each promoting a different chemical reaction.
b.
 one kind of enzyme that promotes thousands of different chemical reactions.
c.
 approximately 100 kinds of enzymes, each promoting a different chemical reaction.
d.
 one enzyme that promotes photosynthesis and one enzyme that promotes cellular respiration.
 72.
Amylase is a digestive enzyme that breaks down starch into
a.
 amino acids.
c.
 glycogen.
b.
 glucose.
d.
 cellulose.
 73.
The digestive enzyme pepsin works with hydrochloric acid to break down proteins in the stomach. Pepsin probably works best at a pH of
a.
 11.
c.
 3.
b.
 7.
d.
 Both (b) and (c).

 
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PCC Biochemistry 2011

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PCC Biochemistry 2011
 

Multiple Choice
Identify the choice that best completes the statement or answers the question.
 1.
The three particles that make up atoms are
a.
 protons, neutrons, and isotopes.
c.
 positives, negatives, and electrons.
b.
 neutrons, isotopes, and electrons.
d.
 protons, neutrons, and electrons.
 2.
The space surrounding the nucleus of an atom contains
a.
 protons.
c.
 neutrons.
b.
 electrons.
d.
 ions.
 3.
Democritus believed that atoms
a.
 were composed of electrons.
c.
 could be divided.
b.
 were composed of protons.
d.
 could not be divided.
 4.
If an atom contains 3 protons, 4 neutrons,  and 3 electrons, its mass number would be
a.
 3.
c.
 7.
b.
 4.
d.
 11.
 5.
If a chlorine atom had 17 protons and 18 neutrons, it would be called
a.
 chlorine-17.
c.
 chlorine-35.
b.
 chlorine-18.
d.
 chlorine-1.
 6.
Isotopes are atoms of the same element with the same number of protons and
a.
 a different number of electrons.
c.
 a different number of neutrons.
b.
 a different number of molecules.
d.
 the same number of neutrons.
 7.
Which of the following is a use of radioactive isotopes?
a.
 can determine the ages of rocks and fossils
b.
 can be used to treat cancer and kill bacteria that cause food to spoil
c.
 can be used as “tracers” to follow the movements of substances within organisms
d.
 all of the above
 8.
If an atom contains 11 protons and 12 neutrons, its atomic number is
a.
 1.
c.
 12.
b.
 11.
d.
 23.
 9.
Which of the following terms describes a substance formed by the combination of two or more elements in definite proportions?
a.
 compound
c.
 nucleus
b.
 isotope
d.
 enzyme
 10.
Which of the following makes up a molecule of water?
a.
 one atom of hydrogen and one atom of oxygen
b.
 one atom of sodium and one atom of chlorine
c.
 one atom of hydrogen and two atoms of oxygen
d.
 two atoms of hydrogen and one atom of oxygen
 11.
Which of the following is NOT true about chlorine?
a.
 It is a poisonous, greenish gas.
b.
 It combines with sodium to form table salt.
c.
 It was used to kill many soldiers in World War I.
d.
 It is not reactive.
 12.
Which of the following statements about a compound is true?
a.
 The physical and chemical properties of a compound are usually very different from those of the elements from which it is formed.
b.
 Only the physical properties of a compound are usually the same as those of the elements from which it is formed.
c.
 Only the chemical properties of a compound are usually the same as those of the elements from which it is formed.
d.
 The physical and chemical properties of a compound are usually the same as those of the elements from which it is formed.
 13.
A covalent bond is formed as the result of
a.
 transferring electrons.
c.
 transferring protons.
b.
 sharing an electron pair.
d.
 sharing a proton pair.
 14.
Which term does NOT apply to sodium chloride?
a.
 molecule
c.
 compound
b.
 ionic bonding
d.
 crystal
 15.
What type of electron is available to form bonds?
a.
 valence
c.
 ionic
b.
 nucleus
d.
 covalent
 16.
What type of ion forms when an atom loses electrons?
a.
 neutral
c.
 negative
b.
 positive
d.
 possibly positive or negative
 17.
Ice floats on water because
a.
 of cohesion.
c.
 water shrinks when it freezes.
b.
 ice has a higher density than water.
d.
 water expands when it freezes.
 18.
The most abundant compound in most living things is
a.
 carbon dioxide.
c.
 sodium chloride.
b.
 water.
d.
 sugar.
 19.
Water molecules are polar, with the
a.
 oxygen side being slightly positive and the hydrogen side being slightly negative.
b.
 oxygen and hydrogen sides being slightly positive.
c.
 oxygen and hydrogen sides being slightly negative.
d.
 oxygen side being slightly negative and the hydrogen side being slightly positive.
 20.
In a water molecule, shared electrons spend more time around the oxygen atom than the hydrogen atoms.  As a result, the oxygen atom is
a.
 slightly negative.
c.
 slightly positive.
b.
 very negative.
d.
 very positive.
 21.
A solution is a(an)
a.
 combination of isotopes.
b.
 chemical reaction.
c.
 evenly distributed mixture of two or more substances.
d.
 combination of two or more liquids.
 22.
If you stir salt into boiling water, you produce a
a.
 mixture called a suspension.
c.
 solution and suspension.
b.
 mixture called a solution.
d.
 mixture only.
 23.
When salt is dissolved in water, water is the
a.
 reactant.
c.
 solute.
b.
 solution.
d.
 solvent.
 24.
While preparing a cell culture, a scientist places a colony of bacteria into distilled water and stirs it up.  This mixture of water and living cells would best be called a(an)
a.
 solution.
b.
 suspension.
c.
 buffer.
d.
 adhesion.
 25.
If the pH of stomach acid and of oven cleaner were measured,
a.
 both would be below 7.
b.
 both would be above 7.
c.
 the pH of stomach acid would be above 7, but the pH of oven cleaner would be below 7.
d.
 the pH of stomach acid would be below 7, but the pH of oven cleaner would be above 7.
 26.
A map of eastern North America, showing the pH of rainfall in the various states, indicates that the pH of rain in New York State varies from 4.22 to 4.40. According to these figures, the most acidic rainfall in New York State has a pH of
a.
 4.22.
c.
 4.35.
b.
 4.30.
d.
 4.40.
 27.
A substance with a pH of 6 is called
a.
 an acid.
c.
 both an acid and a base.
b.
 a base.
d.
 neither an acid nor a base.
 28.
Solutions that contain concentrations of H+ ions lower than pure water
a.
 have pH values below 7.
c.
 are bases.
b.
 are acids.
d.
 are enzymes.
 29.
Amino acid is to protein as
a.
 fat is to lipid.
c.
 sugar is to fat.
b.
 DNA is to RNA.
d.
 simple sugar is to starch.
 30.
A monosaccharide is a
a.
 carbohydrate.
c.
 nucleic acid.
b.
 lipid.
d.
 protein.
 31.
Which of the following is NOT a monomer?
a.
 a glucose molecule
c.
 a nucleotide
b.
 an amino acid
d.
 a protein
 32.
Which of the following is NOT a function of proteins?
a.
 store and transmit genetic information
b.
 help to fight disease
c.
 control the rate of reactions and regulate cell processes
d.
 build tissues such as bone and muscle
 33.
Which statement is true?
a.
 Simple sugars are made of polysaccharides.
b.
 Glycerol is made of fatty acids.
c.
 RNA molecules are made of nucleotides.
d.
 Amino acids are made of proteins.
 34.
In chemical reactions, atoms are
a.
 created.
c.
 rearranged.
b.
 destroyed.
d.
 neutralized.
 35.
When hydrogen and oxygen combine to form water, water is
a.
 a product.
c.
 both a product and a reactant.
b.
 a reactant.
d.
 neither a product nor a reactant.
 36.
Identify the reactant(s) in the chemical reaction, CO2 + H2O ® H2CO3.
a.
 CO2, H2O, and H2CO3
c.
 H2CO3
b.
 CO2 and H2O
d.
 CO2
 37.
What is the process that changes one set of chemicals into another set of chemicals?
a.
 cohesion
c.
 chemical reaction
b.
 adhesion
d.
 dissolving
 38.
What is the term used to describe the energy needed to get a reaction started?
a.
 adhesion energy
c.
 cohesion energy
b.
 activation energy
d.
 chemical energy
 39.
Chemical reactions that release energy
a.
 will not occur.
c.
 will always explode.
b.
 will never explode.
d.
 often occur spontaneously.
 40.
If a reaction in one direction releases energy, the reaction in the opposite direction
a.
 also releases energy.
c.
 destroys energy.
b.
 absorbs energy.
d.
 cannot occur.
 41.
Which of the following is a form of energy that may be released during a chemical reaction?
a.
 heat
c.
 light
b.
 sound
d.
 all of the above
 42.
Which of the following statements about enzymes is NOT true?
a.
 Enzymes work best at a specified pH.
b.
 All enzymes have the same shape as their substrates.
c.
 Enzymes are proteins.
d.
 The shape of an enzyme allows it to do its job.
 43.
Which of the following statements is true about catalysts?
a.
 Catalysts slow down the rate of chemical reactions.
b.
 All catalysts are enzymes.
c.
 Catalysts are used up during a chemical reaction.
d.
 Catalysts lower the activation energy of a chemical reaction.
 44.
A substance that accelerates the rate of a chemical reaction is called a(an)
a.
 catalyst.
c.
 molecule.
b.
 lipid.
d.
 element.
 45.
Enzymes affect the reactions in living cells by changing the
a.
 products of the reaction.
c.
 temperature of the reaction.
b.
 speed of the reaction.
d.
 pH of the reaction.
 

Short Answer
 46.
Why are atoms considered neutral?
 47.
What is a molecule?
 

Other

USING SCIENCE SKILLS

 

pH Values of Some Common Substances
Substance pH
Hydrochloric acid
1.0
Sulfuric acid
1.2
Tomatoes
4.2
Rainwater
6.2
Pure water
7.0
Sea water
8.5
Ammonium chloride
11.1
Sodium hydroxide
13.0

Figure 2–2
 48.
Applying Concepts What is the strongest acid listed in Figure 2–2?
 49.
Applying Concepts What is the pH of the strongest base listed in Figure 2–2?
 50.
Applying Concepts Using your knowledge of the pH scale, which of the chemicals in Figure 2-2 has the lowest concentration of H+ ions?

 
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PCC Cell Structure and Function 2011

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PCC Cell Structure and Function 2011
 

Multiple Choice
Identify the choice that best completes the statement or answers the question.
 1.
The smallest units of life in all living things are
a.
 cells.
c.
 cytoplasm.
b.
 mitochondria.
d.
 Golgi apparatus.
 2.
When the volume of a cell increases, its surface area
a.
 increases at the same rate.
b.
 remains the same.
c.
 increases at a faster rate.
d.
 increases at a slower rate.
 3.
Surface area is an important factor in limiting cell growth because
a.
 the cell can burst if the membrane becomes too large.
b.
 materials cannot enter the cell if the surface is too large.
c.
 the cell may become too large to take in enough food and to remove enough wastes.
d.
 waste products cannot leave the cell if the cell is too small.
 4.
The size to which a cell can grow is limited by its
a.
 location.
c.
 function.
b.
 structure.
d.
 surface area.
 5.
A cell that can change its shape would be well suited for
a.
 receiving and transmitting nerve impulses.
b.
 covering the body surface.
c.
 moving to different tissues through narrow openings.
d.
 All of the above
 6.
One difference between prokaryotes and eukaryotes is that
a.
 nucleic acids are found only in prokaryotes.
b.
 mitochondria are found in larger quantities in eukaryotes.
c.
 the Golgi apparatus is found only in prokaryotes.
d.
 prokaryotes have no nuclear membrane.
 7.
Which of the following is characteristic of prokaryotes?
a.
 They have a nucleus.
b.
 They existed on Earth before eukaryotes.
c.
 The organelles in their cytoplasm are surrounded by membranes.
d.
 None of the above
 8.
Which of the following is an example of a prokaryotic cell?
a.
 an amoeba
c.
 a bacterium
b.
 a virus
d.
 a liver cell
 9.
Only eukaryotic cells have
a.
 DNA.
c.
 ribosomes.
b.
 membrane-bound organelles.
d.
 cytoplasm.
 10.
Studying a picture of a cell taken with an electron microscope, you find that the cell has no nucleus and no mitochondria, but it does have a plasma membrane and a cell wall. You conclude that the cell is probably from a(n)
a.
 animal.
c.
 prokaryote.
b.
 plant.
d.
 extinct organism.
 11.
Plasma membranes
a.
 are part of only a small number of cells.
b.
 contain genes.
c.
 are made of DNA.
d.
 are thin coverings that surround cells.
 12.
The structure that regulates what enters and leaves the cell is called the
a.
 nucleus.
c.
 nuclear membrane.
b.
 cell wall.
d.
 plasma membrane.
 13.
The plasma membrane
a.
 encloses the contents of a cell.
b.
 allows material to enter and leave the cell.
c.
 is selectively permeable.
d.
 All of the above
 14.
A structure within a cell that performs a specific function is called a(n)
a.
 organelle.
c.
 tissue.
b.
 organ tissue.
d.
 biocenter.
 15.
A particularly active cell might contain large numbers of
a.
 chromosomes.
c.
 mitochondria.
b.
 vacuoles.
d.
 walls.
 16.
The Golgi apparatus is an organelle that
a.
 receives proteins and lipids from the endoplasmic reticulum.
b.
 labels the molecules made in the endoplasmic reticulum with tags that specify their destination.
c.
 releases molecules in vesicles.
d.
 All of the above
 17.
One important organelle that helps maintain homeostasis by moving supplies from one part of the cell to the other is the
a.
 endoplasmic reticulum.
c.
 nucleus.
b.
 mitochondrion.
d.
 cytoplasm.
 18.
In which of the following organelles is a cell’s ATP produced?
a.
 mitochondrion
c.
 Golgi apparatus
b.
 endoplasmic reticulum
d.
 lysosome
 19.
Numerous hairlike organelles that protrude from the surface of a cell and are packed in tight rows are called
a.
 flagella.
c.
 actin filaments.
b.
 microtubules.
d.
 cilia.
 20.
Proteins are made on the
a.
 mitochondria.
c.
 nucleus.
b.
 ribosomes.
d.
 plasma membrane.
 21.
The packaging and distribution center of the cell is the
a.
 nucleus.
c.
 central vacuole.
b.
 Golgi apparatus.
d.
 nuclear envelope.
 22.
The double membrane surrounding the nucleus is called the
a.
 nucleolus.
c.
 nucleoplasm.
b.
 nuclear wall.
d.
 nuclear envelope.
 23.
All cells have
a.
 a covering called a plasma membrane that surrounds the cell and controls what information and materials enter and leave it.
b.
 an internal fluid that gives shape to the cell and supports the other things within it.
c.
 either a central zone or a nucleus that contains the cell’s genes.
d.
 All of the above
 24.
cell : plasma membrane ::
a.
 nucleus : chromosome
b.
 nucleus : nuclear envelope
c.
 chromosome : DNA
d.
 cell : DNA
nar001-1.jpg
 25.
Refer to the illustration above. Which structure immediately identifies this cell as a eukaryote?
a.
 structure 1
c.
 structure 3
b.
 structure 2
d.
 structure 4
 26.
Refer to the illustration above. The cell uses structure 3
a.
 to transport material from one part of the cell to another.
b.
 to package proteins so they can be stored by the cell.
c.
 as a receptor.
d.
 to transfer energy from organic molecules to ATP.
 27.
Refer to the illustration above. Structure 1 is
a.
 the endoplasmic reticulum.
b.
 a Golgi apparatus.
c.
 a mitochondrion.
d.
 the nucleus.
 28.
Refer to the illustration above. This cell’s chromosomes are found in
a.
 structure 1.
c.
 structure 3.
b.
 structure 2.
d.
 structure 5.
 29.
Refer to the illustration above. The cell shown is probably an animal cell because
a.
 it has mitochondria.
b.
 it does not have a cell wall.
c.
 it has a plasma membrane.
d.
 it does not have a nucleus.
 30.
All of the following are found in both plant and animal cells, except
a.
 a cell wall.
c.
 mitochondria.
b.
 a plasma membrane.
d.
 the endoplasmic reticulum.
 31.
How are chloroplasts like mitochondria?
a.
 They can both use energy from sunlight.
b.
 They look alike.
c.
 They both contain DNA.
d.
 They are both found in animal cells.
 32.
The organelles associated with photosynthesis are the
a.
 mitochondria.
c.
 Golgi apparatus.
b.
 chloroplasts.
d.
 vacuoles.
 33.
The organelles in plant cells that contain a green pigment are the
a.
 mitochondria.
c.
 chloroplasts.
b.
 bilayer lipids.
d.
 Golgi apparatus.
 34.
Plant cells have a large membrane-bound space in which water, waste products, and nutrients are stored. This place is known as a
a.
 mitochondrion.
c.
 Golgi apparatus.
b.
 chloroplast.
d.
 central vacuole.
 35.
Which of the following pairs contains unrelated items?
a.
 eukaryote–amoeba
c.
 cell wall–animal cell
b.
 ribosomes–protein
d.
 mitochondria–energy
 36.
Plant cells
a.
 do not contain mitochondria.
b.
 have a cell wall instead of a plasma membrane.
c.
 have a large central vacuole instead of a Golgi apparatus.
d.
 have chloroplasts and a cell wall.
 37.
Which of the following is the correct order of organization of structures in living things, from simplest to most complex?
a.
 organ systems, organs, tissues, cells
b.
 tissues, cells, organs, organ systems
c.
 cells, tissues, organ systems, organs
d.
 cells, tissues, organs, organ systems
 38.
As a result of diffusion, the concentration of many types of substances
a.
 always remains greater inside a membrane.
b.
 eventually becomes balanced on both sides of a membrane.
c.
 always remains greater on the outside of a membrane.
d.
 becomes imbalanced on both sides of a membrane.
nar002-1.jpg
 39.
Refer to the illustration above. In which direction are water molecules in this system most likely to diffuse?
a.
 from 1 to 2
c.
 from 4 to 3
b.
 from 2 to 4
d.
 from 3 to 1
 40.
The dispersal of ink in a beaker of water is an example of
a.
 diffusion.
c.
 active transport.
b.
 osmosis.
d.
 endocytosis.
 41.
Sugar molecules can enter cells through the process of
a.
 exocytosis.
c.
 osmosis.
b.
 facilitated diffusion.
d.
 ion pumps.
 42.
Channels utilizing facilitated diffusion
a.
 work in two directions.
b.
 require an electrical signal to function.
c.
 Both a and b
d.
 None of the above
 43.
Which of the following is not characteristic of facilitated diffusion?
a.
 It requires a carrier protein.
b.
 It moves substances against a concentration gradient.
c.
 It requires no energy input.
d.
 It involves a change in the shape of its carrier.
 44.
Which of the following does not expend energy?
a.
 diffusion
c.
 active transport
b.
 endocytosis
d.
 a sodium-potassium pump
 45.
Which of the following enters a cell by active transport?
a.
 glucose
c.
 lactose
b.
 water
d.
 potassium ion
 46.
The process by which water passes into or out of a cell is called
a.
 solubility.
c.
 selective transport.
b.
 osmosis.
d.
 endocytosis.
 47.
The sodium-potassium pump usually pumps
a.
 potassium out of the cell.
b.
 sodium into the cell.
c.
 potassium into the cell.
d.
 only a potassium and sugar molecule together.
 48.
Ridding the cell of material by discharging it from sacs at the cell surface is called
a.
 pinocytosis.
c.
 exocytosis.
b.
 phagocytosis.
d.
 endocytosis.
 49.
Molecules that are too large to be moved across a cell membrane can be removed from the cell by
a.
 diffusion.
c.
 lipid carriers.
b.
 exocytosis.
d.
 osmosis.
 50.
Placing a plant into a hypertonic environment will
a.
 cause turgor pressure to increase.
b.
 cause the plant to take in water.
c.
 have no effect.
d.
 cause turgor pressure to decrease.

 
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