Category: My Classroom Material

PCC Prokaryotes

%CODE1%

Javascript not enabled

Name: 

 

PCC Prokaryotes

 

 

Multiple Choice
Identify the choice that best completes the statement or answers the question.
 1.
Eubacteria and archaebacteria differ in
a.
 the presence of a nucleus.
c.
 size.
b.
 the makeup of their cell walls.
d.
 the presence of a cell wall.
 2.
Escherichia coli is classified as a(an)
a.
 archaebacterium.
b.
 eubacterium.
c.
 eukaryote.
d.
 virus.
 3.
Which of the following is NOT a way in which archaebacteria and eubacteria differ?
a.
 Archaebacteria lack an important carbohydrate found in the cell walls of eubacteria.
b.
 The two groups have very different membrane lipids.
c.
 Archaebacteria have gene sequences that are similar to those of eukaryotes.
d.
 Archaebacteria follow the lytic cycle, while eubacteria follow the lysogenic cycle.
 4.
Which of the following are members of the kingdom Archaebacteria?
a.
 methanogens
c.
 eukaryotes
b.
 eubacteria
d.
 E. coli

nar001-1.jpg

Figure 19–1
 5.
The structure in Figure 19–1 represents a(an)
a.
 virus.
c.
 methanogen.
b.
 archaebacterium.
d.
 eubacterium.
 6.
Which structure or structures shown in Figure 19–1 have key differences in eubacteria and archaebacteria?
a.
 A, B, C
c.
 D only
b.
 A, B, E
d.
 A only

nar002-1.jpg

Figure 19–2
 7.
Which cell shape in Figure 19–2 is called a coccus?
a.
 A
c.
 C
b.
 B
d.
 none of the above
 8.
Which of the following can survive either with oxygen or without it?
a.
 obligate aerobes
c.
 facultative anaerobes
b.
 obligate anaerobes
d.
 bacteriophages
 9.
Some bacteria are able to survive unfavorable conditions by forming
a.
 photoautotrophs.
c.
 coccus.
b.
 capsids.
d.
 endospores.
 10.
Which of the following is(are) used to identify prokaryotes?
a.
 cell shape
c.
 the way prokaryotes obtain energy
b.
 the way prokaryotes move
d.
 all of the above
 11.
Where are you likely to find a photoautotroph?
a.
 in your refrigerator
b.
 in the darkness of the ocean
c.
 in your digestive system
d.
 near the surfaces of lakes, streams, and oceans
 12.
Unlike photoautotrophs, chemoautotrophs obtain energy
a.
 directly from the sun.
c.
 indirectly from organic molecules.
b.
 directly from inorganic molecules.
d.
 indirectly from other organisms.
 13.
A method called Gram staining is used to tell
a.
 what shape a prokaryote has.
b.
 how a prokaryote obtains energy.
c.
 what kind of cell wall a prokaryote has.
d.
 whether a prokaryote has flagella.
 14.
Which of the following describes a role of bacteria in the environment?
a.
 carrying out photosynthesis
c.
 fixing nitrogen
b.
 recycling nutrients
d.
 all of the above
 15.
Bacteria that break down the nutrients in dead matter into simpler substances that are taken up by plant roots are called
a.
 endospores.
c.
 photoautotrophs.
b.
 flagella.
d.
 decomposers.
 16.
Nitrogen fixation involves each of the following EXCEPT
a.
 soybeans.
c.
 fertilizer.
b.
 Rhizobium.
d.
 nodules on roots.
 17.
Which of the following is produced when bacteria break down complex compounds in sewage?
a.
 carbon dioxide gas
c.
 nitrogen
b.
 purified water
d.
 all of the above
 18.
Humans use bacteria to
a.
 clean up small oil spills.
c.
 synthesize drugs.
b.
 mine minerals from the ground.
d.
 all of the above
 19.
Bacteria living in extreme environments may be a good source of
a.
 antibiotics.
c.
 nitrogen-fixing bacteria.
b.
 heat-stable enzymes.
d.
 Gram stains.
 20.
Which of the following is a way that bacteria cause disease?
a.
 by capsids
c.
 by conjugation
b.
 by nitrogen fixation
d.
 by releasing toxins
 21.
Bacteria that cause disease are called
a.
 viruses.
c.
 endospores.
b.
 pathogens.
d.
 antibiotics.
 22.
Food stored in a refrigerator will keep longer because the bacteria that spoil food
a.
 die at low temperatures.
b.
 take longer to multiply at low temperatures.
c.
 require light to live.
d.
 grow more slowly in the dark.
 23.
Which of the following is a characteristic of bacteria that is key to keeping them under control?
a.
 Most bacteria cannot survive high temperatures for long periods.
b.
 Most bacteria are resistant to harmful chemicals.
c.
 Most bacteria form endospores when subjected to harsh conditions.
d.
 Most bacteria do not cause food to spoil.
 24.
Which of the following will NOT kill bacteria?
a.
 refrigeration
c.
 chemical disinfection
b.
 boiling
d.
 frying
 25.
The chromosomes of bacteria
a.
 contain numerous types of organelles.
b.
 are divided into compartments.
c.
 vary in number, depending on the species of bacteria.
d.
 contain a single circular piece of DNA.
 26.
Structures found in bacterial cells but not in eukaryotic cells are
a.
 nuclei.
c.
 membrane-bound organelles.
b.
 linear chromosomes.
d.
 circular chromosomes.
nar003-1.jpg
 27.
Refer to the illustration above. Organism B has a shape similar to that of
a.
 Micrococcus.
c.
 Streptococcus.
b.
 Bacillus.
d.
 Leptospira.
 28.
Refer to the illustration above. The shape represented by Organism A applies to the bacterial genus
a.
 Streptococcus, which causes strep throat.
b.
 Leptospira, which can cause urinary tract infections in humans.
c.
 Bacillus, which produces antibiotics.
d.
 Penicillium, which produces penicillin.
 29.
Refer to the illustration above. The shape represented by Organism C is called
a.
 a coccus.
c.
 a bacillus.
b.
 a spirillum.
d.
 filamentous.
 30.
Bacteria often have small extra loops of DNA called
a.
 nucleoids.
c.
 plasmids.
b.
 pili.
d.
 prions.
 31.
Cell organelles that Escherichia coli and other bacteria have in common with eukaryotes are
a.
 chloroplasts.
c.
 nuclei.
b.
 mitochondria.
d.
 ribosomes.
 32.
It is important to distinguish between Gram-positive and Gram-negative bacteria in diagnosing a bacterial infection because
a.
 Gram-negative and Gram-positive bacteria differ in their response to different antibiotics.
b.
 Gram-positive bacteria never cause fatal diseases.
c.
 Gram-positive bacteria destroy antibiotics, preventing them from working.
d.
 Gram-positive bacteria do not respond to many antibiotics.
 33.
Bacterial cells have
a.
 a cell wall only.
b.
 a cell membrane only.
c.
 both a cell membrane and an outer cell wall.
d.
 a cell wall inside their cell membrane.
 34.
Escherichia coli is an example of a bacterium that has
a.
 a thin layer of peptidoglycan in its cell wall.
b.
 a thick layer of peptidoglycan in its cell wall.
c.
 a shape called a coccus.
d.
 a cell wall but no cell membrane.
 35.
Cyanobacteria are photoautotrophs because they require
a.
 oxygen.
c.
 inorganic chemicals.
b.
 carbon dioxide.
d.
 light.
 36.
Nitrogen-fixing bacteria
a.
 repair nitrogen-damaged soybean roots.
b.
 damage the environment by using atmospheric oxygen to produce toxic nitrogen compounds.
c.
 convert atmospheric nitrogen into a usable form of nitrogen.
d.
 convert ammonia in the soil into nitrogen gas.
 37.
Bacterial cells such as Escherichia coli transfer pieces of genetic material in a process called
a.
 binary fission.
c.
 conjugation.
b.
 mitosis.
d.
 sexual reproduction.
 38.
Bacterial endospores
a.
 are formed when there is plenty of available food.
b.
 allow certain species to survive harsh environmental conditions.
c.
 are similar to human tumors.
d.
 can cause growth abnormalities in plants.
 39.
A chain of round bacteria would be called:
a.
 spirilla.
b.
 diplococci.
c.
 bacilli.
d.
 streptococci.
e.
 streptobacilli.
 40.
Rod-shaped bacteria are called:
a.
 streptococci.
b.
 bacilli.
c.
 diplococci.
d.
 vibrio.
e.
 spirochete.
Figure 23-02
Use the figure below to answer the corresponding questions.nar004-1.jpg
 41.
The structure in Figure 23-02 labeled C is:
a.
 a ribosome.
b.
 the plasma membrane.
c.
 the capsule.
d.
 the cell wall.
e.
 the flagellum.
 42.
What is the function of the structure labeled A in Figure 23-02?
a.
 to adhere to surfaces or other bacteria
b.
 to prevent phagocytosis
c.
 support and protection in hypotonic conditions
d.
 transmission of DNA between bacteria
e.
 locomotion
 43.
The walls of Eubacteria contain peptidoglycan, which is:
a.
 lipids crosslinked with sugars.
b.
 sugars crosslinked with proteins.
c.
 a protein.
d.
 a lipid.
e.
 a polysaccharide.
 44.
Penicillin works most effectively against gram-positive bacteria because:
a.
 penicillin affects cell membranes.
b.
 they have a thick peptidoglycan cell wall and penicillin affects the synthesis of peptidoglycans.
c.
 they have special protein channels that allow penicillin to enter the cell and halt the cell cycle.
d.
 they are smaller than gram-negative bacteria and, thus, easily take up penicillin by diffusion.
e.
 they contain prophages that negatively interact with penicillin.
 45.
Some bacteria avoid a host’s immune system by means of:
a.
 efficient use of their flagella.
b.
 ameboid motion.
c.
 their capsule.
d.
 changing their cell wall structure.
e.
 eliminating the use of a membrane.
 46.
Bacteria:
a.
 are incapable of locomotion.
b.
 move by means of pili
c.
 move by means of cilia.
d.
 move by means of a rotating flagella.
e.
 move by means of a whiplike flagella.
 47.
Small circles of DNA called ______________ exist in addition to the bacterial chromosome.
a.
 capsids
b.
 plasmids
c.
 chromatids
d.
 pili
e.
 centromeres
 48.
Small hairlike structures on the surface of bacteria are called:
a.
 capsids.
b.
 pili.
c.
 chromatids.
d.
 plasmids.
e.
 virons.
 49.
Plasmids of bacteria often have genes involved in:
a.
 reproduction.
b.
 motility.
c.
 viral resistance.
d.
 antibiotic resistance.
e.
 photosynthesis.
 50.
Pili are involved in adhesion of bacterial cells to a substrate or host, or in transmission of __________ between bacteria.
a.
 ribosomes
b.
 cytoplasm
c.
 vectors
d.
 RNA
e.
 DNA

 
Check Your Work     Start Over

PCC Biochemistry

%CODE1%

Javascript not enabled

Name:     ID: 

Email: 

PCC Biochemistry
 

True/False
Indicate whether the statement is true or false. Write  + for true and  0 for false.
 1.
Atoms have a positive charge.
 2.
An element is made up of more than one kind of atom.
 3.
Hydrogen and oxygen atoms have an equal number of electrons.
 4.
A molecule is an atom that has gained or lost an electron.
 5.
An atom that gains or loses one or more electrons is called an ion.
 6.
An atom with more electrons than protons has a positive charge.
 7.
Ionic bonds form between two negatively charged particles.
 8.
A covalent bond forms between two atoms that share electrons to form a molecule.
 9.
Adhesion is an attraction between different substances.
 10.
The ability of water to retain heat helps cells maintain homeostasis.
 11.
Nonpolar molecules dissolve well in water.
 12.
Water molecules attract nonpolar molecules such as oil.
 13.
Organic compounds contain carbon atoms that are covalently bonded to other elements—typically hydrogen, oxygen, and other carbon atoms.
 14.
A nucleotide has four parts.
 15.
RNA is made up of a double strand of nucleotides.
 16.
DNA stores hereditary information that can be used to make proteins.
 17.
When cells break down food, the energy from the food is temporarily stored as ATP.
 18.
The amount of energy needed to cause a chemical reaction to start is called activation energy.
 19.
Without enzymes, chemical reactions necessary for life would not occur at a rate sufficient to sustain life.
 20.
Enzymes speed up a chemical reaction by increasing the activation energy of the reaction.
 21.
When an enzyme binds with its substrate, the activation energy needed for the chemical reaction to occur is increased.
 22.
Chemical reactions that occur in cells are called biochemical reactions.
 

Multiple Choice
Identify the choice that best completes the statement or answers the question.
 23.
Atoms are composed of
a.
 protons.
c.
 electrons.
b.
 neutrons.
d.
 All of the above
 24.
The electrons of an atom
a.
 are found in the nucleus along with the protons.
b.
 occupy the space surrounding the nucleus.
c.
 have a positive charge.
d.
 are attached to the positive charge of neutrons.
 25.
The smallest particle of matter that can retain the chemical properties of carbon is a(n)
a.
 carbon molecule.
c.
 carbon atom.
b.
 carbon macromolecule.
d.
 element.
 26.
A substance that is composed of only one type of atom is called a(n)
a.
 nucleus.
c.
 element.
b.
 cell.
d.
 molecule.
 27.
All matter is composed of
a.
 cells.
c.
 atoms.
b.
 molecules.
d.
 carbon.
 28.
A molecule that has a partial positive charge on one side and a partial negative charge on the other side is called a
a.
 nonpolar molecule.
c.
 charged molecule.
b.
 polar molecule.
d.
 bipolar molecule.
 29.
A chemical formula shows the
a.
 kinds of bonds found in the molecule.
b.
 kinds of bonds found in the compound.
c.
 kinds of elements found in the compound.
d.
 arrangement of the elements found in the compound.
 30.
Ionic bonds form between molecules that have
a.
 opposite charges.
c.
 no charges.
b.
 the same charge.
d.
 neutral charges.
 31.
The bond formed when two atoms share a pair of electrons is called a(n)
a.
 hydrogen bond.
c.
 covalent bond.
b.
 ionic bond.
d.
 water bond.
 32.
Sharing of electrons in the outer energy levels of two atoms
a.
 results in ion formation.
b.
 occurs in covalent bonds.
c.
 only occurs if both are atoms of the same element.
d.
 is found only among carbon atoms.
 33.
Water is important to life because it
a.
 surrounds all cells.
b.
 is found inside cells.
c.
 influences the shape of the cell membrane.
d.
 All of the above
 34.
Nonpolar molecules have
a.
 no negative or positive poles.
c.
 only a negative pole.
b.
 both negative and positive poles.
d.
 only a positive pole.
 35.
When placed in the same container, oil and water do not mix because
a.
 they are both polar.
c.
 they are both nonpolar.
b.
 water is polar and oil is nonpolar.
d.
 water is nonpolar and oil is polar.
 36.
Due to the polarity of water, compounds that dissolve best in water contain
a.
 nonpolar bonds.
c.
 polar bonds.
b.
 ionic bonds.
d.
 Both (b) and (c)
 37.
Water is a polar molecule because
a.
 it contains two hydrogen atoms for each oxygen atom.
b.
 it has a charge.
c.
 different parts of the molecule have slightly different charges.
d.
 it does not have a charge.
 38.
Acidic solutions have a pH that is
a.
 less than 7.
c.
 a negative number.
b.
 between 7 and 14.
d.
 more than 7.
 39.
Hydrogen ions, H+, react with hydroxide ions, OH-, to form
a.
 water.
c.
 a base.
b.
 an acid.
d.
 None of the above
 40.
Which of the following is not an organic macromolecule?
a.
 carbohydrate
c.
 lipid
b.
 ice
d.
 nucleic acid
 41.
All organic compounds contain the element
a.
 carbon.
c.
 calcium.
b.
 nitrogen.
d.
 sodium.
 42.
Which of the following organic molecules are classified as carbohydrates?
a.
 amino acids
c.
 nucleotides
b.
 fatty acids
d.
 sugars
 43.
Polysaccharides are
a.
 carbohydrates.
c.
 proteins.
b.
 lipids.
d.
 unsaturated fats.
 44.
Lipids are
a.
 polar molecules.
c.
 water soluble.
b.
 similar to water molecules.
d.
 nonpolar molecules.
 45.
Which of the following organic molecules are most closely related to proteins?
a.
 amino acids
c.
 nucleotides
b.
 fatty acids
d.
 sugars
 46.
Long chains of amino acids are found in
a.
 carbohydrates.
c.
 proteins.
b.
 lipids.
d.
 sugars.
 47.
All of the following are examples of lipids except
a.
 saturated fats.
c.
 cholesterol.
b.
 starch.
d.
 earwax.
 48.
Lipids are soluble in
a.
 water.
c.
 oil.
b.
 salt water.
d.
 All of the above
 49.
Which organic molecules below are most closely related to lipids?
a.
 amino acids
c.
 nucleotides
b.
 fatty acids
d.
 sugars
 50.
Which of the following organic molecules are most closely related to nucleic acids?
a.
 amino acids
c.
 nucleotides
b.
 fatty acids
d.
 sugars
 51.
Which of the following is a carbohydrate?
a.
 DNA
c.
 wax
b.
 insulin
d.
 sucrose
 52.
Carbohydrates and lipids have many carbon-hydrogen bonds; therefore, they both
a.
 store energy in these bonds.
c.
 dissolve only in vinegar.
b.
 are easily dissolved in water.
d.
 exist only in cells of plants.
nar001-1.jpg
nar001-2.jpg
Molecule A
Molecule B
 53.
Refer to the illustration above. Molecules like Molecule B are found in
a.
 carbohydrates.
c.
 nucleic acids.
b.
 lipids.
d.
 proteins.
 54.
Liquid fats called oils contain
a.
 mostly unsaturated fatty acids.
c.
 many glucose molecules.
b.
 mostly saturated fatty acids.
d.
 amino acids.
 55.
Animals store glucose in the form of
a.
 cellulose.
c.
 wax.
b.
 glycogen.
d.
 lipids.
 56.
The shape of a protein is primarily determined by
a.
 the type and sequence of its amino acids.
b.
 its size.
c.
 its cell location.
d.
 None of the above
 57.
The two types of nucleic acids are
a.
 chlorophyll and retinal.
c.
 lipids and sugars.
b.
 DNA and RNA.
d.
 glucose and glycogen.
 58.
DNA stores
a.
 fat.
c.
 protein.
b.
 carbohydrates.
d.
 heredity information.
 59.
The two strands of a DNA molecule are held together by
a.
 ionic bonds.
c.
 hydrogen bonds.
b.
 covalent bonds.
d.
 None of the above
 60.
A molecule shaped like a spiral staircase (double helix) is typical of
a.
 deoxyribonucleic acid.
c.
 lipids.
b.
 ribonucleic acid.
d.
 carbohydrates.
 61.
ATP (adenosine triphosphate) stores energy for cells to use in the bonds between its
a.
 amino acids.
c.
 nucleotides.
b.
 carbon atoms.
d.
 phosphates.
nar002-1.jpg
 62.
Refer to the illustration above. Which graph illustrates what happens during an energy-releasing reaction?
a.
 Graph A
b.
 Graph B
c.
 both graphs because they each show a different stage of an energy releasing reaction
d.
 None of the above
 63.
Refer to the illustration above. Which graph illustrates a reaction during which energy is released?
a.
 Graph A
b.
 Graph B
c.
 both graphs because all chemical reactions release energy
d.
 None of the above
nar003-1.jpg
 64.
Refer to the illustration above. Which of the following statements regarding the graph is true?
a.
 Reaction 2 occurs faster than Reaction 3 because Reaction 2 requires more energy than Reaction 3.
b.
 The difference between the graphs shown for Reaction 2 and Reaction 3 is because of a difference in the activation energy of these reactions.
c.
 Reactant A contains more energy at the beginning of the reaction than product C has after the reaction.
d.
 All of the above
 65.
Refer to the illustration above. Reaction 3 in the graph
a.
 probably occurred in the presence of a catalyst.
b.
 requires more activation energy than Reaction 2.
c.
 is the same as Reaction 1, but faster.
d.
 is slower than Reaction 2.
 66.
The molecule on which an enzyme acts is called a(n)
a.
 active site.
c.
 organic molecule.
b.
 inactive site.
d.
 substrate.
 67.
An enzyme
a.
 is not used up when catalyzing a reaction.
b.
 lowers the activation energy of a reaction.
c.
 bonds with a substrate molecule at the enzyme’s active site.
d.
 All of the above
 68.
Which of the following conditions affects the function of enzymes?
a.
 pH
c.
 enzyme concentration
b.
 heat
d.
 All of the above
 69.
Reducing activation energy
a.
 is a violation of the laws of nature.
b.
 requires higher temperatures than those found within cells.
c.
 occurs only when reactants are quickly added to the reaction mixture.
d.
 is accomplished by the action of catalysts on reactants.
 70.
Enzymes
a.
 are able to heat up molecules so that they can react.
b.
 always provide carbon dioxide for chemical reactions.
c.
 are biological catalysts.
d.
 absorb excess heat so that reactions occur at low temperatures.
 71.
A cell contains
a.
 thousands of different kinds of enzymes, each promoting a different chemical reaction.
b.
 one kind of enzyme that promotes thousands of different chemical reactions.
c.
 approximately 100 kinds of enzymes, each promoting a different chemical reaction.
d.
 one enzyme that promotes photosynthesis and one enzyme that promotes cellular respiration.
 72.
Amylase is a digestive enzyme that breaks down starch into
a.
 amino acids.
c.
 glycogen.
b.
 glucose.
d.
 cellulose.
 73.
The digestive enzyme pepsin works with hydrochloric acid to break down proteins in the stomach. Pepsin probably works best at a pH of
a.
 11.
c.
 3.
b.
 7.
d.
 Both (b) and (c).

 
         Start Over

PCC Biochemistry 2011

%CODE1%

Javascript not enabled

Name:     ID: 

Email: 

PCC Biochemistry 2011
 

Multiple Choice
Identify the choice that best completes the statement or answers the question.
 1.
The three particles that make up atoms are
a.
 protons, neutrons, and isotopes.
c.
 positives, negatives, and electrons.
b.
 neutrons, isotopes, and electrons.
d.
 protons, neutrons, and electrons.
 2.
The space surrounding the nucleus of an atom contains
a.
 protons.
c.
 neutrons.
b.
 electrons.
d.
 ions.
 3.
Democritus believed that atoms
a.
 were composed of electrons.
c.
 could be divided.
b.
 were composed of protons.
d.
 could not be divided.
 4.
If an atom contains 3 protons, 4 neutrons,  and 3 electrons, its mass number would be
a.
 3.
c.
 7.
b.
 4.
d.
 11.
 5.
If a chlorine atom had 17 protons and 18 neutrons, it would be called
a.
 chlorine-17.
c.
 chlorine-35.
b.
 chlorine-18.
d.
 chlorine-1.
 6.
Isotopes are atoms of the same element with the same number of protons and
a.
 a different number of electrons.
c.
 a different number of neutrons.
b.
 a different number of molecules.
d.
 the same number of neutrons.
 7.
Which of the following is a use of radioactive isotopes?
a.
 can determine the ages of rocks and fossils
b.
 can be used to treat cancer and kill bacteria that cause food to spoil
c.
 can be used as “tracers” to follow the movements of substances within organisms
d.
 all of the above
 8.
If an atom contains 11 protons and 12 neutrons, its atomic number is
a.
 1.
c.
 12.
b.
 11.
d.
 23.
 9.
Which of the following terms describes a substance formed by the combination of two or more elements in definite proportions?
a.
 compound
c.
 nucleus
b.
 isotope
d.
 enzyme
 10.
Which of the following makes up a molecule of water?
a.
 one atom of hydrogen and one atom of oxygen
b.
 one atom of sodium and one atom of chlorine
c.
 one atom of hydrogen and two atoms of oxygen
d.
 two atoms of hydrogen and one atom of oxygen
 11.
Which of the following is NOT true about chlorine?
a.
 It is a poisonous, greenish gas.
b.
 It combines with sodium to form table salt.
c.
 It was used to kill many soldiers in World War I.
d.
 It is not reactive.
 12.
Which of the following statements about a compound is true?
a.
 The physical and chemical properties of a compound are usually very different from those of the elements from which it is formed.
b.
 Only the physical properties of a compound are usually the same as those of the elements from which it is formed.
c.
 Only the chemical properties of a compound are usually the same as those of the elements from which it is formed.
d.
 The physical and chemical properties of a compound are usually the same as those of the elements from which it is formed.
 13.
A covalent bond is formed as the result of
a.
 transferring electrons.
c.
 transferring protons.
b.
 sharing an electron pair.
d.
 sharing a proton pair.
 14.
Which term does NOT apply to sodium chloride?
a.
 molecule
c.
 compound
b.
 ionic bonding
d.
 crystal
 15.
What type of electron is available to form bonds?
a.
 valence
c.
 ionic
b.
 nucleus
d.
 covalent
 16.
What type of ion forms when an atom loses electrons?
a.
 neutral
c.
 negative
b.
 positive
d.
 possibly positive or negative
 17.
Ice floats on water because
a.
 of cohesion.
c.
 water shrinks when it freezes.
b.
 ice has a higher density than water.
d.
 water expands when it freezes.
 18.
The most abundant compound in most living things is
a.
 carbon dioxide.
c.
 sodium chloride.
b.
 water.
d.
 sugar.
 19.
Water molecules are polar, with the
a.
 oxygen side being slightly positive and the hydrogen side being slightly negative.
b.
 oxygen and hydrogen sides being slightly positive.
c.
 oxygen and hydrogen sides being slightly negative.
d.
 oxygen side being slightly negative and the hydrogen side being slightly positive.
 20.
In a water molecule, shared electrons spend more time around the oxygen atom than the hydrogen atoms.  As a result, the oxygen atom is
a.
 slightly negative.
c.
 slightly positive.
b.
 very negative.
d.
 very positive.
 21.
A solution is a(an)
a.
 combination of isotopes.
b.
 chemical reaction.
c.
 evenly distributed mixture of two or more substances.
d.
 combination of two or more liquids.
 22.
If you stir salt into boiling water, you produce a
a.
 mixture called a suspension.
c.
 solution and suspension.
b.
 mixture called a solution.
d.
 mixture only.
 23.
When salt is dissolved in water, water is the
a.
 reactant.
c.
 solute.
b.
 solution.
d.
 solvent.
 24.
While preparing a cell culture, a scientist places a colony of bacteria into distilled water and stirs it up.  This mixture of water and living cells would best be called a(an)
a.
 solution.
b.
 suspension.
c.
 buffer.
d.
 adhesion.
 25.
If the pH of stomach acid and of oven cleaner were measured,
a.
 both would be below 7.
b.
 both would be above 7.
c.
 the pH of stomach acid would be above 7, but the pH of oven cleaner would be below 7.
d.
 the pH of stomach acid would be below 7, but the pH of oven cleaner would be above 7.
 26.
A map of eastern North America, showing the pH of rainfall in the various states, indicates that the pH of rain in New York State varies from 4.22 to 4.40. According to these figures, the most acidic rainfall in New York State has a pH of
a.
 4.22.
c.
 4.35.
b.
 4.30.
d.
 4.40.
 27.
A substance with a pH of 6 is called
a.
 an acid.
c.
 both an acid and a base.
b.
 a base.
d.
 neither an acid nor a base.
 28.
Solutions that contain concentrations of H+ ions lower than pure water
a.
 have pH values below 7.
c.
 are bases.
b.
 are acids.
d.
 are enzymes.
 29.
Amino acid is to protein as
a.
 fat is to lipid.
c.
 sugar is to fat.
b.
 DNA is to RNA.
d.
 simple sugar is to starch.
 30.
A monosaccharide is a
a.
 carbohydrate.
c.
 nucleic acid.
b.
 lipid.
d.
 protein.
 31.
Which of the following is NOT a monomer?
a.
 a glucose molecule
c.
 a nucleotide
b.
 an amino acid
d.
 a protein
 32.
Which of the following is NOT a function of proteins?
a.
 store and transmit genetic information
b.
 help to fight disease
c.
 control the rate of reactions and regulate cell processes
d.
 build tissues such as bone and muscle
 33.
Which statement is true?
a.
 Simple sugars are made of polysaccharides.
b.
 Glycerol is made of fatty acids.
c.
 RNA molecules are made of nucleotides.
d.
 Amino acids are made of proteins.
 34.
In chemical reactions, atoms are
a.
 created.
c.
 rearranged.
b.
 destroyed.
d.
 neutralized.
 35.
When hydrogen and oxygen combine to form water, water is
a.
 a product.
c.
 both a product and a reactant.
b.
 a reactant.
d.
 neither a product nor a reactant.
 36.
Identify the reactant(s) in the chemical reaction, CO2 + H2O ® H2CO3.
a.
 CO2, H2O, and H2CO3
c.
 H2CO3
b.
 CO2 and H2O
d.
 CO2
 37.
What is the process that changes one set of chemicals into another set of chemicals?
a.
 cohesion
c.
 chemical reaction
b.
 adhesion
d.
 dissolving
 38.
What is the term used to describe the energy needed to get a reaction started?
a.
 adhesion energy
c.
 cohesion energy
b.
 activation energy
d.
 chemical energy
 39.
Chemical reactions that release energy
a.
 will not occur.
c.
 will always explode.
b.
 will never explode.
d.
 often occur spontaneously.
 40.
If a reaction in one direction releases energy, the reaction in the opposite direction
a.
 also releases energy.
c.
 destroys energy.
b.
 absorbs energy.
d.
 cannot occur.
 41.
Which of the following is a form of energy that may be released during a chemical reaction?
a.
 heat
c.
 light
b.
 sound
d.
 all of the above
 42.
Which of the following statements about enzymes is NOT true?
a.
 Enzymes work best at a specified pH.
b.
 All enzymes have the same shape as their substrates.
c.
 Enzymes are proteins.
d.
 The shape of an enzyme allows it to do its job.
 43.
Which of the following statements is true about catalysts?
a.
 Catalysts slow down the rate of chemical reactions.
b.
 All catalysts are enzymes.
c.
 Catalysts are used up during a chemical reaction.
d.
 Catalysts lower the activation energy of a chemical reaction.
 44.
A substance that accelerates the rate of a chemical reaction is called a(an)
a.
 catalyst.
c.
 molecule.
b.
 lipid.
d.
 element.
 45.
Enzymes affect the reactions in living cells by changing the
a.
 products of the reaction.
c.
 temperature of the reaction.
b.
 speed of the reaction.
d.
 pH of the reaction.
 

Short Answer
 46.
Why are atoms considered neutral?
 47.
What is a molecule?
 

Other

USING SCIENCE SKILLS

 

pH Values of Some Common Substances
Substance pH
Hydrochloric acid
1.0
Sulfuric acid
1.2
Tomatoes
4.2
Rainwater
6.2
Pure water
7.0
Sea water
8.5
Ammonium chloride
11.1
Sodium hydroxide
13.0

Figure 2–2
 48.
Applying Concepts What is the strongest acid listed in Figure 2–2?
 49.
Applying Concepts What is the pH of the strongest base listed in Figure 2–2?
 50.
Applying Concepts Using your knowledge of the pH scale, which of the chemicals in Figure 2-2 has the lowest concentration of H+ ions?

 
         Start Over

PCC Cell Structure and Function 2011

%CODE1%

Javascript not enabled

Name:     ID: 

Email: 

PCC Cell Structure and Function 2011
 

Multiple Choice
Identify the choice that best completes the statement or answers the question.
 1.
The smallest units of life in all living things are
a.
 cells.
c.
 cytoplasm.
b.
 mitochondria.
d.
 Golgi apparatus.
 2.
When the volume of a cell increases, its surface area
a.
 increases at the same rate.
b.
 remains the same.
c.
 increases at a faster rate.
d.
 increases at a slower rate.
 3.
Surface area is an important factor in limiting cell growth because
a.
 the cell can burst if the membrane becomes too large.
b.
 materials cannot enter the cell if the surface is too large.
c.
 the cell may become too large to take in enough food and to remove enough wastes.
d.
 waste products cannot leave the cell if the cell is too small.
 4.
The size to which a cell can grow is limited by its
a.
 location.
c.
 function.
b.
 structure.
d.
 surface area.
 5.
A cell that can change its shape would be well suited for
a.
 receiving and transmitting nerve impulses.
b.
 covering the body surface.
c.
 moving to different tissues through narrow openings.
d.
 All of the above
 6.
One difference between prokaryotes and eukaryotes is that
a.
 nucleic acids are found only in prokaryotes.
b.
 mitochondria are found in larger quantities in eukaryotes.
c.
 the Golgi apparatus is found only in prokaryotes.
d.
 prokaryotes have no nuclear membrane.
 7.
Which of the following is characteristic of prokaryotes?
a.
 They have a nucleus.
b.
 They existed on Earth before eukaryotes.
c.
 The organelles in their cytoplasm are surrounded by membranes.
d.
 None of the above
 8.
Which of the following is an example of a prokaryotic cell?
a.
 an amoeba
c.
 a bacterium
b.
 a virus
d.
 a liver cell
 9.
Only eukaryotic cells have
a.
 DNA.
c.
 ribosomes.
b.
 membrane-bound organelles.
d.
 cytoplasm.
 10.
Studying a picture of a cell taken with an electron microscope, you find that the cell has no nucleus and no mitochondria, but it does have a plasma membrane and a cell wall. You conclude that the cell is probably from a(n)
a.
 animal.
c.
 prokaryote.
b.
 plant.
d.
 extinct organism.
 11.
Plasma membranes
a.
 are part of only a small number of cells.
b.
 contain genes.
c.
 are made of DNA.
d.
 are thin coverings that surround cells.
 12.
The structure that regulates what enters and leaves the cell is called the
a.
 nucleus.
c.
 nuclear membrane.
b.
 cell wall.
d.
 plasma membrane.
 13.
The plasma membrane
a.
 encloses the contents of a cell.
b.
 allows material to enter and leave the cell.
c.
 is selectively permeable.
d.
 All of the above
 14.
A structure within a cell that performs a specific function is called a(n)
a.
 organelle.
c.
 tissue.
b.
 organ tissue.
d.
 biocenter.
 15.
A particularly active cell might contain large numbers of
a.
 chromosomes.
c.
 mitochondria.
b.
 vacuoles.
d.
 walls.
 16.
The Golgi apparatus is an organelle that
a.
 receives proteins and lipids from the endoplasmic reticulum.
b.
 labels the molecules made in the endoplasmic reticulum with tags that specify their destination.
c.
 releases molecules in vesicles.
d.
 All of the above
 17.
One important organelle that helps maintain homeostasis by moving supplies from one part of the cell to the other is the
a.
 endoplasmic reticulum.
c.
 nucleus.
b.
 mitochondrion.
d.
 cytoplasm.
 18.
In which of the following organelles is a cell’s ATP produced?
a.
 mitochondrion
c.
 Golgi apparatus
b.
 endoplasmic reticulum
d.
 lysosome
 19.
Numerous hairlike organelles that protrude from the surface of a cell and are packed in tight rows are called
a.
 flagella.
c.
 actin filaments.
b.
 microtubules.
d.
 cilia.
 20.
Proteins are made on the
a.
 mitochondria.
c.
 nucleus.
b.
 ribosomes.
d.
 plasma membrane.
 21.
The packaging and distribution center of the cell is the
a.
 nucleus.
c.
 central vacuole.
b.
 Golgi apparatus.
d.
 nuclear envelope.
 22.
The double membrane surrounding the nucleus is called the
a.
 nucleolus.
c.
 nucleoplasm.
b.
 nuclear wall.
d.
 nuclear envelope.
 23.
All cells have
a.
 a covering called a plasma membrane that surrounds the cell and controls what information and materials enter and leave it.
b.
 an internal fluid that gives shape to the cell and supports the other things within it.
c.
 either a central zone or a nucleus that contains the cell’s genes.
d.
 All of the above
 24.
cell : plasma membrane ::
a.
 nucleus : chromosome
b.
 nucleus : nuclear envelope
c.
 chromosome : DNA
d.
 cell : DNA
nar001-1.jpg
 25.
Refer to the illustration above. Which structure immediately identifies this cell as a eukaryote?
a.
 structure 1
c.
 structure 3
b.
 structure 2
d.
 structure 4
 26.
Refer to the illustration above. The cell uses structure 3
a.
 to transport material from one part of the cell to another.
b.
 to package proteins so they can be stored by the cell.
c.
 as a receptor.
d.
 to transfer energy from organic molecules to ATP.
 27.
Refer to the illustration above. Structure 1 is
a.
 the endoplasmic reticulum.
b.
 a Golgi apparatus.
c.
 a mitochondrion.
d.
 the nucleus.
 28.
Refer to the illustration above. This cell’s chromosomes are found in
a.
 structure 1.
c.
 structure 3.
b.
 structure 2.
d.
 structure 5.
 29.
Refer to the illustration above. The cell shown is probably an animal cell because
a.
 it has mitochondria.
b.
 it does not have a cell wall.
c.
 it has a plasma membrane.
d.
 it does not have a nucleus.
 30.
All of the following are found in both plant and animal cells, except
a.
 a cell wall.
c.
 mitochondria.
b.
 a plasma membrane.
d.
 the endoplasmic reticulum.
 31.
How are chloroplasts like mitochondria?
a.
 They can both use energy from sunlight.
b.
 They look alike.
c.
 They both contain DNA.
d.
 They are both found in animal cells.
 32.
The organelles associated with photosynthesis are the
a.
 mitochondria.
c.
 Golgi apparatus.
b.
 chloroplasts.
d.
 vacuoles.
 33.
The organelles in plant cells that contain a green pigment are the
a.
 mitochondria.
c.
 chloroplasts.
b.
 bilayer lipids.
d.
 Golgi apparatus.
 34.
Plant cells have a large membrane-bound space in which water, waste products, and nutrients are stored. This place is known as a
a.
 mitochondrion.
c.
 Golgi apparatus.
b.
 chloroplast.
d.
 central vacuole.
 35.
Which of the following pairs contains unrelated items?
a.
 eukaryote–amoeba
c.
 cell wall–animal cell
b.
 ribosomes–protein
d.
 mitochondria–energy
 36.
Plant cells
a.
 do not contain mitochondria.
b.
 have a cell wall instead of a plasma membrane.
c.
 have a large central vacuole instead of a Golgi apparatus.
d.
 have chloroplasts and a cell wall.
 37.
Which of the following is the correct order of organization of structures in living things, from simplest to most complex?
a.
 organ systems, organs, tissues, cells
b.
 tissues, cells, organs, organ systems
c.
 cells, tissues, organ systems, organs
d.
 cells, tissues, organs, organ systems
 38.
As a result of diffusion, the concentration of many types of substances
a.
 always remains greater inside a membrane.
b.
 eventually becomes balanced on both sides of a membrane.
c.
 always remains greater on the outside of a membrane.
d.
 becomes imbalanced on both sides of a membrane.
nar002-1.jpg
 39.
Refer to the illustration above. In which direction are water molecules in this system most likely to diffuse?
a.
 from 1 to 2
c.
 from 4 to 3
b.
 from 2 to 4
d.
 from 3 to 1
 40.
The dispersal of ink in a beaker of water is an example of
a.
 diffusion.
c.
 active transport.
b.
 osmosis.
d.
 endocytosis.
 41.
Sugar molecules can enter cells through the process of
a.
 exocytosis.
c.
 osmosis.
b.
 facilitated diffusion.
d.
 ion pumps.
 42.
Channels utilizing facilitated diffusion
a.
 work in two directions.
b.
 require an electrical signal to function.
c.
 Both a and b
d.
 None of the above
 43.
Which of the following is not characteristic of facilitated diffusion?
a.
 It requires a carrier protein.
b.
 It moves substances against a concentration gradient.
c.
 It requires no energy input.
d.
 It involves a change in the shape of its carrier.
 44.
Which of the following does not expend energy?
a.
 diffusion
c.
 active transport
b.
 endocytosis
d.
 a sodium-potassium pump
 45.
Which of the following enters a cell by active transport?
a.
 glucose
c.
 lactose
b.
 water
d.
 potassium ion
 46.
The process by which water passes into or out of a cell is called
a.
 solubility.
c.
 selective transport.
b.
 osmosis.
d.
 endocytosis.
 47.
The sodium-potassium pump usually pumps
a.
 potassium out of the cell.
b.
 sodium into the cell.
c.
 potassium into the cell.
d.
 only a potassium and sugar molecule together.
 48.
Ridding the cell of material by discharging it from sacs at the cell surface is called
a.
 pinocytosis.
c.
 exocytosis.
b.
 phagocytosis.
d.
 endocytosis.
 49.
Molecules that are too large to be moved across a cell membrane can be removed from the cell by
a.
 diffusion.
c.
 lipid carriers.
b.
 exocytosis.
d.
 osmosis.
 50.
Placing a plant into a hypertonic environment will
a.
 cause turgor pressure to increase.
b.
 cause the plant to take in water.
c.
 have no effect.
d.
 cause turgor pressure to decrease.

 
         Start Over

PCC Fungi Study Guide

%CODE1%

Javascript not enabled

Name: 

 

PCC Fungi Study Guide

 

 

Multiple Choice
Identify the choice that best completes the statement or answers the question.
 1.
All fungi are
a.
 heterotrophic prokaryotes.
c.
 autotrophic prokaryotes.
b.
 heterotrophic eukaryotes.
d.
 autotrophic eukaryotes.
 2.
Fungi do NOT
a.
 carry out photosynthesis.
c.
 digest food outside their bodies.
b.
 grow on their food source.
d.
 absorb food through their cell walls.
 3.
Fungi resemble plants in that they both always
a.
 have stems.
c.
 act as parasites.
b.
 grow from the ground.
d.
 have cell walls.
 4.
A mushroom is a fungal
a.
 fruiting body.
c.
 mycorrhiza.
b.
 lichen.
d.
 yeast.
 5.
The tangled mass that makes up the body of a fungus is the
a.
 hypha.
c.
 mycelium.
b.
 rhizoid.
d.
 stolon.

nar001-1.jpg

Figure 21–1
 6.
Fungal hyphae, shown in Figure 21–1, differ in that some lack
a.
 cell walls.
c.
 nuclei.
b.
 cross walls.
d.
 cytoplasm.
 7.
A circular arrangement of mushrooms sprouting from the same mycelium is known as a(an)
a.
 hypha.
c.
 imperfect fungus.
b.
 fairy ring.
d.
 sporangiophore.
 8.
Most fungi reproduce
a.
 asexually only.
c.
 both sexually and asexually.
b.
 sexually only.
d.
 by budding.
 9.
Stinkhorns, which mimic the odor of rotting meat, have spores that are dispersed by
a.
 wind.
c.
 snow.
b.
 birds.
d.
 flies.
 10.
When hyphae of opposite mating types meet, they first
a.
 enter mitosis
c.
 enter meiosis.
b.
 grow and develop.
d.
 fuse.
 11.
Sporangia are found at the tops of specialized hyphae called
a.
 sporangiophores.
c.
 gametangia.
b.
 mycelia.
d.
 stolons.
 12.
Which of the following processes is first to occur after the nuclei of opposite mating types fuse?
a.
 Spores are produced.
c.
 Mitosis occurs.
b.
 Gametes are produced.
d.
 Meiosis occurs.
 13.
Dark fuzz that grows on bread is an example of
a.
 toadstool.
c.
 yeast.
b.
 spore.
d.
 mold.
 14.
Rhizoids in molds are analagous to which structures on plants?
a.
 flowers
c.
 stems
b.
 roots
d.
 leaves
 15.
In bread mold, haploid gametes are produced by the
a.
 gametangia.
c.
 zygospores.
b.
 rhizoids.
d.
 sporangiophores.
 16.
Which of the following ingredients is NOT added to bread dough in order to make it rise?
a.
 sugar
c.
 water
b.
 yeast
d.
 oxygen
 17.
The dry, powdered yeast used to bake bread actually contains
a.
 zygospores.
c.
 conidia.
b.
 ascospores.
d.
 sporangia.
 18.
Yeasts obtain energy by alcoholic fermentation in the absence of
a.
 moisture.
c.
 oxygen.
b.
 carbon dioxide.
d.
 sugar.
 19.
Mushrooms are classified as
a.
 common molds.
c.
 club fungi.
b.
 sac fungi.
d.
 imperfect fungi.
 20.
Which is responsible for the enlargement of fruiting bodies?
a.
 water uptake by cells in hyphae
c.
 production of haploid spores
b.
 rapid cell division
d.
 expansion of air spaces between the gills
 21.
The common name for members of the phylum Basidiomycota is derived from the shape of their
a.
 spores.
c.
 basidia.
b.
 hyphae.
d.
 stalks.
 22.
Over time, nutrients at the center of a large underground mycelium become depleted, causing new mushrooms to sprout only
a.
 in a cluster at the center.
c.
 when the nutrients are replaced.
b.
 in a ring at the outer edges.
d.
 after budding takes place.
 23.
Each of the following is a basidiomycete EXCEPT
a.
 shelf fungi.
c.
 puffballs.
b.
 mushrooms.
d.
 cup fungi.
 24.
In basidiomycetes, the primary mycelia of different mating types fuse to form
a.
 a secondary mycelium.
b.
 haploid zygotes.
c.
 gills.
d.
 haploid nuclei of the same mating type.
 25.
Which statement about Penicillium is correct?
a.
 It produces mushrooms.
c.
 It is the source of an antibiotic.
b.
 It causes bread to rise.
d.
 It causes athlete’s foot.
 26.
Penicillium is classified in phylum Deuteromycota because Penicillium has
a.
 fruiting bodies.
c.
 no observed sexual phase.
b.
 gills.
d.
 basidiospores.
 27.
Penicillium may have evolved from an ascomycete that lost its ability to carry out
a.
 asexual reproduction.
c.
 spore formation.
b.
 sexual reproduction.
d.
 conidia formation.
 28.
An important role of fungi in an ecosystem is
a.
 photosynthesis.
c.
 making alcohol.
b.
 breaking down dead organisms.
d.
 killing bacteria.
 29.
The oldest fossil fungi on record belong to the phylum
a.
 Ascomycota.
c.
 Basidiomycota.
b.
 Deuteromycota.
d.
 Zygomycota.
 30.
Fungi that absorb food from decaying organic matter are
a.
 parasites.
c.
 mutualists.
b.
 saprobes.
d.
 autotrophs.
 31.
Fungi feed on
a.
 only living organisms.
c.
 both living and dead organisms.
b.
 only dead organisms.
d.
 only other fungi.
 32.
The breakdown of dead organisms is accelerated by the fungal production of
a.
 alcohols.
c.
 digestive enzymes.
b.
 acids.
d.
 recycled nutrients.
 33.
Which of the following statements about fungi is true?
a.
 They bind trace elements and hold them.
b.
 They return trace elements to the soil.
c.
 They do not affect trace elements.
d.
 They deplete the soil of trace elements.
 34.
Athlete’s foot is caused by the same fungus that causes
a.
 wheat rust.
c.
 ringworm.
b.
 moldy bread.
d.
 thrush.
 35.
The growth of yeasts in moist regions of the body is kept in check by competition from
a.
 antibiotics.
c.
 rusts.
b.
 bacteria.
d.
 mildews.
 36.
Crop damage by fungal diseases is
a.
 greatest in tropical areas.
c.
 greatest in temperate areas.
b.
 least in tropical areas.
d.
 not affected by climate.
 37.
Which structures of the fungus Cordyceps digest tropical grasshoppers from the inside out?
a.
 spores
c.
 fruiting bodies
b.
 hyphae
d.
 mycelia
 38.
Each of the following is true of wheat rust EXCEPT that it
a.
 is caused by a basidiomycete.
b.
 is carried by insects into wheat fields.
c.
 is controlled by destroying barberry plants.
d.
 produces two kinds of spores.
 39.
The normal balance between bacteria and yeasts in the body can be upset by
a.
 eating yeast-leavened bread.
c.
 using antibiotics.
b.
 eating edible mushrooms.
d.
 being exposed to mushroom spores.

nar002-1.jpg

Figure 21–2
 40.
Figure 21–2 illustrates an association of a(an)
a.
 cyanobacterium and a plant.
c.
 plant and a fungus.
b.
 alga or cyanobacterium and a fungus.
d.
 alga and a plant.
 41.
Which of the following is NOT a single organism?
a.
 mushroom
c.
 yeast
b.
 smut
d.
 lichen
 42.
Which statement about lichens is correct?
a.
 They are not tolerant of harsh conditions.
b.
 They cannot make their own food.
c.
 They grow only in soil.
d.
 They can serve as an air quality indicator.
 43.
The association of plants and fungi in mycorrhizae illustrates a type of relationship called
a.
 parasitism.
c.
 competition.
b.
 mutualism.
d.
 parallelism.
 44.
In a mycorrhizal relationship, what benefit does the plant get from the fungus?
a.
 protection from harsh conditions
c.
 products of photosynthesis
b.
 aid in seed dispersal
d.
 aid in the absorption of water and minerals
 45.
Beneath the forest floor, carbon atoms can be moved from one tree to the next by
a.
 orchids.
c.
 mycorrhizae.
b.
 fungal spores.
d.
 lichens.
 46.
Which of the following is not a characteristic of fungi?
a.
 membrane-bounded nuclei
b.
 mitochondria
c.
 cell wall of lipopolysaccharides
d.
 primarily terrestrial in habitat
e.
 reproduction via spores
 47.
The cell walls of fungi are composed of:
a.
 cellulose.
b.
 lipids.
c.
 glycogen.
d.
 chitin.
e.
 chlorophyll.
 48.
Fungi can grow under all of the following conditions except:
a.
 concentrated salt solutions.
b.
 an environment with a very low pH of 3.
c.
 a dry environment.
d.
 jelly or other sugar solutions.
e.
 a cold, refrigerated environment.
Figure 25-01
Use the figure below to answer the corresponding questions.nar003-1.jpg
 49.
In Figure 25-01, the structure labeled 1 is:
a.
 a conidium.
b.
 a perforated septum.
c.
 a hypha.
d.
 a basidium.
e.
 a spore.
 50.
In Figure 25-01, the fungus illustrated in Figure A is:
a.
 multicellular.
b.
 coenocytic.
c.
 septate.
d.
 dikaryotic.
e.
 None of the above.
 51.
An example of a unicellular fungus is:
a.
 a mold.
b.
 a mushroom.
c.
 a yeast.
d.
 a rust.
e.
 a smut.
 52.
A ____________ is a filament that makes up the vegetative body of most fungi.
a.
 thallus
b.
 protonema
c.
 fruiting body
d.
 hypha
e.
 septa
 53.
Which group of fungi have hyphae that are multinucleate and not divided by septa?
a.
 monokaryotic
b.
 unicellular
c.
 ascomycete
d.
 coenocytic
e.
 sporophyllous
 54.
A ____________ is a tangled mat of hyphae.
a.
 sporocarp
b.
 sporangia
c.
 zygospore
d.
 mycelium
e.
 coenocyte
 55.
The club fungi typically reproduce by producing:
a.
 zygospores.
b.
 ascospores.
c.
 asci.
d.
 basidia.
e.
 mycorrhizae.
 56.
Most fungal spores are ____________ reproductive cells that are produced ________________________.
a.
 motile; sexually only
b.
 motile; asexually only
c.
 nonmotile; sexually only
d.
 nonmotile; asexually only
e.
 nonmotile; sexually or asexually
 57.
In a fungus, a complex multicellular reproductive structure is called:
a.
 a hypha.
b.
 a gametangium.
c.
 a fruiting body.
d.
 an oogonium.
e.
 an antheridium.
 58.
What makes up most of the mass of an individual mushroom?
a.
 underground mycelium
b.
 above ground mycelium
c.
 underground fruiting body
d.
 above ground ascocarp
e.
 underground ascocarp
 59.
Dikaryotic cells are denoted as:
a.
 n + n.
b.
 n – n.
c.
 n.
d.
 2n.
e.
 2n – n.
 60.
Members of phylum ____________ are the most primitive of the fungi and were previously classified as protists.
a.
 Chytridiomycota
b.
 Zygomycota
c.
 Oomycota
d.
 Ascomycota
e.
 Deuteromycota
 61.
One ancestral characteristic remaining in representatives of the Chytridiomycetes is:
a.
 gametes formed by mitosis.
b.
 alternation of generations.
c.
 cell walls.
d.
 flagellated cells.
e.
 both sexual and asexual reproduction.
 62.
An example of a member of phylum Zygomycota is:
a.
 the common edible mushroom.
b.
 yeast.
c.
 the black bread mold.
d.
 the truffle.
e.
 More than one of the above.
 63.
When bread gets moldy with visible black or blue spots, you are looking at masses of the colored:
a.
 spores.
b.
 hyphae.
c.
 mycelia.
d.
 ascocarps.
e.
 thalli.
 64.
Black bread mold is ___________________, which means that it is self-sterile.
a.
 heterozygous
b.
 heterothallic
c.
 hetertrophic
d.
 mycotoxic
e.
 coenocytic
 65.
Reproduction in the black bread mold occurs between ___________________ hyphae.
a.
 male and female
b.
 + and –
c.
 dikaryotic and monokaryotic
d.
 heterothallic and homothallic
e.
 sterile and self-sterile
 66.
An example of a member of phylum Ascomycota is:
a.
 the common edible mushroom.
b.
 yeast.
c.
 the black bread mold.
d.
 the truffle.
e.
 More than one of the above.
 67.
The sac fungi are characterized by sexual reproductive structures called:
a.
 asci.
b.
 basidia.
c.
 gemmae.
d.
 conidiophores.
e.
 conidia.
 68.
Asexual reproduction in sac fungi involves production of spores called:
a.
 asci.
b.
 basidia.
c.
 gemmae.
d.
 conidiophores.
e.
 conidia.
Figure 25-02
Use the figure below to answer the corresponding questions.nar004-1.jpg
 69.
In Figure 25-02, the structure labeled 11 is:
a.
 a zygote.
b.
 a female gametangium.
c.
 a male gemetangium.
d.
 a zoosporangium.
e.
 a zoospore.
 70.
The process occurring at point 3 in Figure 25-02 is:
a.
 asexual reproduction.
b.
 fertilization.
c.
 meiosis.
d.
 mitosis.
e.
 zygote germination.
 71.
The structure labeled 9 in Figure 25-02 was produced by:
a.
 fertilization of two zygotes.
b.
 meiosis in the resting sporangium.
c.
 meiosis in the zoosporangium.
d.
 mitosis in the resting sporangium.
e.
 mitosis in the zoosporangium.
 72.
An example of a plant disease caused by a basiodiomycete is:
a.
 chestnut blight.
b.
 Dutch elm disease.
c.
 verticillium wilt on potatoes.
d.
 stem rust of wheat.
e.
 All of the above.
 73.
In a mushroom, the primary mycelium is composed of ______________ cells.
a.
 monokaryotic
b.
 dikaryotic
c.
 homothallic
d.
 coenocytic
e.
 prokaryotic
 74.
Puffballs and bracket fungi are most closely related to:
a.
 molds.
b.
 truffles.
c.
 the common edible mushroom.
d.
 yeast.
e.
 the black bread mold.
 75.
Lichens are most typically formed by the symbiotic association of an alga or cyanobacterium and:
a.
 an ascomycete.
b.
 a deuteromycete.
c.
 a basidiomycete.
d.
 a zygomycete.
e.
 All of the above.
 76.
Lichens reproduce primarily asexually by ____________, which are fragments of the body of the lichen.
a.
 conidia
b.
 soredia
c.
 asci
d.
 basidia
e.
 thalli
 77.
Which of the following organisms typically grows most slowly?
a.
 bread molds
b.
 lichens
c.
 yeasts
d.
 mushrooms
e.
 sac fungi
 78.
Which of the following is not produced utilizing fungi?
a.
 beer
b.
 bread
c.
 blue cheese
d.
 yogurt
e.
 wine
 79.
Claviceps purpurea produces _______________, which infests grain and has been important in many historical events, as ingestion of infested grain milled into flour can cause hallucinations and even death.
a.
 an ergot
b.
 a smut
c.
 a rust
d.
 a brown rot
e.
 a mildew
 80.
Fungi parasitic on plants produce specialized hyphae, called ____________, that penetrate the host.
a.
 soredia
b.
 secondary mycelia
c.
 basidia
d.
 asci
e.
 haustoria
 81.
A basidiomycete that infests wheat is the wheat:
a.
 rust.
b.
 wilt.
c.
 strobilus.
d.
 scab.
e.
 rot.
 82.
Which is not a fungal infection in humans?
a.
 ringworm
b.
 athlete’s foot
c.
 yeast infections
d.
 histoplasmosis
e.
 None of the above, all are fungal infections in humans.
 83.
Examples of plant disease caused by an ascomycete are:
a.
 chestnut blight.
b.
 Dutch elm disease.
c.
 stem rust of wheat.
d.
 abnormal leaf fall of rubber.
e.
 Both A and B.
 84.
______________________ is a common chytridiomycete, which exhibits alternation of generation.
a.
 phytophthora
b.
 Allomyces
c.
 Ascomycetes
d.
 chytrids
e.
 None of the above.
 85.
Which one of the following is mismatched?
a.
 Bread mold – zygomycetes
b.
 Sac fungi – Ascomycota
c.
 Yeast – Ascomycota
d.
 Truffles – Ascomycota
e.
 Ascomycota – ascospores
 86.
The characteristic brown, blue-green, pink, or other tints of ascomycetes are due to the color of their__________.
a.
 Mycelia
b.
 Hyphae
c.
 Conidia
d.
 Sporangia
e.
 None of the above.
 87.
Yeasts reproduce asexually by:
a.
 division.
b.
 budding.
c.
 ascospores.
d.
 Binary fission.
e.
 Both B and D.
 88.
Which one of the following statements is true?
a.
 Basidiospores are formed within the basidia.
b.
 Ascospores are formed outside the ascus.
c.
 Both Basidiospores and ascospores are formed within their respective structures.
d.
 Both Basidiospores and ascospores are formed outside their respective structures.
e.
 Basidiospores are formed outside, and ascospores are formed within, their respective structures.
 89.
Which one of the following is mismatched?
a.
 Mushroom – Basidiomycetes
b.
 Sac fungi – Ascomycetes
c.
 Club fungi – Basidiomycetes
d.
 Puff balls – Basidiomycetes
e.
 Corn smut disease – Ascomycetes
 90.
Mushrooms that we eat are technically referred to as:
a.
 Basidiospores.
b.
 Basidiocarp.
c.
 Mycelium.
d.
 Hyphae.
e.
 Gills.
 91.
Color pigments produced by __________________ are used to dye woolens and litmus.
a.
 club fungi
b.
 mushroom
c.
 algae
d.
 lichens
e.
 puff balls
 92.
Reduction in ____________________ growth is used as a sensitive indicator of air pollution.
a.
 fungus
b.
 mushroom
c.
 algae
d.
 lichen
e.
 puff balls
 93.
Mycorrhiza is an example of ________________.
a.
 Commensalism
b.
 Parasitism
c.
 Mutualism
d.
 All of the above.
e.
 None of the above.
 94.
Mycorrhizae benefits plants by:
a.
 increasing photosynthetic area.
b.
 increasing absorptive surface area of roots.
c.
 increasing chlorophyll content.
d.
 increasing leaf area.
e.
 None of the above.
 95.
____________________ cause enormous economic losses by decaying wood, both living trees and stored lumber.
a.
 Sac fungi
b.
 Mushrooms
c.
 Bracket fungi
d.
 Aspergillus
e.
 Rhizopus
 96.
Consuming even a single mushroom of the genus _______________ can be fatal.
a.
 Agaricus
b.
 Shottake
c.
 Portobello
d.
 Amanita
e.
 Oyster
 97.
_________________ is a fungal chemical that shows promise as an anticancer agent.
a.
 Pencillin
b.
 Fumigallin
c.
 Ergot compounds
d.
 Psilocybin
e.
 None of the above.
 98.
Ergot compounds, produced by _____________________, are used as drugs to induce labor and to stop uterine bleeding.
a.
 Aspergillus tamari
b.
 Claviceps purpurea
c.
 Penicillium notatum
d.
 Erwinia carotovora
e.
 None of the above.

 
Check Your Work     Start Over