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Seed Plants Study Guide

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Seed Plants Quiz

 

 

Modified True/False
Indicate whether the statement is true or false.  If false, change the identified word or phrase to make the statement true.
 1.
A vascular plant’s body is formed from dermal, vascular, and ground tissue systems. _________________________
 2.
The protective layer of cork on a woody stem is a part of the ground tissue system of plants. _________________________
 3.
Root hairs are extensions of the cortex cells that cover a root. _________________________
 4.
Xylem transports water and mineral nutrients in vascular plants. _________________________
 5.
The main function of ground tissue is to conduct water, minerals, and nutrients. _________________________
 6.
Vascular tissue surrounded by ground tissue, which makes up much of the outside of a vascular plant. _________________________
 7.
The main functions of the roots of plants are anchoring the plant and absorbing water and minerals. _________________________
 8.
Herbaceous plants have non-woody stems. _________________________
 9.
Sapwood contains xylem vessels that cannot conduct water. _________________________
 10.
Xylem in heartwood cannot conduct water. _________________________
 11.
A compound leaf has two or more leaflets. _________________________
 12.
A plant embryo’s root develops above the cotyledons. _________________________
 13.
A protective sheath covers the shoot of a sprouting bean seed. _________________________
 14.
The cotyledons of beans are visible above the soil after germination. _________________________
 15.
The cotyledons of a corn seed remain below the soil surface after germination. _________________________
 16.
Plants stop developing once they have matured. _________________________
 17.
Plants add new cells to the tips of their stems and roots, causing them to grow longer. _________________________
 18.
Cell division in meristems decreases the length and width of a plant. _________________________
 19.
Secondary tissues form as a result of cell division in a plant’s apical meristems. _________________________
 20.
Nitrogen is an essential mineral nutrient needed for plant growth and development. _________________________
 21.
Since calcium is a part of cell membranes, it plays a role in the support of a plant’s body. _________________________
 22.
If a plant becomes deficient in magnesium, it will not be able to perform cellular respiration. _________________________
 23.
The availability of light and nutrients affects the rate of plant growth. _________________________
 24.
The movement of water through a plant can be explained by the pressure-flow model. _________________________
 25.
The loss of water by translocation at the leaves helps pull water into the plant at the roots. _________________________
 26.
The rate of water absorption in roots is influenced by the amount of water lost through transpiration. _________________________
 27.
Osmosis between water molecules helps to pull water through a plant’s xylem. _________________________
 28.
The guard cells swell when they take in water, which closes the stomata and allows transpiration to proceed. _________________________
 29.
The movement of sugars into phloem cells requires the process of active transport. _________________________
 30.
The distribution of sugars within a plant is referred to as transpiration. _________________________
 31.
Sugars move in only two directions within the phloem of a plant. _________________________
 32.
Roots function in the storage of excess nutrients in many plants. Therefore, roots are an example of a sink only. _________________________
 33.
In plants, organic nutrients move through the xylem from where they are made to where they are needed. _________________________
 34.
The transport of organic molecules from a leaf to the rest of the plant is called transportation. _________________________
 35.
A hormone is any chemical messenger that is produced in one location and causes a response in another location. _________________________
 36.
Auxins were the first group of plant hormones to be described. _________________________
 37.
The shoots of oat seedlings bend toward light because of auxins produced in their root tips. _________________________
 38.
Cytokinins are hormones that slow the aging of some plant organs such as cut flowers. _________________________
 39.
Seedless fruits are often produced by applying ethylene to developing fruits. _________________________
 40.
Plant shoots grow upward due to a negative gravitropism. _________________________
 41.
Tropisms are the only way that plants respond to environmental stimuli. _________________________
 42.
Tropisms are distinguished from other plant responses to stimuli in that they depend on the direction from which the stimulus comes. _________________________
 43.
The response of a plant to the direction of a touch is called a thigmotropism. _________________________
 44.
The fact that a plant blooms and sets fruit at the same time each year is explained by a heliotropism. _________________________
 45.
The response of a Venus’ flytrap to an insect is an example of a tropism. _________________________
 

Multiple Choice
Identify the choice that best completes the statement or answers the question.
 46.
Which of the following is not a tissue system of vascular plants?
a.
 vascular tissue
c.
 ground tissue
b.
 dermal tissue
d.
 cuticle tissue
 47.
cuticle : above-ground parts ::
a.
 vascular system : plant
c.
 guard cell : stoma
b.
 sperm : egg
d.
 wax : root system
 48.
The xylem in a plant
a.
 transports food from the leaves.
b.
 transports water and minerals.
c.
 exchanges carbon dioxide with the atmosphere.
d.
 exchanges sugars and starches with leaves.
 49.
The conducting cells of phloem are called
a.
 tracheids.
c.
 sieve plates.
b.
 sieve-tube members.
d.
 vessel-element cells.
The diagram below shows a portion of a plant’s vascular system.
nar001-1.jpg
 50.
Refer to the illustration above. Structure B is known as a
a.
 tracheid.
c.
 vessel element.
b.
 companion cell.
d.
 sieve-tube member.
 51.
Refer to the illustration above. Structure C is a
a.
 tracheid.
c.
 vessel cell.
b.
 companion cell.
d.
 sieve tube member.
 52.
Refer to the illustration above. Which structure allows the cytoplasm of a companion cell to connect to the cytoplasm of a sieve-tube member and allows substances to pass freely from cell to cell?
a.
 A
c.
 D
b.
 C
d.
 E
 53.
Refer to the illustration above. The structure labeled D is
a.
 a companion cell.
c.
 the nucleus of a companion cell.
b.
 an epidermal cell.
d.
 the chloroplast of an epidermal cell.
 54.
The ground tissue in the center of roots and stems
a.
 turns into meristem.
c.
 provides support.
b.
 transports food.
d.
 germinates at least once a year.
 55.
The ground tissue that is made up of chloroplast-rich cells is located in the
a.
 root.
c.
 stem.
b.
 xylem.
d.
 leaves.
 56.
vascular tissue: transport of fluids ::
a.
 epidermis : support
c.
 dermal tissue : transport of fluids
b.
 dermal tissue : storage
d.
 ground tissue : photosynthesis
 57.
The large central root of a carrot is an example of which type of root system?
a.
 adventitious
c.
 taproot
b.
 aerial
d.
 fibrous
 58.
The root cap
a.
 protects a growing root tip.
c.
 absorbs water.
b.
 stores food in the form of starch.
d.
 contains vascular tissue.
 59.
dermal tissue : root hairs ::
a.
 cellular respiration : photosynthesis
c.
 cork cells : transport of fluids
b.
 vascular tissue : vascular bundle
d.
 internodes : nodes

The diagram below shows the stem of a coleus plant.

nar002-1.jpg
 60.
Refer to the illustration above. The tissue labeled A is called
a.
 meristem.
c.
 phloem.
b.
 xylem.
d.
 ground tissue.
 61.
Refer to the illustration above. The structure labeled C is one of this herbaceous stem’s
a.
 petioles.
c.
 vascular bundles.
b.
 veins.
d.
 pith nodes.
 62.
Refer to the illustration above. The tissue labeled B, which conducts water and is made of elongated cells that connect end to end, is called
a.
 meristem.
c.
 phloem.
b.
 xylem.
d.
 ground tissue.
 63.
The outer layers of ground tissue in a stem are known as the
a.
 sapwood.
c.
 pith.
b.
 nodes.
d.
 cortex.
 64.
The bark on a woody stem is made up of
a.
 xylem and phloem.
c.
 phloem and cork.
b.
 sapwood.
d.
 mesophyll.
 65.
The vascular bundles of dicot stems are arranged
a.
 in rings surrounded by ground tissue.
b.
 scattered throughout ground tissue.
c.
 in pith scattered throughout ground tissue.
d.
 in cortex scattered throughout ground tissue.
 66.
The center region of ground tissue in a herbaceous stem is known as the
a.
 sapwood.
c.
 pith.
b.
 nodes.
d.
 cortex.
 67.
Leaves connect to the stems of plants at the
a.
 lateral buds.
c.
 nodes.
b.
 pith.
d.
 internodes.
 68.
Leaves with an undivided blade are called
a.
 tendrils.
c.
 compound.
b.
 spines.
d.
 simple.
 69.
leaves : carbon dioxide from the air ::
a.
 leaves : water from the air
c.
 roots : carbon dioxide from the air
b.
 roots : light from the air
d.
 roots : nutrients from the soil
 70.
Garden-pea tendrils are specialized leaves for
a.
 photosynthesis.
c.
 respiration.
b.
 climbing.
d.
 absorption.
 71.
The tissue of the leaf mesophyll that is located directly below the upper epidermis and consists of tightly packed column-shaped cells is the
a.
 palisade layer.
c.
 adventitious layer.
b.
 cortex.
d.
 pith.
Four Different Kinds of Leaves

nar003-1.jpg
 72.
Refer to the illustration above. Which of the leaves is a compound leaf?
a.
 leaf a
c.
 leaf c
b.
 leaf b
d.
 leaf d
 73.
Refer to the illustration above. Which of the leaves is most likely to be a leaf from a monocot?
a.
 leaf a
c.
 leaf c
b.
 leaf b
d.
 leaf d
The diagram below shows a leaf cross section.

nar004-1.jpg
 74.
Refer to the illustration above. The vein illustrated is made up of
a.
 only xylem vessels.
c.
 both xylem and phloem vessels.
b.
 only phloem vessels.
d.
 neither xylem nor phloem vessels.
 75.
Refer to the illustration above. The spongy layer is indicated by the letter
a.
 A.
c.
 C.
b.
 B.
d.
 D.
 76.
Refer to the illustration above. All of the following relate to structure A except that it
a.
 is the cuticle.
c.
 covers the epidermis.
b.
 protects the leaf.
d.
 conducts photosynthesis.
 77.
The first sign of germination is the emergence of the embryo’s
a.
 shoot.
c.
 stem.
b.
 root.
d.
 flowers.
 78.
Plants grow in regions of active cell division called
a.
 meristems.
c.
 phloem.
b.
 xylem.
d.
 dermal tissue.
 79.
Meristems are found
a.
 only at the tips of roots.
c.
 at the tips of roots and shoots.
b.
 only at the tips of shoots.
d.
 at the center of roots and shoots.
 80.
Plant development is similar to animal development because
a.
 a plant continues to develop throughout its life.
b.
 plants are more strongly influenced by the environment.
c.
 newly formed plant cells differentiate to form specialized tissues.
d.
 plant development can be reversed.
 81.
During periods of primary growth at apical meristems, stems and roots
a.
 become wider.
c.
 maintain a constant number of cells.
b.
 become longer.
d.
 undergo meiosis.
nar005-1.jpg
 82.
Refer to the illustration above. Outer bark is produced by
a.
 layer 2.
c.
 layer 5.
b.
 layer 4.
d.
 layer 7.
 83.
Refer to the illustration above. The cells that produce the secondary xylem are labeled as
a.
 layer 2.
c.
 layer 4.
b.
 layer 3.
d.
 layer 5.
 84.
Refer to the illustration above. Secondary xylem is indicated by the cells labeled as
a.
 layer 1.
c.
 layer 5.
b.
 layer 3.
d.
 layer 7.
 85.
Secondary xylem and phloem form from
a.
 cork cambium.
c.
 apical meristems.
b.
 vascular cambium.
d.
 bark.
 86.
In a woody stem, cork cambium
a.
 forms phloem.
c.
 produces the cells of the outer bark.
b.
 forms xylem.
d.
 becomes vascular cambium.
 87.
secondary growth : width ::
a.
 secondary growth : height
c.
 apical meristem : width
b.
 lateral meristem : length
d.
 primary growth : length
 88.
xylem : inner side of vascular cambium ::
a.
 vascular cambium : cork cambium
b.
 outer side of vascular cambium : cork
c.
 phloem : outer side of vascular cambium
d.
 phloem : cork cambium
 89.
Photosynthesis enables plants to produce most of the organic molecules that they need. This process requires the use of all of the following except
a.
 carbon dioxide.
c.
 light.
b.
 water.
d.
 glucose.
 90.
The movement of water through a plant is caused by
a.
 the attraction of water molecules to sugar molecules.
b.
 the force of osmosis drawing water into the roots.
c.
 transpiration from leaves and stems.
d.
 translocation of sugars in the stems.
 91.
The loss of water vapor through the leaves of a plant is called
a.
 translocation.
c.
 active transport.
b.
 osmosis.
d.
 transpiration.
 92.
The guard cells that surround a stoma
a.
 have no walls.
b.
 swell with water, causing the stoma to open.
c.
 shrink when opening the stoma.
d.
 are responsible for translocation.
 93.
The transport of food from the leaves to the rest of the plant is called
a.
 translocation.
c.
 active transport.
b.
 osmosis.
d.
 transpiration.
 94.
One model that explains the movement of sugar in a plant is known as the
a.
 transpiration model.
c.
 pressure-flow model.
b.
 translocation model.
d.
 source-sink model.

      The diagrams below illustrate an experiment that was performed to better understand how plants grow toward the light. Diagram A illustrates the cut tip of a seedling that was put on a block of agar.

nar007-1.jpg
 95.
Refer to the illustration above. The plant growth hormone that was discovered in this experiment is called
a.
 auxin.
c.
 ethylene.
b.
 gibberellin.
d.
 cytokinin.
 96.
Refer to the illustration above. A hormone caused the stem in diagram C to bend by
a.
 exerting a cohesive force on the stem.
b.
 causing cells to reproduce at a greater rate.
c.
 causing cells on one side to elongate.
d.
 translocation.
 97.
A plant hormone that is produced primarily in root tips is
a.
 auxin.
c.
 ethylene.
b.
 cytokinin.
d.
 gibberellin.
 98.
Which of the following hormones normally exists in a gaseous state?
a.
 auxin
c.
 ethylene
b.
 cytokinin
d.
 gibberellin
 99.
All of the following generally cause tropisms in plants except
a.
 light.
c.
 touch.
b.
 gravity.
d.
 heat.
 100.
When vines grow, they often wrap tendrils around objects for support. The tendrils wrap because of
a.
 thigmotropism.
c.
 phototropism.
b.
 gravitropism.
d.
 chance.
Newly Germinated Seedling
nar008-1.jpg
 101.
Refer to the illustration above. Which part of the plant indicates positive phototropism?
a.
 A
c.
 C
b.
 B
d.
 D
 102.
Refer to the illustration above. Which part of the plant indicates positive gravitropism?
a.
 A
c.
 C
b.
 B
d.
 D
 103.
shoots : negative gravitropism ::
a.
 light stimulations : gravitropism
c.
 shoots : negative phototropism
b.
 gravity movements : phototropism
d.
 roots : positive gravitropism
 104.
The response of plants to periods of light and dark is called
a.
 seasonal.
c.
 daily activity.
b.
 photoperiodism.
d.
 nocturnal variation.
 105.
Nastic movements in plants result when
a.
 some cells grow more than others.
b.
 the water content of certain cells changes.
c.
 the plant has been exposed to warm temperatures.
d.
 seasonal conditions change suddenly.
 

Completion
Complete each statement.
 106.
The ____________________ tissue forms the protective outer layer of a plant.
 107.
Dermal tissue functions in ____________________ as well as in protection and the absorption of mineral nutrients.
 108.
Vascular tissues are specialized cells that move ____________________, nutrients, and other materials through the plant body.
 109.
The tissues that transport water, minerals, and nutrients within a plant make up the ____________________ system.
 110.
Narrow, elongated, thick-walled cells that taper at each end and conduct water and mineral nutrients are called ____________________.
 111.
Certain conducting cells in the vascular system cannot perform their functions until they have lost most of their ____________________.
 112.
The ____________________ of plants absorb water and minerals necessary for growth.
 113.
The two main types of root systems are fibrous root systems and ____________________ systems.
 114.
Flexible, soft, and usually green stems are known as ____________________ stems.
 115.
The darker, non-conducting wood in the center of a tree trunk is called ____________________.
 116.
In ____________________ stems, the vascular bundles are arranged in a ring with ground tissue surrounding the ring.
 117.
The broad, flat portion of a typical leaf is called the ____________________.
 118.
In order for seeds to sprout, environmental conditions must be ____________________.
nar006-1.jpg
 119.
Refer to the diagram above. The structure labeled A in the diagram above is called the ____________________.
 120.
Refer to the diagram above. The structure labeled X is called the ____________________.
 121.
Resumption of growth by a plant embryo in a seed is called ____________________.
 122.
Seeds typically enter a period of dormancy before they ____________________.
 123.
The process by which cells become specialized in form and function is called ____________________.
 124.
Plants grow in regions of active cell division at the tips of roots and shoots called ____________________.
 125.
Growth that occurs from the formation of new cells at the tip of a plant is called ____________________.
 126.
Plant tissues that result from primary growth are called ____________________.
 127.
Cell division in the parts of plants called ____________________ add layers of new cells around the outside of a plant’s body.
 128.
Wood consists primarily of ____________________ cells.
 129.
The thickening of a plant body by the production of new xylem and phloem is called ____________________ growth.
 130.
A lateral meristem that produces secondary vascular tissue is called the ____________________.
 131.
A lateral meristem that produces the cork cells of the outer bark is called the ____________________.
 132.
The process that causes a plant to increase in width is called ____________________.
 133.
Raw materials required by plants are carbon dioxide, water, oxygen, and ____________________ nutrients.
 134.
Nitrogen is an important component of proteins, ____________________, chlorophylls, and coenzymes.
 135.
ATP contains the mineral nutrient ____________________.
 136.
As water evaporates from the surface of leaves, more water is ____________________ up the plant.
 137.
When the guard cells that surround a stoma lose water, the stoma ____________________.
 138.
Changes in ____________________ within the guard cells cause stoma to open and close.
 139.
Transpiration ____________________ when stomata close.
 140.
The transport of organic molecules from the leaves to the rest of the plant is called ____________________.
 141.
The leaves of plants are categorized as ____________________ because they are the primary photosynthetic organs.
 142.
Organic nutrients in plants move from a(n) ____________________ to a(n) ____________________.
 143.
A(n) ____________________ is a chemical produced in one part of an organism and transported to another part of the organism, where it causes a response.
 144.
____________________ is a hormone that stimulates fruits to ripen.
 145.
The bending of a plant’s stem toward light is an example of a _________________________.
 146.
A growth response of plants in which the direction of growth is determined by the direction from which a stimulus comes is called a(n) ____________________.
 147.
Because of ____________________, the seeds and buds of many plants delay growth until they have been exposed to a certain number of hours of cold temperatures.
 148.
A long-day plant will flower when ____________________ are shorter than a specific number of hours.
 149.
Nastic movements are plant responses that are ____________________ of the direction from which the stimulus comes.
 150.
The rapid folding of the leaves of a sensitive plant are the result of a(n) ____________________.

 
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Sponges & Cnidarians Study Guide

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Sponges & Cnidarians Quiz

 

 

Multiple Choice
Identify the choice that best completes the statement or answers the question.
 1.

mc001-1.jpg

Refer to the illustration above. Which organism is most closely related to a jellyfish?

a.
 1
c.
 3
b.
 2
d.
 4
 2.
Which of the following distinguishes sponges from other invertebrates?
a.
 They are not motile in any stage of their life cycle.
b.
 They obtain nutrients by diffusion rather than by ingestion.
c.
 Their cells are not organized into tissues.
d.
 They reproduce only asexually.
 3.
Sponges
a.
 are nonsymmetrical.
b.
 lack organization into tissues and organs.
c.
 possess cells that are capable of recognizing other sponge cells.
d.
 All of the above
 4.
Collar cells
a.
 are specialized for reproduction.
b.
 draw water into the body of a sponge.
c.
 produce cytochrome oxidase.
d.
 are parasitic protozoa.
 5.
Spicules are
a.
 flexible protein fibers.
b.
 hard spike-like structures in the wall of a sponge.
c.
 similar to seeds; a complete sponge can grow from each spicule.
d.
 used for taking in food and water.
 6.
Adult sponges
a.
 have body walls with many pores.
b.
 possess true tissues.
c.
 are active swimmers.
d.
 use stinging cells to capture prey.
 7.
Skeletal support in sponges may be provided by
a.
 spicules of calcium carbonate.
b.
 spicules of silicon dioxide.
c.
 fibers called spongin.
d.
 All of the above
 8.
Sponges obtain food
a.
 through photosynthesis.
b.
 by using their spicules to paralyze protozoa.
c.
 by filtering small organisms from the water.
d.
 with their spongin.
 9.
In sponges, currents that draw water through the organism are created by
a.
 amoebocytes.
c.
 gemmules.
b.
 collar cells.
d.
 spicules.
 10.
The cells that move throughout the sponge’s body wall to deliver food to the organism’s cells are called
a.
 amoebocytes.
c.
 gemmules.
b.
 choanocytes.
d.
 spicules.
 11.
Water leaves the interior of a sponge through the
a.
 food vacuoles.
c.
 body wall.
b.
 spicules.
d.
 osculum.
 12.
collar cell : water ::
a.
 amoebocyte : nutrients and wastes
b.
 spongin : food
c.
 spicule : water
d.
 osculum : mesenchyme
 13.
The gemmules of sponges
a.
 create water currents for feeding.
b.
 are equivalent to the sperm cells of higher animals.
c.
 are equivalent to the egg cells of higher animals.
d.
 are necessary for one form of asexual reproduction.
 14.
Hermaphroditic organisms
a.
 reproduce only by asexual means.
b.
 produce both eggs and sperm.
c.
 have gemmules that are fertilized by amoebocytes.
d.
 possess only male amoebocytes.
 15.
Hermaphrodism is advantageous in sponges because
a.
 they reproduce asexually.
b.
 they have gemmules.
c.
 they are sessile.
d.
 None of the above is true; hermaphrodism does not occur in sponges.
 16.
Sponges can reproduce
a.
 by the budding of new sponges from the parent.
b.
 by a breakup of the original parent into fragments that each become a new sponge.
c.
 sexually, using sperm and eggs.
d.
 All of the above
 17.
some freshwater sponges : gemmules ::
a.
 hermaphrodites : eggs and sperm
b.
 gemmules : eggs
c.
 gemmules : sperms
d.
 amoebocytes : eggs
 18.

mc018-1.jpg

Refer to the illustration above. Which organism captures its prey using nematocysts?

a.
 1
c.
 3
b.
 2
d.
 4
 19.
Many cnidarians have two distinct life stages,
a.
 the gametophyte and the sporophyte.
b.
 the polyp and the medusa.
c.
 the egg and the adult.
d.
 the egg and the larva.
 20.
Nematocysts
a.
 contain harpoonlike structures called cnidocytes.
b.
 create water currents in sponges.
c.
 can spear a cnidarian’s prey.
d.
 are found in most predatory ctenophores.
 21.
The cnidarian’s inner layer of tissue is specialized for
a.
 digestion.
c.
 capturing prey.
b.
 reproduction.
d.
 All of the above
 22.
The outer cell layer of a cnidarian is the
a.
 ectoderm.
c.
 endoderm.
b.
 mesoglea.
d.
 epidermis.
 23.
Which of the following is a characteristic associated only with cnidarians?
a.
 a digestive tract with a single opening
b.
 cnidocytes specialized for defense and capturing prey
c.
 choanocytes containing nematocysts
d.
 a parasitic life cycle
 24.
sponges : fewer than three body layers ::
a.
 ctenophores : no body symmetry
b.
 sponges : bilateral symmetry
c.
 cnidarians : nerve net
d.
 cnidarians : choanocytes
 25.
The phylum Cnidaria includes all of the following except
a.
 jellyfish.
c.
 sea anemones.
b.
 squids.
d.
 corals.
 26.
Planula larvae of scyphozoans
a.
 result from fertilization of eggs by sperm.
b.
 swim freely through the water.
c.
 settle to the ocean bottom and grow into polyps.
d.
 All of the above
 27.
The hydra is unique among the hydrozoans because it
a.
 is an active swimmer.
b.
 lives in colonies.
c.
 is strictly a marine species.
d.
 has no medusa stage.
 28.
Which of the following is not sessile as an adult?
a.
 sponge
b.
 coral
c.
 sea anemone
d.
 Portuguese man-of-war
 29.
Sea anemones are
a.
 medusae.
c.
 larvae.
b.
 polyps.
d.
 eggs.

The diagram below illustrates the life cycle of the jellyfish.

nar001-1.jpg
 30.
Refer to the illustration above. Which stage is called a planula?
a.
 1
c.
 3
b.
 2
d.
 None of the above
 31.
Refer to the illustration above. Which stage reproduces asexually?
a.
 1
c.
 3
b.
 2
d.
 None of the above
 32.
Anthozoans include
a.
 jellyfish.
b.
 hydras.
c.
 the Portuguese man-of-war.
d.
 sea anemones and corals.
 33.
Scyphozoans, such as jellyfish, spend most of their lives as
a.
 polyps.
c.
 corals.
b.
 medusae.
d.
 parasites.
 34.
The class of cnidarians that typically live only as polyps is the
a.
 Anthozoa.
c.
 Scyphozoa.
b.
 Hydrozoa.
d.
 None of the above
 35.
Which of the following is not a characteristic of ctenophores?
a.
 bioluminescence
b.
 movement by means of beating cilia
c.
 use of cnidocytes to capture prey
d.
 hermaphrodism
 

Completion
Complete each statement.
 36.
____________________ is drawn into a sponge through pores and leaves through the osculum.
 37.
A network of tough, flexible protein fibers called ____________________ provides support in some sponges.
 38.
Spike-like objects that make up the skeleton of some sponges are called ____________________.
 39.
A sponge’s ____________________ may be composed of either calcium carbonate or silicon dioxide.
 40.
Food molecules are carried throughout a sponge’s body by ____________________.
 41.
Food-filled balls of amoebocytes that are involved in asexual reproduction in sponges are called ____________________.
 42.
An organism that produces both eggs and sperm is called a(n) ____________________.
 43.
A free-floating, gelatinous body form of a cnidarian is called a(n) ____________________, while an attached body form is called a(n) ____________________.
 44.
Cnidarians have two cell layers, the epidermis and the ____________________.
 45.
A coral is a member of the class ____________________.
 46.
Ctenophores are the largest organisms that move by the beating of ____________________.

 
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PCC – Protist Study Guide

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PCC – Protist Study Guide

 

 

Multiple Choice
Identify the choice that best completes the statement or answers the question.
 1.
Most protozoa may be characterized as:
a.
 autotrophic.
b.
 heterotrophic.
c.
 photosynthetic.
d.
 chemotrophic.
e.
 anisogamous.
 2.
Most protists are:
a.
 aquatic.
b.
 parasitic.
c.
 terrestrial.
d.
 arboreal.
e.
 None of the above.
 3.
Based on the most recent data available, the protist kingdom is:
a.
 paraphyletic.
b.
 monophyletic.
c.
 composed only of unicells.
d.
 composed of both eukaryotes and prokaryotes.
e.
 entirely microscopic.
 4.
The informal group designated as the protozoa include all of the following except:
a.
 ameoeba.
b.
 ciliates.
c.
 diatoms.
d.
 foraminifera.
e.
 zooflagellates.
 5.
Members of phylum ____________ move via pseudopodia.
a.
 Rhizopoda
b.
 Zoomastigina
c.
 Ciliophora
d.
 Oomycota
e.
 Chrysophyta
 6.
Members of which phylum have formed deposits of chalk, as seen in the white cliffs of Dover?
a.
 Rhizopoda
b.
 Zoomastigina
c.
 Ciliophora
d.
 Foraminifera
e.
 Actinopoda
 7.
Pseudopodia are used by Amoeba for ingesting food as well as for:
a.
 reproduction.
b.
 excretion.
c.
 digestion.
d.
 movement.
e.
 avoiding predation.
 8.
Among the protist phyla below, which has organisms that typically move with one or more flagella?
a.
 Rhizopoda
b.
 Retortmonada
c.
 Ciliophora
d.
 Foraminifera
e.
 Actinopoda
 9.
Which phylum contains the organism Trypanosoma, which causes African sleeping sickness?
a.
 Rhizopoda
b.
 Euglenozoa
c.
 Ciliophora
d.
 Foraminifera
e.
 Actinopoda
 10.
Members of phylum Alveolata possess ____________, which are ejectile filaments used in trapping prey.
a.
 contractile vacuoles
b.
 micronuclei
c.
 macronuclei
d.
 heterocysts
e.
 trichocysts
Figure 24-01
Use the figure below to answer the corresponding questions.nar001-1.jpg
 11.
In Figure 24-01, the function of the structure labeled 4 is:
a.
 food intake.
b.
 digestion.
c.
 waste elimination.
d.
 water discharge.
e.
 asexual reproduction.
 12.
In Figure 24-01, the function of the structure labeled 6 is:
a.
 food intake.
b.
 digestion.
c.
 waste elimination.
d.
 water discharge.
e.
 asexual reproduction.
 13.
Malaria is caused by an ___________________, which is carried to a host by a ______________.
a.
 apicomplexan; fly
b.
 apicomplexan; mosquito
c.
 apicomplexan; body louse
d.
 actinopod; fly
e.
 actinopod; mosquito
 14.
Algae are not considered true plants, as they lack both a cuticle and:
a.
 multicellular bodies.
b.
 multicellular gametangia.
c.
 thalli.
d.
 frustules.
e.
 cell walls.
Figure 24-02
Use the figure below to answer the corresponding questions.nar002-1.jpg
 15.
In Figure 24-02, the process occurring in the cells labeled 2 in the sequence is:
a.
 fertilization.
b.
 syngamy.
c.
 the first meiotic division.
d.
 the second meiotic division.
e.
 mitosis.
 16.
In Figure 24-02, the process occurring in the cells labeled 6 is:
a.
 fertilization.
b.
 syngamy.
c.
 the first meiotic division.
d.
 the second meiotic division.
e.
 mitosis.
 17.
The outcome of the process illustrated Figure 24-02 is:
a.
 four new genetically identical cells that differ genetically from what they were before.
b.
 four new but genetically distinct cells.
c.
 two new genetically identical cells that differ genetically from what they were before.
d.
 two new but genetically distinct cells.
e.
 one male and one female cell.
 18.
Classification of algae into the various protist phyla is based on their photosynthetic pigments and:
a.
 cellular storage compounds.
b.
 presence of cell walls.
c.
 where they live.
d.
 the diseases they cause.
e.
 the presence of DNA or RNA.
 19.
Which phylum includes algae that are typically unicellular and form siliceous shells?
a.
 Chlorophyta
b.
 Rhodophyta
c.
 Euglenophyta
d.
 Dinoflagellata
e.
 Bacillariophyta
 20.
The commercially important unicellular protists that are used in filters, polishes, and other industrial processes are the:
a.
 dinoflagellates.
b.
 euglenoids.
c.
 apicomplexans.
d.
 zooflagellates.
e.
 diatoms.
 21.
Members of this phylum have both plant-like and animal-like characteristics, making classification difficult.
a.
 Chlorophyta
b.
 Rhodophyta
c.
 Euglenophyta
d.
 Oomycota
e.
 Bacillariophyta
 22.
These algae are often used as indicators of organic pollution such as sewage in a lake or stream.
a.
 Chlorophyta
b.
 Rhodophyta
c.
 Euglenophyta
d.
 Dinoflagellata
e.
 Bacillariophyta
 23.
These algae often have intracellular shells of interlocking plates.
a.
 Chlorophyta
b.
 Rhodophyta
c.
 Euglenophyta
d.
 Dinoflagellata
e.
 Bacillariophyta
 24.
Members of which phylum are one of the most important producers in marine ecosystems, although sometimes they form blooms known as red tides?
a.
 Chlorophyta
b.
 Rhodophyta
c.
 Euglenophyta
d.
 Dinoflagellata
e.
 Phaeophyta
 25.
Toxins produced by red tides are known to have impacted all of the following except:
a.
 birds.
b.
 fishes.
c.
 humans.
d.
 manatees.
e.
 None of the above, all are impacted by red tides.
 26.
Brown algae lack true roots but have similar structures called ____________ that anchor them to the substrate.
a.
 stipes
b.
 fronds
c.
 holdfasts
d.
 blades
e.
 thalli
 27.
All of the following statements about the phylum Phaeophyta are true except:
a.
 this group includes the most complex algae that have blades, stipes, and holdfasts.
b.
 they share a common ancestor with representatives of the plant kingdom.
c.
 they represent the largest members of the kingdom Protista.
d.
 they are harvested for algin, which is used in a variety of commercial products.
e.
 they are ecologically important as producers and in providing habitats along rocky coastlines.
 28.
Of the following algae, which phylum exhibits the most diverse morphology, forming unicells, filaments, and sheets?
a.
 Chlorophyta
b.
 Phaeophyta
c.
 Euglenophyta
d.
 Dinoflagellata
e.
 Bacillariophyta
 29.
Members of the phylum ___________________ are thought to have given rise to plants.
a.
 Chlorophyta
b.
 Rhodophyta
c.
 Euglenophyta
d.
 Dinoflagellata
e.
 Bacillariophyta
 30.
Green algae exhibit alternation of generations and varied sexual reproduction. When their sexual reproduction involves the fusion of flagellated gametes of different sizes, it is known as:
a.
 oogamy.
b.
 anisogamy.
c.
 isogamy.
d.
 heterogamy.
e.
 fission.
Figure 24-03
Use the figure below to answer the corresponding questions.nar003-1.jpg
 31.
In Figure 24-03, the Chlamydomonas at point 4 in the life cycle:
a.
 are haploid gametes.
b.
 were produced by mitosis.
c.
 are negative (-) strain.
d.
 are part of the haploid generation.
e.
 All of the above.
 32.
In Figure 24-03, the structure at point 6 in the life cycle:
a.
 is a zoospore.
b.
 was produced by mitosis.
c.
 was produced by meiosis.
d.
 is diploid.
e.
 None of the above.
 33.
In Figure 24-03, the process occurring at point 1 in the life cycle is:
a.
 fertilization.
b.
 sexual reproduction.
c.
 meiosis.
d.
 asexual reproduction.
e.
 syngamy.
 34.
Some green algae, such as Codium, attain very large sizes, but are a single cell with multiple nuclei. This condition is known as:
a.
 mycelium.
b.
 alternation of generations.
c.
 multicellular.
d.
 coenocytic.
e.
 colonial.
 35.
Which of the following protist phyla does not have flagellated cells?
a.
 Oomycota
b.
 Phaeophyta
c.
 Euglenophyta
d.
 Rhodophyta
e.
 Chrysophyta
 36.
Members of this phylum are typically multicellular and have phycoerythrin and phycocyanin as their accessory photosynthetic pigments.
a.
 Rhodophyta
b.
 Phaeophyta
c.
 Dinoflagellata
d.
 Euglenophyta
e.
 Chlorophyta
 37.
Which group of algae are a commercial source of agar and carrageenan?
a.
 Rhodophyta
b.
 Phaeophyta
c.
 Dinoflagellata
d.
 Euglenophyta
e.
 Chlorophyta
 38.
Coralline forms of members of this phylum are ecologically important in the formation of coral reefs.
a.
 Rhodophyta
b.
 Phaeophyta
c.
 Dinoflagellata
d.
 Euglenophyta
e.
 Chlorophyta
 39.
Fungus-like protists aren’t fungi, because the protists have ____________ in their cell walls and possess ____________, wheras fungi do not.
a.
 cellulose; flagella
b.
 chitin; centrioles
c.
 chitin; flagella
d.
 cellulose; centrioles
e.
 chitin; cilia
 40.
Members of this phylum are characterized by a multinucleate amoeboid-like feeding form called a plasmodium.
a.
 Myxomycota
b.
 Oomycota
c.
 Rhodomycota
d.
 Phaeophyta
e.
 Acrasiomycota
 41.
A water mold, from phylum ________________, was responsible for the late blight of potatoes that caused the Irish potato famine.
a.
 Myxomycota
b.
 Oomycota
c.
 Rhodomycota
d.
 Phaeophyta
e.
 Acrasiomycota
 42.
The ____________ are zooflagellates that are very primitive and may give biologists clues as to the evolutionary relationships between the prokaryotes and the protists.
a.
 cryptomonads
b.
 chrysophytes
c.
 diplomonads
d.
 water molds
e.
 slime molds
 43.
Protists may move by pushing out their cytoplasmic extensions, known as:
a.
 plasmadesmata.
b.
 pseudopods.
c.
 flagella.
d.
 cilia.
e.
 etrichomes.
 44.
Symbiotic association in which one partner benefits and the other is unaffected is called:
a.
 symbiosis.
b.
 mutualism.
c.
 commensalism.
d.
 parasitism.
e.
 None of the above.
 45.
Symbiotic association in which one partner lives on or in another is called:
a.
 symbiosis.
b.
 mutualism.
c.
 commensalisms.
d.
 parasitism.
e.
 None of the above.
 46.
The base of the food web in aquatic ecosystem is:
a.
 Algae.
b.
 Euglena.
c.
 Plankton.
d.
 plants.
e.
 fish.
 47.
First eukaryotic cells to evolve from ancestral prokaryotes were:
a.
 Fungi.
b.
 Protists.
c.
 Endosymbionts.
d.
 Plants.
e.
 None of the above.
 48.
Mitochondria and chloroplasts in eukaryotic cells probably originated from:
a.
 Fungi.
b.
 Protists.
c.
 Endosymbionts.
d.
 Plants.
e.
 None of the above.
 49.
Ancestors of ____________________ represent an intermediate stage in eukaryotic evolution when cells each had two haploid nuclei but fusion had not occurred.
a.
 plasmodium
b.
 Amoeba
c.
 Euglena
d.
 Giardia
e.
 Paramecium
 50.
Backpackers’ diarrhea, a common infection among campers and hikers, particularly in the mountains of the western United States, is caused by _________________.
a.
 plasmodium
b.
 Amoeba
c.
 Euglena
d.
 Trypanosomas
e.
 Giardia
 51.
Euglenoids reproduce:
a.
 asexually.
b.
 sexually.
c.
 both asexually and sexually.
d.
 do not reproduce.
e.
 by mating.
 52.
Researchers use ______________________ protists as indicator species of organic pollution.
a.
 plasmodium
b.
 Amoeba
c.
 Euglenoids
d.
 Giardia
e.
 Paramecium
 53.
Trypanosomes reproduce:
a.
 asexually.
b.
 sexually.
c.
 both asexually and sexually.
d.
 do not reproduce.
e.
 by mating.
 54.
In paramecium, the surface of the cell is covered with thousands of short, hairlike ___________.
a.
 plasmadesmata
b.
 pseudopods
c.
 flagella
d.
 cilia
e.
 trichomes
 55.
In freshwater ciliates, special organelles called ______________________________ control water regulation.
a.
 flagella
b.
 contractile vacuole
c.
 Food vacuole
d.
 Lysosome
e.
 peroxisome
 56.
In ciliates macronuclei controls ____________________________.
a.
 reproduction
b.
 growth
c.
 metabolism
d.
 movement
e.
 Both B and C.
 57.
The symbiotic dinoflagellates, which live in the bodies of marine invertebrates such as mollusks, jellyfish, and corals, are called __________________________.
a.
 Zooxanthellae
b.
 apicomplexans
c.
 sporozites
d.
 ciliates
e.
 None of the above.
 58.
Dinoflagellates that contribute substantially to the productivity of coral reefs are ____________.
a.
 Zooxanthellae
b.
 apicomplexans
c.
 sporozites
d.
 ciliates
e.
 None of the above.
 59.
Water molds are members of the kingdom___________________.
a.
 Protists
b.
 Fungi
c.
 Plantae
d.
 Eubacteria
e.
 Animalia
 60.
Sudden death of oak is caused by a (an):
a.
 Protist.
b.
 Fungi.
c.
 archaebacteria.
d.
 Eubacteria.
e.
 animal parasite.
 61.
Protists are alike in that all are
a.
 multicellular.
b.
 photosynthetic.
c.
 marine.
d.
 nonparasitic.
e.
 eukaryotic.
 62.
All of the following groups had taxonomic significance in the past, but only one is now considered to be a diverse clade. Which group is it?
a.
 algae
b.
 protist
c.
 protozoa
d.
 monera
e.
 euglenozoa
 63.

Which of the following statements concerning living phytoplanktonic organisms are true?

1. They are important members of communities surrounding deep-sea hydrothermal vents.
2. They are important primary producers in most aquatic food webs.
3. They are important in maintaining oxygen in Earth’s seas and atmosphere.
4. They are most often found growing in the sediments of seas and oceans.
5. They can be so concentrated that they affect the color of seawater.
a.
 1 and 4
b.
 1, 2, and 4
c.
 2, 3, and 4
d.
 2, 3, and 5
e.
 3, 4, and 5
 64.
Biologists have discovered the kingdom Protista to be paraphyletic. Which of the following statements is true, and consistent with this conclusion?
a.
 Various combinations of prokaryotic ancestors gave rise to different lineages of protists.
b.
 Animals, plants, and fungi arose from different protistan ancestors.
c.
 Multicellularity has evolved only once among the protists.
d.
 Chloroplasts among various protists are similar to those found in prokaryotes.
e.
 The protists arose from a common ancestor that was a parabasalid.
 65.
The strongest evidence for the endosymbiotic origin of eukaryotic organelles is the similarity between extant prokaryotes and which of the following?
a.
 nuclei and chloroplasts
b.
 mitochondria and chloroplasts
c.
 cilia and mitochondria
d.
 mitochondria and nuclei
e.
 mitochondria and cilia
 66.
According to the endosymbiotic theory of the origin of eukaryotic cells, how did mitochondria originate?
a.
 from infoldings of the plasma membrane, coupled with mutations of genes for oxygen-using metabolism
b.
 from engulfed, originally free-living prokaryotes
c.
 by tertiary endosymbiosis
d.
 from the nuclear envelope folding outward and forming mitochondrial membranes
e.
 when a protoeukaryote engaged in a symbiotic relationship with a protobiont
 67.
Which of the following statements is consistent with the hypothesis that certain eukaryotic organelles originated as prokaryotic endosymbionts? Such organelles
a.
 are roughly the same size as bacteria.
b.
 can be cultured on agar since they make all their own proteins.
c.
 contain circular DNA molecules.
d.
 have ribosomes that are similar to those of bacteria.
e.
 A, C, and D
 68.
Which process allows nucleomorphs to be first reduced, and then lost altogether, without the loss of any genetic information from the host cell that ultimately surrounds the nucleomorph?
a.
 conjugation
b.
 horizontal gene transfer
c.
 binary fission
d.
 phagocytosis
e.
 meiosis
 69.
Which organisms represent the common ancestor of all photosynthetic plastids found in eukaryotes?
a.
 autotrophic euglenids
b.
 diatoms
c.
 dinoflagellates
d.
 red algae
e.
 cyanobacteria
 70.
The chloroplasts of modern plants are thought to have been derived according to which sequence?
a.
 cyanobacteria green algae green plants
b.
 cyanobacteria green algae fungi green plants
c.
 red algae brown algae green algae green plants
d.
 red algae cyanobacteria green plants
e.
 cyanobacteria red algae green algae green plants
 71.
The evolution of eukaryotes from prokaryotes probably
a.
 occurred many times.
b.
 involved endosymbiosis on multiple occasions.
c.
 allowed for the formation of both complexity and multicellularity.
d.
 B and C only
e.
 A, B, and C
 72.
The goal in classifying organisms should be to create categories that reflect the evolutionary histories of organisms. What system would be best to use?
a.
 a three-kingdom classification system
b.
 a five-kingdom classification system
c.
 an eight-kingdom classification system
d.
 a system that uses as many kingdoms as necessary to be accurate
e.
 a system that returns to that used by Linnaeus
 73.
The current state of the revision of “protistan” taxonomy is an example of which feature of good scientific practice?
a.
 the need to suspend judgment until enough evidence is available to make an informed decision
b.
 the need to base hypothetical phylogenies solely on fossil evidence
c.
 the need to be willing to change or drop one’s hypotheses when the data warrant it
d.
 the need to avoid sampling techniques that can introduce bias
e.
 both A and C
 74.
A mixotroph loses its plastids yet continues to survive. Which of the following most likely accounts for its continued survival?
a.
 It relies on photosystems that float freely in its cytosol.
b.
 It must have gained extra mitochondria when it lost its plastids.
c.
 It engulfs organic material by phagocytosis.
d.
 It has an endospore.
e.
 It is protected by a siliceous case.

For the following questions, refer to the figure below, which represents a hypothetical eukaryotic cell that is the result of serial endosymbioses involving its mitochondria, one of which is pictured. Labeled arrows (A-E) indicate various membranes in this cell. Responses may be used once, more than once, or not at all.

nar004-1.jpg
 75.
This membrane is homologous to the plasma membrane of the ancestral, gram-negative, aerobically respiring bacterium.
a.
 A
b.
 B
c.
 C
d.
 D
e.
 E
 76.
This membrane is homologous to an ancestral host plasma membrane and was derived from the primary (first) endosymbiotic event.
a.
 A
b.
 B
c.
 C
d.
 D
e.
 E
 77.
Which one of the mitochondrial membranes should bear the strongest similarity to the outer membrane of the cell wall of the ancestral, gram-negative, aerobically respiring bacterium?
a.
 A
b.
 B
c.
 C
d.
 D
e.
 E
 78.
If the genes for ATP synthase underwent horizontal gene transfer and are no longer within the mitochondrion, then which membrane most immediately surrounds the genes for ATP synthase?
a.
 A
b.
 B
c.
 C
d.
 D
e.
 E
 79.
A biologist discovers a new unicellullar organism that possesses more than two flagella and two small, but equal-sized, nuclei. The organism has reduced mitochondria and no chloroplasts. How would you classify this organism?
a.
 apicomplexan
b.
 diplomonad
c.
 ciliate
d.
 prokaryote
e.
 Chlamydomonas
 80.
Assuming that all of the flagella found among the various types of protists require the same amount of ATP per unit time to operate, and assuming that all of an individual protist’s flagella are in use simultaneously, then which of these protists should use the greatest amount of ATP per unit time to move about?
a.
 Chlamydomonas
b.
 dinoflagellates
c.
 euglenids
d.
 diplomonads
e.
 golden algae
 81.
Which of the following groups does not include many planktonic species?
a.
 kinetoplastids.
b.
 golden algae.
c.
 diatoms.
d.
 dinoflagellates.
e.
 radiolarians.
 82.
Organisms classified as Euglenozoa have previously been classified as protozoans, protista, plants, and animals. Why the confusion?
a.
 Like protozoans, they are unicellular.
b.
 Like animals, many are heterotrophic.
c.
 Like plants, many are photosynthetic.
d.
 A and B only
e.
 A, B, and C
 83.
When a protist possesses two flagella, both are generally used for propulsion. Assuming that a flagellum containing a crystalline rod cannot undulate back and forth, and assuming that two undulatory flagella can produce more effective locomotion than can a single flagellum, which of these organisms should have the least effective locomotion?
a.
 golden algae
b.
 dinoflagellates
c.
 euglenids
d.
 Chlamydomonas
e.
 oomycetes
 84.

Which two genera have members that can evade the human immune system by frequently changing their surface proteins?

1. Plasmodium
2. Trichomonas
3. Paramecium
4. Trypanosoma
5. Entamoeba
a.
 1 and 2
b.
 1 and 4
c.
 2 and 3
d.
 2 and 4
e.
 4 and 5
 85.
Which of the following marine organisms produce potent neurotoxins that cause extensive fish kills, contaminate shellfish, and create severe respiratory irritation to humans along the shore?
a.
 red algae
b.
 dinoflagellates
c.
 diplomonads
d.
 euglenids
e.
 golden algae
 86.
Which structure(s) consist(s), at least in part, of DNA?
a.
 Trypanosoma kinetoplast
b.
 diplomonad mitochondrion
c.
 chlorarachniophytes nucleomorph
d.
 A and C only
e.
 A, B, and C
 87.
Which of the following is mismatched?
a.
 apicomplexa-internal parasites
b.
 golden algae;-planktonic producers
c.
 euglenozoa-unicellular flagellates
d.
 ciliates-red tide organisms
e.
 entamoeba-ingestive heterotrophs
 88.
Which of the following statements about dinoflagellates is false?
a.
 They possess two flagella.
b.
 Some cause red tides.
c.
 their walls are composed of cellulose plates.
d.
 Many types contain chlorophyll.
e.
 Their fossil remains form limestone deposits.
 89.
Which group(s) within the Alveolata include(s) members that are important in ocean food webs, cause(s) red tides that kill many fish, and may even be carnivorous?
a.
 ciliates
b.
 apicomplexans
c.
 dinoflagellates
d.
 A and B only
e.
 A, B, and C
 90.
Which of the following correctly pairs a protist with one of its characteristics?
a.
 kinetoplastids;-slender pseudopodia
b.
 plasmodial slime molds-flagellated stages
c.
 apicomplexans-parasitic
d.
 gymnamoebas-calcium carbonate shell
e.
 foraminiferans-abundant in soils
 91.
Which of the following statements concerning protists is false?
a.
 All protists are eukaryotic organisms; many are unicellular or colonial.
b.
 The organism that causes malaria is transmitted to humans by the bite of the tsetse fly.
c.
 All apicomplexans are parasitic.
d.
 Cellular slime molds have an amoeboid stage that may be followed by a stage during which spores are produced.
e.
 The euglenozoans that are functionally mixotrophic contain chloroplasts.
 92.
You are given an unknown organism to identify. It is unicellular and heterotrophic. It is motile, using many short extensions of the cytoplasm, each featuring the 9+2 pattern. It has well-developed organelles and three nuclei, one large and two small. This organism is most likely to be a member of which group?
a.
 foraminiferans
b.
 radiolarians
c.
 ciliates
d.
 kinetoplastids
e.
 slime molds
 93.
Which of the following is not characteristic of ciliates?
a.
 They use cilia as locomotory or feeding structures.
b.
 They are relatively complex cells.
c.
 They can exchange genetic material with other ciliates by the process of mitosis.
d.
 Most live as solitary cells in fresh water.
e.
 They have two or more nuclei.
 94.
If one speculates that it requires ten times as many ATP molecules to power a typical flagellum as to power a typical cilium for a given unit of time, and if one assumes that locomotion is the largest energy drain for protists, then which protist should have the largest number of ATP synthases per cell?
a.
 Euglena
b.
 Chlamydomonas
c.
 Giardia
d.
 Plasmodium
e.
 Paramecium
 95.
Which process results in genetic recombination, but is separate from the process wherein the population size of paramecium increases?
a.
 budding
b.
 meiotic division
c.
 mitotic division
d.
 conjugation
e.
 binary fission
 96.
Which statement regarding resistance is false?
a.
 Many of the oomycetes that cause late potato blight have become resistant to pesticides.
b.
 Many of the mosquitoes that transmit malaria to humans have become resistant to pesticides.
c.
 Many of the malarial parasites have become resistant to antimalarial drugs.
d.
 Many humans have become resistant to antimalarial drugs.
e.
 Trichomonas vaginalis is resistant to the normal acidity of the human vagina.
 97.
Why is the filamentous morphology of the water molds considered a case of convergent evolution with the hyphae of fungi?
a.
 Fungi are closely related to the water molds.
b.
 Body shape reflects ancestor-descendant relationships among organisms.
c.
 Filamentous shape is an adaptation for a nutritional mode as a decomposer.
d.
 Hyphae and filaments are necessary for locomotion in both groups.
e.
 Filamentous body shape is evolutionarily primitive for all eukaryotes.
 98.
The Irish potato famine was caused by an organism that belongs to which group?
a.
 bacterium
b.
 stramenopile
c.
 foraminiferan
d.
 apicomplexan
e.
 virus
 99.
If one were to apply the most recent technique used to fight late potato blight to the fight against the malarial infection of humans, then one would
a.
 increase the dosage of the least-expensive antimalarial drug administered to humans.
b.
 increase the dosage of the most common pesticide used to kill Anopheles mosquitoes.
c.
 introduce a predator of the malarial parasite into infected humans.
d.
 use a “cocktail” of at least three different pesticides against Anopheles mosquitoes.
e.
 insert genes from a Plasmodium-resistant strain of mosquito into Anopheles mosquitoes.
 100.
Which of the following is correctly described as a primary producer?
a.
 oomycete
b.
 kinetoplastid
c.
 apicomplexan
d.
 diatom
e.
 radiolarian
 101.
A certain unicellular eukaryote has a siliceous (glasslike) shell and autotrophic nutrition. To which group does it belong?
a.
 dinoflagellate
b.
 diatom
c.
 gymnamoeba
d.
 foraminiferan
e.
 slime mold
 102.
Diatoms are members of the phytoplankton. Diatoms lack any organelles that might have the “9+2 pattern.” They obtain their nutrition from functional chloroplasts, and each diatom is encased within two porous, glasslike valves. Which question would be most important for one interested in the day-to-day survival of individual diatoms?
a.
 How does carbon dioxide get into these protists?
b.
 How do diatoms move across the surfaces of bodies of water?
c.
 How do diatoms keep from sinking into poorly lit waters?
d.
 How do diatoms avoid being crushed by the action of waves?
e.
 How do diatom sperm cells locate diatom egg cells?
 103.
Concerning diatoms’ potential use as drug-delivery systems, which anatomical feature would seem to be most important?
a.
 their ability to withstand immense pressure
b.
 the chemical composition of their cell walls
c.
 the porous nature of their cell walls
d.
 the chemical composition of their food-storage material
e.
 the nuclear envelope
 104.
The largest seaweeds belong to which group?
a.
 cyanobacteria
b.
 red algae
c.
 green algae
d.
 brown algae
e.
 golden algae
 105.
A large seaweed that floats freely on the surface of deep bodies of water would be expected to lack which of the following?
a.
 thalli
b.
 bladders
c.
 blades
d.
 holdfasts
e.
 gel-forming polysaccharides
 106.
The following are all characteristic of the water molds (Oomycota) except
a.
 the presence of filamentous feeding structures.
b.
 flagellated zoospores.
c.
 a nutritional mode that can result in the decomposition of dead organic matter.
d.
 a similarity to fungi that is the result of evolutionary convergence.
e.
 a feeding plasmodium.
 107.

Theoretically, which two of the following present the richest potential sources of silica?

1. marine sediments consisting of foram tests
2. diatomaceous earth
3. marine sediments consisting of radiolarian tests
4. marine sediments consisting of dinoflagellate plates
a.
 1 and 2
b.
 1 and 4
c.
 2 and 3
d.
 2 and 4
e.
 3 and 4
 108.
Thread-like pseudopods that can perform phagocytosis are generally characteristic of which group?
a.
 cercozoans
b.
 gymnamoebas
c.
 entamoebas
d.
 amoeboid stage of cellular slime molds
e.
 oomycetes
 109.

Which two heterotrophic organisms most commonly derive nutrition from endosymbiotic relationships with photosynthetic protists?

1. ciliates
2. slime molds
3. parabasalids
4. reef-building coral animals
5. foraminiferans
a.
 1 and 2
b.
 2 and 3
c.
 2 and 4
d.
 3 and 4
e.
 4 and 5
 110.
Which of the following produce the dense glassy ooze of the deep-ocean floor?
a.
 forams
b.
 dinoflagellates
c.
 radiolarians
d.
 ciliates
e.
 apicomplexans
 111.
A snail-like, coiled, porous shell of calcium carbonate is characteristic of which group?
a.
 diatoms
b.
 foraminiferans
c.
 radiolarians
d.
 gymnamoebas
e.
 ciliates
 112.
What provides the best rationale for not classifying the slime molds as fungi? Their
a.
 SSU-rRNA sequences.
b.
 nutritional modes.
c.
 choice of habitats.
d.
 physical appearance.
e.
 reproductive methods.
 113.
Which dichotomous pair of alternatives is highlighted by the life cycle of the cellular slime molds?
a.
 prokaryotic versus eukaryotic
b.
 plant versus animal
c.
 unicellular versus multicellular
d.
 diploid versus haploid
e.
 autotroph versus heterotroph
 114.
What makes certain red algae appear red?
a.
 They live in warm coastal waters.
b.
 They possess pigments that reflect and transmit red light.
c.
 They use red light for photosynthesis.
d.
 They lack chlorophyll.
e.
 They contain the water-soluble pigment anthocyanin.
 115.
The structure and biochemistry of chloroplasts in red algae are most like the structure and biochemistry of chloroplasts in which of the following organisms?
a.
 golden algae
b.
 diatoms
c.
 dinoflagellates
d.
 green algae
e.
 brown algae
 116.
A biologist discovers an alga that is marine, multicellular, and lives at a depth reached only by blue light. This alga probably belongs to which group?
a.
 red algae
b.
 brown algae
c.
 green algae
d.
 dinoflagellates
e.
 golden algae
 117.
If blue light is the component of the visible spectrum that can penetrate to the greatest depth in water, then what should be expected of photosynthetic protists that survive at great depths?
a.
 They should absorb green light preferentially.
b.
 They should absorb blue light preferentially.
c.
 They should absorb red light preferentially.
d.
 They should absorb white light preferentially.
e.
 They should reflect green light preferentially.
 118.
Members of the green algae often differ from members of the plant kingdom in that some green algae
a.
 are heterotrophs.
b.
 are unicellular.
c.
 have chlorophyll a.
d.
 store carbohydrates as starch.
e.
 have cell walls containing cellulose.
 119.
Which taxonomic group containing eukaryotic organisms is thought to be directly ancestral to the plant kingdom?
a.
 golden algae
b.
 radiolarians
c.
 foraminiferans
d.
 apicomplexans
e.
 green algae
 120.
Which of the following are actual mutualistic partnerships that involve a protist and a host organism?
a.
 green alga : fungal partner of lichen
b.
 dinoflagellate : reef-building coral animal
c.
 Trichomonas : human
d.
 alga : certain foraminiferans
e.
 A, B, and D

Choose the organism from the list below that best fits each of the following descriptions.

A. euglenozoans
B. Chlamydomonas
C. dinoflagellates
D. stramenopiles
E. diplomonads
 121.
possess more than two identical, functional flagella
a.
 A
b.
 B
c.
 C
d.
 D
e.
 E
 122.
have one normal and one crystalline-rod-containing flagellum
a.
 A
b.
 B
c.
 C
d.
 D
e.
 E
 123.
have one flagellum oriented at 90 degrees to the second flagellum
a.
 A
b.
 B
c.
 C
d.
 D
e.
 E
 124.
have one hairy and one smooth flagellum
a.
 A
b.
 B
c.
 C
d.
 D
e.
 E
 125.
have two identical, functional flagella, roughly parallel to each other and emerging from about the same site
a.
 A
b.
 B
c.
 C
d.
 D
e.
 E

Choose the nutritional mode that is primarily employed by each of the protists listed below.

A. autotrophic
B. mixotrophic
C. heterotrophic (by absorption)
D. heterotrophic (by ingestion)
 126.
diatoms
a.
 A
b.
 B
c.
 C
d.
 D
e.
 E
 127.
oomycetes
a.
 A
b.
 B
c.
 C
d.
 D
e.
 E
 128.
phagocytic euglenids that possess functional chloroplasts
a.
 A
b.
 B
c.
 C
d.
 D
e.
 E
 129.
amoebozoans that do not possess endosymbionts
a.
 A
b.
 B
c.
 C
d.
 D
e.
 E

You are given five test tubes, each containing an unknown protist, and your task is to read the description below and match these five protists to the correct test tube.

A. Paramecium
B. Navicula (diatom)
C. Pfiesteria (dinoflagellate)
D. Entamoeba
E. Plasmodium


In test tube 1, you observe an organism feeding. Your sketch of the organism looks very similar to the figure below. When light, especially red and blue light, is shone on the tubes, oxygen bubbles accumulate on the inside of test tubes 2 and 3. Chemical analysis of test tube 3 indicates the presence of substantial amounts of silica. Chemical analysis of test tube 2 indicates the presence of a chemical that is toxic to fish and humans. Microscopic analysis of organisms in tubes 2, 4, and 5 reveals the presence of permanent, membrane-bounded sacs just under the plasma membrane. Microscopic analysis of organisms in tube 4 reveals the presence of an apicoplast in each. Microscopic analysis of the contents in tube 5 reveals the presence of one large nucleus and several small nuclei in each organism.

nar007-1.jpg
 130.
Test tube 2 contains
a.
 A
b.
 B
c.
 C
d.
 D
e.
 E
 131.
Test tube 4 contains
a.
 A
b.
 B
c.
 C
d.
 D
e.
 E
 132.
Test tube 5 contains
a.
 A
b.
 B
c.
 C
d.
 D
e.
 E
 133.
Test tube 3 contains
a.
 A
b.
 B
c.
 C
d.
 D
e.
 E
 134.
Test tube 1 contains
a.
 A
b.
 B
c.
 C
d.
 D
e.
 E

 
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True/False
Indicate whether the statement is true or false. Write  + for true and  0 for false.
 1.
Atoms have a positive charge.
 2.
An element is made up of more than one kind of atom.
 3.
Hydrogen and oxygen atoms have an equal number of electrons.
 4.
A molecule is an atom that has gained or lost an electron.
 5.
An atom that gains or loses one or more electrons is called an ion.
 6.
An atom with more electrons than protons has a positive charge.
 7.
Ionic bonds form between two negatively charged particles.
 8.
A covalent bond forms between two atoms that share electrons to form a molecule.
 9.
Adhesion is an attraction between different substances.
 10.
The ability of water to retain heat helps cells maintain homeostasis.
 11.
Nonpolar molecules dissolve well in water.
 12.
Water molecules attract nonpolar molecules such as oil.
 13.
Organic compounds contain carbon atoms that are covalently bonded to other elements—typically hydrogen, oxygen, and other carbon atoms.
 14.
A nucleotide has four parts.
 15.
RNA is made up of a double strand of nucleotides.
 16.
DNA stores hereditary information that can be used to make proteins.
 17.
When cells break down food, the energy from the food is temporarily stored as ATP.
 18.
The amount of energy needed to cause a chemical reaction to start is called activation energy.
 19.
Without enzymes, chemical reactions necessary for life would not occur at a rate sufficient to sustain life.
 20.
Enzymes speed up a chemical reaction by increasing the activation energy of the reaction.
 21.
When an enzyme binds with its substrate, the activation energy needed for the chemical reaction to occur is increased.
 22.
Chemical reactions that occur in cells are called biochemical reactions.
 

Multiple Choice
Identify the choice that best completes the statement or answers the question.
 23.
Atoms are composed of
a.
 protons.
c.
 electrons.
b.
 neutrons.
d.
 All of the above
 24.
The electrons of an atom
a.
 are found in the nucleus along with the protons.
b.
 occupy the space surrounding the nucleus.
c.
 have a positive charge.
d.
 are attached to the positive charge of neutrons.
 25.
The smallest particle of matter that can retain the chemical properties of carbon is a(n)
a.
 carbon molecule.
c.
 carbon atom.
b.
 carbon macromolecule.
d.
 element.
 26.
A substance that is composed of only one type of atom is called a(n)
a.
 nucleus.
c.
 element.
b.
 cell.
d.
 molecule.
 27.
All matter is composed of
a.
 cells.
c.
 atoms.
b.
 molecules.
d.
 carbon.
 28.
A molecule that has a partial positive charge on one side and a partial negative charge on the other side is called a
a.
 nonpolar molecule.
c.
 charged molecule.
b.
 polar molecule.
d.
 bipolar molecule.
 29.
A chemical formula shows the
a.
 kinds of bonds found in the molecule.
b.
 kinds of bonds found in the compound.
c.
 kinds of elements found in the compound.
d.
 arrangement of the elements found in the compound.
 30.
Ionic bonds form between molecules that have
a.
 opposite charges.
c.
 no charges.
b.
 the same charge.
d.
 neutral charges.
 31.
The bond formed when two atoms share a pair of electrons is called a(n)
a.
 hydrogen bond.
c.
 covalent bond.
b.
 ionic bond.
d.
 water bond.
 32.
Sharing of electrons in the outer energy levels of two atoms
a.
 results in ion formation.
b.
 occurs in covalent bonds.
c.
 only occurs if both are atoms of the same element.
d.
 is found only among carbon atoms.
 33.
Water is important to life because it
a.
 surrounds all cells.
b.
 is found inside cells.
c.
 influences the shape of the cell membrane.
d.
 All of the above
 34.
Nonpolar molecules have
a.
 no negative or positive poles.
c.
 only a negative pole.
b.
 both negative and positive poles.
d.
 only a positive pole.
 35.
When placed in the same container, oil and water do not mix because
a.
 they are both polar.
c.
 they are both nonpolar.
b.
 water is polar and oil is nonpolar.
d.
 water is nonpolar and oil is polar.
 36.
Due to the polarity of water, compounds that dissolve best in water contain
a.
 nonpolar bonds.
c.
 polar bonds.
b.
 ionic bonds.
d.
 Both (b) and (c)
 37.
Water is a polar molecule because
a.
 it contains two hydrogen atoms for each oxygen atom.
b.
 it has a charge.
c.
 different parts of the molecule have slightly different charges.
d.
 it does not have a charge.
 38.
Acidic solutions have a pH that is
a.
 less than 7.
c.
 a negative number.
b.
 between 7 and 14.
d.
 more than 7.
 39.
Hydrogen ions, H+, react with hydroxide ions, OH-, to form
a.
 water.
c.
 a base.
b.
 an acid.
d.
 None of the above
 40.
Which of the following is not an organic macromolecule?
a.
 carbohydrate
c.
 lipid
b.
 ice
d.
 nucleic acid
 41.
All organic compounds contain the element
a.
 carbon.
c.
 calcium.
b.
 nitrogen.
d.
 sodium.
 42.
Which of the following organic molecules are classified as carbohydrates?
a.
 amino acids
c.
 nucleotides
b.
 fatty acids
d.
 sugars
 43.
Polysaccharides are
a.
 carbohydrates.
c.
 proteins.
b.
 lipids.
d.
 unsaturated fats.
 44.
Lipids are
a.
 polar molecules.
c.
 water soluble.
b.
 similar to water molecules.
d.
 nonpolar molecules.
 45.
Which of the following organic molecules are most closely related to proteins?
a.
 amino acids
c.
 nucleotides
b.
 fatty acids
d.
 sugars
 46.
Long chains of amino acids are found in
a.
 carbohydrates.
c.
 proteins.
b.
 lipids.
d.
 sugars.
 47.
All of the following are examples of lipids except
a.
 saturated fats.
c.
 cholesterol.
b.
 starch.
d.
 earwax.
 48.
Lipids are soluble in
a.
 water.
c.
 oil.
b.
 salt water.
d.
 All of the above
 49.
Which organic molecules below are most closely related to lipids?
a.
 amino acids
c.
 nucleotides
b.
 fatty acids
d.
 sugars
 50.
Which of the following organic molecules are most closely related to nucleic acids?
a.
 amino acids
c.
 nucleotides
b.
 fatty acids
d.
 sugars
 51.
Which of the following is a carbohydrate?
a.
 DNA
c.
 wax
b.
 insulin
d.
 sucrose
 52.
Carbohydrates and lipids have many carbon-hydrogen bonds; therefore, they both
a.
 store energy in these bonds.
c.
 dissolve only in vinegar.
b.
 are easily dissolved in water.
d.
 exist only in cells of plants.
nar001-1.jpg
nar001-2.jpg
Molecule A
Molecule B
 53.
Refer to the illustration above. Molecules like Molecule B are found in
a.
 carbohydrates.
c.
 nucleic acids.
b.
 lipids.
d.
 proteins.
 54.
Liquid fats called oils contain
a.
 mostly unsaturated fatty acids.
c.
 many glucose molecules.
b.
 mostly saturated fatty acids.
d.
 amino acids.
 55.
Animals store glucose in the form of
a.
 cellulose.
c.
 wax.
b.
 glycogen.
d.
 lipids.
 56.
The shape of a protein is primarily determined by
a.
 the type and sequence of its amino acids.
b.
 its size.
c.
 its cell location.
d.
 None of the above
 57.
The two types of nucleic acids are
a.
 chlorophyll and retinal.
c.
 lipids and sugars.
b.
 DNA and RNA.
d.
 glucose and glycogen.
 58.
DNA stores
a.
 fat.
c.
 protein.
b.
 carbohydrates.
d.
 heredity information.
 59.
The two strands of a DNA molecule are held together by
a.
 ionic bonds.
c.
 hydrogen bonds.
b.
 covalent bonds.
d.
 None of the above
 60.
A molecule shaped like a spiral staircase (double helix) is typical of
a.
 deoxyribonucleic acid.
c.
 lipids.
b.
 ribonucleic acid.
d.
 carbohydrates.
 61.
ATP (adenosine triphosphate) stores energy for cells to use in the bonds between its
a.
 amino acids.
c.
 nucleotides.
b.
 carbon atoms.
d.
 phosphates.
nar002-1.jpg
 62.
Refer to the illustration above. Which graph illustrates what happens during an energy-releasing reaction?
a.
 Graph A
b.
 Graph B
c.
 both graphs because they each show a different stage of an energy releasing reaction
d.
 None of the above
 63.
Refer to the illustration above. Which graph illustrates a reaction during which energy is released?
a.
 Graph A
b.
 Graph B
c.
 both graphs because all chemical reactions release energy
d.
 None of the above
nar003-1.jpg
 64.
Refer to the illustration above. Which of the following statements regarding the graph is true?
a.
 Reaction 2 occurs faster than Reaction 3 because Reaction 2 requires more energy than Reaction 3.
b.
 The difference between the graphs shown for Reaction 2 and Reaction 3 is because of a difference in the activation energy of these reactions.
c.
 Reactant A contains more energy at the beginning of the reaction than product C has after the reaction.
d.
 All of the above
 65.
Refer to the illustration above. Reaction 3 in the graph
a.
 probably occurred in the presence of a catalyst.
b.
 requires more activation energy than Reaction 2.
c.
 is the same as Reaction 1, but faster.
d.
 is slower than Reaction 2.
 66.
The molecule on which an enzyme acts is called a(n)
a.
 active site.
c.
 organic molecule.
b.
 inactive site.
d.
 substrate.
 67.
An enzyme
a.
 is not used up when catalyzing a reaction.
b.
 lowers the activation energy of a reaction.
c.
 bonds with a substrate molecule at the enzyme’s active site.
d.
 All of the above
 68.
Which of the following conditions affects the function of enzymes?
a.
 pH
c.
 enzyme concentration
b.
 heat
d.
 All of the above
 69.
Reducing activation energy
a.
 is a violation of the laws of nature.
b.
 requires higher temperatures than those found within cells.
c.
 occurs only when reactants are quickly added to the reaction mixture.
d.
 is accomplished by the action of catalysts on reactants.
 70.
Enzymes
a.
 are able to heat up molecules so that they can react.
b.
 always provide carbon dioxide for chemical reactions.
c.
 are biological catalysts.
d.
 absorb excess heat so that reactions occur at low temperatures.
 71.
A cell contains
a.
 thousands of different kinds of enzymes, each promoting a different chemical reaction.
b.
 one kind of enzyme that promotes thousands of different chemical reactions.
c.
 approximately 100 kinds of enzymes, each promoting a different chemical reaction.
d.
 one enzyme that promotes photosynthesis and one enzyme that promotes cellular respiration.
 72.
Amylase is a digestive enzyme that breaks down starch into
a.
 amino acids.
c.
 glycogen.
b.
 glucose.
d.
 cellulose.
 73.
The digestive enzyme pepsin works with hydrochloric acid to break down proteins in the stomach. Pepsin probably works best at a pH of
a.
 11.
c.
 3.
b.
 7.
d.
 Both (b) and (c).

 
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Multiple Choice
Identify the choice that best completes the statement or answers the question.
 1.
The three particles that make up atoms are
a.
 protons, neutrons, and isotopes.
c.
 positives, negatives, and electrons.
b.
 neutrons, isotopes, and electrons.
d.
 protons, neutrons, and electrons.
 2.
The space surrounding the nucleus of an atom contains
a.
 protons.
c.
 neutrons.
b.
 electrons.
d.
 ions.
 3.
Democritus believed that atoms
a.
 were composed of electrons.
c.
 could be divided.
b.
 were composed of protons.
d.
 could not be divided.
 4.
If an atom contains 3 protons, 4 neutrons,  and 3 electrons, its mass number would be
a.
 3.
c.
 7.
b.
 4.
d.
 11.
 5.
If a chlorine atom had 17 protons and 18 neutrons, it would be called
a.
 chlorine-17.
c.
 chlorine-35.
b.
 chlorine-18.
d.
 chlorine-1.
 6.
Isotopes are atoms of the same element with the same number of protons and
a.
 a different number of electrons.
c.
 a different number of neutrons.
b.
 a different number of molecules.
d.
 the same number of neutrons.
 7.
Which of the following is a use of radioactive isotopes?
a.
 can determine the ages of rocks and fossils
b.
 can be used to treat cancer and kill bacteria that cause food to spoil
c.
 can be used as “tracers” to follow the movements of substances within organisms
d.
 all of the above
 8.
If an atom contains 11 protons and 12 neutrons, its atomic number is
a.
 1.
c.
 12.
b.
 11.
d.
 23.
 9.
Which of the following terms describes a substance formed by the combination of two or more elements in definite proportions?
a.
 compound
c.
 nucleus
b.
 isotope
d.
 enzyme
 10.
Which of the following makes up a molecule of water?
a.
 one atom of hydrogen and one atom of oxygen
b.
 one atom of sodium and one atom of chlorine
c.
 one atom of hydrogen and two atoms of oxygen
d.
 two atoms of hydrogen and one atom of oxygen
 11.
Which of the following is NOT true about chlorine?
a.
 It is a poisonous, greenish gas.
b.
 It combines with sodium to form table salt.
c.
 It was used to kill many soldiers in World War I.
d.
 It is not reactive.
 12.
Which of the following statements about a compound is true?
a.
 The physical and chemical properties of a compound are usually very different from those of the elements from which it is formed.
b.
 Only the physical properties of a compound are usually the same as those of the elements from which it is formed.
c.
 Only the chemical properties of a compound are usually the same as those of the elements from which it is formed.
d.
 The physical and chemical properties of a compound are usually the same as those of the elements from which it is formed.
 13.
A covalent bond is formed as the result of
a.
 transferring electrons.
c.
 transferring protons.
b.
 sharing an electron pair.
d.
 sharing a proton pair.
 14.
Which term does NOT apply to sodium chloride?
a.
 molecule
c.
 compound
b.
 ionic bonding
d.
 crystal
 15.
What type of electron is available to form bonds?
a.
 valence
c.
 ionic
b.
 nucleus
d.
 covalent
 16.
What type of ion forms when an atom loses electrons?
a.
 neutral
c.
 negative
b.
 positive
d.
 possibly positive or negative
 17.
Ice floats on water because
a.
 of cohesion.
c.
 water shrinks when it freezes.
b.
 ice has a higher density than water.
d.
 water expands when it freezes.
 18.
The most abundant compound in most living things is
a.
 carbon dioxide.
c.
 sodium chloride.
b.
 water.
d.
 sugar.
 19.
Water molecules are polar, with the
a.
 oxygen side being slightly positive and the hydrogen side being slightly negative.
b.
 oxygen and hydrogen sides being slightly positive.
c.
 oxygen and hydrogen sides being slightly negative.
d.
 oxygen side being slightly negative and the hydrogen side being slightly positive.
 20.
In a water molecule, shared electrons spend more time around the oxygen atom than the hydrogen atoms.  As a result, the oxygen atom is
a.
 slightly negative.
c.
 slightly positive.
b.
 very negative.
d.
 very positive.
 21.
A solution is a(an)
a.
 combination of isotopes.
b.
 chemical reaction.
c.
 evenly distributed mixture of two or more substances.
d.
 combination of two or more liquids.
 22.
If you stir salt into boiling water, you produce a
a.
 mixture called a suspension.
c.
 solution and suspension.
b.
 mixture called a solution.
d.
 mixture only.
 23.
When salt is dissolved in water, water is the
a.
 reactant.
c.
 solute.
b.
 solution.
d.
 solvent.
 24.
While preparing a cell culture, a scientist places a colony of bacteria into distilled water and stirs it up.  This mixture of water and living cells would best be called a(an)
a.
 solution.
b.
 suspension.
c.
 buffer.
d.
 adhesion.
 25.
If the pH of stomach acid and of oven cleaner were measured,
a.
 both would be below 7.
b.
 both would be above 7.
c.
 the pH of stomach acid would be above 7, but the pH of oven cleaner would be below 7.
d.
 the pH of stomach acid would be below 7, but the pH of oven cleaner would be above 7.
 26.
A map of eastern North America, showing the pH of rainfall in the various states, indicates that the pH of rain in New York State varies from 4.22 to 4.40. According to these figures, the most acidic rainfall in New York State has a pH of
a.
 4.22.
c.
 4.35.
b.
 4.30.
d.
 4.40.
 27.
A substance with a pH of 6 is called
a.
 an acid.
c.
 both an acid and a base.
b.
 a base.
d.
 neither an acid nor a base.
 28.
Solutions that contain concentrations of H+ ions lower than pure water
a.
 have pH values below 7.
c.
 are bases.
b.
 are acids.
d.
 are enzymes.
 29.
Amino acid is to protein as
a.
 fat is to lipid.
c.
 sugar is to fat.
b.
 DNA is to RNA.
d.
 simple sugar is to starch.
 30.
A monosaccharide is a
a.
 carbohydrate.
c.
 nucleic acid.
b.
 lipid.
d.
 protein.
 31.
Which of the following is NOT a monomer?
a.
 a glucose molecule
c.
 a nucleotide
b.
 an amino acid
d.
 a protein
 32.
Which of the following is NOT a function of proteins?
a.
 store and transmit genetic information
b.
 help to fight disease
c.
 control the rate of reactions and regulate cell processes
d.
 build tissues such as bone and muscle
 33.
Which statement is true?
a.
 Simple sugars are made of polysaccharides.
b.
 Glycerol is made of fatty acids.
c.
 RNA molecules are made of nucleotides.
d.
 Amino acids are made of proteins.
 34.
In chemical reactions, atoms are
a.
 created.
c.
 rearranged.
b.
 destroyed.
d.
 neutralized.
 35.
When hydrogen and oxygen combine to form water, water is
a.
 a product.
c.
 both a product and a reactant.
b.
 a reactant.
d.
 neither a product nor a reactant.
 36.
Identify the reactant(s) in the chemical reaction, CO2 + H2O ® H2CO3.
a.
 CO2, H2O, and H2CO3
c.
 H2CO3
b.
 CO2 and H2O
d.
 CO2
 37.
What is the process that changes one set of chemicals into another set of chemicals?
a.
 cohesion
c.
 chemical reaction
b.
 adhesion
d.
 dissolving
 38.
What is the term used to describe the energy needed to get a reaction started?
a.
 adhesion energy
c.
 cohesion energy
b.
 activation energy
d.
 chemical energy
 39.
Chemical reactions that release energy
a.
 will not occur.
c.
 will always explode.
b.
 will never explode.
d.
 often occur spontaneously.
 40.
If a reaction in one direction releases energy, the reaction in the opposite direction
a.
 also releases energy.
c.
 destroys energy.
b.
 absorbs energy.
d.
 cannot occur.
 41.
Which of the following is a form of energy that may be released during a chemical reaction?
a.
 heat
c.
 light
b.
 sound
d.
 all of the above
 42.
Which of the following statements about enzymes is NOT true?
a.
 Enzymes work best at a specified pH.
b.
 All enzymes have the same shape as their substrates.
c.
 Enzymes are proteins.
d.
 The shape of an enzyme allows it to do its job.
 43.
Which of the following statements is true about catalysts?
a.
 Catalysts slow down the rate of chemical reactions.
b.
 All catalysts are enzymes.
c.
 Catalysts are used up during a chemical reaction.
d.
 Catalysts lower the activation energy of a chemical reaction.
 44.
A substance that accelerates the rate of a chemical reaction is called a(an)
a.
 catalyst.
c.
 molecule.
b.
 lipid.
d.
 element.
 45.
Enzymes affect the reactions in living cells by changing the
a.
 products of the reaction.
c.
 temperature of the reaction.
b.
 speed of the reaction.
d.
 pH of the reaction.
 

Short Answer
 46.
Why are atoms considered neutral?
 47.
What is a molecule?
 

Other

USING SCIENCE SKILLS

 

pH Values of Some Common Substances
Substance pH
Hydrochloric acid
1.0
Sulfuric acid
1.2
Tomatoes
4.2
Rainwater
6.2
Pure water
7.0
Sea water
8.5
Ammonium chloride
11.1
Sodium hydroxide
13.0

Figure 2–2
 48.
Applying Concepts What is the strongest acid listed in Figure 2–2?
 49.
Applying Concepts What is the pH of the strongest base listed in Figure 2–2?
 50.
Applying Concepts Using your knowledge of the pH scale, which of the chemicals in Figure 2-2 has the lowest concentration of H+ ions?

 
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