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Nucleic Acids

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Nucleic Acids

 

 

Modified True/False
Indicate whether the statement is true or false.  If false, change the identified word or phrase to make the statement true.
 1.
It has been discovered that the genetic material is protein. _________________________
 2.
Hershey and Chase were the first two scientists to prove that genetic material is composed of proteins. _________________________
 3.
The five-carbon sugar in DNA nucleotides is called ribose. _________________________
 4.
After years of research, the structure of the DNA molecule is now known to be a double helix. _________________________
 5.
Franklin’s X-ray diffraction images suggested that the DNA molecule resembled a tightly coiled spring, a shape called a helix. _________________________
 6.
In all living things, DNA replication must occur after cell division. _________________________
 7.
Before a DNA molecule can replicate itself, it must coil up. _________________________
 8.
Helicases unwind the double helix of DNA by breaking the nitrogen bonds that link the base pairs. _________________________
 9.
Errors in nucleotide sequence that occur during replication cannot be corrected. _________________________
 10.
RNA molecules contain the five-carbon sugar ribose. _________________________
 11.
During transcription, the information on a DNA molecule is “rewritten” into an mRNA molecule. _________________________
 12.
When a tRNA anticodon binds to an mRNA codon, the amino acid detaches from the tRNA molecule and bonds to the end of a growing protein chain. _________________________
 

Multiple Choice
Identify the choice that best completes the statement or answers the question.
 13.
Griffith’s transformation experiments
a.
 changed proteins into DNA.
b.
 caused harmless bacteria to become deadly.
c.
 resulted in DNA molecules becoming proteins.
d.
 were designed to show the effect of heat on bacteria.
 14.
Griffith’s experiments showed that
a.
 dead bacteria could be brought back to life.
b.
 harmful bacteria were hardier than harmless bacteria.
c.
 heat caused the harmful and harmless varieties of bacteria to fuse.
d.
 genetic material could be transferred between dead bacteria and living bacteria.
 15.
Avery’s experiments showed that transformation
a.
 is prevented by protein-destroying enzymes.
b.
 is prevented by DNA-destroying enzymes.
c.
 causes protein to become DNA.
d.
 is caused by a protein.
 16.
Avery and his research team concluded that
a.
 RNA was the genetic material.
b.
 protein bases were the genetic material.
c.
 DNA and RNA were found in the human nucleus.
d.
 DNA was responsible for transformation.
 17.
Using radioactive tracers to determine the interactions of bacteriophages and their host bacteria, Hershey and Chase demonstrated without question that
a.
 genes are composed of protein molecules.
b.
 DNA and proteins are actually the same molecules located in different parts of cells.
c.
 bacteria inject their DNA into the cytoplasm of bacteriophages.
d.
 DNA is the molecule that stores genetic information in cells.
 18.
All of the following are true of the viruses Hershey and Chase used in their study except
a.
 they consisted of DNA surrounded by a protein coat.
b.
 they injected their DNA into cells.
c.
 they destroyed the DNA of the infected bacteria.
d.
 they caused infected bacteria to make many new viruses.
 19.
The scientist who worked with Martha Chase to prove that genetic material is composed of DNA was
a.
 Alfred Hershey.
c.
 Francis Crick.
b.
 Oswald Avery.
d.
 Rosalind Franklin.
 20.
Molecules of DNA are composed of long chains of
a.
 amino acids.
c.
 monosaccharides.
b.
 fatty acids.
d.
 nucleotides.
 21.
Which of the following is not part of a molecule of DNA?
a.
 deoxyribose
c.
 phosphate
b.
 nitrogen base
d.
 ribose
 22.
A nucleotide consists of
a.
 a sugar, a protein, and adenine.
b.
 a sugar, an amino acid, and starch.
c.
 a sugar, a phosphate group, and a nitrogen base.
d.
 a starch, a phosphate group, and a nitrogen base.
 23.
The part of the molecule for which DNA is named is the
a.
 phosphate group.
c.
 nitrogen base.
b.
 sugar.
d.
 hydrogen bonds.
 24.
Purines and pyrimidines are
a.
 nitrogen bases found in amino acids.
b.
 able to replace phosphate groups from defective DNA.
c.
 names of specific types of DNA molecules.
d.
 classification groups of nitrogen bases.
 25.
Of the four nitrogen bases in DNA, which two are purines and which two are pyrimidines?
a.
 purines: adenine, thymine; pyrimidines: uracil, cytosine
b.
 purines: adenine, thymine; pyrimidines: guanine, cytosine
c.
 purines: adenine, guanine; pyrimidines: thymine, cytosine
d.
 purines: uracil, thymine; pyrimidines: guanine, cytosine
 26.
The amount of guanine in an organism always equals the amount of
a.
 protein.
c.
 adenine.
b.
 thymine.
d.
 cytosine.
 27.
adenine : thymine ::
a.
 protein : DNA
c.
 guanine : cytosine
b.
 Watson : Crick
d.
 guanine : thymine
 28.
Watson and Crick built models that demonstrated that
a.
 DNA and RNA have the same structure.
b.
 DNA is made of two strands that twist into a double helix.
c.
 guanine forms hydrogen bonds with adenine.
d.
 thymine forms hydrogen bonds with cytosine.
 29.
The scientists credited with establishing the structure of DNA are
a.
 Avery and Chargaff.
c.
 Mendel and Griffith.
b.
 Hershey and Chase.
d.
 Watson and Crick.
 30.
X-ray diffraction photographs by Wilkins and Franklin suggested that
a.
 DNA and RNA are the same molecules.
b.
 DNA is composed of either purines or pyrimidines, but not both.
c.
 DNA molecules are arranged as a tightly coiled helix.
d.
 DNA and proteins have the same basic structure.
 31.
During DNA replication, a complementary strand of DNA is made from each original DNA strand. Thus, if a portion of the original strand is CCTAGCT, then the new strand will be
a.
 TTGCATG.
c.
 CCTAGCT.
b.
 AAGTATC.
d.
 GGATCGA.
 32.
Which of the following is not true about DNA replication?
a.
 It must occur before a cell can divide.
b.
 Two complementary strands are duplicated.
c.
 The double strand unwinds and unzips while it is being duplicated.
d.
 The new DNA molecule has two newly-made strands.
 33.
The attachment of nucleotides to form a complementary strand of DNA during replication
a.
 is accomplished by DNA polymerase.
b.
 is accomplished only in the presence of tRNA.
c.
 prevents separation of complementary strands of RNA.
d.
 is the responsibility of the proofreading enzymes.
 34.
The enzymes responsible for adding nucleotides to the exposed DNA bases during replication are
a.
 replicases.
c.
 helicases.
b.
 DNA polymerases.
d.
 template enzymes.
 35.
The enzymes that unwind DNA during replication are called
a.
 double helixes.
c.
 forks.
b.
 DNA helicases.
d.
 phages.
 36.
All of the following are true about DNA replication in prokaryotic cells except
a.
 replication begins at many sites along the DNA.
b.
 replication begins at one site along the DNA loop.
c.
 replication occurs in two opposite directions.
d.
 there are two replication forks.
 37.
Transcription, which is a stage of gene expression, is the process by which genetic information encoded in DNA is transferred to a(n)
a.
 RNA molecule.
c.
 uracil molecule.
b.
 DNA molecule.
d.
 tRNA molecule.
 38.
RNA differs from DNA in that RNA
a.
 is double-stranded.
c.
 contains the nitrogen base uracil.
b.
 contains deoxyribose.
d.
 does not contain adenine.
 39.
RNA is chemically similar to DNA except that the sugar in RNA has an additional
a.
 oxygen atom.
c.
 nitrogen base.
b.
 phosphate group.
d.
 carbon atom.
 40.
In RNA molecules, adenine is complementary to
a.
 cytosine.
c.
 thymine.
b.
 guanine.
d.
 uracil.
 41.
Each of the following is a type of RNA except
a.
 carrier RNA.
c.
 ribosomal RNA.
b.
 messenger RNA.
d.
 transfer RNA.
 42.
During transcription,
a.
 proteins are synthesized.
c.
 RNA is produced.
b.
 DNA is replicated.
d.
 translation occurs.
 43.
During transcription, the genetic information for making a protein is “rewritten” as a molecule of
a.
 messenger RNA.
c.
 transfer RNA.
b.
 ribosomal RNA.
d.
 translation RNA.
 44.
Transcription begins when RNA polymerase
a.
 attaches to a ribosome.
b.
 unwinds a strand of DNA.
c.
 binds to a strand of RNA.
d.
 attaches to the promoter sequence of a gene.
mRNA: CUCAAGUGCUUC

nar001-1.jpg
 45.
Refer to the illustration above. What is the portion of the protein molecule coded for by a piece of mRNA with the sequence CUCAAGUGCUUC?
a.
 Ser—Tyr—Arg—Gly
c.
 Leu—Lys—Cys—Phe
b.
 Val—Asp—Pro—His
d.
 Pro—Glu—Leu—Val
 46.
Refer to the illustration above. The anticodons for the codons in the mRNA with the sequence CUCAAGUGCUUC are
a.
 GAG—UUC—ACG—AAG.
c.
 CUC—GAA—CGU—CUU.
b.
 GAG—TTC—ACG—AAG.
d.
 CUU—CGU—GAA—CUC.
 47.
Refer to the illustration above. Which of the following would represent the strand of DNA from which the mRNA strand CUCAAGUGCUUC was made?
a.
 CUCAAGUGCUUC
c.
 GAGTTCACGAAG
b.
 GAGUUCACGAAG
d.
 AGACCTGTAGGA
mRNA codons amino acid
UAU, UAC tyrosine
CCU, CCC, CCA, CCG proline
GAU, GAC aspartic acid
AUU, AUC, AUA isoleucine
UGU, UGC cysteine
 48.
Refer to the illustration above. Suppose that you are given a protein containing the following sequence of amino acids: tyrosine, proline, aspartic acid, isoleucine, and cysteine. Use the portion of the genetic code given to determine which of the following contains a DNA sequence that codes for this amino acid sequence.
a.
 AUGGGUCUAUAUACG
c.
 GCAAACTCGCGCGTA
b.
 ATGGGTCTATATACG
d.
 ATAGGGCTTTAAACA
 49.
The function of rRNA is to
a.
 synthesize DNA.
c.
 form ribosomes.
b.
 synthesize mRNA.
d.
 transfer amino acids to ribosomes.
 50.
At the very beginning of translation, the first tRNA molecule
a.
 binds to the mRNA’s anticodon.
b.
 attaches directly to the DNA codon.
c.
 connects an amino acid to its anticodon.
d.
 binds to the mRNA’s start codon.
 51.
Transfer RNA
a.
 carries an amino acid to its correct codon.
b.
 synthesizes amino acids as they are needed.
c.
 produces codons to match the correct anticodons.
d.
 converts DNA into mRNA.
 52.
Which of the following does not affect the final outcome of gene expression?
a.
 the environment of the cells
b.
 the number of amino acids in the protein being produced
c.
 the presence of other cells
d.
 the timing of gene expression
 

Completion
Complete each statement.
 53.
Griffith’s experiment showed that live bacteria without capsules acquired the ability to make capsules from dead bacteria with capsules in a process Griffith called ____________________.
 54.
Avery’s prevention of transformation using DNA-destroying enzymes provided evidence that ____________________ molecules function as the hereditary material.
 55.
A DNA subunit composed of a phosphate group, a five-carbon sugar, and a nitrogen-containing base is called a(n) ____________________.
 56.
The name of the five-carbon sugar that makes up a part of the backbone of molecules of DNA is ____________________.
 57.
Due to the strict pairing of nitrogen bases in DNA molecules, the two strands are said to be ____________________ to each other.
 58.
Watson and Crick determined that DNA molecules have the shape of a(n) ____________________ ____________________.
 59.
Chargaff’s observations established the ____________________ rules, which describe the specific pairing between bases on DNA strands.
 60.
Watson and Crick used the X-ray diffraction photographs of ____________________ and ____________________ to build their model of DNA.
 61.
The process by which DNA copies itself is called ____________________.
 62.
Enzymes called ____________________ are responsible for unwinding the DNA double helix by breaking the hydrogen bonds that hold the complementary strands together.
 63.
Errors in nucleotide sequencing are corrected by enzymes called ____________________.
 64.
Transcription and translation are stages in the process of ____________________.
 65.
The second stage of gene expression is called ____________________.
 66.
The nitrogen-containing base that is found only in RNA is ____________________.
 67.
The enzyme responsible for making mRNA is called ____________________.
 68.
Messenger RNA is produced during the process of ____________________.
 69.
The sequence of three nucleotides that code for specific amino acids or stop signals in the synthesis of protein is called a(n) ____________________.
 70.
During translation, amino acids are brought to the ribosomes by molecules of ____________________.
 71.
Nucleotide sequences of tRNA that are complementary to codons on mRNA are called ____________________.
 72.
The information contained in a molecule of messenger RNA is used to make protein during the process of ____________________.

 
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Introduction to Plants Study Guide

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Introduction to Plants Quiz

 

 

Modified True/False
Indicate whether the statement is true or false.  If false, change the identified word or phrase to make the statement true.
 1.
Plants are multicellular prokaryotes. _________________________
 2.
The plant life cycle includes a diploid gamete and a haploid spore. _________________________
 3.
Mosses are most often found in dry environments. _________________________
 4.
Mosses and liverworts lack a vascular system for transporting water and nutrients. _________________________
 5.
Water must be present for fertilization to take place in mosses. _________________________
 6.
In mosses and liverworts, eggs are formed through mitosis in the antheridia. _________________________
 7.
Gametophytes of conifers are physically much larger than their sporophytes. _________________________
 8.
One important difference between mosses and ferns is that mosses have a vascular system. _________________________
 9.
Shoots, stems, and roots characterize the bodies of vascular plant sporophytes. _________________________
 10.
Ferns are characterized by fronds and fiddleheads. _________________________
 11.
Haploid fern spores are produced by gametophytes. _________________________
 12.
In ferns, a large sporophyte with leaves called fronds alternates with a heart-shaped gametophyte. _________________________
 13.
Ferns need water to reproduce because their sperm must swim to eggs. _________________________
 14.
Both mosses and ferns require a thin film of water for gametes to meet. _________________________
 15.
In both mosses and ferns, eggs are formed through mitosis in the antheridia. _________________________
 16.
Gymnosperm seeds are enclosed in a fruit. _________________________
 17.
Gametophytes of seed plants are large and easily viewed with the unaided eye. _________________________
 18.
Sexual reproduction in seed plants involves the transfer of pollen from the male reproductive structures of a plant to the female reproductive structures. _________________________
 19.
Seed plants cannot reproduce without a film of water for transferring of gametes. _________________________
 20.
A seed is a structure that contains a plant embryo. _________________________
 21.
A plant embryo is a new sporophyte. _________________________
 22.
In flowering plants, the embryos of monocots have two cotyledons. _________________________
 23.
Pollen is produced in the tip of the stamen, a structure called the sepal. _________________________
 24.
The lower portion of the pistil produces pollen. _________________________
 25.
Gametophytes develop within flowers. _________________________
 26.
Pollen tubes grow through the style toward the ovule. _________________________
 27.
Many seeds have appendages that aid in dispersal. _________________________
 28.
Asexual reproduction produces new plants that are genetically different from the parent plant. _________________________
 29.
Vegetative reproduction does require a plant to have flowers. _________________________
 30.
In vegetative reproduction, new plants may be generated from stems or roots. _________________________
 

Multiple Choice
Identify the choice that best completes the statement or answers the question.
 31.
The ancestors of today’s land plants were probably
a.
 brown algae.
c.
 green algae.
b.
 red algae.
d.
 lichens.
 32.
Among the challenges that faced early land plants were
a.
 eliminating excess water.
b.
 obtaining sunlight for photosynthesis.
c.
 absorbing minerals from the rocky surface.
d.
 avoiding being eaten by grazing mammals.
 33.
The waxy protective covering of a land plant is called a
a.
 cuticle.
c.
 rhizome.
b.
 capsule.
d.
 stoma.
 34.
Some land plants developed an internal system of interconnected tubes and vessels called
a.
 cuticles.
c.
 a circulatory system.
b.
 nonvascular canals.
d.
 vascular tissue.
 35.
sporophytes : spores ::
a.
 sporophytes : gametophytes
c.
 gametes : gametophytes
b.
 gametophytes : gametes
d.
 sporophytes : gametes
 36.
The diploid form in a plant’s life cycle is called the
a.
 sporophyte.
c.
 parental generation.
b.
 gametophyte.
d.
 alternate generation.
 37.
The haploid form in a plant’s life cycle is called the
a.
 sporophyte.
c.
 parental generation.
b.
 gametophyte.
d.
 alternate generation.
 38.
A haploid stage following a diploid stage in a plant’s life cycle is called
a.
 generational recycling.
c.
 alternating forms.
b.
 periodic gametogenesis.
d.
 alternation of generations.
 39.
In plants, haploid gametes are produced as a result of
a.
 fertilization.
c.
 encapsulation.
b.
 meiosis.
d.
 mitosis.
 40.
sporophytes : meiosis ::
a.
 sporophytes : spores
c.
 gametophytes : gametes
b.
 gametophytes : mitosis
d.
 sporophytes : gametes
 41.
Mosses, hornworts, and liverworts all possess
a.
 fibrous roots.
c.
 tap roots.
b.
 spore capsules.
d.
 green leaves.
 42.
In nonvascular plants, structures in which spores are produced are known as
a.
 meristems.
c.
 cones.
b.
 pollen grains.
d.
 sporangia.
 43.
Which of the following statements about moss spores is not true?
a.
 They are produced by the sporophyte.
b.
 They are dispersed and then germinate.
c.
 They are produced in a capsule-like top.
d.
 They are diploid.
 44.
The sporophyte generation in mosses produces spores by
a.
 meiosis.
c.
 sexual reproduction.
b.
 mitosis.
d.
 asexual reproduction.
 45.
The most noticeable form of a moss life cycle is the
a.
 sporophyte.
c.
 rhizoid.
b.
 gametophyte.
d.
 zygote.
 46.
In which of the following structures do seedless plants produce eggs?
a.
 antheridia
c.
 archegonia
b.
 capsules
d.
 cones
 47.
antheridia : sperm ::
a.
 rhizoids : gametes
c.
 archegonia : eggs
b.
 seeds : gametophytes
d.
 sperm : megaspores
 48.
Both mosses and ferns produce
a.
 seeds.
c.
 flowers.
b.
 fruit.
d.
 spores.
 49.
Fern sporophytes consist of rhizomes,
a.
 large leaves, and flowers.
c.
 pollen grains, and ovules.
b.
 cones, and stems.
d.
 roots, and fronds.
 50.
Unlike mosses, ferns possess
a.
 spore capsules.
c.
 antheridia.
b.
 archegonia.
d.
 vascular tissue.
 51.
Fiddleheads are produced by
a.
 whisk ferns.
c.
 ferns.
b.
 club mosses.
d.
 horsetails.
 52.
Both mosses and ferns produce gametes through
a.
 mitosis.
c.
 osmosis.
b.
 meiosis.
d.
 diffusion.
 53.
vascular plants : sporophytes ::
a.
 sporophytic plants : gametophytes
c.
 spores : gametes
b.
 gametes : sporophytes
d.
 nonvascular plants : gametophytes
The diagram below shows the plant life cycle.

nar001-1.jpg
 54.
Refer to the diagram above. At which point in the life cycle does fertilization take place?
a.
 1
c.
 3
b.
 2
d.
 4
 55.
Refer to the diagram above. The structures produced at 3 are called
a.
 sporangia.
c.
 spores.
b.
 archegonia.
d.
 antheridia.
 56.
Which of the following were the first land plants to evolve seeds?
a.
 angiosperms
c.
 mosses
b.
 gymnosperms
d.
 horsetails
 57.
liverworts, hornworts, and mosses : nonvascular plants ::
a.
 gymnosperms and angiosperms : bryophytes
b.
 ferns : mosses
c.
 gymnosperms and angiosperms : seed plants
d.
 bryophytes and liverworts : vascular plants
 58.
gymnosperms : naked seeds ::
a.
 pollen : mosses
c.
 liverwort : vascular tissue
b.
 liverwort : pollen
d.
 angiosperms : enclosed seeds
 59.
In seed plants, female gametophytes produce
a.
 sperm.
c.
 cells.
b.
 eggs.
d.
 spores.
 60.
A male gametophyte of a seed plant develops into a
a.
 pollen grain.
c.
 pollen tube.
b.
 spore capsule.
d.
 seed coat.
 61.
The partially developed plant found in seeds is known as a(n)
a.
 gametophyte.
c.
 embryo.
b.
 spore capsule.
d.
 sporophyte.
 62.
A typical seed contains all of the following except a(n)
a.
 seed coat.
c.
 embryo.
b.
 nutritious tissue.
d.
 spore case.
 63.
The tallest trees in the world are a species of
a.
 conifers.
c.
 liverworts.
b.
 dicots.
d.
 angiosperms.
 64.
The process of transferring pollen from a male cone to a female cone in gymnosperms is called
a.
 fertilization.
c.
 pollination.
b.
 seed formation.
d.
 asexual reproduction.
 65.
In conifers, the diploid condition is resumed following
a.
 pollination.
c.
 respiration.
b.
 fertilization.
d.
 sporulation.
 66.
The seeds of monocots have
a.
 one embryo and two cotyledons.
c.
 one embryo and one cotyledon.
b.
 two embryos and two cotyledons.
d.
 two embryos and one cotyledon.
 67.
Flowering plants are classified as monocots or dicots according to the number of their
a.
 leaves.
c.
 meristems.
b.
 flowers.
d.
 cotyledons.
 68.
Monocots and dicots are subdivisions of
a.
 angiosperms.
c.
 ferns.
b.
 gymnosperms.
d.
 mosses.
nar002-1.jpg
 69.
Refer to the diagram above. The structure labeled f
a.
 supports the anther.
c.
 supports the pistil.
b.
 produces pollen.
d.
 develops into a fruit.
 70.
Refer to the diagram above. The structure labeled c
a.
 produces pollen.
b.
 contains sperm cells.
c.
 is the area where pollen lands and sticks.
d.
 contains meristematic tissue.
 71.
Removing a flower’s stigma would initially affect
a.
 fertilization.
c.
 pollination.
b.
 seed production.
d.
 seed dispersal.
 72.
Pollen is produced in a structure called the
a.
 anther.
c.
 ovary.
b.
 stigma.
d.
 pistil.
 73.
In angiosperms, immediately following pollination,
a.
 the seed develops.
c.
 fertilization occurs.
b.
 an egg cell is formed.
d.
 the pollen tube begins to form.
 74.
During fertilization in flowering plants, one sperm fuses with an egg to form an embryo, and another fuses with two nuclei to form nutritive tissue. This event is called
a.
 self-pollination.
c.
 maximization.
b.
 adaptation.
d.
 double fertilization.
 75.
fruit : mature ovary
a.
 gametophyte : sporophyte
c.
 cotyledon : food reserve
b.
 gymnosperm : angiosperm
d.
 vascular plant : nonvascular plant
 76.
If a plant’s flowers are very colorful and produce nectar, the plant is probably pollinated by
a.
 water.
c.
 insects.
b.
 wind.
d.
 self-pollination.
 77.
One way that flowers produced by angiosperms help ensure the transfer of gametes is by
a.
 traveling in the air currents.
b.
 bursting open and projecting gametes onto the landscape.
c.
 attracting animals that carry pollen from one flower to another.
d.
 producing tasty fruits that animals depend on for food.
 78.
What function do all fruits produced by angiosperms perform?
a.
 produce nutrients for the plant
b.
 nourish the embryos
c.
 disperse the seeds
d.
 ensure pollination
 79.
Which structure allows plants to reproduce asexually?
a.
 tuber
c.
 archegonium
b.
 flower
d.
 antheridium
 80.
The production of offspring genetically identical to the parent plant is the result of
a.
 sexual reproduction.
c.
 alternation of generations.
b.
 asexual reproduction.
d.
 double fertilization.
 

Completion
Complete each statement.
 81.
The surface of a vascular plant is covered by a waxy, waterproof layer called a(n) ____________________.
 82.
One of the first environmental challenges that early land plants had to overcome was developing a way to conserve ____________________.
 83.
The sporophyte generation produces spores by the process of ____________________.
 84.
The haploid form of a plant is known as the ____________________ generation.
 85.
Nonvascular plants transport materials within their bodies through the process of ____________________.
 86.
A green, hornlike sporophyte growing upward from the gametophyte is typical of plants known as ____________________.
 87.
In mosses and liverworts, the ____________________ generation is the dominant generation.
 88.
The very tiny liverwort ____________________ grow from the archegonia under the caps of female stalks.
 89.
The gametophytes of ____________________ plants are larger and more noticeable than the sporophytes.
 90.
The seedless plants produce sperm within the ____________________.
 91.
True roots, stems, and leaves are associated with ____________________ plants.
 92.
A fern is an example of a(n) ____________________ vascular plant.
 93.
Both mosses and ferns produce eggs within structures called ____________________.
 94.
Like the nonvascular plants, the seedless vascular plants can reproduce sexually only when a film of ____________________ covers the gametophyte.
 95.
Unlike mosses, ferns have sporophytes that are much ____________________ than their gametophytes.
 96.
Seed plants whose seeds do not develop within a sealed container (fruit) are called ____________________.
 97.
Fruit is a characteristic associated only with the flowering plants, or ____________________.
 98.
A male gametophyte of a seed plant develops into a(n) ____________________.
 99.
The ____________________ is the protective cover that surrounds a seed.
 100.
The seed coat prevents the embryo from drying out, from mechanical injury, and from ____________________.
 101.
A(n) ____________________ is a specialized structure that develops from an ovule and serves to protect a plant embryo from harsh conditions.
 102.
The four major groups of gymnosperms are gnetophytes, cycads, ginkgoes, and ____________________.
 103.
A mature pine tree produces both male and female ____________________.
 104.
Gymnosperms are pollinated by ____________________, which makes sexual reproduction possible even during dry conditions.
 105.
The life cycle of a conifer is characterized by a large ____________________ generation.
 106.
In conifers, seeds form on the ____________________ of cones.
 107.
A plant that has flower parts that occur in fours or fives or multiples of four or five is a member of a subgroup called a(n) ____________________.
nar002-1.jpg
 108.
Refer to the diagram above. The structure labeled f is called the ____________________.
 109.
Refer to the diagram above. The structure labeled b is called the ____________________.
 110.
Refer to the diagram above. A flower like this one has all four basic flower parts and thus is an example of a(n) ____________________ flower.
 111.
The transfer of pollen grains from an anther to a stigma is known as ____________________.
 112.
In angiosperms, seeds develop from the ____________________ inside a(n) ____________________ after an egg has been fertilized.
 113.
The event in which one sperm fertilizes an egg and a second sperm fuses with two nuclei is called _________________________.
 114.
A flower is a(n) ____________________ structure that produces pollen and seeds.
 115.
Flowers are a source of ____________________ for pollinators.
 116.
The seeds of angiosperms are enclosed in ____________________.
 117.
Because flowering plants are rooted in the ground and cannot move from place to place, they must disperse their ____________________ so that their offspring can grow in new environments.
 118.
Many fruits are spread by ____________________ that are attracted to sweet, fleshy fruits, which they use for food.
 119.
Many of the structures by which plants reproduce vegetatively are modified ____________________.
 120.
Bulbs, stolons, and tubers are examples of modified stems that allow plants to reproduce ____________________.

 
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Insects

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Name: 

Insects

 

 

True/False
Indicate whether the sentence or statement is true or false.
1.
A flying insect carries pollen from one flower to pollinate other flowers of different species.
2.
Insects comprise the only group of invertebrates whose members are primarily terrestrial.
3.
Insects were the first animals to evolve wings.
4.
Flight enabled insects to search Earth’s surface for food, mates, and nesting sites.
5.
A major factor in the evolutionary success of insects is their ability to move to and survive in new environments.
6.
Insects destroy not only crops but also wood buildings and clothing.
7.
Butterflies undergo incomplete metamorphosis.
8.
Insects use pheromones, sounds, and light to attract mates.
9.
The honeybee’s round dance gives complete location information about a food source.
 

Multiple Choice
Identify the letter of the choice that best completes the statement or answers the question.
10.
From fossils, we know that insects were the first animals to evolve
a.
pincers on their front legs.
c.
jointed legs.
b.
stingers at the end of their tails.
d.
wings.
11.
The most diverse group of animals on Earth are the
a.
reptiles.
c.
insects.
b.
mammals.
d.
amphibians.
12.
Which of the following is not a characteristic of most insects?
a.
wings
c.
small size
b.
three body regions
d.
abdomen with three pairs of legs
13.
While insects destroy crops grown for human consumption, they also contribute to crop production by
a.
serving as food for many animals.
b.
pollinating crop plants.
c.
dying in the soil, and leaving behind nutrients.
d.
stimulating crop plants to grow faster.
14.
Malpighian tubules in insects
a.
remove wastes.
c.
carry Malpighian fluid.
b.
carry blood.
d.
are important in respiration.

      insects_files/i0140000.jpg
15.
Refer to the illustration above. Which of the organisms in the diagrams has a chitinous exoskeleton?
a.
Organism “A”
c.
Organism “C”
b.
Organism “B”
d.
Organism “D”

      insects_files/i0160000.jpg
16.
Refer to the illustration above. Mandibles are attached to the structure labeled
a.
“A.”
c.
“C.”
b.
“B.”
d.
“D.”
17.
Refer to the illustration above. The structure labeled “C” is called the
a.
diptera.
c.
boll.
b.
thorax.
d.
abdomen.
18.
Pheromones are used by ants to
a.
guide members of a colony back to their own nest.
b.
determine which ants will become queens of future colonies.
c.
ensure that females mate with only one male.
d.
warn members of a colony of adverse environmental conditions.
19.
Which of the following are the reproductive members of a honeybee colony?
a.
drones
c.
workers
b.
queen
d.
a and b
20.
Which of the following is the accepted explanation for the existence of sterile female worker bees?
a.
Because they are sterile, they do not have to use energy to produce eggs and therefore can use energy to collect food for other bees.
b.
Workers become sterile when they leave the nest to obtain food and are exposed to toxic substances.
c.
Workers pass on a lot of their own genes by helping their fertile sisters to survive and reproduce.
d.
Workers can become fertile females if they are fed queen factor.

 
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Introduction to Animals Quiz

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Name: 

Introduction to Animals

 

 

True/False
Indicate whether the sentence or statement is true or false.
1.
A tissue is a group of dissimilar cells that are organized into a functional unit.
2.
The development of a particular animal’s body plan depends on the animal’s environment, rather than on the genetic information it carries.
3.
Flatworms are bilaterally symmetrical and cephalized.
4.
The fluid in the body cavity of an animal acts as a medium of transport for nutrients and wastes.
5.
All chordates retain their postanal tail in their adult life.
6.
Most invertebrates have kidneys that filter waste products from the blood.
7.
Terrestrial animals have a protective outer covering that helps prevent excessive water loss.
8.
Segmentation is evident in vertebrates in the repeating bony units of their backbones and ribs.
9.
During spiral cleavage, each cell of the blastula rests directly above or below an adjacent cell.
10.
In a cnidarian, endoderm forms the outer tissue and nervous system.
 

Multiple Choice
Identify the letter of the choice that best completes the statement or answers the question.
11.
A group of similar cells organized into a functional unit is called
a.
a nervous system.
c.
a tissue.
b.
specialized cells.
d.
an organ.
12.
Most animals have a head that is located at the ____ end of their body and a tail that is located at the ____ end of their body.
a.
ventral; dorsal
c.
anterior; posterior
b.
dorsal; ventral
d.
posterior; anterior
      introduction_to_ani_files/i0150000.jpg
13.
Refer to the illustration above. The organism labeled “B” in the diagram
a.
is asymmetrical.
c.
exhibits radial symmetry.
b.
is bilaterally symmetrical.
d.
has reverse symmetry.
14.
Refer to the illustration above. The organism labeled “A” in the diagram
a.
has no symmetry.
c.
exhibits radial symmetry.
b.
is bilaterally symmetrical.
d.
has reverse symmetry.
15.
Which of the following is found in vertebrates but not in invertebrates?
a.
dorsal nerve cord
c.
three germ layers
b.
coelom
d.
bilateral symmetry
16.
A characteristic shared by all chordates at some stage of their development is
a.
a dorsal hollow nerve cord.
c.
pharyngeal pouches.
b.
a notochord.
d.
All of the above
17.
Which of the following is not a characteristic of the largest phylum of invertebrates, the arthropods?
a.
segmentation
c.
closed circulatory system
b.
exoskeleton
d.
digestive tract
18.
The acoelomate body type is exemplified by
a.
flatworms.
c.
mollusks.
b.
roundworms.
d.
annelids.
19.
Which of the following is an incorrect match?
a.
ectoderm—nervous system
c.
endoderm—muscular system
b.
mesoderm—skeletal system
d.
endoderm—digestive system
The diagrams below are cross sections of three types of animal bodies.
      introduction_to_ani_files/i0230000.jpg
20.
Refer to the illustration above. Humans have the type of body cavity shown in diagram
a.
“A.”
c.
“C.”
b.
“B.”
d.
None of the above

 
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