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Another Taxonomy Quiz

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Another Taxonomy Quiz

 

 

Modified True/False
Indicate whether the statement is true or false.  If false, change the identified word or phrase to make the statement true.
 1.
Scientists use taxonomy to determine the evolutionary history of organisms. _________________________
 2.
Taxonomy provides consistent ways to name organisms. _________________________
 3.
Scientific names of organisms consist of two English terms. _________________________
 4.
Two different organisms cannot have the same scientific name. _________________________
 5.
Genus is the basic biological unit in the Linnaean system of classification. _________________________
 6.
A genus is a taxonomic category that contains several families. _________________________
 7.
Under the Linnaean system of classification, organisms are grouped on the basis of similarities in structure. _________________________
 8.
Linnaeus devised eight levels of classification categories for living things. _________________________
 9.
The least inclusive group to which an organism can be assigned is its kingdom. _________________________
 10.
Kingdoms are subgroups of phyla. _________________________
 11.
A species is a larger taxonomic group than a genus. _________________________
 12.
Bird wings and insect wings are examples of analogous structures. _________________________
 13.
Organisms that have similar traits but evolved independently are the result of convergent evolution. _________________________
 14.
Cladistics is used to determine the sequence in which different groups of organisms evolved. _________________________
 15.
In modern systematics, studies of the changes in the skeletons of vertebrates have helped researchers to estimate the time at which each species began to evolve. _________________________
 16.
Comparing the sequence of DNA bases in the genes of several organisms is used to determine the order in which the organisms evolved. _________________________
 17.
All organisms in the kingdom Animalia are multicellular heterotrophs whose cells lack cell walls. _________________________
 18.
Archaea are eukaryotes that are characterized by several unique biochemical characteristics. _________________________
 19.
Traditionally, bacteria have been classified on the basis of their shape, cell wall composition, and metabolism. _________________________
 20.
Most organisms in the kingdoms Plantae and Animalia are multicellular. _________________________
 

Multiple Choice
Identify the choice that best completes the statement or answers the question.
 21.
Taxonomy is
a.
 the study of life.
b.
 the science of naming and classifying organisms.
c.
 the evolutionary history of a species.
d.
 the sequence in which different groups evolved.
 22.
An advantage of our scientific naming system is that
a.
 common names mean the same in all countries.
b.
 Latin names are easy to pronounce.
c.
 biologists can communicate regardless of their native languages.
d.
 organisms all have the same scientific name.
 23.
All scientific names of organisms must be
a.
 unique and have two Latin words.
b.
 general and use the species name.
c.
 different and repeat the phylum name.
d.
 similar and include the common name.
 24.
Linnaeus’s two-word system for naming organisms is called
a.
 taxonomic evolution.
c.
 Greek polynomials.
b.
 Genus species.
d.
 binomial nomenclature.
 25.
In the Linnaean system of classification, the level that identifies one unique organism is the
a.
 kingdom.
c.
 genus.
b.
 family.
d.
 species.
 26.
Under the Linnaean system of classification, plants and animals are sorted into groups based on
a.
 number and size.
c.
 form and size.
b.
 form and structure.
d.
 number and structure.
 27.
The largest division that a group of organisms can belong to is a
a.
 domain.
c.
 genus.
b.
 class.
d.
 kingdom.
 28.
Placement in each level of classification is based on
a.
 specific characteristics.
c.
 shared characteristics.
b.
 general characteristics.
d.
 different characteristics.
 29.
Similar genera are grouped into a(n)
a.
 phylum.
c.
 family.
b.
 class.
d.
 order.
 30.
Analogous structures
a.
 have a common size in organisms.
b.
 perform the same function in organisms.
c.
 have the same structure in organisms.
d.
 evolve from a common ancestor.
 31.
Traditional systematics emphasizes the importance of
a.
 derived characteristics.
c.
 similar characteristics.
b.
 unique characteristics.
d.
 compared characteristics.
 32.
Similar features that evolve through convergent evolution are called
a.
 analogous characters.
c.
 environmental characters.
b.
 homologous characters.
d.
 genetic characters.
 33.
Convergent evolution produces analogous characters in different species as the result of
a.
 similar environments.
c.
 sharing a common ancestor.
b.
 different environments.
d.
 shared derived characters.
 34.
A phylogenetic tree differs from a cladogram in that a phylogenetic tree
a.
 hypothesizes the time at which each group of organisms evolved.
b.
 also indicates the new characteristics that evolved with each group of organisms
c.
 only illustrates hypothesized relationships among groups of organisms.
d.
 predicts the next group of organisms that is expected to evolve.
 35.
Studies of fossils of dinosaurs and birds show that
a.
 feathers may not be an important difference between dinosaurs and birds.
b.
 dinosaurs can be considered to be modern descendents of birds.
c.
 the anatomies of the dinosaurs and birds are unrelated.
d.
 dinosaurs and birds share many analogous characters.
 36.
A model used by biologists to represent evolutionary history among species is called a
a.
 phylogram.
c.
 histogram.
b.
 cladogram.
d.
 parallelogram.
 37.
Derived characters are traits
a.
 that are shared by all species.
b.
 that originated in a common ancestor.
c.
 found in closely related species.
d.
 found in distantly related species.
 38.
During Linnaeus’ time, scientists divided all living organisms into
a.
 five phyla.
c.
 three domains.
b.
 four families.
d.
 two kingdoms.
 39.
Which of the following terms is no longer used to describe a group of organisms in the modern classification system?
a.
 Archaea
c.
 Monera
b.
 Eubacteria
d.
 Protista
 40.
Sponges are animals that were once classified as
a.
 bacteria.
c.
 plants.
b.
 fungi.
d.
 protists.
 41.
Which of the following characteristics was used to reclassify sponges?
a.
 body type
c.
 cell walls
b.
 cell type
d.
 nutrition
 42.
The kingdoms Eubacteria and Archaebacteria were once grouped in a kingdom called
a.
 Protista.
c.
 Monera.
b.
 Animalia.
d.
 Plantae.
 43.
Four of the kingdoms include eukaryotes and the other two include
a.
 plants.
c.
 animals.
b.
 fungi.
d.
 prokaryotes.
 44.
Which of the following is not a characteristic used to differentiate kingdoms?
a.
 cell type
c.
 nutrition
b.
 root system
d.
 body type
 45.
Protista is an example of a
a.
 kingdom.
c.
 genus.
b.
 class.
d.
 species.
 46.
Which two kingdoms contain both unicellular and multicellular organisms?
a.
 Archaea and Animalia
c.
 Animalia and Fungi
b.
 Protists and Bacteria
d.
 Protista and Fungi
 47.
Bacteria : prokaryotes ::
a.
 Fungi : prokaryotes
c.
 Protista : eukaryotes
b.
 Animalia : prokaryotes
d.
 Archaea : eukaryotes
 48.
One difference between plants and animals is that plants are
a.
 prokaryotic and animals are eukaryotic.
b.
 eukaryotic and animals are prokaryotic.
c.
 autotrophs and animals are heterotrophs.
d.
 heterotrophs and animals are autotrophs.
 49.
The science of classifying living things is called
a.
 identification.
c.
 taxonomy.
b.
 classification.
d.
 speciation.
 50.
Taxonomy is defined as the science of
a.
 classifying plants according to their uses in agricultural experiments.
b.
 studying ribosomal RNA sequencing techniques.
c.
 grouping organisms according to their characteristics and evolutionary history.
d.
 studying reproductive mechanisms and gene flow.
 51.
As we move through the biological hierarchy from the kingdom to species level, organisms
a.
 vary more and more.
b.
 are less and less related to each other.
c.
 become more similar in appearance.
d.
 always are members of the same order.
 52.
A mushroom is difficult to classify in Linnaeus’s two-kingdom classification system because
a.
 it has another common name, the toadstool.
b.
 it doesn’t seem to fit into either kingdom.
c.
 mushrooms had not yet evolved in Linnaeus’s time.
d.
 All of the above
 53.
Which of the following was not a consideration for Carolus Linnaeus when he developed his system of nomenclature of organisms?
a.
 It should include detailed descriptions of an organism in its name.
b.
 It should assign each organism a unique name.
c.
 It should assign names using a language that can be recognized worldwide.
d.
 It should enable scientists to classify organisms according to their presumed evolutionary relationships to other organisms.
 54.
Which of the following scientists developed the system of classifying organisms by assigning them a genus and species name?
a.
 Leakey
c.
 Darwin
b.
 Aristotle
d.
 Linnaeus
 55.

mc055-1.jpg

Refer to the illustration above. A shark’s skeleton is made of cartilage while a dolphin’s skeleton is made of bone. This is one reason the two organisms are placed in different

a.
 kingdoms.
c.
 subspecies.
b.
 domains.
d.
 classes.
 56.
The organism Quercus phellos is a member of the genus
a.
 Plantae.
c.
 Quercus.
b.
 phellos.
d.
 Protista.
 57.
Poison ivy is also known as Rhus toxicodendron. Its species identifier is
a.
 poison.
c.
 ivy.
b.
 Rhus.
d.
 toxicodendron.
 58.
The red maple is also known as Acer rubrum. Its scientific name is
a.
 red maple.
c.
 rubrum.
b.
 Acer.
d.
 Acer rubrum.
 59.
The scientific name of an organism
a.
 varies according to the native language of scientists.
b.
 is the same for scientists all over the world.
c.
 may refer to more than one species.
d.
 may have more than one genus name.
 60.
Scientists don’t use the common names of organisms because
a.
 an organism may have more than one common name.
b.
 common names are too ambiguous.
c.
 an organism rarely has the same name in different languages.
d.
 All of the above
 61.
An organism can have
a.
 one genus name and one species identifier.
b.
 one genus name and two species identifiers.
c.
 two scientific names if it is found on different continents.
d.
 two genus names but only one species identifier.
 62.
In which language are scientific names written?
a.
 English
c.
 Arabic
b.
 Greek
d.
 Latin
 63.
Two organisms in the same class but different orders
a.
 are in different kingdoms.
b.
 have the same genus name.
c.
 are in the same phylum.
d.
 are members of the same species.
 64.
Organisms in different genera
a.
 may share the second word of their scientific names.
b.
 may be in the same family.
c.
 may be in different orders.
d.
 All of the above
 65.
Two organisms in the same order but different families may
a.
 be more similar than two organisms in different classes.
b.
 be in the same class.
c.
 have the same species identifier.
d.
 All of the above
 66.
Kingdoms are divided into phyla, and each phylum is divided into
a.
 families.
c.
 orders.
b.
 classes.
d.
 genera.
 67.
The correct order of the biological hierarchy from kingdom to species is
a.
 kingdom, class, family, order, phylum, genus, species.
b.
 kingdom, phylum, order, family, class, genus, species.
c.
 kingdom, phylum, class, order, family, genus, species.
d.
 kingdom, class, order, phylum, family, genus, species.
 68.
The lowest hierarchy level in biological classification is the
a.
 genus.
c.
 family.
b.
 species.
d.
 order.
 69.
Which of the following is the least inclusive classification group?
a.
 class
c.
 phylum
b.
 genus
d.
 species
 70.
Quercus rubra : Quercus phellos ::
a.
 Anolis carolinensis : Parus carolinensis
b.
 Erithacus rubicula : Turdus migratoria
c.
 Aphis pomi : Aphis gossypii
d.
 carp : goldfish
 71.
class : family ::
a.
 order : phylum
c.
 species : genus
b.
 genus : class
d.
 phylum : order
 72.
Today, biologists classify organisms by their
a.
 physical similarities.
c.
 behavioral similarities.
b.
 chemical similarities.
d.
 All of the above
 73.
Phylogenetic trees depict
a.
 known evolutionary relationships between organisms.
b.
 presumed evolutionary relationships based on physical features only.
c.
 only living organisms.
d.
 presumed evolutionary relationships based on a variety of types of evidence.
 74.
The DNA sequences of two species of sharks would
a.
 be more similar than the DNA sequences of a shark and a dolphin.
b.
 show no discernible differences.
c.
 be very close to the DNA sequences of a dolphin.
d.
 indicate how the sharks evolved.
 75.
Which of the following is (are) used in systematic taxonomy to classify organisms?
a.
 patterns of embryological development
b.
 homologous features
c.
 amino acid sequences of proteins
d.
 All of the above
 76.
analogous features : convergent evolution ::
a.
 two members of the same genus : same species
b.
 cladogram : evolutionary relationships
c.
 common names : universal identification
d.
 cladograms : exact, direct information
nar001-1.jpg
 77.
Refer to the illustration above. A branching diagram like the one shown is called a
a.
 phenetic tree.
c.
 family tree.
b.
 cladogram.
d.
 homology.
 78.
Refer to the illustration above. Each particular feature, such as dry skin, that is used to assign an organism to a group is called a(n)
a.
 special character.
b.
 analogous character.
c.
 derived character.
d.
 homologous character.
 79.
Nearly all single-celled eukaryotes that are either heterotrophic or photosynthetic belong to the kingdom
a.
 Animalia.
c.
 Plantae.
b.
 Fungi.
d.
 Protista.
 80.
Most multicellular, nucleated autotrophs that carry on photosynthesis belong to the kingdom
a.
 Animalia.
c.
 Fungi.
b.
 Eubacteria.
d.
 Plantae.
 81.
Multicellular, nucleated heterotrophs that always obtain food by absorbing nutrients from the environment belong to the kingdom
a.
 Animalia.
c.
 Fungi.
b.
 Eubacteria.
d.
 Plantae.
 82.
An organism that breaks down organic matter, which it then absorbs, is in the kingdom
a.
 Fungi.
c.
 Animalia.
b.
 Plantae.
d.
 Protista.
 83.
Simple, non-nucleated organisms that use hydrogen to produce methane are in the domain
a.
 Archaea.
c.
 Eukarya.
b.
 Bacteria.
d.
 None of the above
 84.
The kingdom defined as including any eukaryotes that are not plants, animals, or fungi is the kingdom
a.
 Protista.
c.
 Animalia.
b.
 Plantae.
d.
 Fungi.
 85.
Carl Woese proposed the three-domain system of classification based on the examination of
a.
 embryos.
c.
 ribosomal RNA.
b.
 fossils.
d.
 organisms’ physical features.
 86.
The three domain system of classification is based on similarities and differences in ____, while the six-kingdom system is based on similarities and differences in ____.
a.
 DNA; DNA, fossils, embryological development, and physical features
b.
 DNA; embryological development, fossils, physical features, and RNA
c.
 ribosomal RNA; embryological development, fossils, physical features, and various molecular structures
d.
 physical features; embryological development, fossils, physical features, and various molecular structures
 87.
Which of the following groups are placed together by cladistics but are placed in separate groups by classical taxonomy?
a.
 birds and crocodiles
c.
 turtles and birds
b.
 birds and mammals
d.
 snakes and mammals
 

Completion
Complete each statement.
 88.
The current system used for naming organisms was developed by ____________________.
 89.
The two-word system for naming organisms is called _________________________.
 90.
The scientific name of an organism gives biologists a common way of ____________________ regardless of their native languages.
 91.
All names assigned to organisms under the Linnaean system are in the ____________________ language.
 92.
The unique two-word name for a species is its ____________________ name.
 93.
All living things are grouped into one of three ____________________.
 94.
There are ____________________ levels of classification in the modern classification system.
 95.
A kingdom contains many ____________________.
 96.
Classes with similar characteristics are assigned to a(n) ____________________.
 97.
Each level of classification is based on ____________________ shared by all the organisms it contains.
 98.
Homo habilis, Homo erectus, and Homo sapiens all belong to the same ____________________.
 99.
Traditionally, scientists have used differences in appearance and ____________________ to classify organisms.
 100.
Unlike cladistics, traditional systematics places more ____________________ on some traits than on others.
 101.
Analogous structures are found in ____________________ taxa as a result of similar environmental conditions.
 102.
The type of evolution that results in similar characteristics found in different organisms as the result of selection within similar environments is called ____________________ evolution.
 103.
The evolutionary history of a species is called its ____________________.
 104.
Shared derived characters are found in organisms that once shared a(n) ____________________ ancestor.
 105.
A method of analysis that reconstructs phylogenies by inferring relationships based on shared characteristics is called ____________________.
 106.
A model developed by systematists that uses shared derived characters to show the evolutionary history of different organisms is called a(n) ____________________.
 107.
Cladistics is used to determine the ____________________ in which different groups of organisms evolved.
 108.
Animals that appear early on a cladogram do not share as many of the same ____________________ traits as the animals that appear later on the cladogram.
 109.
Modern systematic biologists use the ____________________ rate of DNA mutations like a “molecular clock.”
 110.
Two kingdoms include prokaryotes, while four kingdoms include ____________________.
 111.
Bacteria have strong exterior cell walls made of ____________________.
 112.
An organism made of many cells that are permanently associated and that coordinate their activities is called a(n) ____________________ organism.
 113.
Eukaryotes that are not fungi, plants, or animals are called ____________________.
 114.
Aristotle classified plants on the basis of differences in their ____________________.
 115.
The science of naming and classifying organisms is called ____________________.
 116.
____________________ devised the two-name system of naming organisms.
 117.
Biologists of Linnaeus’s time classified every living thing as either plant or ____________________.
 118.
A genus is subdivided into smaller groups called ____________________.
 119.
Each kind of organism on Earth is assigned a unique two-word ____________________.
 120.
All scientific names are made up of two words that are often derived from the ____________________ language.
 121.
The first word of a scientific name indicates the ____________________ to which the organism belongs.
 122.
A kingdom is divided into phyla when animals are being classified or into ____________________ when plants are being classified.
 123.
The evolutionary history of a species is called its ____________________.
 124.

co124-1.jpg

Refer to the illustration above. Organism 4 belongs to the kingdom ____________________.
 125.
Eukaryotic organisms that lack specialized tissue systems are members of the kingdom ____________________.
 126.
Corals, spiders, and rodents all belong to the kingdom ____________________.
 127.
The domains of the three-domain system of classification are Archaea, Bacteria, and ____________________.
 128.
The variety of organisms at all taxonomic levels is called ____________________.
 129.
Cladistics uses shared and ____________________ characters to group taxa.
 130.
The Greek philosopher ____________________ classified organisms as either plants or animals.
 

Problem
 131.

The following table presents data on some characteristics found in vertebrates. A “+” indicates that an organism has a particular characteristic and a “–” indicates that an organism does not have a particular characteristic.

Characteristics
Organism
Jaws
Limbs
Hair
Lungs
Tail
Lamprey
–
–
–
–
+
Turtle
+
+
–
+
+
Cat
+
+
+
+
+
Gorilla
+
+
+
+
+
Lungfish
+
–
–
+
+
Trout
+
–
–
–
+
Human
+
+
+
+
–

Using these data, construct a cladogram illustrating the evolutionary relationships among these organisms. Each branch point should indicate a common ancestor. Write the name of the shared character that is common to all organisms above each branching point. A shared character can be the absence of a structure common to organisms below that point on the tree. Write your answer in the space below.
 

Essay
 132.
Why might the use of common names to describe organisms sometimes cause confusion? Give several examples to support your answer. Write your answer in the space below.
 133.
While on a biological expedition to a tropical rain forest, you discover a previously unidentified animal. Explain the guidelines you would follow to choose a genus and species name for the animal. Write your answer in the space below.
 134.
The red fox (Vulpes vulpes), the coyote (Canis latrans), and the dog (Canis familiaris) are all members of the family Canidae. The mountain lion (Felis concolor) is a member of the family Felidae. Describe the relationships among these animals. Write your answer in the space below.
 135.
A species is defined as a group of organisms that are similar and can interbreed and produce fertile offspring in nature. Horses and donkeys can interbreed and produce mules, which cannot produce offspring. Is it possible that horses and donkeys belong to the same species? Explain. Write your answer in the space below.
 136.
What are the main criteria currently used to classify organisms? Write your answer in the space below.

 
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Fish

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Fish

 

 

True/False
Indicate whether the sentence or statement is true or false.
1.
Lobe-finned fishes were the ancestors of amphibians.
2.
Small, jawed fishes are the first vertebrates for which there is fossil evidence.
3.
Fishes and amphibians first appeared on Earth during the Cambrian period, about 550 million years ago.
4.
A fish’s gills would collapse on land.
5.
Since they live in salt water, marine fishes do not have a problem maintaining the proper balance of water and salt in their body.
6.
The first fishes to develop jaws were called spiny fishes, members of the class Acanthodia.
7.
Sharks have good vision and can detect electromagnetic fields coming from prey animals.
8.
Members of the class Osteichthyes have skeletons of cartilage.
9.
Bony fishes have a swim bladder.
10.
In order to fill their swim bladders, bony fishes have to come to the surface to gulp air.
 

Multiple Choice
Identify the letter of the choice that best completes the statement or answers the question.
11.
Which of the following would not be an advantage of the endoskeleton found in all vertebrates?
a.
It protects internal body structures.
b.
It aids in movement.
c.
It helps prevent desiccation in terrestrial vertebrates.
d.
It provides structural support in terrestrial vertebrates.
12.
The urinary bladder and kidneys make up the ____ of a fish.
a.
respiratory system.
c.
excretory system.
b.
digestive system.
d.
circulatory system.
13.
The first vertebrates
a.
were jawless fishes.
b.
had thick, bony plates that covered their bodies.
c.
had no well-developed vertebral column.
d.
All of the above
14.
placoderms : armor ::
a.
bony fishes : cartilaginous skeleton
b.
sharks : no teeth
c.
lampreys : jaws
d.
sharks and bony fishes : streamlined bodies
15.
bony fishes : stronger muscles ::
a.
bony fishes : lungs
c.
sharks : ray fins
b.
sharks : bony skeleton
d.
sharks : rows of teeth
16.
Which of the following senses is not used by sharks to detect prey?
a.
olfaction
c.
lateral-line system
b.
vision
d.
touch
17.
The eggs of many species of sharks
a.
are released from the mother’s body before fertilization.
b.
are released from the mother’s body after fertilization.
c.
are released from the mother’s body after developing into young embryos.
d.
hatch inside the mother’s body, where the young sharks continue to grow.
18.
Members of the class Osteichthyes
a.
have skeletons made of bone.
c.
include the rays and skates.
b.
do not have jaws.
d.
All of the above
19.
A collection chamber that reduces the resistance of blood flow into the heart of a fish is called the
a.
sinus venosus.
c.
conus arteriosus.
b.
ventricle.
d.
atrium.
20.
The countercurrent flow of water and blood found in the gills of fishes
a.
allows blood and water to flow in the same direction.
b.
ensures that oxygen diffuses into the blood over the whole length of the blood vessels in the gills.
c.
results in an uneven supply of oxygen reaching the blood vessels in the gills.
d.
hampers the diffusion of oxygen and carbon dioxide between the blood and the water.

 
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Flat and Round Worms

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Name: 

Flat and Round Worms

 

 

True/False
Indicate whether the sentence or statement is true or false.
1.
Planarians have a branched digestive tract with both a mouth and an anus.
2.
Most flatworms are not parasitic.
3.
Tapeworms absorb food from their host’s intestine directly through their skin.
4.
Humans can avoid trichinosis by wearing shoes when they walk through fields.
5.
Rotifers have a distinct head end with a mouth and a distinct tail end that has an opening through which substances from the digestive, reproductive, and excretory systems exit the body.
 

Multiple Choice
Identify the letter of the choice that best completes the statement or answers the question.
6.
Flatworms can reproduce asexually by
a.
fission.
c.
producing polyps.
b.
forming larvae.
d.
exchanging both sperm and eggs.
7.
Which of the following is not found in flatworms?
a.
a head
c.
bilateral symmetry
b.
a circulatory system
d.
a nervous system
8.
Flatworms have no need for circulatory and respiratory systems because
a.
the digestive system performs these functions.
b.
their cells are close to the animal’s exterior surface.
c.
the spherical body shape allows diffusion of materials into tissues.
d.
the coelom is bathed in blood and oxygen.
9.
Schistosomiasis is a disease caused by a
a.
roundworm.
c.
cestode.
b.
trematode.
d.
planarian.
10.
turbellarians : free living ::
a.
planaria : parasitic
c.
cestodes : free living
b.
tapeworms : free living
d.
flukes : parasitic
11.
Which of the following statements about tapeworms is false?
a.
They can infect a person who eats improperly cooked beef.
b.
They belong to the genus Schistosoma.
c.
They can grow to be large in human intestines.
d.
These flatworms do not have a digestive system.
12.
To which phylum do roundworms belong?
a.
Annelida
c.
Platyhelminthes
b.
Nematoda
d.
Arthropoda
13.
Roundworms have a fluid-filled cavity between the gut and body wall called a
a.
coelom.
c.
digestive system.
b.
pseudocoelom.
d.
None of the above
14.
Pseudocoelomates
a.
must move rapidly to enhance diffusion of nutrients.
b.
must be very small or have body shapes with short distances between organs and the body surface.
c.
must have a circulatory system.
d.
All of the above
15.
The first organisms to develop an internal body cavity were the
a.
flatworms.
c.
mollusks.
b.
nematodes.
d.
arthropods.
16.
All of the following groups of invertebrates are coelomates, except
a.
annelids.
c.
mollusks.
b.
echinoderms.
d.
nematodes.
17.
The evolution of body cavities was important because
a.
fluids within the body cavity aid in circulation of materials from one part of the body to another.
b.
fluids in the cavity make the body rigid and offer resistance to muscles, aiding in movement.
c.
organs are better able to function if they can move freely within the body cavity.
d.
All of the above
18.
The nematode Ascaris lumbricoides infects humans, spending most of its adult life inside the intestines of its host. To be infected, a person must
a.
consume the nematode’s eggs.
c.
sit on an infested toilet seat.
b.
walk barefoot on infested soil.
d.
All of the above
19.
A type of roundworm that lives a parasitic life is
a.
Ascaris.
c.
Trichinella.
b.
Necator.
d.
All of the above
20.
Rotifers eliminate excess water that they collect from their freshwater environment by
a.
diffusion.
c.
flame cells and excretory tubules.
b.
kidneys.
d.
a mastax.

 
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Cell Membrane & Transport Study Guide

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Cell membrane & Transport Quiz

 

 

True/False
Indicate whether the statement is true or false.
 1.
During diffusion, molecules diffuse from a region where their concentration is low to a region where their concentration is higher, until the particles are evenly dispersed.
 2.
When the concentration of dissolved particles outside a cell is equal to the concentration of dissolved particles inside the cell, the cell solution is isotonic.
 3.
Membranes are selectively permeable if they allow only certain substances to move across them.
 4.
A cell placed in a strong salt solution would probably burst because of osmosis.
 5.
Water will diffuse out of a cell when the cell is placed in a hypertonic solution.
 6.
Osmosis is the diffusion of starch molecules through a selectively permeable membrane.
 7.
The binding of specific molecules to ion channels controls the ability of particular ions to cross the cell membrane.
 8.
To pass through a cell membrane, water requires carrier proteins.
 9.
In facilitated diffusion, carrier proteins require energy to transport substances across the cell membrane.
 10.
The transport of specific particles down their concentration gradient through a membrane by carrier proteins is known as facilitated diffusion.
 11.
Diffusion is an active process that requires a cell to expend a great deal of energy.
 12.
Diffusion through ion channels is a form of active transport.
 13.
Facilitated diffusion moves molecules and ions against their concentration gradient, while active transport moves molecules and ions down their concentration gradient.
 14.
Passive transport uses ATP to move molecules against their concentration gradient.
 15.
In active transport, energy is required to move a substance across a cell membrane.
 16.
The sodium-potassium pump requires energy to move ions across the cell membrane.
 17.
The sodium-potassium pump moves sodium ions and potassium ions against their concentration gradient.
 18.
The sodium-potassium pump transports sodium ions out of a cell while causing potassium ions to move into the cell.
 19.
The sodium-potassium pump uses ATP.
 20.
Exocytosis is a process that uses vesicles to capture substances and bring them into a cell.
 21.
Exocytosis helps the cell rid itself of wastes.
 22.
During the process of exocytosis, the cell membrane extends to engulf substances that are too big to pass through the cell membrane.
 23.
Exocytosis does not use energy to expel proteins from the cell.
 24.
Receptor proteins pump sodium ions into a cell.
 25.
Receptor proteins may cause the formation of a second messenger molecule inside a cell.
 26.
A receptor protein sends signals into a cell by transporting a specific molecule through the cell membrane.
 

Modified True/False
Indicate whether the statement is true or false.  If false, change the identified word or phrase to make the statement true.
 27.
One way that cells maintain homeostasis is by controlling the movement of substances across the cell membrane. _________________________
 28.
The cell membrane is made up of a double layer called the DNA bilayer. _________________________
 29.
A phospholipid is made up of a lipid “head” and two fatty acid “tails.” _________________________
 30.
The nonpolar tails of a phospholipid are attracted to water. _________________________
 31.
Cell-surface markers face the inside of the cell. _________________________
 32.
A concentration gradient exists when one area has a higher concentration of a substance than another area does. _________________________
 33.
The movement down a concentration gradient is called diffusion. _________________________
 34.
When the solute concentration outside a cell is equal to the solute concentration inside the cell, the cell’s environment is hypotonic. _________________________
 35.
A cell placed in a high salt solution would swell because of osmosis. _________________________
 36.
Osmosis is the diffusion of starch molecules through a selectively permeable membrane. _________________________
 37.
To pass through a cell membrane, water requires carrier proteins. _________________________
 38.
Facilitated diffusion is an active process that requires a cell to expend a great deal of energy. _________________________
 39.
Passive transport uses ATP to move molecules against their concentration gradient. _________________________
 40.
Exocytosis is a process that uses vesicles to capture substances and bring them into a cell. _________________________
 41.
Cells use exocytosis to export proteins modified by the Golgi apparatus. _________________________
 42.
Cells communicate by sending chemical signals that carry information to other cells. _________________________
 43.
Receptor proteins bind only to signals that match the specific color of the binding site. _________________________
 44.
Receptor proteins may cause the formation of a second messenger molecule inside the cell. _________________________
 

Multiple Choice
Identify the choice that best completes the statement or answers the question.
 45.
As a result of diffusion, the concentration of many types of substances
a.
 always remains greater inside a membrane.
b.
 eventually becomes balanced on both sides of a membrane.
c.
 always remains greater outside of a membrane.
d.
 becomes imbalanced on both sides of a membrane.
nar001-1.jpg
 46.
Refer to the illustration above. The process shown is called
a.
 osmosis.
c.
 active transport.
b.
 facilitated diffusion.
d.
 diffusion.
 47.
Refer to the illustration above. The process shown is called
a.
 osmosis.
c.
 active transport.
b.
 facilitated diffusion.
d.
 diffusion.
 48.
Diffusion is the movement of a substance
a.
 only through a lipid bilayer membrane.
b.
 from an area of low concentration to an area of higher concentration.
c.
 only in liquids.
d.
 from an area of high concentration to an area of lower concentration.
 49.
The dispersal of ink in a beaker of water is an example of
a.
 diffusion.
c.
 active transport.
b.
 osmosis.
d.
 endocytosis.
 50.
The diffusion of water into or out of a cell is called
a.
 solubility.
c.
 selective transport.
b.
 osmosis.
d.
 endocytosis.
 51.
Osmosis is a type of
a.
 active transport.
c.
 facilitated diffusion.
b.
 passive transport.
d.
 endocytosis.
 52.
A cell will swell when it is placed in a(n)
a.
 hypotonic solution.
c.
 isotonic solution.
b.
 hypertonic solution.
d.
 None of the above
 53.
The interior portion of a cell membrane forms a nonpolar zone that
a.
 allows polar molecules to pass through the membrane.
b.
 allows food to pass through the membrane.
c.
 prevents ions and most large molecules from passing through the membrane.
d.
 None of the above
 54.
Ions move through ion channels by
a.
 endocytosis.
c.
 passive transport.
b.
 diffusion.
d.
 active transport.
 55.
Ion channel gates close the pores of some ion channels in response to
a.
 stretching of the cell membrane.
b.
 a change in electrical charge.
c.
 the binding of specific molecules to the channel.
d.
 All of the above
 56.
Proteins that act like selective passageways in the cell membrane are known as
a.
 marker proteins.
c.
 receptor proteins.
b.
 channel proteins.
d.
 None of the above
 57.
Transport proteins that allow ions to pass through the cell membrane are called
a.
 receptor proteins.
c.
 ion channels.
b.
 marker proteins.
d.
 None of the above
 58.
Sugar molecules cross the cell membrane by
a.
 active transport.
c.
 osmosis.
b.
 facilitated diffusion.
d.
 gated channels.
 59.
Proteins involved in facilitated diffusion are
a.
 carrier proteins.
c.
 Both (a) and (b)
b.
 receptor proteins.
d.
 None of the above
 60.
Sugar molecules can enter cells through the process of
a.
 exocytosis.
c.
 osmosis.
b.
 facilitated diffusion.
d.
 ion pumps.
 61.
Which of the following does not require energy?
a.
 diffusion
c.
 active transport
b.
 endocytosis
d.
 sodium-potassium pump
 62.
Unlike passive transport, active transport
a.
 requires energy.
b.
 moves substances down their concentration gradient.
c.
 does not involve carrier proteins.
d.
 All of the above
 63.
Both active transport and facilitated diffusion involve
a.
 ATP.
b.
 movement against a concentration gradient.
c.
 carrier proteins.
d.
 All of the above
 64.
Which of the following is a form of active transport?
a.
 osmosis
c.
 facilitated diffusion
b.
 diffusion
d.
 sodium-potassium pump
 65.
The sodium-potassium pump
a.
 is a carrier protein
c.
 is located in the cytoplasm of a cell.
b.
 uses passive transport.
d.
 transports sugar molecules.
 66.
The sodium-potassium pump usually pumps
a.
 potassium ions out of the cell.
b.
 sodium ions into the cell.
c.
 potassium ions into the cell.
d.
 only potassium ions and sugar molecules.
 67.
The sodium-potassium pump
a.
 increases the concentration of sodium ions inside a cell.
b.
 decreases the concentration of sodium ions inside a cell.
c.
 increases the concentration of potassium ions inside a cell.
d.
 Both (b) and (c)
 68.
Proteins and polysaccharides that are too large to move into a cell through diffusion or active transport move in by
a.
 exocytosis.
c.
 the sodium-potassium pump.
b.
 endocytosis.
d.
 None of the above
 69.
Molecules that are too large to be moved through the membrane can be transported into the cell by
a.
 osmosis.
c.
 exocytosis.
b.
 endocytosis.
d.
 diffusion.
 70.
Molecules that are too large to be moved across a cell membrane can be removed from the cell by
a.
 diffusion.
c.
 endocytosis.
b.
 exocytosis.
d.
 osmosis.
 71.
Ridding the cell of materials by discharging the materials in vesicles is called
a.
 osmosis.
c.
 exocytosis.
b.
 diffusion.
d.
 endocytosis.
nar002-1.jpg
 72.
Refer to the illustration above. What happens when the structure labeled A binds to the structure labeled B?
a.
 Information is sent into the cell.
c.
 The cell begins to undergo mitosis.
b.
 Proteins enter the cell.
d.
 None of the above
 73.
Refer to the illustration above. What happens when the structure labeled A binds to the structure labeled B?
a.
 Information is sent into the cell.
c.
 The cell begins to swell.
b.
 Proteins enter the cell.
d.
 Ions enter the cell.
 74.
Refer to the illustration above. The structure labeled B in the diagram is an example of a(n)
a.
 channel protein.
c.
 receptor protein.
b.
 signal molecule.
d.
 ion pump.
 75.
Signal molecules bind to
a.
 carbohydrates.
c.
 receptor proteins.
b.
 marker proteins.
d.
 transport proteins.
 76.
When a signal molecule binds to a receptor protein, the receptor protein may
a.
 change the permeability of the membrane.
b.
 cause the formation of a second messenger molecule.
c.
 catalyze certain chemical reactions in the cell.
d.
 All of the above
 77.
Which of the following transmit information into a cell by binding to signal molecules?
a.
 channel proteins
c.
 marker proteins
b.
 receptor proteins
d.
 end proteins
 78.
cell membrane : cell ::
a.
 window : house
c.
 door : house
b.
 roof : house
d.
 wall : house
 79.
Which type of molecule forms the cell membrane?
a.
 protein
c.
 nucleic acid
b.
 phospholipid
d.
 carbohydrate
 80.
Phospholipids are molecules that have
a.
 one polar phosphate head and two polar fatty acid tails.
b.
 one polar phosphate head and two nonpolar fatty acid tails.
c.
 one polar phosphate head and one polar fatty acid tail.
d.
 one nonpolar phosphate head and two polar fatty acid tails.
 81.
The interior of the lipid bilayer of a cell membrane forms a nonpolar zone that
a.
 allows most polar molecules to pass through the membrane.
b.
 allows food to pass through the membrane.
c.
 repels ions and most polar molecules.
d.
 makes the membrane permeable to most molecules.
nar004-1.jpg
 82.
Refer to the illustration above. The structure labeled A is composed of
a.
 lipids.
c.
 proteins.
b.
 carbohydrates.
d.
 DNA.
 83.
Refer to the illustration above. The structure labeled D is a(n)
a.
 cell-surface marker.
c.
 enzyme.
b.
 receptor protein.
d.
 transport protein.
 84.
Refer to the illustration above. The structure labeled C is a(n)
a.
 cell-surface marker.
c.
 enzyme.
b.
 receptor protein.
d.
 transport protein.
 85.
Proteins in the cell membrane that identify the cell are called
a.
 cell-surface markers.
c.
 enzymes.
b.
 receptor proteins.
d.
 transport proteins.
 86.
As a result of diffusion, the concentration of many types of substances
a.
 always remains greater inside a membrane.
b.
 eventually becomes balanced on both sides of a membrane.
c.
 always remains greater outside of a membrane.
d.
 becomes imbalanced on both sides of a membrane.
 87.
Diffusion is the movement of a substance
a.
 only through a lipid bilayer membrane.
b.
 from an area of low concentration to an area of higher concentration.
c.
 only in liquids.
d.
 from an area of high concentration to an area of lower concentration.
 88.
The dispersal of ink in a beaker of water is an example of
a.
 diffusion.
c.
 active transport.
b.
 osmosis.
d.
 endocytosis.
 89.
Proteins that serve as tunnels for specific substances through the lipid bilayer are
a.
 cell-surface markers.
c.
 receptor proteins.
b.
 channel proteins.
d.
 enzymes.
 90.
Sugar molecules cross the cell membrane by
a.
 active transport.
c.
 osmosis.
b.
 facilitated diffusion.
d.
 simple diffusion.
 91.
Which of the following does not require energy?
a.
 diffusion
c.
 active transport
b.
 endocytosis
d.
 sodium-potassium pump
 92.
Ions move through ion channels by
a.
 endocytosis.
c.
 passive transport.
b.
 simple diffusion.
d.
 active transport.
 93.
The diffusion of water into or out of a cell is called
a.
 solubility.
c.
 selective transport.
b.
 osmosis.
d.
 endocytosis.
 94.
Osmosis is a type of
a.
 active transport.
c.
 simple diffusion.
b.
 passive transport.
d.
 endocytosis.
 95.
How does water pass through the cell membrane?
a.
 directly through the lipid bilayer
b.
 through a water ion pump
c.
 through water carrier proteins
d.
 through channel proteins just for water
 96.
Which of the following statements about an isotonic solution and a cell is correct?
a.
 The solution has the same solute concentration that the cytoplasm does.
b.
 The solution has a higher solute concentration than the cytoplasm does.
c.
 A cell in the solution will lose water.
d.
 A cell in the solution will gain water.
 97.
Unlike passive transport, active transport
a.
 requires energy.
b.
 moves substances down their concentration gradient.
c.
 does not involve carrier proteins.
d.
 moves water across the cell membrane.
 98.
Both active transport and facilitated diffusion involve
a.
 ATP.
b.
 movement against a concentration gradient.
c.
 carrier proteins.
d.
 channel proteins.
 99.
Which of the following is a form of active transport?
a.
 osmosis
c.
 facilitated diffusion
b.
 simple diffusion
d.
 sodium-potassium pump
 100.
The sodium-potassium pump
a.
 is a carrier protein.
c.
 is located in the cytoplasm of a cell.
b.
 uses passive transport.
d.
 transports sugar molecules.
 101.
The sodium-potassium pump usually pumps
a.
 potassium ions out of the cell.
b.
 sodium ions into the cell.
c.
 potassium ions into the cell.
d.
 only potassium ions and sugar molecules.
 102.
How many potassium ions does the sodium-potassium pump move into a cell if it moves six sodium ions out of the cell?
a.
 two
c.
 six
b.
 four
d.
 eight
 103.
Proteins and polysaccharides that are too large to move into a cell through diffusion or active transport move in by
a.
 exocytosis.
c.
 the sodium-potassium pump.
b.
 endocytosis.
d.
 channel proteins.
 104.
Molecules that are too large to be moved across a cell membrane can be removed from the cell by
a.
 diffusion.
c.
 endocytosis.
b.
 exocytosis.
d.
 osmosis.
 105.
Removing materials from a cell in vesicles is called
a.
 osmosis.
c.
 exocytosis.
b.
 diffusion.
d.
 endocytosis.
 106.
Which of the following descriptions of hormones is correct?
a.
 signal molecules distributed throughout the body
b.
 signal molecules that affect all cells in the body
c.
 target molecules that communicate through direct contact
d.
 target molecules that originate outside the body
 107.
Signal molecules bind to
a.
 carbohydrates.
c.
 receptor proteins.
b.
 marker proteins.
d.
 transport proteins.
 108.
Which of the following transmit information into a cell by binding to signal molecules?
a.
 channel proteins
c.
 marker proteins
b.
 receptor proteins
d.
 signal proteins
 109.
What change takes place in the cell membrane if a signal molecule causes a transport protein to open?
a.
 permeability change
c.
 formation of a second messenger
b.
 activation of an enzyme
d.
 change in chemical reactions
 

Completion
Complete each statement.
 110.
The random motion of particles of a substance that causes the substance to move from an area of high concentration to an area of lower concentration is called ____________________.
 111.
The diffusion of ____________________ through cell membranes is called osmosis.
 112.
Substances always flow from an area of high concentration to an area of ____________________ concentration.
 113.
When the concentration of free water molecules is higher outside a cell than inside the cell, water will diffuse ____________________ the cell.
 114.
If a cell is placed in a(n) ____________________ solution, water will flow out of the cell.
 115.
If a cell is placed in a(n) ____________________ solution, water will flow into the cell.
 116.
If a cell is placed in a(n) ____________________ solution, water flows into the cell at a rate that is equal to the rate at which water flows out of the cell.
 117.
Diffusion of ions through ion channels is a form of ____________________ transport.
 118.
If the interior of a typical cell is negatively charged, ____________________ charged ions will not require energy to diffuse into the cell using an ion channel.
 119.
In facilitated diffusion, ____________________ proteins are used to transport substances down their concentration gradient.
 120.
In ____________________ ____________________, carrier proteins do not require energy to transport amino acids into a cell.
 121.
Carrier proteins ____________________ shape to transport sugars to the interior of cells.
 122.
A cell does not expend ____________________ when diffusion takes place.
 123.
Active transport requires the use of ____________________ by a cell.
 124.
The ____________________-____________________ pump transports ions against their concentration gradients.
 125.
The sodium-potassium pump uses energy supplied by ____________________.
 126.
The sodium-potassium pump prevents the accumulation of ____________________ ions inside the cell.
 127.
The movement of a substance into a cell by a vesicle is called ____________________.
nar003-1.jpg
A
B
 128.
Refer to the illustration above. The process shown in figure B is called ____________________.
 129.
Refer to the illustration above. Cells often engulf extracellular particles and fluid, as shown in figure A. This is called ____________________.
 130.
Refer to the illustration above. The process shown in figure B is called ____________________.
 131.
Refer to the illustration above. The process shown in figure A is called ____________________.
 132.
Receptor proteins can change the ____________________ of the cell membrane.
 133.
Receptor proteins may act as ____________________, catalyzing certain chemical reactions inside the cell.
 134.
In the cell membrane, proteins that transmit information into the cell by responding to signal molecules are called ____________________.
 135.
One way cells maintain homeostasis is by controlling the movement of substances across the cell ____________________.
 136.
A(n) ____________________ is a specialized lipid made of a phosphate head and two fatty acid tails.
 137.
The phosphate head of a phospholipid is attracted to water because it is ____________________.
 138.
The fatty acid tails of a phospholipid are repelled by water because they are ____________________.
 139.
The phospholipids form a barrier through which only small, ____________________ substances can pass.
 140.
Ions and most polar molecules are repelled by the ____________________ interior of the lipid bilayer.
 141.
____________________ – ____________________ markers are attached to the cell surface and have sugars attached to their protein.
 142.
Proteins that aid in moving substances into and out of cells are called ____________________ proteins.
 143.
____________________ are proteins in the cell membrane that help with important biochemical reactions inside the cell.
 144.
____________________ proteins enable a cell to sense its surroundings by binding to certain substances outside the cell.
 145.
To reach equilibrium, substances always flow from an area of high concentration to an area of ____________________ concentration.
 146.
When one area has a higher concentration than another area does, a concentration ____________________ exists.
 147.
Substances diffuse through a cell membrane either through the lipid bilayer or through ____________________ proteins.
 148.
Oxygen and carbon dioxide pass through the lipid bilayer by ____________________ diffusion.
 149.
Diffusion of ions through ion channels is a form of ____________________ transport.
 150.
Carrier proteins change ____________________ to transport substances to the interior of cells.
 151.
A cell does not expend ____________________ when diffusion takes place.
 152.
The diffusion of ____________________ through cell membranes is called osmosis.
 153.
When the concentration of free water molecules is higher outside a cell than inside the cell, water will diffuse ____________________ the cell.
 154.
If a cell is placed in a(n) ____________________ solution, water will flow out of the cell.
 155.
If a cell is placed in a(n) ____________________ solution, water will flow into the cell.
 156.
If a cell is placed in a(n) ____________________ solution, water flows into the cell at a rate that is equal to the rate at which water flows out of the cell.
 157.
Active transport requires the use of ____________________ by a cell.
 158.
The ____________________ – ____________________ pump transports ions against their concentration gradients.
 159.
The sodium-potassium pump uses energy supplied by ____________________.
 160.
The sodium-potassium pump prevents the accumulation of ____________________ ions inside the cell.
 161.
The movement of a substance into a cell by a vesicle is called ____________________.
 162.
A signaling cell produces a signal that is detected by a ____________________ cell.
 163.
Light is an environmental ____________________ for the flowering of some plants.
 164.
In the cell membrane, proteins that bind to specific signal molecules and respond are called ____________________ proteins.
 165.
Receptor proteins can change the ____________________ of the cell membrane.
 166.
Receptor proteins may act as ____________________, triggering certain chemical reactions inside the cell.
 

Short Answer
 167.
In addition to its function as a gatekeeper, what are three other functions of the cell membrane?
 168.
What makes up the lipid bilayer?
 169.
In the lipid bilayer, what causes one layer of polar heads to face the cell’s cytoplasm and the other layer of heads to face the cell’s surroundings?
 170.
What characteristic of membrane proteins causes them to be held in the cell membrane?
 171.
What are four types of proteins in cell membranes?
 172.
What exists across a cell membrane if equilibrium is not reached?
 173.
What is the difference between how a molecule crosses the cell membrane in simple diffusion and in facilitated diffusion?
 174.
What are two types of transport proteins?
 175.
Why are some water molecules not free to move across the cell membrane?
 176.
Explain why osmosis is a form of facilitated diffusion.
 177.
What specific carrier protein moves sodium ions out of a cell and potassium ions into a cell?
 178.
What is the function of the cell membrane during endocytosis?
 179.
What are hormones, how are they distributed, and what cells do they affect?
 180.
What happens to a receptor protein once it binds to a signal molecule?
 181.
How can the cell’s response to a signal cause a permeability change?

 
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Cell Reproduction

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Cell Reproduction

 

 

Modified True/False
Indicate whether the statement is true or false.  If false, change the identified word or phrase to make the statement true.
 1.
A gene is a segment of DNA that directs the production of RNA and protein. _________________________
 2.
The information needed by a cell to direct its activities and to determine its characteristics is contained in molecules of protein. _________________________
 3.
After the replication of a cell’s DNA, there are twice as many centromeres as there are chromatids. _________________________
 4.
Cells that seldom divide spend most of their time in interphase. _________________________
 5.
After mitosis and interphase, each new cell has a complete set of the parent cell’s chromosomes. _________________________
 6.
In animal cells, cytokinesis results when a cell plate forms across the cell to divide the cytoplasm. _________________________
 7.
Plant cells separate their cytoplasm during cytokinesis when protein threads pinch the cell in half. _________________________
 8.
The cell cycle has four checkpoints that act to inhibit uncontrolled cell division. _________________________
 9.
Offspring formed by asexual reproduction look exactly like their parent. _________________________
 10.
In budding, new individuals develop from pieces of the original individual. _________________________
 11.
Some eukaryotes reproduce asexually, and some produce sexually. _________________________
 12.
In asexual reproduction, two parents each pass genetic material to their offspring. _________________________
 13.
Asexual reproduction provides for genetic diversity, the raw material for evolution. _________________________
 14.
Genetic diversity is the raw material for evolution. _________________________
 15.
Genes on chromosomes are the units of inheritance. _________________________
 16.
Each human somatic cell contains two copies of each chromosome for a total of 23 chromosomes. _________________________
 17.
Gametes are diploid so that when fertilization occurs, the resulting zygote will have the characteristic number of chromosomes for that species. _________________________
 18.
While paired together during the second division of meiosis, two chromosomes may exchange segments of DNA. _________________________
 19.
Crossing-over is the exchange of corresponding portions of chromatids between homologous chromosomes. _________________________
 20.
Random fertilization refers to the fact that homologous chromosomes are distributed randomly during meiosis. _________________________
 21.
The process by which sperm are produced in male animals is called spermatogenesis. _________________________
 22.
During the diploid life cycle, all of the cells are diploid. _________________________
 23.
During the haploid life cycle, the zygote is the only diploid cell. _________________________
 24.
In the life cycle of a plant, the gametophyte is the haploid phase that produces gametes by mitosis. _________________________
 25.
A spore gives rise to a multicellular individual without joining with another cell. _________________________
 26.
Moss plants have haploid life cycles. ______________________________
 

Multiple Choice
Identify the choice that best completes the statement or answers the question.
 27.
Which of the following is not a reason cells divide?
a.
 The cell gets too big to process and transport nutrients.
b.
 New cells are needed for growth.
c.
 DNA cannot be copied quickly enough in large cells.
d.
 Surface area-to-volume ratio becomes too large.
 28.
The chromosome of a bacterium
a.
 is wrapped around proteins.
b.
 has a circular shape.
c.
 occurs in multiple pairs within the cell.
d.
 is found within the nucleus.
 29.
The region of a chromosome where two sister chromatids are held together is called a
a.
 spindle.
c.
 nucleosome.
b.
 centromere.
d.
 centriole.
 30.
Chromatids are
a.
 dense patches within the nucleus.
b.
 bacterial chromosomes.
c.
 joined strands of duplicated genetic material.
d.
 prokaryotic nuclei.
 31.
When a chromosome condenses,
a.
 a histone wraps around chromatin.
b.
 beads form on the DNA double helix.
c.
 its centromere splits.
d.
 looped domains coil into a structure.
 32.
In order to fit within a cell, DNA becomes more compact by
a.
 breaking apart into separate genes.
b.
 extending to form very long, thin molecules.
c.
 wrapping tightly around histones.
d.
 being enzymatically changed into a protein.
 33.
In a bacterium, cell division takes place when
a.
 its nucleus divides.
b.
 the cell splits into two cells, one of which receives all of the DNA.
c.
 the DNA is copied, a new cell wall forms between the DNA copies, and the cell splits into two cells.
d.
 spindle fibers form.
 34.
The phase of the cell cycle that occupies most of an average cell’s life is
a.
 G1.
c.
 G2.
b.
 mitosis.
d.
 S.
 35.
What occurs after cytokinesis is completed?
a.
 The cell organizes its microtubules.
c.
 The cell enters G1.
b.
 The cell begins to replicate its DNA.
d.
 The cell enters G2.
 36.
Which of the following shows the correct sequence of the cell cycle?
a.
 cytokinesis ® mitosis ® G1 ® S ® G2
b.
 S ® G1 ® G2 ® mitosis ® cytokinesis
c.
 G1 ® S ® G2 ® mitosis ® cytokinesis
d.
 mitosis ® G1 ® S® G2 ® cytokinesis
 37.
Cells that are not dividing remain in the
a.
 mitosis phase.
c.
 first gap phase.
b.
 synthesis phase.
d.
 second gap phase.
 38.
The synthesis (S) phase is characterized by
a.
 DNA replication.
b.
 cell division.
c.
 replication of mitochondria and other organelles.
d.
 the division of cytoplasm.
 39.
5 steps : the cell cycle ::
a.
 6 steps : prophase
c.
 3 steps : meiosis
b.
 9 steps : cytokinesis
d.
 4 steps : mitosis
 40.
The first three phases of the cell cycle are collectively known as
a.
 a gap.
c.
 mitosis.
b.
 telophase.
d.
 interphase.
 41.
cell growth : G1 ::
a.
 mitosis : cytokinesis
b.
 mitosis : meiosis
c.
 mitochondria replication : synthesis phase
d.
 DNA copying : synthesis phase
 42.
metaphase : prophase ::
a.
 G1 : mitosis
c.
 mitosis : cytokinesis
b.
 G2 : S
d.
 S : mitosis
 43.
Mitosis is the process by which
a.
 microtubules are assembled.
b.
 cytoplasm is divided.
c.
 the nucleus is divided into two nuclei.
d.
 the cell rests.
 44.
A spindle fiber is a specialized form of
a.
 microtubule.
c.
 centriole.
b.
 centrosome.
d.
 chromosome.
 45.
The phase of mitosis that is characterized by the arrangement of all chromosomes along the equator of the cell is called
a.
 telophase.
c.
 anaphase.
b.
 metaphase.
d.
 prophase.
nar001-1.jpg
 46.
Refer to the illustration above. The cell in diagram 1 is in
a.
 metaphase.
c.
 anaphase.
b.
 telophase.
d.
 prophase.
 47.
Refer to the illustration above. Mitosis begins with the stage shown in diagram
a.
 1.
c.
 3.
b.
 2.
d.
 4.
 48.
Refer to the illustration above. The cell shown in diagram 5 is in
a.
 metaphase.
c.
 anaphase.
b.
 telophase.
d.
 prophase.
nar002-1.jpg
 49.
Refer to the illustration above. Which of the following correctly indicates the order in which these events occur?
a.
 A, B, C, D
c.
 B, A, C, D
b.
 C, B, A, D
d.
 A, C, B, D
 50.
Refer to the illustration above. During which stage do the centromeres divide?
a.
 A
c.
 C
b.
 B
d.
 D
 51.
As a result of mitosis, each of the two new cells produced from the parent cell during cytokinesis
a.
 receives a few chromosomes from the parent cell.
b.
 receives an exact copy of all the chromosomes present in the parent cell.
c.
 donates a chromosome to the parent cell.
d.
 receives exactly half the chromosomes from the parent cell.
 52.
Cytokinesis in plant cells involves the formation of
a.
 a belt of protein threads.
c.
 spindle fibers.
b.
 a cell plate.
d.
 centrioles.
 53.
Which of the following statements is true?
a.
 Prokaryotes divide by mitosis.
b.
 Eukaryotes have circular chromosomes.
c.
 Animal cells form new cell walls when they divide.
d.
 Plant cells and animal cells have different strategies for cytokinesis.
 54.
In eukaryotes, the cell cycle is controlled by
a.
 proteins.
c.
 lipids.
b.
 carbohydrates.
d.
 fats.
 55.
At the G2 checkpoint, DNA replication is checked by
a.
 receptor proteins.
c.
 repair enzymes.
b.
 electron transport chains.
d.
 cell-surface markers.
 56.
The cell cycle is monitored as each cell passes through
a.
 the S phase.
c.
 the interphase checkpoint.
b.
 checkpoints.
d.
 cytokinesis.
 57.
Normal cells become cancer cells when
a.
 regulation of cell growth and division occurs.
b.
 cells respond to control mechanisms.
c.
 cells pass through G1.
d.
 cells do not respond to checkpoints.
 58.
Which of the following is not a type of asexual reproduction?
a.
 budding
c.
 binary fission
b.
 fragmentation
d.
 fertilization
 59.
Hydras reproduce by
a.
 budding.
c.
 binary fission.
b.
 fragmentation.
d.
 parthenogenesis.
 60.
Budding is an example of
a.
 endosymbiosis.
c.
 meiosis.
b.
 asexual reproduction.
d.
 sexual reproduction.
 61.
The simplest and most primitive method of reproduction is
a.
 sexual.
c.
 haploid.
b.
 diploid.
d.
 asexual.
 62.
Binary fission
a.
 occurs when two cells collide with each other.
b.
 produces excess energy.
c.
 creates new species.
d.
 is the process by which bacteria reproduce.
 63.
The process of producing offspring is called reproduction and can be
a.
 eukaryotic or prokaryotic.
c.
 zygotic or gametic.
b.
 asexual or sexual.
d.
 haploid or diploid
 64.
Sexual reproduction includes
a.
 budding.
c.
 binary fission.
b.
 fragmentation.
d.
 fertilization
 65.
Normal human males develop from fertilized eggs containing which of the following sex chromosome combinations?
a.
 XY
c.
 XO
b.
 XX
d.
 OO
 66.
Homologous chromosomes are pairs of chromosomes containing genes that code for
a.
 different traits.
c.
 DNA.
b.
 the same traits.
d.
 sex.
 67.
In humans, gametes contain
a.
 22 autosomes and 1 sex chromosome.
b.
 1 autosome and 22 sex chromosomes.
c.
 45 autosomes and 1 sex chromosome.
d.
 1 autosome and 45 sex chromosomes.
 68.
In humans, the male determines the sex of the child because males have
a.
 two X chromosomes.
c.
 two Y chromosomes.
b.
 one X and one Y chromosome.
d.
 46 chromosomes.
 69.
The X and Y chromosomes are called
a.
 extra chromosomes.
c.
 sex chromosomes.
b.
 homologous chromosomes.
d.
 autosomes.
 70.
female : XX ::
a.
 female : gametes
c.
 male : YY
b.
 female : eggs
d.
 male : XY
 71.
How many chromosomes are in the body cells of an organism that has a haploid number of 8?
a.
 4
c.
 12
b.
 8
d.
 16
 72.
The diploid number of chromosomes in a human skin cell is 46. The number of chromosomes found in a human egg cell is
a.
 46.
c.
 23.
b.
 92.
d.
 12.5.
 73.
diploid : somatic cell :: haploid :
a.
 body cell
c.
 gamete
b.
 chromosome
d.
 zygote
 74.
A haploid cell is one that
a.
 has two homologues of each chromosome.
b.
 is designated by the symbol 2n.
c.
 has chromosomes found in pairs.
d.
 has one set of chromosomes.
nar003-1.jpg
 75.
Refer to the illustration above. The process shown is
a.
 mitosis.
c.
 meiosis.
b.
 chromosomal mutation.
d.
 dominance.
 76.
Separation of homologues occurs during
a.
 mitosis.
c.
 meiosis II.
b.
 meiosis I.
d.
 fertilization.
 77.
When crossing-over takes place, chromosomes
a.
 mutate in the first division.
b.
 produce new genes.
c.
 decrease in number.
d.
 exchange corresponding segments of DNA.

Using the information you have learned about cell reproduction, infer answers to the questions below about a cell with a diploid number of 4 chromosomes. Select from among the diagrams below, labeled A, B, C, D, and E, to answer the questions.

nar004-1.jpg
 78.
Which of the diagrams above depicts a cell at the end of meiosis I?
a.
 B
c.
 D
b.
 C
d.
 E
 79.
Which of the diagrams above depicts a cell at the end of meiosis II?
a.
 A
c.
 C
b.
 B
d.
 D
 80.
Which of the diagrams above depicts a cell at the beginning of mitosis?
a.
 B
c.
 D
b.
 C
d.
 E
 81.
Which of the diagrams above depicts a cell at the end of mitosis?
a.
 A
c.
 C
b.
 B
d.
 D
 82.
The difference between anaphase of mitosis and anaphase I of meiosis is that
a.
 the chromosomes line up at the equator in anaphase I.
b.
 centromeres do not exist in anaphase I.
c.
 chromatids do not separate at the centromere in anaphase I.
d.
 crossing-over occurs only in anaphase of mitosis.
 83.
The exchange of segments of DNA between the members of a pair of chromosomes
a.
 ensures that variations within a species never occur.
b.
 acts as a source of variations within a species.
c.
 always produces genetic disorders.
d.
 is called genetic crossing.
 84.
Crossing-over occurs
a.
 during prophase II.
c.
 during prophase I.
b.
 during fertilization.
d.
 at the centromere.
 85.
Which of the following does not provide new genetic combinations?
a.
 random fertilization
c.
 independent assortment
b.
 cytokinesis
d.
 crossing-over
 86.
During cytokinesis in the female, what divides unequally?
a.
 the sperm cell
c.
 the cytoplasm
b.
 the ovary
d.
 the DNA
 87.
The more common name for an ovum is a(n)
a.
 egg.
c.
 nutrient.
b.
 hormone.
d.
 polar body.
 88.
To create new haploid cells during the haploid life cycle, the zygote undergoes
a.
 mitosis.
c.
 fusion.
b.
 fertilization.
d.
 meiosis.
 89.
Which of the following is not a type of sexual life cycle?
a.
 alternation of generations
c.
 diploid
b.
 haploid
d.
 parthenogenesis
 90.
In alternation of generations, a diploid spore-forming cell gives rise to four
a.
 zygotes.
c.
 haploid spores.
b.
 sperm cells.
d.
 diploid spores.
 91.
During alternation of generations, cells reproduce by
a.
 meiosis only.
c.
 both meiosis and mitosis.
b.
 mitosis only.
d.
 binary fission.
 

Completion
Complete each statement.
 92.
Growth occurs through cell enlargement and cell ____________________.
 93.
The DNA in eukaryotic cells is packaged into structures called ____________________.
 94.
A duplicated chromosome consists of two identical ____________________, which are held together at the centromere.
 95.
The sequence of events that occurs in a cell from one cell division to the next is called the ____________________.
 96.
Collectively, the time spent in G1 + S + G2 is called ____________________.
 97.
A cell’s DNA is copied during the ____________________ phase.
 98.
Cells that are not dividing remain in the ____________________ phase.
 99.
Spindle fibers are made of hollow tubes of protein called ____________________.
 100.
The spindle is assembled by the ____________________.
 101.
In most eukaryotic cells, ____________________ takes place after the nucleus divides.
 102.
In plant cells, a(n) ____________________ forms in the center of the cell during cytokinesis.
 103.
Normal cell growth and cell division are regulated by ____________________.
 104.
The cell cycle is controlled in eukaryotes at three principal ____________________.
 105.
Loss of control and regulation of the ____________________ can result in the development of cancer.
 106.
The separation of a parent into two or more individuals of about equal size is called ____________________.
 107.
Binary fission is the process by which ____________________ split asexually into two identical organisms.
 108.
Only ____________________ cells can produce gametes.
 109.
Somatic cells containing two sets of 23 chromosomes each are always ____________________.
 110.
After a new nuclear membrane forms during telophase I of meiosis, the ____________________ divides, resulting in two cells.
 111.
The process called ____________________ guarantees that the number of chromosomes in gametes is half the number of chromosomes in body cells.
 112.
Prophase I of meiosis is different from prophase of mitosis in that every chromosome pairs with its ____________________.
 113.
A reciprocal exchange of corresponding segments of DNA is called ____________________ – ____________________.
 114.
The four haploid cells formed in the male at the end of meiosis II develop tails and are called ____________________.
 115.
The diploid number of chromosomes is re-established through ____________________.
 116.
In a haploid life cycle, ____________________ results in the first cell of a multicellular haploid organism.

 
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