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Cell Reproduction

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Cell Reproduction

 

 

Modified True/False
Indicate whether the statement is true or false.  If false, change the identified word or phrase to make the statement true.
 1.
A gene is a segment of DNA that directs the production of RNA and protein. _________________________
 2.
The information needed by a cell to direct its activities and to determine its characteristics is contained in molecules of protein. _________________________
 3.
After the replication of a cell’s DNA, there are twice as many centromeres as there are chromatids. _________________________
 4.
Cells that seldom divide spend most of their time in interphase. _________________________
 5.
After mitosis and interphase, each new cell has a complete set of the parent cell’s chromosomes. _________________________
 6.
In animal cells, cytokinesis results when a cell plate forms across the cell to divide the cytoplasm. _________________________
 7.
Plant cells separate their cytoplasm during cytokinesis when protein threads pinch the cell in half. _________________________
 8.
The cell cycle has four checkpoints that act to inhibit uncontrolled cell division. _________________________
 9.
Offspring formed by asexual reproduction look exactly like their parent. _________________________
 10.
In budding, new individuals develop from pieces of the original individual. _________________________
 11.
Some eukaryotes reproduce asexually, and some produce sexually. _________________________
 12.
In asexual reproduction, two parents each pass genetic material to their offspring. _________________________
 13.
Asexual reproduction provides for genetic diversity, the raw material for evolution. _________________________
 14.
Genetic diversity is the raw material for evolution. _________________________
 15.
Genes on chromosomes are the units of inheritance. _________________________
 16.
Each human somatic cell contains two copies of each chromosome for a total of 23 chromosomes. _________________________
 17.
Gametes are diploid so that when fertilization occurs, the resulting zygote will have the characteristic number of chromosomes for that species. _________________________
 18.
While paired together during the second division of meiosis, two chromosomes may exchange segments of DNA. _________________________
 19.
Crossing-over is the exchange of corresponding portions of chromatids between homologous chromosomes. _________________________
 20.
Random fertilization refers to the fact that homologous chromosomes are distributed randomly during meiosis. _________________________
 21.
The process by which sperm are produced in male animals is called spermatogenesis. _________________________
 22.
During the diploid life cycle, all of the cells are diploid. _________________________
 23.
During the haploid life cycle, the zygote is the only diploid cell. _________________________
 24.
In the life cycle of a plant, the gametophyte is the haploid phase that produces gametes by mitosis. _________________________
 25.
A spore gives rise to a multicellular individual without joining with another cell. _________________________
 26.
Moss plants have haploid life cycles. ______________________________
 

Multiple Choice
Identify the choice that best completes the statement or answers the question.
 27.
Which of the following is not a reason cells divide?
a.
 The cell gets too big to process and transport nutrients.
b.
 New cells are needed for growth.
c.
 DNA cannot be copied quickly enough in large cells.
d.
 Surface area-to-volume ratio becomes too large.
 28.
The chromosome of a bacterium
a.
 is wrapped around proteins.
b.
 has a circular shape.
c.
 occurs in multiple pairs within the cell.
d.
 is found within the nucleus.
 29.
The region of a chromosome where two sister chromatids are held together is called a
a.
 spindle.
c.
 nucleosome.
b.
 centromere.
d.
 centriole.
 30.
Chromatids are
a.
 dense patches within the nucleus.
b.
 bacterial chromosomes.
c.
 joined strands of duplicated genetic material.
d.
 prokaryotic nuclei.
 31.
When a chromosome condenses,
a.
 a histone wraps around chromatin.
b.
 beads form on the DNA double helix.
c.
 its centromere splits.
d.
 looped domains coil into a structure.
 32.
In order to fit within a cell, DNA becomes more compact by
a.
 breaking apart into separate genes.
b.
 extending to form very long, thin molecules.
c.
 wrapping tightly around histones.
d.
 being enzymatically changed into a protein.
 33.
In a bacterium, cell division takes place when
a.
 its nucleus divides.
b.
 the cell splits into two cells, one of which receives all of the DNA.
c.
 the DNA is copied, a new cell wall forms between the DNA copies, and the cell splits into two cells.
d.
 spindle fibers form.
 34.
The phase of the cell cycle that occupies most of an average cell’s life is
a.
 G1.
c.
 G2.
b.
 mitosis.
d.
 S.
 35.
What occurs after cytokinesis is completed?
a.
 The cell organizes its microtubules.
c.
 The cell enters G1.
b.
 The cell begins to replicate its DNA.
d.
 The cell enters G2.
 36.
Which of the following shows the correct sequence of the cell cycle?
a.
 cytokinesis ® mitosis ® G1 ® S ® G2
b.
 S ® G1 ® G2 ® mitosis ® cytokinesis
c.
 G1 ® S ® G2 ® mitosis ® cytokinesis
d.
 mitosis ® G1 ® S® G2 ® cytokinesis
 37.
Cells that are not dividing remain in the
a.
 mitosis phase.
c.
 first gap phase.
b.
 synthesis phase.
d.
 second gap phase.
 38.
The synthesis (S) phase is characterized by
a.
 DNA replication.
b.
 cell division.
c.
 replication of mitochondria and other organelles.
d.
 the division of cytoplasm.
 39.
5 steps : the cell cycle ::
a.
 6 steps : prophase
c.
 3 steps : meiosis
b.
 9 steps : cytokinesis
d.
 4 steps : mitosis
 40.
The first three phases of the cell cycle are collectively known as
a.
 a gap.
c.
 mitosis.
b.
 telophase.
d.
 interphase.
 41.
cell growth : G1 ::
a.
 mitosis : cytokinesis
b.
 mitosis : meiosis
c.
 mitochondria replication : synthesis phase
d.
 DNA copying : synthesis phase
 42.
metaphase : prophase ::
a.
 G1 : mitosis
c.
 mitosis : cytokinesis
b.
 G2 : S
d.
 S : mitosis
 43.
Mitosis is the process by which
a.
 microtubules are assembled.
b.
 cytoplasm is divided.
c.
 the nucleus is divided into two nuclei.
d.
 the cell rests.
 44.
A spindle fiber is a specialized form of
a.
 microtubule.
c.
 centriole.
b.
 centrosome.
d.
 chromosome.
 45.
The phase of mitosis that is characterized by the arrangement of all chromosomes along the equator of the cell is called
a.
 telophase.
c.
 anaphase.
b.
 metaphase.
d.
 prophase.
nar001-1.jpg
 46.
Refer to the illustration above. The cell in diagram 1 is in
a.
 metaphase.
c.
 anaphase.
b.
 telophase.
d.
 prophase.
 47.
Refer to the illustration above. Mitosis begins with the stage shown in diagram
a.
 1.
c.
 3.
b.
 2.
d.
 4.
 48.
Refer to the illustration above. The cell shown in diagram 5 is in
a.
 metaphase.
c.
 anaphase.
b.
 telophase.
d.
 prophase.
nar002-1.jpg
 49.
Refer to the illustration above. Which of the following correctly indicates the order in which these events occur?
a.
 A, B, C, D
c.
 B, A, C, D
b.
 C, B, A, D
d.
 A, C, B, D
 50.
Refer to the illustration above. During which stage do the centromeres divide?
a.
 A
c.
 C
b.
 B
d.
 D
 51.
As a result of mitosis, each of the two new cells produced from the parent cell during cytokinesis
a.
 receives a few chromosomes from the parent cell.
b.
 receives an exact copy of all the chromosomes present in the parent cell.
c.
 donates a chromosome to the parent cell.
d.
 receives exactly half the chromosomes from the parent cell.
 52.
Cytokinesis in plant cells involves the formation of
a.
 a belt of protein threads.
c.
 spindle fibers.
b.
 a cell plate.
d.
 centrioles.
 53.
Which of the following statements is true?
a.
 Prokaryotes divide by mitosis.
b.
 Eukaryotes have circular chromosomes.
c.
 Animal cells form new cell walls when they divide.
d.
 Plant cells and animal cells have different strategies for cytokinesis.
 54.
In eukaryotes, the cell cycle is controlled by
a.
 proteins.
c.
 lipids.
b.
 carbohydrates.
d.
 fats.
 55.
At the G2 checkpoint, DNA replication is checked by
a.
 receptor proteins.
c.
 repair enzymes.
b.
 electron transport chains.
d.
 cell-surface markers.
 56.
The cell cycle is monitored as each cell passes through
a.
 the S phase.
c.
 the interphase checkpoint.
b.
 checkpoints.
d.
 cytokinesis.
 57.
Normal cells become cancer cells when
a.
 regulation of cell growth and division occurs.
b.
 cells respond to control mechanisms.
c.
 cells pass through G1.
d.
 cells do not respond to checkpoints.
 58.
Which of the following is not a type of asexual reproduction?
a.
 budding
c.
 binary fission
b.
 fragmentation
d.
 fertilization
 59.
Hydras reproduce by
a.
 budding.
c.
 binary fission.
b.
 fragmentation.
d.
 parthenogenesis.
 60.
Budding is an example of
a.
 endosymbiosis.
c.
 meiosis.
b.
 asexual reproduction.
d.
 sexual reproduction.
 61.
The simplest and most primitive method of reproduction is
a.
 sexual.
c.
 haploid.
b.
 diploid.
d.
 asexual.
 62.
Binary fission
a.
 occurs when two cells collide with each other.
b.
 produces excess energy.
c.
 creates new species.
d.
 is the process by which bacteria reproduce.
 63.
The process of producing offspring is called reproduction and can be
a.
 eukaryotic or prokaryotic.
c.
 zygotic or gametic.
b.
 asexual or sexual.
d.
 haploid or diploid
 64.
Sexual reproduction includes
a.
 budding.
c.
 binary fission.
b.
 fragmentation.
d.
 fertilization
 65.
Normal human males develop from fertilized eggs containing which of the following sex chromosome combinations?
a.
 XY
c.
 XO
b.
 XX
d.
 OO
 66.
Homologous chromosomes are pairs of chromosomes containing genes that code for
a.
 different traits.
c.
 DNA.
b.
 the same traits.
d.
 sex.
 67.
In humans, gametes contain
a.
 22 autosomes and 1 sex chromosome.
b.
 1 autosome and 22 sex chromosomes.
c.
 45 autosomes and 1 sex chromosome.
d.
 1 autosome and 45 sex chromosomes.
 68.
In humans, the male determines the sex of the child because males have
a.
 two X chromosomes.
c.
 two Y chromosomes.
b.
 one X and one Y chromosome.
d.
 46 chromosomes.
 69.
The X and Y chromosomes are called
a.
 extra chromosomes.
c.
 sex chromosomes.
b.
 homologous chromosomes.
d.
 autosomes.
 70.
female : XX ::
a.
 female : gametes
c.
 male : YY
b.
 female : eggs
d.
 male : XY
 71.
How many chromosomes are in the body cells of an organism that has a haploid number of 8?
a.
 4
c.
 12
b.
 8
d.
 16
 72.
The diploid number of chromosomes in a human skin cell is 46. The number of chromosomes found in a human egg cell is
a.
 46.
c.
 23.
b.
 92.
d.
 12.5.
 73.
diploid : somatic cell :: haploid :
a.
 body cell
c.
 gamete
b.
 chromosome
d.
 zygote
 74.
A haploid cell is one that
a.
 has two homologues of each chromosome.
b.
 is designated by the symbol 2n.
c.
 has chromosomes found in pairs.
d.
 has one set of chromosomes.
nar003-1.jpg
 75.
Refer to the illustration above. The process shown is
a.
 mitosis.
c.
 meiosis.
b.
 chromosomal mutation.
d.
 dominance.
 76.
Separation of homologues occurs during
a.
 mitosis.
c.
 meiosis II.
b.
 meiosis I.
d.
 fertilization.
 77.
When crossing-over takes place, chromosomes
a.
 mutate in the first division.
b.
 produce new genes.
c.
 decrease in number.
d.
 exchange corresponding segments of DNA.

Using the information you have learned about cell reproduction, infer answers to the questions below about a cell with a diploid number of 4 chromosomes. Select from among the diagrams below, labeled A, B, C, D, and E, to answer the questions.

nar004-1.jpg
 78.
Which of the diagrams above depicts a cell at the end of meiosis I?
a.
 B
c.
 D
b.
 C
d.
 E
 79.
Which of the diagrams above depicts a cell at the end of meiosis II?
a.
 A
c.
 C
b.
 B
d.
 D
 80.
Which of the diagrams above depicts a cell at the beginning of mitosis?
a.
 B
c.
 D
b.
 C
d.
 E
 81.
Which of the diagrams above depicts a cell at the end of mitosis?
a.
 A
c.
 C
b.
 B
d.
 D
 82.
The difference between anaphase of mitosis and anaphase I of meiosis is that
a.
 the chromosomes line up at the equator in anaphase I.
b.
 centromeres do not exist in anaphase I.
c.
 chromatids do not separate at the centromere in anaphase I.
d.
 crossing-over occurs only in anaphase of mitosis.
 83.
The exchange of segments of DNA between the members of a pair of chromosomes
a.
 ensures that variations within a species never occur.
b.
 acts as a source of variations within a species.
c.
 always produces genetic disorders.
d.
 is called genetic crossing.
 84.
Crossing-over occurs
a.
 during prophase II.
c.
 during prophase I.
b.
 during fertilization.
d.
 at the centromere.
 85.
Which of the following does not provide new genetic combinations?
a.
 random fertilization
c.
 independent assortment
b.
 cytokinesis
d.
 crossing-over
 86.
During cytokinesis in the female, what divides unequally?
a.
 the sperm cell
c.
 the cytoplasm
b.
 the ovary
d.
 the DNA
 87.
The more common name for an ovum is a(n)
a.
 egg.
c.
 nutrient.
b.
 hormone.
d.
 polar body.
 88.
To create new haploid cells during the haploid life cycle, the zygote undergoes
a.
 mitosis.
c.
 fusion.
b.
 fertilization.
d.
 meiosis.
 89.
Which of the following is not a type of sexual life cycle?
a.
 alternation of generations
c.
 diploid
b.
 haploid
d.
 parthenogenesis
 90.
In alternation of generations, a diploid spore-forming cell gives rise to four
a.
 zygotes.
c.
 haploid spores.
b.
 sperm cells.
d.
 diploid spores.
 91.
During alternation of generations, cells reproduce by
a.
 meiosis only.
c.
 both meiosis and mitosis.
b.
 mitosis only.
d.
 binary fission.
 

Completion
Complete each statement.
 92.
Growth occurs through cell enlargement and cell ____________________.
 93.
The DNA in eukaryotic cells is packaged into structures called ____________________.
 94.
A duplicated chromosome consists of two identical ____________________, which are held together at the centromere.
 95.
The sequence of events that occurs in a cell from one cell division to the next is called the ____________________.
 96.
Collectively, the time spent in G1 + S + G2 is called ____________________.
 97.
A cell’s DNA is copied during the ____________________ phase.
 98.
Cells that are not dividing remain in the ____________________ phase.
 99.
Spindle fibers are made of hollow tubes of protein called ____________________.
 100.
The spindle is assembled by the ____________________.
 101.
In most eukaryotic cells, ____________________ takes place after the nucleus divides.
 102.
In plant cells, a(n) ____________________ forms in the center of the cell during cytokinesis.
 103.
Normal cell growth and cell division are regulated by ____________________.
 104.
The cell cycle is controlled in eukaryotes at three principal ____________________.
 105.
Loss of control and regulation of the ____________________ can result in the development of cancer.
 106.
The separation of a parent into two or more individuals of about equal size is called ____________________.
 107.
Binary fission is the process by which ____________________ split asexually into two identical organisms.
 108.
Only ____________________ cells can produce gametes.
 109.
Somatic cells containing two sets of 23 chromosomes each are always ____________________.
 110.
After a new nuclear membrane forms during telophase I of meiosis, the ____________________ divides, resulting in two cells.
 111.
The process called ____________________ guarantees that the number of chromosomes in gametes is half the number of chromosomes in body cells.
 112.
Prophase I of meiosis is different from prophase of mitosis in that every chromosome pairs with its ____________________.
 113.
A reciprocal exchange of corresponding segments of DNA is called ____________________ – ____________________.
 114.
The four haploid cells formed in the male at the end of meiosis II develop tails and are called ____________________.
 115.
The diploid number of chromosomes is re-established through ____________________.
 116.
In a haploid life cycle, ____________________ results in the first cell of a multicellular haploid organism.

 
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Bacteria Quiz

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Bacteria

 

 

True/False
Indicate whether the sentence or statement is true or false.
1.
Gram-negative bacteria have a thick layer of peptidoglycan that stains purple.
2.
Bacteria lack nuclei and therefore also lack genetic material.
3.
Bacterial cells have membrane-bound organelles and chromosomes.
4.
Bacterial cells are usually much larger than eukaryotic cells.
5.
Bacteria are incapable of movement themselves; they can only get to new locations by growing toward them or by forming endospores and being carried in air or water.
6.
Some bacteria cannot survive in the presence of oxygen.
7.
When bacteria undergo nonreproductive genetic recombination, their bacterial chromosome is altered.
8.
Certain antibiotics have become ineffective against certain strains of bacteria. These bacteria have developed a resistance, which may be passed on from one generation of bacteria to the next.
 

Multiple Choice
Identify the letter of the choice that best completes the statement or answers the question.
9.
The earliest known group of living organisms on Earth was
a.
viruses.
c.
bacteria.
b.
fungi.
d.
protists.
10.
Bacteria are the only organisms characterized as
a.
unicellular.
c.
eukaryotic.
b.
prokaryotic.
d.
photosynthetic.
11.
Bacteria can be classified according to their
a.
type of cell walls.
c.
Gram-staining characteristics.
b.
methods of obtaining energy.
d.
All of the above
bacteria1_files/i0140000.jpg
12.
Refer to the illustration above. Which of the diagrams has a shape like the Bacillus bacterial genus?
a.
Organism “A”
c.
Organism “C”
b.
Organism “B”
d.
None of the above
13.
When tested with a Gram stain, gram-positive bacteria are stained
a.
green.
c.
pink.
b.
yellow.
d.
purple.
14.
It is important to distinguish between Gram-positive and Gram-negative bacteria in diagnosing a bacterial infection because
a.
Gram-negative bacteria do not respond to many antibiotics.
b.
Gram-positive bacteria never cause fatal diseases.
c.
Gram-positive bacteria destroy antibiotics, preventing them from working.
d.
Gram-positive bacteria respond to many antibiotics.
      bacteria1_files/i0180000.jpg
15.
Refer to the illustration above. If the bacterium in the diagram is Gram-negative, what two types of molecules would be found in the structure labeled “B”?
a.
protein and lipids
c.
polysaccharides and lipids
b.
protein and polysaccharides
d.
nucleic acid and lipids
16.
Which of the following comparisons is incorrect?
      PROKARYOTES      EUKARYOTES
a.
smaller      larger
b.
circular chromosomes      linear chromosomes
c.
binary fission      mitosis
d.
chloroplasts      mitochondria
17.
Structures found in a eukaryotic cell but not in a bacterial cell are
a.
cell nuclei.
c.
membrane-bound organelles.
b.
chromosomes.
d.
All of the above
18.
Cell organelles that E. coli and other bacteria have in common with eukaryotes are
a.
chloroplasts.
c.
nuclei.
b.
mitochondria.
d.
ribosomes.
19.
Which of the following conditions would be unsuitable for any kind of bacteria to grow?
a.
temperature of 110ºC (230ºF)
c.
pH of 5
b.
absence of water
d.
absence of oxygen
20.
Which of the following is a fermentation product of bacteria?
a.
ricotta cheese
c.
yogurt
b.
ice cream
d.
cottage cheese

 
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Bacteria Study Guide

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Bacteria Study Guide

 

 

Multiple Choice
Identify the choice that best completes the statement or answers the question.
 1.
The earliest known group of living organisms on Earth was
a.
 viruses.
c.
 bacteria.
b.
 fungi.
d.
 protists.
 2.
Bacteria and archaea are the only organisms characterized as
a.
 unicellular.
c.
 eukaryotic.
b.
 prokaryotic.
d.
 photosynthetic.
 3.
Bacteria can be classified according to their
a.
 type of cell walls.
b.
 methods of obtaining energy.
c.
 Gram-staining characteristics.
d.
 All of the above
nar001-1.jpg
 4.
Refer to the illustration above. Which of the organisms shown has the shape called bacillus?
a.
 organism 1
c.
 organism 3
b.
 organism 2
d.
 None of the above
 5.
Refer to the illustration above. The shape represented by organism 3 is called
a.
 coccus.
c.
 bacillus.
b.
 spirillum.
d.
 filamentous.
 6.
When tested with a Gram stain, Gram-positive bacteria are stained
a.
 green.
c.
 pink.
b.
 yellow.
d.
 purple.
 7.
Bacteria lack a true nucleus and membrane-bound organelles; therefore, they are classified as
a.
 prokaryotes.
c.
 anaerobes.
b.
 aerobes.
d.
 eukaryotes.
 8.
The cytoplasm of bacteria
a.
 contains numerous types of organelles.
b.
 is divided into compartments.
c.
 has varying numbers of chromosomes, depending on the species of bacteria.
d.
 contains a single chromosome.
 9.

Which of the following comparisons is incorrect?

PROKARYOTES      EUKARYOTES
a.
 smaller      larger
b.
 circular chromosomes      linear chromosomes
c.
 binary fission      mitosis
d.
 chloroplasts      mitochondria
 10.
One difference between human body cells and bacterial cells is that bacterial cells have
a.
 an outer cell wall made up of phosphates.
b.
 a cell wall made up of peptidoglycan.
c.
 no DNA.
d.
 no ribosomes.
 11.
Structures found in a eukaryotic cell but not in a bacterial cell are
a.
 cell nuclei.
b.
 multiple chromosomes.
c.
 membrane-bound organelles.
d.
 All of the above
 12.
Which of the following might be found in the cytoplasm of a bacterial cell?
a.
 chloroplasts
c.
 mitochondria
b.
 Golgi apparatus
d.
 None of the above
 13.
Bacterial cells
a.
 have a cell wall only.
b.
 have a cell membrane only.
c.
 have both a cell membrane and cell wall.
d.
 have a cell wall inside their cell membrane.
 14.
One thing that E. coli and other bacteria have in common with eukaryotes is the presence of
a.
 chloroplasts.
c.
 nuclei.
b.
 mitochondria.
d.
 DNA.
 15.
Bacterial endospores
a.
 occur where there is plenty of available food.
b.
 allow certain species to survive harsh environmental conditions.
c.
 are similar to human tumors.
d.
 can cause growth abnormalities in plants.
 16.
Which of the following are used by at least some bacteria for movement?
a.
 pili
b.
 flagella
c.
 cytoplasmic projections
d.
 All of the above
 17.
phototrophic bacteria : sunlight ::
a.
 chemotrophic bacteria : dead organisms
b.
 chemoautotrophic bacteria : inorganic molecules
c.
 photosynthesis : nitrification
d.
 heterotrophic bacteria : inorganic molecules
 18.
Which of the following conditions would be unsuitable for any kind of bacteria to grow?
a.
 temperature of 110ºC (230ºF)
b.
 absence of oxygen
c.
 pH of 5
d.
 None of the above
 19.
Prokaryotes can transfer pieces of genetic material in a process called
a.
 binary fission.
c.
 conjugation.
b.
 mitosis.
d.
 sexual reproduction.
 20.
During the process of transduction
a.
 a virus obtains DNA from a host bacterium.
b.
 a bacterial cell takes in DNA from the external environment.
c.
 one bacterium transfers DNA to another.
d.
 two bacteria exchange DNA.
 21.
A pathogen is an agent that is
a.
 beneficial to humans.
b.
 harmful only to plants.
c.
 harmful to living organisms.
d.
 nearly extinct.
 22.
Which of the following foods is not a fermentation product of bacteria?
a.
 sour cream
c.
 milk
b.
 a pickle
d.
 yogurt
 23.
Antibiotics
a.
 include penicillin and tetracycline.
b.
 may prevent bacteria from making new cell walls.
c.
 can be effective treatments for bacterial diseases.
d.
 All of the above
 24.
All of the following are habitats of archaea except
a.
 volcanic vents.
b.
 intestinal tract of cows.
c.
 salt lakes.
d.
 human skin.
 25.
Which of the following is not a way of preventing a foodborne illness at home?
a.
 washing kitchen utensils thoroughly in cold water
b.
 keeping cooked and raw foods separate during storage
c.
 washing fresh fruits and vegetables before eating them
d.
 refrigerating leftovers promptly
 

Completion
Complete each statement.
 26.
A spiral bacterium is called a(n) ____________________.
 27.
Spherical bacteria are called ____________________.
 28.
Rod-shaped bacteria are called ____________________.
 29.
The procedure used to distinguish between two types of bacterial cell wall composition is called ____________________.
 30.
Protective structures that some bacteria may form under harsh conditions are ____________________.
 31.
The cell walls of bacteria are composed of a combination of polysaccharide and polypeptide called ____________________.
 32.
Bacteria that obtain their energy from inorganic molecules, rather than from the sun, are called ____________________ bacteria.
 33.
In general, organisms that obtain their energy from sunlight are called ____________________.
 34.
Bacteria that get carbon from other organisms are called ____________________.
 35.
A(n) ____________________ is a substance that can be obtained from bacteria or fungi and can be used as a drug to fight pathogenic bacteria.
 36.
Many bacteria are ____________________ and must have oxygen to live, whereas other bacteria are ____________________ and cannot live where oxygen is present.
 37.
Bacteria that can survive either with or without oxygen are called _________________________.
 38.
Archaea are more closely related to ____________________ than they are to ____________________.
 39.
____________________ are poisons that can cause disease when bacteria secrete them into their environment.
 40.
The evolution of populations of pathogenic bacteria that antibiotics cannot kill is called _________________________.

 
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Amphibian Study Guides

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Amphibian Quiz

 

 

Multiple Choice
Identify the choice that best completes the statement or answers the question.
 1.
The word amphibian is derived from Greek words meaning
a.
 “fishlike.”
c.
 “double life.”
b.
 “froglike.”
d.
 “first lunged.”
 2.
Which of the following is not evidence that amphibians evolved from a lobe-finned fish?
a.
 The limb bones of amphibians are similar in shape and position to those of lobe-finned fishes.
b.
 Amphibians’ limb bones are used to support the body.
c.
 Amphibians are still alive, while lobe-finned fishes are extinct.
d.
 Both amphibians and lobe-finned fishes have a skull and a vertebral column.
 3.
The earliest known land vertebrates
a.
 were salamanders.
b.
 were amphibians.
c.
 lacked bones in their legs.
d.
 were now-extinct reptiles.
 4.
In amphibians, gases are exchanged through the gills, lungs, and
a.
 heart.
c.
 lateral line system.
b.
 air bladder.
d.
 skin.
 5.
Toads, like frogs,
a.
 cannot live in moist areas.
b.
 generally return to the water to reproduce.
c.
 have long tails as adults.
d.
 belong to the order Caudata.
 6.
Amphibians without tails are classified in the order
a.
 Apoda.
c.
 Caudata.
b.
 Anura.
d.
 Hydrodela.
 7.
Newts and salamanders are amphibians of the order
a.
 Apoda.
c.
 Caudata.
b.
 Anura.
d.
 Gymnophiona.
 8.
Amphibians have thin, moist skin
a.
 to allow easier gas exchange.
b.
 because thin, moist skin cannot be eaten by a predator.
c.
 so that they can slip easily into tight places.
d.
 to resist water loss.
 9.
Some type of strong skeletal support
a.
 exists in all animals, whether they are aquatic or terrestrial.
b.
 is necessary for animals to live outside aquatic environments.
c.
 is present primarily in aquatic vertebrates.
d.
 evolved first in reptiles.
 10.
Which of the following characteristics of the skeletons of frogs are adaptations for jumping?
a.
 forelimbs attached to a pectoral girdle and hind limbs attached to a pelvic girdle
b.
 fusion of bones of the lower limbs and of part of the vertebral column
c.
 cervical vertebrae
d.
 many separate, distinct vertebrae
 11.
All terrestrial vertebrates
a.
 must stay near water in order to reproduce.
b.
 have thin, moist skin for gas exchange.
c.
 have tracheal systems for delivering oxygen to cells.
d.
 have a double-loop circulatory system.
 12.
Which of the following is not a preadaptation in the transition from aquatic to terrestrial life?
a.
 bone structure in the fins that worked like legs
b.
 modified pouches in the digestive tract, which evolved into swim bladders
c.
 internal nostrils
d.
 a lateral line system
 13.
The amount of oxygen a lung can absorb depends primarily on
a.
 its thickness.
b.
 its position in the body of an animal.
c.
 its internal surface area.
d.
 the diameter of the bronchioles in the lung.
 14.
Adult frogs, like other amphibians, are
a.
 herbivores.
c.
 parasites.
b.
 omnivores.
d.
 carnivores.
 15.
Male frogs attract females by means of
a.
 vocalizations.
c.
 pheromones.
b.
 the amplexus.
d.
 metamorphosis.
 16.
Which of the following senses is not more developed in amphibians than in bony fishes?
a.
 lateral line system
c.
 smell
b.
 vision
d.
 hearing
 17.
Frogs reproduce in water or moist places because their eggs
a.
 are fertilized externally.
b.
 have a jelly-like coating that is permeable to water.
c.
 will dry out if removed from moisture.
d.
 All of the above
 18.
The series of changes in the life cycle of a frog is called
a.
 amniocentesis.
c.
 evolution.
b.
 metamorphosis.
d.
 synapsis.
 19.
During metamorphosis in frogs,
a.
 lungs replace gills.
b.
 limbs develop.
c.
 the tail disappears.
d.
 All of the above
 20.
Which of the following is not a method used by at least some frogs for caring for fertilized eggs as they develop?
a.
 gastric brooding
b.
 keeping eggs in vocal sacs
c.
 sitting on eggs
d.
 laying eggs on land
 

Completion
Complete each statement.
 21.
Amphibians differ from lobe-finned fishes and most other fishes in that they take in oxygen through their ____________________ and skin.
 22.
Salamanders and ____________________ are amphibians with a distinct head, tail, and limbs.
 23.
Frogs and toads are amphibians of the order ____________________.
 24.
Amphibians supplement the use of their lungs by respiring directly through their skin. This “skin breathing” is called ____________________ respiration.
 25.
Amphibians achieve more efficient circulation than fishes because of their ____________________ circulatory system.
 26.
In amphibians, the blood vessels that go from the lungs to the heart are called the ____________________ veins.
 27.
Young frogs respire using ____________________, while adult frogs respire using ____________________ and skin.
 28.
The tympanic membrane is another word for the ____________________.
 29.
The process of change that transforms a tadpole into an adult frog is called ____________________.
 30.
The male Darwin’s frog (Rhinoderma darwinii) protects maturing eggs by enclosing them in its ____________________ sacs, while a female gastric-brooding frog protects its eggs by keeping them in its ____________________.

 
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Annelids

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Annelids

 

 

True/False
Indicate whether the sentence or statement is true or false.
1.
Different regions of an annelid’s body specialize for different functions.
2.
Some leeches have become specialized to a parasitic way of life by developing the ability to suck blood from the bodies of other organisms.
 

Multiple Choice
Identify the letter of the choice that best completes the statement or answers the question.
3.
Twisting of the visceral mass of gastropods is called
a.
extension.
c.
torsion.
b.
inversion.
d.
conversion.
4.
Among the various species of gastropods, respiration may take place
a.
with gills.
c.
with lungs.
b.
through the skin.
d.
All of the above
5.
Segmented worms are known as
a.
nematodes.
c.
planarians.
b.
annelids.
d.
arthropods.
6.
Each segment of an annelid
a.
is capable of reproduction.
b.
has a well-developed brain.
c.
has a pseudocoelom.
d.
has a complete set of digestive organs.
7.
The evolution of tremendous diversity in the phylum Annelida is due primarily to
a.
gills.
c.
cephalization.
b.
specialized reproductive organs.
d.
segmented bodies.
8.
A similarity between annelids and arthropods is that they both have
a.
exoskeletons made of chitin.
c.
segmented body patterns.
b.
the ability to fly.
d.
well-developed lungs for respiration.
9.
Segmented worms are known as
a.
nematodes.
c.
planarians.
b.
annelids.
d.
arthropods.
      annelids_files/i0120000.jpg
10.
Refer to the illustration above. Which two organisms in the diagrams have segmented body plans?
a.
Organisms “A” and “C”
c.
Organisms “A” and “D”
b.
Organisms “B” and “D”
d.
Organisms “B” and “C”
11.
Coordinated movements of an annelid’s body segments are possible because of the
a.
development of an advanced brain.
b.
ventral nerve cord and paired segmental ganglia.
c.
presence of a true coelom in the annelid body.
d.
existence of a complete digestive system.
12.
Of the four basic types of tissue, the tissue that is specialized to transmit and receive messages in the body is
a.
epithelial tissue.
c.
muscle tissue.
b.
connective tissue.
d.
nerve tissue.
13.
earthworm movement : circular muscles and setae ::
a.
earthworm digestion : circular muscles and setae
b.
earthworm digestion : sperm receptacles
c.
earthworm reproduction : pharynx
d.
earthworm respiration : skin
14.
The digestive tube of annelids is divided into three regions. Which of the following is not among these regions?
a.
crop
c.
radula
b.
intestine
d.
stomach
15.
The advantage of a closed circulatory system over an open circulatory system is that
a.
blood moves more efficiently through the tubes of a closed circulatory system.
b.
a closed circulatory system prevents blood from leaking out of the body.
c.
blood is able to be pumped by a muscular heart in a closed circulatory system.
d.
lungs are able to function in animals with a closed circulatory system.
16.
Of the following organs, the one that does not exist in annelids is the
a.
heart.
c.
nephridia.
b.
gills.
d.
stomach.
17.
The clitellum of an earthworm
a.
contains the heart.
b.
is associated with reproduction.
c.
acts as a primitive respiratory system.
d.
is necessary for movement.
18.
Earthworms are considered to be beneficial to the environment because
a.
their castings contain nutrients.
b.
they aerate the soil as they move through it.
c.
they break up the soil in which they live.
d.
All of the above
19.
The basic body plan of an annelid
a.
consists of joined legs.
c.
is a tube within a tube.
b.
is similar to a long tube.
d.
can be compared to a corkscrew.
20.
Parapodia are involved in all of the following except
a.
swimming.
c.
burrowing.
b.
gas exchange.
d.
reproduction.

 
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