Author: Biology Junction Team

Worms Puzzle

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Flatworms, Roundworms, & Rotifers
Fill in the blanks with the correct letters. The words in the list on the right provide a clue to the answer. 

1) _at_he _ m _ _ th_s phylum of flatworms
2) _ hre_ number of body layers in worms
3) b _ l _ te_al symmetry f flatworms
4) d _ rs _ l upper body surface of worms
5) _ en _ ral lower body surface of worms
6) _cto _ erm outermost cell layer of worms
7) _es _ d _ rm middle cell layer of worms
8) _ nd_der _ innermost cell layer of worms
9) _c _ e _ om_te solid body in flatworms
10) _oe _ o _ body cavity
11) _ast_ov _ sc _ l _ r gut with a single opening in flatworms
12) a _ sor_ti _ n how flatworms exchanges gases with their environment
13) _nte _ io _ head or front end of a flatworm
14) c _ ph _ li _ ati_n anterior end with sensory structures concentrated there
15) p _ r _ si_e worms that live on or inside the body of their host
16) _ur_ell _ r _ _ class of flatworms containing the frehwater planarian
17) p _ ar _ n_ extendable feeding tube on the underside of planarians
18) _ ucu_ secreted by planarians to glide across
19) f _ a_e excretory cells in worms that filter wastes
20) a _ _ lia clusters of nerve cells in worms
21) _erm _ _ hr _ di_es worms that make both eggs & sperm
22) _re _ a _ oda class of flatworms containg flukes
23) _ucke _ s found on the ends of flukes to attach to hosts
24) _e _ u _ ent tough outer covering on flukes
25) _ e _ to_a _ class containing tapeworms
26) s _ ol _ x anterior end of a tapeworm with hooks & suckers
27) _r_gl _ t_id _ reproductive sections of a tapeworm’s body
28) _e _ _ to_a phylum for roundworms
29) _a _ er shape of both ends of a roundworms body
30) _ ut _ cle protective noncellular layer of roundworms
31) a _ ca _ is roundworm found in pig & horse intestines
32) _ oo _ w_r_s intestinal parasitic roundworm with cutting plates in it’s mouth
33) _ri_h _ n _ _ is disease that result from eating infected undercooked pork
34) _i _ wo_m _ most common parasitic roundworm of children in the U.S.
35) _ot _ f _ ra phylum of worms with a crown of cilia surrounding the mouth
36) _as _ _ x muscular organ of rotifers to break down food
37) _se _ do_oel _ mat _ _ rotifers & nematodes are examples

 

 

Solution

 

 

Protein Synthesis Study Guide

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Protein Synthesis Study Guide

 

 

Multiple Choice
Identify the choice that best completes the statement or answers the question.
 1.
What did Griffith observe when he injected into mice a mixture of heat-killed disease-causing bacteria and live harmless bacteria?
a.
 The disease-causing bacteria changed into harmless bacteria.
b.
 The mice developed pneumonia.
c.
 The harmless bacteria died.
d.
 The mice were unaffected.
 2.
Which of the following is a nucleotide found in DNA?
a.
 ribose + phosphate group + thymine
b.
 ribose + phosphate group + uracil
c.
 deoxyribose + phosphate group + uracil
d.
 deoxyribose + phosphate group + cytosine
 3.
DNA replication results in two DNA molecules,
a.
 each with two new strands.
b.
 one with two new strands and the other with two original strands.
c.
 each with one new strand and one original strand.
d.
 each with two original strands.
 4.
During mitosis, the
a.
 DNA molecules unwind.
b.
 histones and DNA molecules separate.
c.
 DNA molecules become more tightly coiled.
d.
 nucleosomes become less tightly packed.
 5.
Unlike DNA, RNA contains
a.
 adenine.
c.
 phosphate groups.
b.
 uracil.
d.
 thymine.
 6.
Which type(s) of RNA is(are) involved in protein synthesis?
a.
 transfer RNA only
b.
 messenger RNA only
c.
 ribosomal RNA and transfer RNA only
d.
 messenger RNA, ribosomal RNA, and transfer RNA
 7.
During transcription, an RNA molecule is formed
a.
 that is complementary to both strands of DNA.
b.
 that is complementary to neither strand of DNA.
c.
 that is double-stranded.
d.
 inside the nucleus.
 8.
How many codons are needed to specify three amino acids?
a.
 3
c.
 9
b.
 6
d.
 12
 9.
Which of the following terms is LEAST closely related to the others?
a.
 intron
c.
 polypeptide
b.
 tRNA
d.
 anticodon
 10.
Which type of RNA functions as a blueprint of the genetic code?
a.
 rRNA
c.
 mRNA
b.
 tRNA
d.
 RNA polymerase
 11.
Which of the following is NOT a gene mutation?
a.
 inversion
c.
 deletion
b.
 insertion
d.
 substitution
 12.
Which of the following statements is NOT true?
a.
 Mutations do not occur in hox genes.
b.
 Hox genes that are found in different animals are very different from each other.
c.
 Hox genes control the normal development of an animal.
d.
 Hox genes occur in clusters.
 13.
Avery’s experiments showed that bacteria are transformed by
a.
 RNA.
c.
 proteins.
b.
 DNA.
d.
 carbohydrates.
 14.

Figure 12-5 shows the structure of a(an)

mc014-1.jpg

 

Figure 12–5

a.
 DNA molecule.
c.
 RNA molecule.
b.
 amino acid.
d.
 protein.
 15.
DNA is copied during a process called
a.
 replication.
c.
 transcription.
b.
 translation.
d.
 transformation.
 16.
In eukaryotes, DNA
a.
 is located in the nucleus.
c.
 is located in the ribosomes.
b.
 floats freely in the cytoplasm.
d.
 is circular.
 17.
RNA contains the sugar
a.
 ribose.
c.
 glucose.
b.
 deoxyribose.
d.
 lactose.
 18.
Which RNA molecule carries amino acids?
a.
 messenger RNA
c.
 ribosomal RNA
b.
 transfer RNA
d.
 RNA polymerase
 19.
What is produced during transcription?
a.
 RNA molecules
c.
 RNA polymerase
b.
 DNA molecules
d.
 proteins
 20.

What does Figure 12-6 show?

mc020-1.jpg

Figure 12-6

a.
 anticodons
b.
 the order in which amino acids are linked
c.
 the code for splicing mRNA
d.
 the genetic code
 21.
What happens during the process of translation?
a.
 Messenger RNA is made from DNA.
b.
 The cell uses information from messenger RNA to produce proteins.
c.
 Transfer RNA is made from messenger RNA.
d.
 Copies of DNA molecules are made.
 22.
Genes contain instructions for assembling
a.
 purines.
c.
 proteins.
b.
 nucleosomes.
d.
 pyrimidines.
 23.
A mutation that involves a single nucleotide is called a(an)
a.
 chromosomal mutation.
c.
 point mutation.
b.
 inversion.
d.
 translocation.
 

Completion
Complete each statement.
 24.

The structure labeled X in Figure 12-1 is a(an) ____________________.

co024-1.jpg

 

Figure 12–1
 25.
The order of nitrogenous bases in DNA determines the order of ____________________ in proteins.
 26.
There is no ____________________ that is specified by a stop codon on an mRNA molecule.
 27.
The lac repressor releases the operator in the presence of ____________________.
 28.
In eukaryotes, proteins that attract RNA polymerase bind to ____________________ sequences in DNA.
 29.
According to the principle of ____________________, hydrogen bonds can form only between adenine and thymine, and between guanine and cytosine.
 30.
Chromatin contains proteins called ____________________.
 31.

In Figure 12-7, A, B, and C are three types of ____________________.

co031-1.jpg

 

Figure 12–7
 32.
After introns are cut out of an RNA molecule, the remaining ____________________ are spliced back together to form the final messenger RNA.
 33.
A mutation in a series of genes, called the ____________________, can change the organs that develop in specific parts of an embryo.
 

Short Answer
 34.
At the beginning of DNA replication, what two processes “unzip” the two strands of a DNA molecule?
 35.

In Figure 12-2, which molecule is tRNA, and what is its function?

sa035-1.jpg

 

Figure 12–2
 36.

According to Figure 12-3, what codons specify the amino acid arginine?

sa036-1.jpg

 

Figure 12–3
 37.
What happens to lac repressors in E. coli when lactose is present?
 38.
What are the three main parts of an RNA nucleotide?
 39.
What must happen to a DNA molecule before RNA polymerase can make RNA?
 40.
What causes translation to stop?
 41.
What is a mutation?
 

Essay
 42.
Describe the structure of a DNA molecule.
 43.
Contrast the functions of the three main types of RNA.
 

Other

USING SCIENCE SKILLS

nar001-1.jpg

 

Figure 12–4
 44.
Interpreting Graphics What process is illustrated in Figure 12-4?
 45.
Interpreting Graphics Identify structure C in Figure 12-4.
 46.
Interpreting Graphics Which labeled structure in Figure 12-4 is a codon?
 47.
Inferring What is the relationship between the codons and anticodons in Figure 12-4? How is this relationship important?
 48.
Predicting In Figure 12-4, what will happen after the ribosome joins the methionine and phenylalanine?

USING SCIENCE SKILLS

nar002-1.jpg

Figure 12–8
 49.
Classifying What general type of mutation results from processes A, B, C, and D in Figure 12-8?
 50.
Interpreting Graphics In Figure 12-8, which process or processes involve two chromosomes?
 51.
Comparing and Contrasting Contrast process A and process B in Figure 12-8.
 52.
Interpreting Graphics During which process in Figure 12-8 does a segment of a chromosome become oriented in the reverse direction?
 53.
Interpreting Graphics In Figure 12-8, which process produces two chromosomes with translocations?

 
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Biomes of the World

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T S O V C D A R P R L V T T S
Q S L U E I E B E G A L U D R
X T E S S M T T I V D E N B T
N A E R U E A O V O I M D H K
Z R U S O W R J I N T O R E R
T M N T H F C O H B R I A R E
S O L S N H N A V C E B C B C
C P E R F K Q I R I T A F I U
N R S A V A N N A N N Y C V D
F E N I R A M F D R I M U O O
G R A S S L A N D Z A V O R R
S U O U D I C E D G N J O E P
O H Z G L J Y X I B Y X F R W
U C T C T N Y A Q B A J S U E
X N B S O O T D E K P T N B X

Find each term and then number and define it on the back of this sheet.

 

ABIOTIC BIOME BIOTIC
CARNIVORE CONSUMER DECIDUOUS
DESERT FRESHWATER GRASSLAND
HERBIVORE INTERTIDAL MARINE
OMNIVORE PRODUCER RAINFOREST
SAVANNA TAIGA TUNDRA

 

 

 

 

 

PCC – Protist Study Guide

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PCC – Protist Study Guide

 

 

Multiple Choice
Identify the choice that best completes the statement or answers the question.
 1.
Most protozoa may be characterized as:
a.
 autotrophic.
b.
 heterotrophic.
c.
 photosynthetic.
d.
 chemotrophic.
e.
 anisogamous.
 2.
Most protists are:
a.
 aquatic.
b.
 parasitic.
c.
 terrestrial.
d.
 arboreal.
e.
 None of the above.
 3.
Based on the most recent data available, the protist kingdom is:
a.
 paraphyletic.
b.
 monophyletic.
c.
 composed only of unicells.
d.
 composed of both eukaryotes and prokaryotes.
e.
 entirely microscopic.
 4.
The informal group designated as the protozoa include all of the following except:
a.
 ameoeba.
b.
 ciliates.
c.
 diatoms.
d.
 foraminifera.
e.
 zooflagellates.
 5.
Members of phylum ____________ move via pseudopodia.
a.
 Rhizopoda
b.
 Zoomastigina
c.
 Ciliophora
d.
 Oomycota
e.
 Chrysophyta
 6.
Members of which phylum have formed deposits of chalk, as seen in the white cliffs of Dover?
a.
 Rhizopoda
b.
 Zoomastigina
c.
 Ciliophora
d.
 Foraminifera
e.
 Actinopoda
 7.
Pseudopodia are used by Amoeba for ingesting food as well as for:
a.
 reproduction.
b.
 excretion.
c.
 digestion.
d.
 movement.
e.
 avoiding predation.
 8.
Among the protist phyla below, which has organisms that typically move with one or more flagella?
a.
 Rhizopoda
b.
 Retortmonada
c.
 Ciliophora
d.
 Foraminifera
e.
 Actinopoda
 9.
Which phylum contains the organism Trypanosoma, which causes African sleeping sickness?
a.
 Rhizopoda
b.
 Euglenozoa
c.
 Ciliophora
d.
 Foraminifera
e.
 Actinopoda
 10.
Members of phylum Alveolata possess ____________, which are ejectile filaments used in trapping prey.
a.
 contractile vacuoles
b.
 micronuclei
c.
 macronuclei
d.
 heterocysts
e.
 trichocysts
Figure 24-01
Use the figure below to answer the corresponding questions.nar001-1.jpg
 11.
In Figure 24-01, the function of the structure labeled 4 is:
a.
 food intake.
b.
 digestion.
c.
 waste elimination.
d.
 water discharge.
e.
 asexual reproduction.
 12.
In Figure 24-01, the function of the structure labeled 6 is:
a.
 food intake.
b.
 digestion.
c.
 waste elimination.
d.
 water discharge.
e.
 asexual reproduction.
 13.
Malaria is caused by an ___________________, which is carried to a host by a ______________.
a.
 apicomplexan; fly
b.
 apicomplexan; mosquito
c.
 apicomplexan; body louse
d.
 actinopod; fly
e.
 actinopod; mosquito
 14.
Algae are not considered true plants, as they lack both a cuticle and:
a.
 multicellular bodies.
b.
 multicellular gametangia.
c.
 thalli.
d.
 frustules.
e.
 cell walls.
Figure 24-02
Use the figure below to answer the corresponding questions.nar002-1.jpg
 15.
In Figure 24-02, the process occurring in the cells labeled 2 in the sequence is:
a.
 fertilization.
b.
 syngamy.
c.
 the first meiotic division.
d.
 the second meiotic division.
e.
 mitosis.
 16.
In Figure 24-02, the process occurring in the cells labeled 6 is:
a.
 fertilization.
b.
 syngamy.
c.
 the first meiotic division.
d.
 the second meiotic division.
e.
 mitosis.
 17.
The outcome of the process illustrated Figure 24-02 is:
a.
 four new genetically identical cells that differ genetically from what they were before.
b.
 four new but genetically distinct cells.
c.
 two new genetically identical cells that differ genetically from what they were before.
d.
 two new but genetically distinct cells.
e.
 one male and one female cell.
 18.
Classification of algae into the various protist phyla is based on their photosynthetic pigments and:
a.
 cellular storage compounds.
b.
 presence of cell walls.
c.
 where they live.
d.
 the diseases they cause.
e.
 the presence of DNA or RNA.
 19.
Which phylum includes algae that are typically unicellular and form siliceous shells?
a.
 Chlorophyta
b.
 Rhodophyta
c.
 Euglenophyta
d.
 Dinoflagellata
e.
 Bacillariophyta
 20.
The commercially important unicellular protists that are used in filters, polishes, and other industrial processes are the:
a.
 dinoflagellates.
b.
 euglenoids.
c.
 apicomplexans.
d.
 zooflagellates.
e.
 diatoms.
 21.
Members of this phylum have both plant-like and animal-like characteristics, making classification difficult.
a.
 Chlorophyta
b.
 Rhodophyta
c.
 Euglenophyta
d.
 Oomycota
e.
 Bacillariophyta
 22.
These algae are often used as indicators of organic pollution such as sewage in a lake or stream.
a.
 Chlorophyta
b.
 Rhodophyta
c.
 Euglenophyta
d.
 Dinoflagellata
e.
 Bacillariophyta
 23.
These algae often have intracellular shells of interlocking plates.
a.
 Chlorophyta
b.
 Rhodophyta
c.
 Euglenophyta
d.
 Dinoflagellata
e.
 Bacillariophyta
 24.
Members of which phylum are one of the most important producers in marine ecosystems, although sometimes they form blooms known as red tides?
a.
 Chlorophyta
b.
 Rhodophyta
c.
 Euglenophyta
d.
 Dinoflagellata
e.
 Phaeophyta
 25.
Toxins produced by red tides are known to have impacted all of the following except:
a.
 birds.
b.
 fishes.
c.
 humans.
d.
 manatees.
e.
 None of the above, all are impacted by red tides.
 26.
Brown algae lack true roots but have similar structures called ____________ that anchor them to the substrate.
a.
 stipes
b.
 fronds
c.
 holdfasts
d.
 blades
e.
 thalli
 27.
All of the following statements about the phylum Phaeophyta are true except:
a.
 this group includes the most complex algae that have blades, stipes, and holdfasts.
b.
 they share a common ancestor with representatives of the plant kingdom.
c.
 they represent the largest members of the kingdom Protista.
d.
 they are harvested for algin, which is used in a variety of commercial products.
e.
 they are ecologically important as producers and in providing habitats along rocky coastlines.
 28.
Of the following algae, which phylum exhibits the most diverse morphology, forming unicells, filaments, and sheets?
a.
 Chlorophyta
b.
 Phaeophyta
c.
 Euglenophyta
d.
 Dinoflagellata
e.
 Bacillariophyta
 29.
Members of the phylum ___________________ are thought to have given rise to plants.
a.
 Chlorophyta
b.
 Rhodophyta
c.
 Euglenophyta
d.
 Dinoflagellata
e.
 Bacillariophyta
 30.
Green algae exhibit alternation of generations and varied sexual reproduction. When their sexual reproduction involves the fusion of flagellated gametes of different sizes, it is known as:
a.
 oogamy.
b.
 anisogamy.
c.
 isogamy.
d.
 heterogamy.
e.
 fission.
Figure 24-03
Use the figure below to answer the corresponding questions.nar003-1.jpg
 31.
In Figure 24-03, the Chlamydomonas at point 4 in the life cycle:
a.
 are haploid gametes.
b.
 were produced by mitosis.
c.
 are negative (-) strain.
d.
 are part of the haploid generation.
e.
 All of the above.
 32.
In Figure 24-03, the structure at point 6 in the life cycle:
a.
 is a zoospore.
b.
 was produced by mitosis.
c.
 was produced by meiosis.
d.
 is diploid.
e.
 None of the above.
 33.
In Figure 24-03, the process occurring at point 1 in the life cycle is:
a.
 fertilization.
b.
 sexual reproduction.
c.
 meiosis.
d.
 asexual reproduction.
e.
 syngamy.
 34.
Some green algae, such as Codium, attain very large sizes, but are a single cell with multiple nuclei. This condition is known as:
a.
 mycelium.
b.
 alternation of generations.
c.
 multicellular.
d.
 coenocytic.
e.
 colonial.
 35.
Which of the following protist phyla does not have flagellated cells?
a.
 Oomycota
b.
 Phaeophyta
c.
 Euglenophyta
d.
 Rhodophyta
e.
 Chrysophyta
 36.
Members of this phylum are typically multicellular and have phycoerythrin and phycocyanin as their accessory photosynthetic pigments.
a.
 Rhodophyta
b.
 Phaeophyta
c.
 Dinoflagellata
d.
 Euglenophyta
e.
 Chlorophyta
 37.
Which group of algae are a commercial source of agar and carrageenan?
a.
 Rhodophyta
b.
 Phaeophyta
c.
 Dinoflagellata
d.
 Euglenophyta
e.
 Chlorophyta
 38.
Coralline forms of members of this phylum are ecologically important in the formation of coral reefs.
a.
 Rhodophyta
b.
 Phaeophyta
c.
 Dinoflagellata
d.
 Euglenophyta
e.
 Chlorophyta
 39.
Fungus-like protists aren’t fungi, because the protists have ____________ in their cell walls and possess ____________, wheras fungi do not.
a.
 cellulose; flagella
b.
 chitin; centrioles
c.
 chitin; flagella
d.
 cellulose; centrioles
e.
 chitin; cilia
 40.
Members of this phylum are characterized by a multinucleate amoeboid-like feeding form called a plasmodium.
a.
 Myxomycota
b.
 Oomycota
c.
 Rhodomycota
d.
 Phaeophyta
e.
 Acrasiomycota
 41.
A water mold, from phylum ________________, was responsible for the late blight of potatoes that caused the Irish potato famine.
a.
 Myxomycota
b.
 Oomycota
c.
 Rhodomycota
d.
 Phaeophyta
e.
 Acrasiomycota
 42.
The ____________ are zooflagellates that are very primitive and may give biologists clues as to the evolutionary relationships between the prokaryotes and the protists.
a.
 cryptomonads
b.
 chrysophytes
c.
 diplomonads
d.
 water molds
e.
 slime molds
 43.
Protists may move by pushing out their cytoplasmic extensions, known as:
a.
 plasmadesmata.
b.
 pseudopods.
c.
 flagella.
d.
 cilia.
e.
 etrichomes.
 44.
Symbiotic association in which one partner benefits and the other is unaffected is called:
a.
 symbiosis.
b.
 mutualism.
c.
 commensalism.
d.
 parasitism.
e.
 None of the above.
 45.
Symbiotic association in which one partner lives on or in another is called:
a.
 symbiosis.
b.
 mutualism.
c.
 commensalisms.
d.
 parasitism.
e.
 None of the above.
 46.
The base of the food web in aquatic ecosystem is:
a.
 Algae.
b.
 Euglena.
c.
 Plankton.
d.
 plants.
e.
 fish.
 47.
First eukaryotic cells to evolve from ancestral prokaryotes were:
a.
 Fungi.
b.
 Protists.
c.
 Endosymbionts.
d.
 Plants.
e.
 None of the above.
 48.
Mitochondria and chloroplasts in eukaryotic cells probably originated from:
a.
 Fungi.
b.
 Protists.
c.
 Endosymbionts.
d.
 Plants.
e.
 None of the above.
 49.
Ancestors of ____________________ represent an intermediate stage in eukaryotic evolution when cells each had two haploid nuclei but fusion had not occurred.
a.
 plasmodium
b.
 Amoeba
c.
 Euglena
d.
 Giardia
e.
 Paramecium
 50.
Backpackers’ diarrhea, a common infection among campers and hikers, particularly in the mountains of the western United States, is caused by _________________.
a.
 plasmodium
b.
 Amoeba
c.
 Euglena
d.
 Trypanosomas
e.
 Giardia
 51.
Euglenoids reproduce:
a.
 asexually.
b.
 sexually.
c.
 both asexually and sexually.
d.
 do not reproduce.
e.
 by mating.
 52.
Researchers use ______________________ protists as indicator species of organic pollution.
a.
 plasmodium
b.
 Amoeba
c.
 Euglenoids
d.
 Giardia
e.
 Paramecium
 53.
Trypanosomes reproduce:
a.
 asexually.
b.
 sexually.
c.
 both asexually and sexually.
d.
 do not reproduce.
e.
 by mating.
 54.
In paramecium, the surface of the cell is covered with thousands of short, hairlike ___________.
a.
 plasmadesmata
b.
 pseudopods
c.
 flagella
d.
 cilia
e.
 trichomes
 55.
In freshwater ciliates, special organelles called ______________________________ control water regulation.
a.
 flagella
b.
 contractile vacuole
c.
 Food vacuole
d.
 Lysosome
e.
 peroxisome
 56.
In ciliates macronuclei controls ____________________________.
a.
 reproduction
b.
 growth
c.
 metabolism
d.
 movement
e.
 Both B and C.
 57.
The symbiotic dinoflagellates, which live in the bodies of marine invertebrates such as mollusks, jellyfish, and corals, are called __________________________.
a.
 Zooxanthellae
b.
 apicomplexans
c.
 sporozites
d.
 ciliates
e.
 None of the above.
 58.
Dinoflagellates that contribute substantially to the productivity of coral reefs are ____________.
a.
 Zooxanthellae
b.
 apicomplexans
c.
 sporozites
d.
 ciliates
e.
 None of the above.
 59.
Water molds are members of the kingdom___________________.
a.
 Protists
b.
 Fungi
c.
 Plantae
d.
 Eubacteria
e.
 Animalia
 60.
Sudden death of oak is caused by a (an):
a.
 Protist.
b.
 Fungi.
c.
 archaebacteria.
d.
 Eubacteria.
e.
 animal parasite.
 61.
Protists are alike in that all are
a.
 multicellular.
b.
 photosynthetic.
c.
 marine.
d.
 nonparasitic.
e.
 eukaryotic.
 62.
All of the following groups had taxonomic significance in the past, but only one is now considered to be a diverse clade. Which group is it?
a.
 algae
b.
 protist
c.
 protozoa
d.
 monera
e.
 euglenozoa
 63.

Which of the following statements concerning living phytoplanktonic organisms are true?

1. They are important members of communities surrounding deep-sea hydrothermal vents.
2. They are important primary producers in most aquatic food webs.
3. They are important in maintaining oxygen in Earth’s seas and atmosphere.
4. They are most often found growing in the sediments of seas and oceans.
5. They can be so concentrated that they affect the color of seawater.
a.
 1 and 4
b.
 1, 2, and 4
c.
 2, 3, and 4
d.
 2, 3, and 5
e.
 3, 4, and 5
 64.
Biologists have discovered the kingdom Protista to be paraphyletic. Which of the following statements is true, and consistent with this conclusion?
a.
 Various combinations of prokaryotic ancestors gave rise to different lineages of protists.
b.
 Animals, plants, and fungi arose from different protistan ancestors.
c.
 Multicellularity has evolved only once among the protists.
d.
 Chloroplasts among various protists are similar to those found in prokaryotes.
e.
 The protists arose from a common ancestor that was a parabasalid.
 65.
The strongest evidence for the endosymbiotic origin of eukaryotic organelles is the similarity between extant prokaryotes and which of the following?
a.
 nuclei and chloroplasts
b.
 mitochondria and chloroplasts
c.
 cilia and mitochondria
d.
 mitochondria and nuclei
e.
 mitochondria and cilia
 66.
According to the endosymbiotic theory of the origin of eukaryotic cells, how did mitochondria originate?
a.
 from infoldings of the plasma membrane, coupled with mutations of genes for oxygen-using metabolism
b.
 from engulfed, originally free-living prokaryotes
c.
 by tertiary endosymbiosis
d.
 from the nuclear envelope folding outward and forming mitochondrial membranes
e.
 when a protoeukaryote engaged in a symbiotic relationship with a protobiont
 67.
Which of the following statements is consistent with the hypothesis that certain eukaryotic organelles originated as prokaryotic endosymbionts? Such organelles
a.
 are roughly the same size as bacteria.
b.
 can be cultured on agar since they make all their own proteins.
c.
 contain circular DNA molecules.
d.
 have ribosomes that are similar to those of bacteria.
e.
 A, C, and D
 68.
Which process allows nucleomorphs to be first reduced, and then lost altogether, without the loss of any genetic information from the host cell that ultimately surrounds the nucleomorph?
a.
 conjugation
b.
 horizontal gene transfer
c.
 binary fission
d.
 phagocytosis
e.
 meiosis
 69.
Which organisms represent the common ancestor of all photosynthetic plastids found in eukaryotes?
a.
 autotrophic euglenids
b.
 diatoms
c.
 dinoflagellates
d.
 red algae
e.
 cyanobacteria
 70.
The chloroplasts of modern plants are thought to have been derived according to which sequence?
a.
 cyanobacteria green algae green plants
b.
 cyanobacteria green algae fungi green plants
c.
 red algae brown algae green algae green plants
d.
 red algae cyanobacteria green plants
e.
 cyanobacteria red algae green algae green plants
 71.
The evolution of eukaryotes from prokaryotes probably
a.
 occurred many times.
b.
 involved endosymbiosis on multiple occasions.
c.
 allowed for the formation of both complexity and multicellularity.
d.
 B and C only
e.
 A, B, and C
 72.
The goal in classifying organisms should be to create categories that reflect the evolutionary histories of organisms. What system would be best to use?
a.
 a three-kingdom classification system
b.
 a five-kingdom classification system
c.
 an eight-kingdom classification system
d.
 a system that uses as many kingdoms as necessary to be accurate
e.
 a system that returns to that used by Linnaeus
 73.
The current state of the revision of “protistan” taxonomy is an example of which feature of good scientific practice?
a.
 the need to suspend judgment until enough evidence is available to make an informed decision
b.
 the need to base hypothetical phylogenies solely on fossil evidence
c.
 the need to be willing to change or drop one’s hypotheses when the data warrant it
d.
 the need to avoid sampling techniques that can introduce bias
e.
 both A and C
 74.
A mixotroph loses its plastids yet continues to survive. Which of the following most likely accounts for its continued survival?
a.
 It relies on photosystems that float freely in its cytosol.
b.
 It must have gained extra mitochondria when it lost its plastids.
c.
 It engulfs organic material by phagocytosis.
d.
 It has an endospore.
e.
 It is protected by a siliceous case.

For the following questions, refer to the figure below, which represents a hypothetical eukaryotic cell that is the result of serial endosymbioses involving its mitochondria, one of which is pictured. Labeled arrows (A-E) indicate various membranes in this cell. Responses may be used once, more than once, or not at all.

nar004-1.jpg
 75.
This membrane is homologous to the plasma membrane of the ancestral, gram-negative, aerobically respiring bacterium.
a.
 A
b.
 B
c.
 C
d.
 D
e.
 E
 76.
This membrane is homologous to an ancestral host plasma membrane and was derived from the primary (first) endosymbiotic event.
a.
 A
b.
 B
c.
 C
d.
 D
e.
 E
 77.
Which one of the mitochondrial membranes should bear the strongest similarity to the outer membrane of the cell wall of the ancestral, gram-negative, aerobically respiring bacterium?
a.
 A
b.
 B
c.
 C
d.
 D
e.
 E
 78.
If the genes for ATP synthase underwent horizontal gene transfer and are no longer within the mitochondrion, then which membrane most immediately surrounds the genes for ATP synthase?
a.
 A
b.
 B
c.
 C
d.
 D
e.
 E
 79.
A biologist discovers a new unicellullar organism that possesses more than two flagella and two small, but equal-sized, nuclei. The organism has reduced mitochondria and no chloroplasts. How would you classify this organism?
a.
 apicomplexan
b.
 diplomonad
c.
 ciliate
d.
 prokaryote
e.
 Chlamydomonas
 80.
Assuming that all of the flagella found among the various types of protists require the same amount of ATP per unit time to operate, and assuming that all of an individual protist’s flagella are in use simultaneously, then which of these protists should use the greatest amount of ATP per unit time to move about?
a.
 Chlamydomonas
b.
 dinoflagellates
c.
 euglenids
d.
 diplomonads
e.
 golden algae
 81.
Which of the following groups does not include many planktonic species?
a.
 kinetoplastids.
b.
 golden algae.
c.
 diatoms.
d.
 dinoflagellates.
e.
 radiolarians.
 82.
Organisms classified as Euglenozoa have previously been classified as protozoans, protista, plants, and animals. Why the confusion?
a.
 Like protozoans, they are unicellular.
b.
 Like animals, many are heterotrophic.
c.
 Like plants, many are photosynthetic.
d.
 A and B only
e.
 A, B, and C
 83.
When a protist possesses two flagella, both are generally used for propulsion. Assuming that a flagellum containing a crystalline rod cannot undulate back and forth, and assuming that two undulatory flagella can produce more effective locomotion than can a single flagellum, which of these organisms should have the least effective locomotion?
a.
 golden algae
b.
 dinoflagellates
c.
 euglenids
d.
 Chlamydomonas
e.
 oomycetes
 84.

Which two genera have members that can evade the human immune system by frequently changing their surface proteins?

1. Plasmodium
2. Trichomonas
3. Paramecium
4. Trypanosoma
5. Entamoeba
a.
 1 and 2
b.
 1 and 4
c.
 2 and 3
d.
 2 and 4
e.
 4 and 5
 85.
Which of the following marine organisms produce potent neurotoxins that cause extensive fish kills, contaminate shellfish, and create severe respiratory irritation to humans along the shore?
a.
 red algae
b.
 dinoflagellates
c.
 diplomonads
d.
 euglenids
e.
 golden algae
 86.
Which structure(s) consist(s), at least in part, of DNA?
a.
 Trypanosoma kinetoplast
b.
 diplomonad mitochondrion
c.
 chlorarachniophytes nucleomorph
d.
 A and C only
e.
 A, B, and C
 87.
Which of the following is mismatched?
a.
 apicomplexa-internal parasites
b.
 golden algae;-planktonic producers
c.
 euglenozoa-unicellular flagellates
d.
 ciliates-red tide organisms
e.
 entamoeba-ingestive heterotrophs
 88.
Which of the following statements about dinoflagellates is false?
a.
 They possess two flagella.
b.
 Some cause red tides.
c.
 their walls are composed of cellulose plates.
d.
 Many types contain chlorophyll.
e.
 Their fossil remains form limestone deposits.
 89.
Which group(s) within the Alveolata include(s) members that are important in ocean food webs, cause(s) red tides that kill many fish, and may even be carnivorous?
a.
 ciliates
b.
 apicomplexans
c.
 dinoflagellates
d.
 A and B only
e.
 A, B, and C
 90.
Which of the following correctly pairs a protist with one of its characteristics?
a.
 kinetoplastids;-slender pseudopodia
b.
 plasmodial slime molds-flagellated stages
c.
 apicomplexans-parasitic
d.
 gymnamoebas-calcium carbonate shell
e.
 foraminiferans-abundant in soils
 91.
Which of the following statements concerning protists is false?
a.
 All protists are eukaryotic organisms; many are unicellular or colonial.
b.
 The organism that causes malaria is transmitted to humans by the bite of the tsetse fly.
c.
 All apicomplexans are parasitic.
d.
 Cellular slime molds have an amoeboid stage that may be followed by a stage during which spores are produced.
e.
 The euglenozoans that are functionally mixotrophic contain chloroplasts.
 92.
You are given an unknown organism to identify. It is unicellular and heterotrophic. It is motile, using many short extensions of the cytoplasm, each featuring the 9+2 pattern. It has well-developed organelles and three nuclei, one large and two small. This organism is most likely to be a member of which group?
a.
 foraminiferans
b.
 radiolarians
c.
 ciliates
d.
 kinetoplastids
e.
 slime molds
 93.
Which of the following is not characteristic of ciliates?
a.
 They use cilia as locomotory or feeding structures.
b.
 They are relatively complex cells.
c.
 They can exchange genetic material with other ciliates by the process of mitosis.
d.
 Most live as solitary cells in fresh water.
e.
 They have two or more nuclei.
 94.
If one speculates that it requires ten times as many ATP molecules to power a typical flagellum as to power a typical cilium for a given unit of time, and if one assumes that locomotion is the largest energy drain for protists, then which protist should have the largest number of ATP synthases per cell?
a.
 Euglena
b.
 Chlamydomonas
c.
 Giardia
d.
 Plasmodium
e.
 Paramecium
 95.
Which process results in genetic recombination, but is separate from the process wherein the population size of paramecium increases?
a.
 budding
b.
 meiotic division
c.
 mitotic division
d.
 conjugation
e.
 binary fission
 96.
Which statement regarding resistance is false?
a.
 Many of the oomycetes that cause late potato blight have become resistant to pesticides.
b.
 Many of the mosquitoes that transmit malaria to humans have become resistant to pesticides.
c.
 Many of the malarial parasites have become resistant to antimalarial drugs.
d.
 Many humans have become resistant to antimalarial drugs.
e.
 Trichomonas vaginalis is resistant to the normal acidity of the human vagina.
 97.
Why is the filamentous morphology of the water molds considered a case of convergent evolution with the hyphae of fungi?
a.
 Fungi are closely related to the water molds.
b.
 Body shape reflects ancestor-descendant relationships among organisms.
c.
 Filamentous shape is an adaptation for a nutritional mode as a decomposer.
d.
 Hyphae and filaments are necessary for locomotion in both groups.
e.
 Filamentous body shape is evolutionarily primitive for all eukaryotes.
 98.
The Irish potato famine was caused by an organism that belongs to which group?
a.
 bacterium
b.
 stramenopile
c.
 foraminiferan
d.
 apicomplexan
e.
 virus
 99.
If one were to apply the most recent technique used to fight late potato blight to the fight against the malarial infection of humans, then one would
a.
 increase the dosage of the least-expensive antimalarial drug administered to humans.
b.
 increase the dosage of the most common pesticide used to kill Anopheles mosquitoes.
c.
 introduce a predator of the malarial parasite into infected humans.
d.
 use a “cocktail” of at least three different pesticides against Anopheles mosquitoes.
e.
 insert genes from a Plasmodium-resistant strain of mosquito into Anopheles mosquitoes.
 100.
Which of the following is correctly described as a primary producer?
a.
 oomycete
b.
 kinetoplastid
c.
 apicomplexan
d.
 diatom
e.
 radiolarian
 101.
A certain unicellular eukaryote has a siliceous (glasslike) shell and autotrophic nutrition. To which group does it belong?
a.
 dinoflagellate
b.
 diatom
c.
 gymnamoeba
d.
 foraminiferan
e.
 slime mold
 102.
Diatoms are members of the phytoplankton. Diatoms lack any organelles that might have the “9+2 pattern.” They obtain their nutrition from functional chloroplasts, and each diatom is encased within two porous, glasslike valves. Which question would be most important for one interested in the day-to-day survival of individual diatoms?
a.
 How does carbon dioxide get into these protists?
b.
 How do diatoms move across the surfaces of bodies of water?
c.
 How do diatoms keep from sinking into poorly lit waters?
d.
 How do diatoms avoid being crushed by the action of waves?
e.
 How do diatom sperm cells locate diatom egg cells?
 103.
Concerning diatoms’ potential use as drug-delivery systems, which anatomical feature would seem to be most important?
a.
 their ability to withstand immense pressure
b.
 the chemical composition of their cell walls
c.
 the porous nature of their cell walls
d.
 the chemical composition of their food-storage material
e.
 the nuclear envelope
 104.
The largest seaweeds belong to which group?
a.
 cyanobacteria
b.
 red algae
c.
 green algae
d.
 brown algae
e.
 golden algae
 105.
A large seaweed that floats freely on the surface of deep bodies of water would be expected to lack which of the following?
a.
 thalli
b.
 bladders
c.
 blades
d.
 holdfasts
e.
 gel-forming polysaccharides
 106.
The following are all characteristic of the water molds (Oomycota) except
a.
 the presence of filamentous feeding structures.
b.
 flagellated zoospores.
c.
 a nutritional mode that can result in the decomposition of dead organic matter.
d.
 a similarity to fungi that is the result of evolutionary convergence.
e.
 a feeding plasmodium.
 107.

Theoretically, which two of the following present the richest potential sources of silica?

1. marine sediments consisting of foram tests
2. diatomaceous earth
3. marine sediments consisting of radiolarian tests
4. marine sediments consisting of dinoflagellate plates
a.
 1 and 2
b.
 1 and 4
c.
 2 and 3
d.
 2 and 4
e.
 3 and 4
 108.
Thread-like pseudopods that can perform phagocytosis are generally characteristic of which group?
a.
 cercozoans
b.
 gymnamoebas
c.
 entamoebas
d.
 amoeboid stage of cellular slime molds
e.
 oomycetes
 109.

Which two heterotrophic organisms most commonly derive nutrition from endosymbiotic relationships with photosynthetic protists?

1. ciliates
2. slime molds
3. parabasalids
4. reef-building coral animals
5. foraminiferans
a.
 1 and 2
b.
 2 and 3
c.
 2 and 4
d.
 3 and 4
e.
 4 and 5
 110.
Which of the following produce the dense glassy ooze of the deep-ocean floor?
a.
 forams
b.
 dinoflagellates
c.
 radiolarians
d.
 ciliates
e.
 apicomplexans
 111.
A snail-like, coiled, porous shell of calcium carbonate is characteristic of which group?
a.
 diatoms
b.
 foraminiferans
c.
 radiolarians
d.
 gymnamoebas
e.
 ciliates
 112.
What provides the best rationale for not classifying the slime molds as fungi? Their
a.
 SSU-rRNA sequences.
b.
 nutritional modes.
c.
 choice of habitats.
d.
 physical appearance.
e.
 reproductive methods.
 113.
Which dichotomous pair of alternatives is highlighted by the life cycle of the cellular slime molds?
a.
 prokaryotic versus eukaryotic
b.
 plant versus animal
c.
 unicellular versus multicellular
d.
 diploid versus haploid
e.
 autotroph versus heterotroph
 114.
What makes certain red algae appear red?
a.
 They live in warm coastal waters.
b.
 They possess pigments that reflect and transmit red light.
c.
 They use red light for photosynthesis.
d.
 They lack chlorophyll.
e.
 They contain the water-soluble pigment anthocyanin.
 115.
The structure and biochemistry of chloroplasts in red algae are most like the structure and biochemistry of chloroplasts in which of the following organisms?
a.
 golden algae
b.
 diatoms
c.
 dinoflagellates
d.
 green algae
e.
 brown algae
 116.
A biologist discovers an alga that is marine, multicellular, and lives at a depth reached only by blue light. This alga probably belongs to which group?
a.
 red algae
b.
 brown algae
c.
 green algae
d.
 dinoflagellates
e.
 golden algae
 117.
If blue light is the component of the visible spectrum that can penetrate to the greatest depth in water, then what should be expected of photosynthetic protists that survive at great depths?
a.
 They should absorb green light preferentially.
b.
 They should absorb blue light preferentially.
c.
 They should absorb red light preferentially.
d.
 They should absorb white light preferentially.
e.
 They should reflect green light preferentially.
 118.
Members of the green algae often differ from members of the plant kingdom in that some green algae
a.
 are heterotrophs.
b.
 are unicellular.
c.
 have chlorophyll a.
d.
 store carbohydrates as starch.
e.
 have cell walls containing cellulose.
 119.
Which taxonomic group containing eukaryotic organisms is thought to be directly ancestral to the plant kingdom?
a.
 golden algae
b.
 radiolarians
c.
 foraminiferans
d.
 apicomplexans
e.
 green algae
 120.
Which of the following are actual mutualistic partnerships that involve a protist and a host organism?
a.
 green alga : fungal partner of lichen
b.
 dinoflagellate : reef-building coral animal
c.
 Trichomonas : human
d.
 alga : certain foraminiferans
e.
 A, B, and D

Choose the organism from the list below that best fits each of the following descriptions.

A. euglenozoans
B. Chlamydomonas
C. dinoflagellates
D. stramenopiles
E. diplomonads
 121.
possess more than two identical, functional flagella
a.
 A
b.
 B
c.
 C
d.
 D
e.
 E
 122.
have one normal and one crystalline-rod-containing flagellum
a.
 A
b.
 B
c.
 C
d.
 D
e.
 E
 123.
have one flagellum oriented at 90 degrees to the second flagellum
a.
 A
b.
 B
c.
 C
d.
 D
e.
 E
 124.
have one hairy and one smooth flagellum
a.
 A
b.
 B
c.
 C
d.
 D
e.
 E
 125.
have two identical, functional flagella, roughly parallel to each other and emerging from about the same site
a.
 A
b.
 B
c.
 C
d.
 D
e.
 E

Choose the nutritional mode that is primarily employed by each of the protists listed below.

A. autotrophic
B. mixotrophic
C. heterotrophic (by absorption)
D. heterotrophic (by ingestion)
 126.
diatoms
a.
 A
b.
 B
c.
 C
d.
 D
e.
 E
 127.
oomycetes
a.
 A
b.
 B
c.
 C
d.
 D
e.
 E
 128.
phagocytic euglenids that possess functional chloroplasts
a.
 A
b.
 B
c.
 C
d.
 D
e.
 E
 129.
amoebozoans that do not possess endosymbionts
a.
 A
b.
 B
c.
 C
d.
 D
e.
 E

You are given five test tubes, each containing an unknown protist, and your task is to read the description below and match these five protists to the correct test tube.

A. Paramecium
B. Navicula (diatom)
C. Pfiesteria (dinoflagellate)
D. Entamoeba
E. Plasmodium


In test tube 1, you observe an organism feeding. Your sketch of the organism looks very similar to the figure below. When light, especially red and blue light, is shone on the tubes, oxygen bubbles accumulate on the inside of test tubes 2 and 3. Chemical analysis of test tube 3 indicates the presence of substantial amounts of silica. Chemical analysis of test tube 2 indicates the presence of a chemical that is toxic to fish and humans. Microscopic analysis of organisms in tubes 2, 4, and 5 reveals the presence of permanent, membrane-bounded sacs just under the plasma membrane. Microscopic analysis of organisms in tube 4 reveals the presence of an apicoplast in each. Microscopic analysis of the contents in tube 5 reveals the presence of one large nucleus and several small nuclei in each organism.

nar007-1.jpg
 130.
Test tube 2 contains
a.
 A
b.
 B
c.
 C
d.
 D
e.
 E
 131.
Test tube 4 contains
a.
 A
b.
 B
c.
 C
d.
 D
e.
 E
 132.
Test tube 5 contains
a.
 A
b.
 B
c.
 C
d.
 D
e.
 E
 133.
Test tube 3 contains
a.
 A
b.
 B
c.
 C
d.
 D
e.
 E
 134.
Test tube 1 contains
a.
 A
b.
 B
c.
 C
d.
 D
e.
 E

 
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PreAP – Biochemistry Test

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PreAP – Biochemistry Test
 

Multiple Choice
Identify the choice that best completes the statement or answers the question.
 1.
All organic compounds contain the element
a.
 C.
c.
 Ca.
b.
 N.
d.
 Na.
 2.
Carbon is different from many other elements in that
a.
 it has four electrons in its outermost energy level.
b.
 it readily bonds with other carbon atoms.
c.
 it can form single, double, or triple bonds with other atoms.
d.
 All of the above
 3.
Which of the following is not true of alcohols?
a.
 They contain a hydroxyl group (–OH).
b.
 They are polar molecules.
c.
 They can affect processes in living things, either positively or negatively.
d.
 They are the only kind of functional group in organic molecules that contains oxygen.
 4.
The formation of ADP and inorganic phosphate from ATP and water is an example of which kind of reaction?
a.
 condensation
c.
 hydrolysis
b.
 polymerization
d.
 oxidation
 5.
Which of the following is a carbohydrate?
a.
 DNA
c.
 wax
b.
 insulin
d.
 sucrose
 6.
Which organic molecule below is classified as a carbohydrate?
a.
 amino acid
c.
 nucleotide
b.
 CH2 chain
d.
 sugar
 7.
Animals store glucose in the form of
a.
 cellulose.
c.
 wax.
b.
 glycogen.
d.
 lipids.
 8.
Polysaccharides are
a.
 carbohydrates.
c.
 proteins.
b.
 lipids.
d.
 unsaturated fats.
 9.
All of the following are examples of carbohydrates except
a.
 sugar.
c.
 steroids.
b.
 cellulose.
d.
 glycogen.
 10.
Amino acids are monomers of
a.
 disaccharides.
c.
 nucleotides.
b.
 proteins.
d.
 steroids.
 11.
Which organic molecule below is most closely related to proteins?
a.
 amino acids
c.
 nucleotides
b.
 CH2 chains
d.
 sugars
 12.
Long chains of amino acids are found in
a.
 carbohydrates.
c.
 proteins.
b.
 lipids.
d.
 sugars.
 13.
mc013-1.jpg

Refer to the illustration above. Molecules like molecule 2 are found in

a.
 carbohydrates.
c.
 nucleic acids.
b.
 lipids.
d.
 proteins.
 14.
Lipids are
a.
 polar molecules.
c.
 protein molecules.
b.
 similar to water molecules.
d.
 nonpolar molecules.
 15.
All of the following are examples of lipids except
a.
 saturated fats.
c.
 cholesterol.
b.
 starch.
d.
 earwax.
 16.
Saturated fatty acids contain
a.
 carbon atoms that are each bonded to four other atoms.
b.
 carbon atoms linked by double bonds.
c.
 no carboxyl (–COOH) groups.
d.
 more than 100 carbon atoms.
 17.
Lipids are soluble in
a.
 water.
c.
 oil.
b.
 salt water.
d.
 All of the above
 18.
Which organic molecule below is most closely related to lipids?
a.
 amino acids
c.
 nucleotides
b.
 CH2 chains
d.
 sugars
 19.
Which organic molecule below is most closely related to nucleic acids?
a.
 amino acids
c.
 nucleotides
b.
 CH2 chains
d.
 sugars
 20.
Nucleic acids include
a.
 chlorophyll and retinal.
b.
 DNA and RNA.
c.
 lipids and sugars.
d.
 glucose and glycogen.
 21.
Energy is released when the bond between
a.
 carbon atoms in ATP is broken.
b.
 ribose and adenine in ATP is broken.
c.
 phosphate groups in ATP is broken.
d.
 two ATP molecules is broken.
 22.
A model of enzyme action is the
a.
 induced fit model.
c.
 activator action model.
b.
 lipid bilayer model.
d.
 active site model.
 23.
All of the following are functional groups except
a.
 a hydroxyl group.
c.
 a carboxyl group.
b.
 an amino group.
d.
 a carbonate group.
 24.
A phospholipid molecule contains all of the following except
a.
 two fatty acids.
c.
 a phosphate group.
b.
 three fatty acids.
d.
 glycerol.
 25.
Without enzymes, the chemical reactions in the body would
a.
 happen too fast.
b.
 occur at much the same rate as they do with enzymes.
c.
 require a different pH.
d.
 occur too slowly to support life processes.
 26.
Carbon atoms can bond together to form all of the following except
a.
 ring structures.
c.
 straight chain structures.
b.
 inorganic structures.
d.
 branched structures.
 27.
Amino acid is to protein as
a.
 fat is to lipid.
c.
 sugar is to fat.
b.
 DNA is to RNA.
d.
 simple sugar is to starch.
 28.
A monosaccharide is a
a.
 carbohydrate.
c.
 nucleic acid.
b.
 lipid.
d.
 protein.
 29.
Which of the following organic compounds is the main source of energy for living things?
a.
 carbohydrates
c.
 nucleic acids
b.
 lipids
d.
 proteins
 30.
Which of the following is NOT a function of proteins?
a.
 store and transmit heredity
b.
 help to fight disease
c.
 control the rate of reactions and regulate cell processes
d.
 build tissues such as bone and muscle
 31.
Which statement is true?
a.
 Simple sugars are made of polysaccharides.
b.
 Glycerol is made of fatty acids.
c.
 RNA molecules are made of nucleotides.
d.
 Amino acids are made of proteins.
 32.
Which of the following statements about enzymes is NOT true?
a.
 Enzymes work best at a specified pH.
b.
 All enzymes work inside cells.
c.
 Enzymes are proteins.
d.
 Enzymes are organic catalysts.
 

Problem
 33.

You are given four test tubes containing purified biological macromolecules. The test tubes are unlabeled except for a number between 1 and 4. You are told that one test tube contains a protein, one contains a lipid, one contains a carbohydrate, and one contains a nucleic acid. You then perform some tests on the macromolecules and collect the following information:

1)      Test tubes #2 and #4 contain nitrogen, but the other tubes do not.
2)      The contents of test tube #3 are not soluble in water, but the contents of the other test tubes are soluble in water.
3)      The contents of test tube #1 can be broken down into subunits that are all exactly identical to each other.
4)      The macromolecule in test tube #2 is found to have a globular shape.

What are the identities of the macromolecules present in the four test tubes? Write your answer in the space below.


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