Author: Biology Junction Team

Chemistry & Water

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Chemistry & Water
 

Multiple Choice
Identify the choice that best completes the statement or answers the question.
 1.
Which of these is an example of an organelle?
a.
 chloroplast
b.
 muscle
c.
 epidermis
d.
 intestine
e.
 maple leaf
 2.
Which of these is a correct representation of the hierarchy of biological organization from least to most complex?
a.
 organelle of a stomach cell, digestive system, large intestine, small intestine, intestinal tissue, organism
b.
 organelle of an intestinal cell, digestive system, small intestine, large intestine, intestinal tissue, organism
c.
 molecule, intestinal cell organelle, intestinal cell, intestinal tissue, digestive system, organism
d.
 molecule, small intestine, large intestine, intestinal tissue, digestive system, organism
e.
 molecule, digestive system, digestive cell organelle, small intestine, large intestine, intestinal cell, organism
 3.
As a result of photosynthesis, plants release ____ into the atmosphere.
a.
 methane
b.
 carbon dioxide
c.
 water
d.
 minerals
e.
 oxygen
 4.
Which of the following types of cells utilize deoxyribonucleic acid (DNA) as their genetic material?
a.
 animal
b.
 plant
c.
 archaea
d.
 A and B only
e.
 A, B, and C
 5.
There are approximately ____ identified and named species.
a.
 1,800
b.
 180,000
c.
 1,800,000
d.
 18,000,000
e.
 180,000,000
 6.
Prokaryotic and eukaryotic cells generally have which of the following features in common?
a.
 a membrane-bounded nucleus
b.
 a cell wall made of cellulose
c.
 ribosomes
d.
 flagella or cilia that contain microtubules
e.
 linear chromosomes made of DNA and protein
 7.
Which of the following are characteristics shared by members of both domain Bacteria and domain Archaea?
a.
 cytosol
b.
 nucleus
c.
 DNA
d.
 A and C only
e.
 A, B, and C
 8.
Two species belonging to the same genus must also belong to the same
a.
 kingdom.
b.
 phylum.
c.
 class.
d.
 order.
e.
 all of the above
 9.
Which of the following is (are) true of natural selection?
a.
 requires genetic variation
b.
 results in descent with modification
c.
 involves differential reproductive success
d.
 B and C only
e.
 A, B, and C
 10.
Which of these individuals is most likely to be successful in an evolutionary sense?
a.
 a reproductively sterile individual who never falls ill
b.
 an organism that dies after 5 days of life but leaves 10 offspring, all of whom survive to reproduce
c.
 a male who mates with 20 females and fathers 1 offspring
d.
 an organism that lives 100 years and leaves 2 offspring, both of whom survive to reproduce
e.
 a female who mates with 20 males and produces 1 offspring
 11.
In a hypothetical world, every 50 years people over 6 feet tall are eliminated from the population. Based on your knowledge of natural selection, you would predict that the average height of the human population will
a.
 remain unchanged.
b.
 gradually decline.
c.
 rapidly decline.
d.
 gradually increase.
e.
 rapidly increase.
 12.
The statement “If you show your dog affection, then your dog will seek your company” is an example of
a.
 a statement that can be tested.
b.
 a statement derived from a hypothesis.
c.
 a prediction.
d.
 deductive reasoning.
e.
 all of the above
 13.
Which of the following is not a theme that unifies biology?
a.
 interaction with the environment
b.
 emergent properties
c.
 evolution
d.
 reductionism
e.
 structure and function
 14.
Calcium has an atomic number of 20 and an atomic mass of 40. Therefore, a calcium atom must have
a.
 20 protons.
b.
 40 electrons.
c.
 40 neutrons.
d.
 A and B only
e.
 A, B, and C
 15.
The atomic number of carbon is 6. Carbon-14 is heavier than carbon-12 because the atomic nucleus of carbon-14 contains ____ neutrons.
a.
 6
b.
 7
c.
 8
d.
 12
e.
 14
 16.
Electrons exist only at fixed levels of potential energy. However, if an atom absorbs sufficient energy, a possible result is that
a.
 an electron may move to an electron shell farther out from the nucleus.
b.
 an electron may move to an electron shell closer to the nucleus.
c.
 the atom may become a radioactive isotope.
d.
 the atom would become a positively charged ion, or cation.
e.
 the atom would become a negatively charged ion, or anion.

Use the figure below to answer the following questions.

nar001-1.jpg
 17.
Which drawing depicts the electron configuration of nitrogen (N)?
a.
 Drawing A
b.
 Drawing B
c.
 Drawing C
d.
 Drawing D
e.
 Drawing E
 18.
What does the reactivity of an atom depend on?
a.
 number of valence shells in the atom
b.
 number of orbitals found in the atom
c.
 number of electrons in each orbital in the atom
d.
 presence of unpaired electrons in the outer valence shell of the atom
e.
 presence of hybridized orbitals in the atom

Use the information extracted from the periodic table in the figure below to answer the following questions.

nar002-1.jpg
 19.
How many electrons does phosphorus have in its valence shell?
a.
 1
b.
 2
c.
 3
d.
 4
e.
 5
 20.
Nitrogen (N) is much more electronegative than hydrogen (H). Which of the following statements is correct about the atoms in ammonia (NH3)?
a.
 Each hydrogen atom has a partial positive charge.
b.
 The nitrogen atom has a strong positive charge.
c.
 Each hydrogen atom has a slight negative charge.
d.
 The nitrogen atom has a partial positive charge.
e.
 There are covalent bonds between the hydrogen atoms.
 21.
What do the four elements most abundant in life-carbon, oxygen, hydrogen, and nitrogen-have in common?
a.
 They all have the same number of valence electrons.
b.
 Each element exists in only one isotopic form.
c.
 They are equal in electronegativity.
d.
 They are elements produced only by living cells.
e.
 They all have unpaired electrons in their valence shells.

Use the figure below to answer the following questions. .

nar003-1.jpg
 22.
What results from the chemical reaction?
a.
 a cation with a net charge of +1
b.
 a cation with a net charge of -1
c.
 an anion with a net charge of +1
d.
 an anion with a net charge of -1
e.
 A and D
 23.
The atomic number of chlorine is 17. The atomic number of magnesium is 12. What is the formula for magnesium chloride?
a.
 MgCl
b.
 MgCl2
c.
 Mg2Cl
d.
 Mg2Cl2
e.
 MgCl3
 24.
Explains most specifically the attraction of water molecules to one another.
a.
 nonpolar covalent bond
b.
 polar covalent bond
c.
 ionic bond
d.
 hydrogen bond
e.
 hydrophobic interaction
 25.
In a single molecule of water, the two hydrogen atoms are bonded to a single oxygen atom by
a.
 hydrogen bonds.
b.
 nonpolar covalent bonds.
c.
 polar covalent bonds.
d.
 ionic bonds.
e.
 van der Waals interactions.
 26.
Which bonds must be broken for water to vaporize?
a.
 ionic bonds
b.
 nonpolar covalent bonds
c.
 polar covalent bonds
d.
 hydrogen bonds
e.
 covalent bonds
 27.
The formation of ice during colder weather helps moderate the seasonal transition to winter. This is mainly because
a.
 the breaking of hydrogen bonds absorbs heat.
b.
 the formation of hydrogen bonds releases heat.
c.
 the formation of hydrogen bonds absorbs heat.
d.
 there is greater evaporative cooling of lakes.
e.
 ice is denser than liquid water.
 28.
Recall that when sodium chloride (NaCl) is placed in water the component atoms of the NaCl crystal dissociate into individual sodium ions (Na+) and chloride ions (Cl-). In contrast, the atoms of covalently bonded molecules (e.g, glucose, sucrose, glycerol) do not generally dissociate when placed in aqueous solution. Which of the following solutions would be expected to contain the greatest concentration of particles (molecules or ions)?
a.
 0.5 M NaCl
b.
 0.5 M glucose
c.
 1.0 M NaCl
d.
 1.0 M glucose
e.
 1.0 M MgCl2

Use the figure below to answer the following questions:

nar004-1.jpg
 29.
How many grams of the molecule in the figure above would be required to make 1 L of a 0.5 M solution of the molecule?
(Carbon = 12, Oxygen = 16, Hydrogen = 1)
a.
 29
b.
 30
c.
 60
d.
 150
e.
 342
 30.
Which of the following ionizes completely in solution and is considered to be a strong acid?
a.
 NaOH
b.
 HCl
c.
 NH3
d.
 H2CO3
e.
 CH3COOH
 31.
Which of the following statements is completely correct?
a.
 H2CO3 is a weak acid, and NaOH is a weak base.
b.
 H2CO3 is a strong acid, and NaOH is a strong base.
c.
 NH3 is a weak base, and H2CO3 is a strong acid.
d.
 NH3 is a weak base, and HCl is a strong acid.
e.
 NH3 is a strong base, and HCl is a weak acid.
 32.
Buffers are substances that help resist shifts in pH by
a.
 releasing H+ in acidic solutions.
b.
 donating H+ to a solution when they have been depleted.
c.
 releasing OH- in basic solutions.
d.
 accepting H+ when the are in excess.
e.
 both B and D
 33.

One of the buffers that contribute to pH stability in human blood is carbonic acid (H2CO3) Carbonic acid is a weak acid that dissociates into a bicarbonate ion (HCO3-) and a hydrogen ion (H+) Thus,

H2CO3 HCO3- + H+

If the pH of the blood drops, one would expect

a.
 a decrease in the concentration of H2CO3 and an increase in the concentration of HCO3-.
b.
 the concentration of hydroxide ion (OH-) to increase.
c.
 the concentration of bicarbonate ion (HCO3-) to increase.
d.
 the HCO3- to act as a base and remove excess H+ with the formation of H2CO3.
e.
 the HCO3- to act as an acid and remove excess H+ with the formation of H2CO3.

 
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Periodic Table

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Periodic Table of the Elements

H He
Li Be B C N O F Ne
Na Mg Al Si P S Cl Ar
K Ca Sc Ti V Cr Mn Fe Co Ni Cu Zn Ga Ge As Se Br Kr
Rb Sr Y Zr Nb Mo Tc Ru Rh Pd Ag Cd In Sn Sb Te I Xe
Cs Ba La Hf Ta W Re Os Ir Pt Au Hg Tl Pb Bi Po At Rn
Fr Ra Ac Unq Unp Unh Uns Uno Une
Ce Pr Nd Pm Sm Eu Gd Tb Dy Ho Er Tm Yb Lu
Th Pa U Np Pu Am Cm Bk Cf Es Fm Md No Lr
Name Number Weight
Melts Boils

 

Legend
Metals A solid substance that is a good conductor of heat and electricity. Can be formed into many shapes.
Metalloid “Middle elements” – conduct heat and electricity better than nonmetals, but not as well as metals. Easier to shape than nonmetals, but not as easy as metals. Solid at room temperature.
Nonmetals A poor conductor of heat and electricity. Not easily formed into shapes.

 

 

 

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PCC Virus, Viroids, & Prions Study Guide

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PCC Virus, Viroids, & Prions Study Guide

 

  

Multiple Choice
Identify the choice that best completes the statement or answers the question.
 
 1.
The outer protein coat of a virus is called a
a.
 DNA core.
c.
 bacteriophage.
b.
 capsid.
d.
 tail sheath.
 
 2.
All viruses are made of proteins and
a.
 nucleic acids.
c.
 bacteriophages.
b.
 prophages.
d.
 endospores.
 
 3.
A viral capsid functions to
a.
 bind the virus to the surface of a host cell.
b.
 transcribe viral genes.
c.
 force a host cell to make copies of the virus.
d.
 destroy a host cell.
 
 4.
The instructions for making new copies of a virus are
a.
 a part of a virus’s capsid.
b.
 coded in surface proteins attached to the protein coat.
c.
 coded in either RNA or DNA.
d.
 found only in bacteriophages.
 
 5.
What is the basic structure of a virus?
a.
 DNA or RNA surrounded by a protein coat
b.
 a capsid surrounded by a protein coat
c.
 a tail sheath surrounded by tail fibers
d.
 a tiny cell surrounded by a cell wall
 
 6.
Viruses
a.
 are all about the same size.
b.
 vary greatly in size and structure.
c.
 rarely contain DNA or RNA.
d.
 can be seen with a basic compound light microscope.
 
 7.
Which of the following characteristics of living things is NOT true about viruses?
a.
 contain genetic material
c.
 obtain and use energy
b.
 evolve over time
d.
 able to reproduce
 
 8.
A lytic infection concludes with the
a.
 embedding of viral DNA into the host cell’s DNA.
b.
 production of a prophage.
c.
 bursting of the host cell.
d.
 production of messenger RNA.
 
 9.
A prophage is made of
a.
 bacteriophages.
c.
 capsid proteins.
b.
 carbohydrates.
d.
 viral DNA.
 
 10.
Bacteriophages infect
a.
 other viruses.
c.
 any available host cell.
b.
 bacteria only.
d.
 cells undergoing the lytic cycle.
 
 11.
Unlike lytic viruses, lysogenic viruses do NOT
a.
 inject their genetic material into the host cell.
b.
 enter the lytic cycle.
c.
 lyse the host cell right away.
d.
 infect host cells.
 
 12.
During a lytic infection, the host cell is
a.
 destroyed.
c.
 copied many times over.
b.
 prepared for the lysogenic cycle.
d.
 all of the above
 
 13.
Which of the following is NOT a viral disease?
a.
 botulism
c.
 measles
b.
 AIDS
d.
 polio
 
 14.
Viral diseases can be
a.
 treated with antibiotics and prevented with vaccines.
b.
 treated with vaccines and prevented with antibiotics.
c.
 prevented with antibiotics but not treated with vaccines.
d.
 prevented with vaccines but not treated with antibiotics.
 
 15.
Plant viruses have a difficult time entering the cells they infect partly because
a.
 plant viruses are weaker than animal viruses.
b.
 plant cells have tough cell walls.
c.
 many plant viruses are spread by insects.
d.
 plant viruses do not have a protein coat.
 
 16.
Viruses cause disease by
a.
 producing toxins that harm the body.
b.
 reproducing independently inside the body.
c.
 forming endospores in the body.
d.
 disrupting the body’s normal equilibrium.
 
 17.
Prions differ from viruses because
a.
 prions do not cause disease.
c.
 prions only infect plant cells.
b.
 prions contain no DNA or RNA.
d.
 prions do not contain any protein.
 
 18.
We know viruses are not alive because they
a.
 are made of cells.
c.
 they are autotrophic.
b.
 make prions rather than proteins.
d.
 they are not made of cells.
 
 19.
The study of viruses is a part of biology because viruses
a.
 belong to the domain Archaea.
c.
 are living organisms.
b.
 are about to become extinct.
d.
 are active inside living cells.
 
 20.
A typical virus consists of a
a.
 protein coat and a cytoplasm core.
b.
 carbohydrate coat and a nucleic acid core.
c.
 protein coat and a nucleic acid core.
d.
 polysaccharide coat and a nucleic acid core.
 
 21.
Biologists now know that viruses
a.
 are the smallest organisms.
b.
 consist of a protein surrounded by a nucleic acid coat.
c.
 contain RNA or DNA in a protein coat.
d.
 all form the same crystalline shape.
 
   
 
nar001-1.jpg
 
 22.
Refer to the illustration above. Which structure represents protein?
a.
 structure B
c.
 structure D
b.
 structure A
d.
 structure E
 
 23.
The function of a bacteriophage’s tail and tail fibers is to inject
a.
 viral protein into the host cell.
c.
 glycoproteins into the host cell.
b.
 viral enzymes into the host cell.
d.
 viral DNA into the host cell.
 
 24.
The capsid of a virus is the
a.
 protective outer coat.
c.
 nucleus.
b.
 cell membrane.
d.
 cell wall and membrane complex.
 
 25.
A provirus is part of a virus’s
a.
 lytic cycle.
c.
 infection cycle.
b.
 conjugation cycle.
d.
 lysogenic cycle.
 
 26.
How is a lytic cycle different from a lysogenic cycle?
a.
 The host cell is destroyed in a lysogenic cycle.
b.
 The host cell is destroyed in a lytic cycle.
c.
 A provirus is formed during a lytic cycle.
d.
 A lytic cycle releases temperate viruses.
 
 27.
A virulent virus is one that
a.
 has only DNA.
b.
 has only RNA.
c.
 reproduces only with a lysogenic cycle.
d.
 reproduces only with a lytic cycle.
 
 28.
In a lytic cycle, viral genetic material
a.
 remains separate from the host cell’s DNA.
b.
 becomes part of the host cell’s DNA.
c.
 becomes a provirus.
d.
 remains in the host cell permanently.
 
 29.
The cycle of viral infection, replication, and cell destruction is called the virus’s
a.
 lysogenic cycle.
c.
 lytic cycle.
b.
 metabolic cycle.
d.
 provirus cycle.
 
 30.
Viroids are
a.
 much smaller than viruses.
c.
 misshapen proteins.
b.
 much larger than viruses.
d.
 found in the brain.
 
 31.
Prions
a.
 always have a capsid.
c.
 change the shape of normal proteins.
b.
 cause abnormal growth in plants.
d.
 are made of RNA.
 

 

 
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PCC – Protist Study Guide

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PCC – Protist Study Guide

 

 

Multiple Choice
Identify the choice that best completes the statement or answers the question.
 1.
Most protozoa may be characterized as:
a.
 autotrophic.
b.
 heterotrophic.
c.
 photosynthetic.
d.
 chemotrophic.
e.
 anisogamous.
 2.
Most protists are:
a.
 aquatic.
b.
 parasitic.
c.
 terrestrial.
d.
 arboreal.
e.
 None of the above.
 3.
Based on the most recent data available, the protist kingdom is:
a.
 paraphyletic.
b.
 monophyletic.
c.
 composed only of unicells.
d.
 composed of both eukaryotes and prokaryotes.
e.
 entirely microscopic.
 4.
The informal group designated as the protozoa include all of the following except:
a.
 ameoeba.
b.
 ciliates.
c.
 diatoms.
d.
 foraminifera.
e.
 zooflagellates.
 5.
Members of phylum ____________ move via pseudopodia.
a.
 Rhizopoda
b.
 Zoomastigina
c.
 Ciliophora
d.
 Oomycota
e.
 Chrysophyta
 6.
Members of which phylum have formed deposits of chalk, as seen in the white cliffs of Dover?
a.
 Rhizopoda
b.
 Zoomastigina
c.
 Ciliophora
d.
 Foraminifera
e.
 Actinopoda
 7.
Pseudopodia are used by Amoeba for ingesting food as well as for:
a.
 reproduction.
b.
 excretion.
c.
 digestion.
d.
 movement.
e.
 avoiding predation.
 8.
Among the protist phyla below, which has organisms that typically move with one or more flagella?
a.
 Rhizopoda
b.
 Retortmonada
c.
 Ciliophora
d.
 Foraminifera
e.
 Actinopoda
 9.
Which phylum contains the organism Trypanosoma, which causes African sleeping sickness?
a.
 Rhizopoda
b.
 Euglenozoa
c.
 Ciliophora
d.
 Foraminifera
e.
 Actinopoda
 10.
Members of phylum Alveolata possess ____________, which are ejectile filaments used in trapping prey.
a.
 contractile vacuoles
b.
 micronuclei
c.
 macronuclei
d.
 heterocysts
e.
 trichocysts
Figure 24-01
Use the figure below to answer the corresponding questions.nar001-1.jpg
 11.
In Figure 24-01, the function of the structure labeled 4 is:
a.
 food intake.
b.
 digestion.
c.
 waste elimination.
d.
 water discharge.
e.
 asexual reproduction.
 12.
In Figure 24-01, the function of the structure labeled 6 is:
a.
 food intake.
b.
 digestion.
c.
 waste elimination.
d.
 water discharge.
e.
 asexual reproduction.
 13.
Malaria is caused by an ___________________, which is carried to a host by a ______________.
a.
 apicomplexan; fly
b.
 apicomplexan; mosquito
c.
 apicomplexan; body louse
d.
 actinopod; fly
e.
 actinopod; mosquito
 14.
Algae are not considered true plants, as they lack both a cuticle and:
a.
 multicellular bodies.
b.
 multicellular gametangia.
c.
 thalli.
d.
 frustules.
e.
 cell walls.
Figure 24-02
Use the figure below to answer the corresponding questions.nar002-1.jpg
 15.
In Figure 24-02, the process occurring in the cells labeled 2 in the sequence is:
a.
 fertilization.
b.
 syngamy.
c.
 the first meiotic division.
d.
 the second meiotic division.
e.
 mitosis.
 16.
In Figure 24-02, the process occurring in the cells labeled 6 is:
a.
 fertilization.
b.
 syngamy.
c.
 the first meiotic division.
d.
 the second meiotic division.
e.
 mitosis.
 17.
The outcome of the process illustrated Figure 24-02 is:
a.
 four new genetically identical cells that differ genetically from what they were before.
b.
 four new but genetically distinct cells.
c.
 two new genetically identical cells that differ genetically from what they were before.
d.
 two new but genetically distinct cells.
e.
 one male and one female cell.
 18.
Classification of algae into the various protist phyla is based on their photosynthetic pigments and:
a.
 cellular storage compounds.
b.
 presence of cell walls.
c.
 where they live.
d.
 the diseases they cause.
e.
 the presence of DNA or RNA.
 19.
Which phylum includes algae that are typically unicellular and form siliceous shells?
a.
 Chlorophyta
b.
 Rhodophyta
c.
 Euglenophyta
d.
 Dinoflagellata
e.
 Bacillariophyta
 20.
The commercially important unicellular protists that are used in filters, polishes, and other industrial processes are the:
a.
 dinoflagellates.
b.
 euglenoids.
c.
 apicomplexans.
d.
 zooflagellates.
e.
 diatoms.
 21.
Members of this phylum have both plant-like and animal-like characteristics, making classification difficult.
a.
 Chlorophyta
b.
 Rhodophyta
c.
 Euglenophyta
d.
 Oomycota
e.
 Bacillariophyta
 22.
These algae are often used as indicators of organic pollution such as sewage in a lake or stream.
a.
 Chlorophyta
b.
 Rhodophyta
c.
 Euglenophyta
d.
 Dinoflagellata
e.
 Bacillariophyta
 23.
These algae often have intracellular shells of interlocking plates.
a.
 Chlorophyta
b.
 Rhodophyta
c.
 Euglenophyta
d.
 Dinoflagellata
e.
 Bacillariophyta
 24.
Members of which phylum are one of the most important producers in marine ecosystems, although sometimes they form blooms known as red tides?
a.
 Chlorophyta
b.
 Rhodophyta
c.
 Euglenophyta
d.
 Dinoflagellata
e.
 Phaeophyta
 25.
Toxins produced by red tides are known to have impacted all of the following except:
a.
 birds.
b.
 fishes.
c.
 humans.
d.
 manatees.
e.
 None of the above, all are impacted by red tides.
 26.
Brown algae lack true roots but have similar structures called ____________ that anchor them to the substrate.
a.
 stipes
b.
 fronds
c.
 holdfasts
d.
 blades
e.
 thalli
 27.
All of the following statements about the phylum Phaeophyta are true except:
a.
 this group includes the most complex algae that have blades, stipes, and holdfasts.
b.
 they share a common ancestor with representatives of the plant kingdom.
c.
 they represent the largest members of the kingdom Protista.
d.
 they are harvested for algin, which is used in a variety of commercial products.
e.
 they are ecologically important as producers and in providing habitats along rocky coastlines.
 28.
Of the following algae, which phylum exhibits the most diverse morphology, forming unicells, filaments, and sheets?
a.
 Chlorophyta
b.
 Phaeophyta
c.
 Euglenophyta
d.
 Dinoflagellata
e.
 Bacillariophyta
 29.
Members of the phylum ___________________ are thought to have given rise to plants.
a.
 Chlorophyta
b.
 Rhodophyta
c.
 Euglenophyta
d.
 Dinoflagellata
e.
 Bacillariophyta
 30.
Green algae exhibit alternation of generations and varied sexual reproduction. When their sexual reproduction involves the fusion of flagellated gametes of different sizes, it is known as:
a.
 oogamy.
b.
 anisogamy.
c.
 isogamy.
d.
 heterogamy.
e.
 fission.
Figure 24-03
Use the figure below to answer the corresponding questions.nar003-1.jpg
 31.
In Figure 24-03, the Chlamydomonas at point 4 in the life cycle:
a.
 are haploid gametes.
b.
 were produced by mitosis.
c.
 are negative (-) strain.
d.
 are part of the haploid generation.
e.
 All of the above.
 32.
In Figure 24-03, the structure at point 6 in the life cycle:
a.
 is a zoospore.
b.
 was produced by mitosis.
c.
 was produced by meiosis.
d.
 is diploid.
e.
 None of the above.
 33.
In Figure 24-03, the process occurring at point 1 in the life cycle is:
a.
 fertilization.
b.
 sexual reproduction.
c.
 meiosis.
d.
 asexual reproduction.
e.
 syngamy.
 34.
Some green algae, such as Codium, attain very large sizes, but are a single cell with multiple nuclei. This condition is known as:
a.
 mycelium.
b.
 alternation of generations.
c.
 multicellular.
d.
 coenocytic.
e.
 colonial.
 35.
Which of the following protist phyla does not have flagellated cells?
a.
 Oomycota
b.
 Phaeophyta
c.
 Euglenophyta
d.
 Rhodophyta
e.
 Chrysophyta
 36.
Members of this phylum are typically multicellular and have phycoerythrin and phycocyanin as their accessory photosynthetic pigments.
a.
 Rhodophyta
b.
 Phaeophyta
c.
 Dinoflagellata
d.
 Euglenophyta
e.
 Chlorophyta
 37.
Which group of algae are a commercial source of agar and carrageenan?
a.
 Rhodophyta
b.
 Phaeophyta
c.
 Dinoflagellata
d.
 Euglenophyta
e.
 Chlorophyta
 38.
Coralline forms of members of this phylum are ecologically important in the formation of coral reefs.
a.
 Rhodophyta
b.
 Phaeophyta
c.
 Dinoflagellata
d.
 Euglenophyta
e.
 Chlorophyta
 39.
Fungus-like protists aren’t fungi, because the protists have ____________ in their cell walls and possess ____________, wheras fungi do not.
a.
 cellulose; flagella
b.
 chitin; centrioles
c.
 chitin; flagella
d.
 cellulose; centrioles
e.
 chitin; cilia
 40.
Members of this phylum are characterized by a multinucleate amoeboid-like feeding form called a plasmodium.
a.
 Myxomycota
b.
 Oomycota
c.
 Rhodomycota
d.
 Phaeophyta
e.
 Acrasiomycota
 41.
A water mold, from phylum ________________, was responsible for the late blight of potatoes that caused the Irish potato famine.
a.
 Myxomycota
b.
 Oomycota
c.
 Rhodomycota
d.
 Phaeophyta
e.
 Acrasiomycota
 42.
The ____________ are zooflagellates that are very primitive and may give biologists clues as to the evolutionary relationships between the prokaryotes and the protists.
a.
 cryptomonads
b.
 chrysophytes
c.
 diplomonads
d.
 water molds
e.
 slime molds
 43.
Protists may move by pushing out their cytoplasmic extensions, known as:
a.
 plasmadesmata.
b.
 pseudopods.
c.
 flagella.
d.
 cilia.
e.
 etrichomes.
 44.
Symbiotic association in which one partner benefits and the other is unaffected is called:
a.
 symbiosis.
b.
 mutualism.
c.
 commensalism.
d.
 parasitism.
e.
 None of the above.
 45.
Symbiotic association in which one partner lives on or in another is called:
a.
 symbiosis.
b.
 mutualism.
c.
 commensalisms.
d.
 parasitism.
e.
 None of the above.
 46.
The base of the food web in aquatic ecosystem is:
a.
 Algae.
b.
 Euglena.
c.
 Plankton.
d.
 plants.
e.
 fish.
 47.
First eukaryotic cells to evolve from ancestral prokaryotes were:
a.
 Fungi.
b.
 Protists.
c.
 Endosymbionts.
d.
 Plants.
e.
 None of the above.
 48.
Mitochondria and chloroplasts in eukaryotic cells probably originated from:
a.
 Fungi.
b.
 Protists.
c.
 Endosymbionts.
d.
 Plants.
e.
 None of the above.
 49.
Ancestors of ____________________ represent an intermediate stage in eukaryotic evolution when cells each had two haploid nuclei but fusion had not occurred.
a.
 plasmodium
b.
 Amoeba
c.
 Euglena
d.
 Giardia
e.
 Paramecium
 50.
Backpackers’ diarrhea, a common infection among campers and hikers, particularly in the mountains of the western United States, is caused by _________________.
a.
 plasmodium
b.
 Amoeba
c.
 Euglena
d.
 Trypanosomas
e.
 Giardia
 51.
Euglenoids reproduce:
a.
 asexually.
b.
 sexually.
c.
 both asexually and sexually.
d.
 do not reproduce.
e.
 by mating.
 52.
Researchers use ______________________ protists as indicator species of organic pollution.
a.
 plasmodium
b.
 Amoeba
c.
 Euglenoids
d.
 Giardia
e.
 Paramecium
 53.
Trypanosomes reproduce:
a.
 asexually.
b.
 sexually.
c.
 both asexually and sexually.
d.
 do not reproduce.
e.
 by mating.
 54.
In paramecium, the surface of the cell is covered with thousands of short, hairlike ___________.
a.
 plasmadesmata
b.
 pseudopods
c.
 flagella
d.
 cilia
e.
 trichomes
 55.
In freshwater ciliates, special organelles called ______________________________ control water regulation.
a.
 flagella
b.
 contractile vacuole
c.
 Food vacuole
d.
 Lysosome
e.
 peroxisome
 56.
In ciliates macronuclei controls ____________________________.
a.
 reproduction
b.
 growth
c.
 metabolism
d.
 movement
e.
 Both B and C.
 57.
The symbiotic dinoflagellates, which live in the bodies of marine invertebrates such as mollusks, jellyfish, and corals, are called __________________________.
a.
 Zooxanthellae
b.
 apicomplexans
c.
 sporozites
d.
 ciliates
e.
 None of the above.
 58.
Dinoflagellates that contribute substantially to the productivity of coral reefs are ____________.
a.
 Zooxanthellae
b.
 apicomplexans
c.
 sporozites
d.
 ciliates
e.
 None of the above.
 59.
Water molds are members of the kingdom___________________.
a.
 Protists
b.
 Fungi
c.
 Plantae
d.
 Eubacteria
e.
 Animalia
 60.
Sudden death of oak is caused by a (an):
a.
 Protist.
b.
 Fungi.
c.
 archaebacteria.
d.
 Eubacteria.
e.
 animal parasite.
 61.
Protists are alike in that all are
a.
 multicellular.
b.
 photosynthetic.
c.
 marine.
d.
 nonparasitic.
e.
 eukaryotic.
 62.
All of the following groups had taxonomic significance in the past, but only one is now considered to be a diverse clade. Which group is it?
a.
 algae
b.
 protist
c.
 protozoa
d.
 monera
e.
 euglenozoa
 63.

Which of the following statements concerning living phytoplanktonic organisms are true?

1. They are important members of communities surrounding deep-sea hydrothermal vents.
2. They are important primary producers in most aquatic food webs.
3. They are important in maintaining oxygen in Earth’s seas and atmosphere.
4. They are most often found growing in the sediments of seas and oceans.
5. They can be so concentrated that they affect the color of seawater.
a.
 1 and 4
b.
 1, 2, and 4
c.
 2, 3, and 4
d.
 2, 3, and 5
e.
 3, 4, and 5
 64.
Biologists have discovered the kingdom Protista to be paraphyletic. Which of the following statements is true, and consistent with this conclusion?
a.
 Various combinations of prokaryotic ancestors gave rise to different lineages of protists.
b.
 Animals, plants, and fungi arose from different protistan ancestors.
c.
 Multicellularity has evolved only once among the protists.
d.
 Chloroplasts among various protists are similar to those found in prokaryotes.
e.
 The protists arose from a common ancestor that was a parabasalid.
 65.
The strongest evidence for the endosymbiotic origin of eukaryotic organelles is the similarity between extant prokaryotes and which of the following?
a.
 nuclei and chloroplasts
b.
 mitochondria and chloroplasts
c.
 cilia and mitochondria
d.
 mitochondria and nuclei
e.
 mitochondria and cilia
 66.
According to the endosymbiotic theory of the origin of eukaryotic cells, how did mitochondria originate?
a.
 from infoldings of the plasma membrane, coupled with mutations of genes for oxygen-using metabolism
b.
 from engulfed, originally free-living prokaryotes
c.
 by tertiary endosymbiosis
d.
 from the nuclear envelope folding outward and forming mitochondrial membranes
e.
 when a protoeukaryote engaged in a symbiotic relationship with a protobiont
 67.
Which of the following statements is consistent with the hypothesis that certain eukaryotic organelles originated as prokaryotic endosymbionts? Such organelles
a.
 are roughly the same size as bacteria.
b.
 can be cultured on agar since they make all their own proteins.
c.
 contain circular DNA molecules.
d.
 have ribosomes that are similar to those of bacteria.
e.
 A, C, and D
 68.
Which process allows nucleomorphs to be first reduced, and then lost altogether, without the loss of any genetic information from the host cell that ultimately surrounds the nucleomorph?
a.
 conjugation
b.
 horizontal gene transfer
c.
 binary fission
d.
 phagocytosis
e.
 meiosis
 69.
Which organisms represent the common ancestor of all photosynthetic plastids found in eukaryotes?
a.
 autotrophic euglenids
b.
 diatoms
c.
 dinoflagellates
d.
 red algae
e.
 cyanobacteria
 70.
The chloroplasts of modern plants are thought to have been derived according to which sequence?
a.
 cyanobacteria green algae green plants
b.
 cyanobacteria green algae fungi green plants
c.
 red algae brown algae green algae green plants
d.
 red algae cyanobacteria green plants
e.
 cyanobacteria red algae green algae green plants
 71.
The evolution of eukaryotes from prokaryotes probably
a.
 occurred many times.
b.
 involved endosymbiosis on multiple occasions.
c.
 allowed for the formation of both complexity and multicellularity.
d.
 B and C only
e.
 A, B, and C
 72.
The goal in classifying organisms should be to create categories that reflect the evolutionary histories of organisms. What system would be best to use?
a.
 a three-kingdom classification system
b.
 a five-kingdom classification system
c.
 an eight-kingdom classification system
d.
 a system that uses as many kingdoms as necessary to be accurate
e.
 a system that returns to that used by Linnaeus
 73.
The current state of the revision of “protistan” taxonomy is an example of which feature of good scientific practice?
a.
 the need to suspend judgment until enough evidence is available to make an informed decision
b.
 the need to base hypothetical phylogenies solely on fossil evidence
c.
 the need to be willing to change or drop one’s hypotheses when the data warrant it
d.
 the need to avoid sampling techniques that can introduce bias
e.
 both A and C
 74.
A mixotroph loses its plastids yet continues to survive. Which of the following most likely accounts for its continued survival?
a.
 It relies on photosystems that float freely in its cytosol.
b.
 It must have gained extra mitochondria when it lost its plastids.
c.
 It engulfs organic material by phagocytosis.
d.
 It has an endospore.
e.
 It is protected by a siliceous case.

For the following questions, refer to the figure below, which represents a hypothetical eukaryotic cell that is the result of serial endosymbioses involving its mitochondria, one of which is pictured. Labeled arrows (A-E) indicate various membranes in this cell. Responses may be used once, more than once, or not at all.

nar004-1.jpg
 75.
This membrane is homologous to the plasma membrane of the ancestral, gram-negative, aerobically respiring bacterium.
a.
 A
b.
 B
c.
 C
d.
 D
e.
 E
 76.
This membrane is homologous to an ancestral host plasma membrane and was derived from the primary (first) endosymbiotic event.
a.
 A
b.
 B
c.
 C
d.
 D
e.
 E
 77.
Which one of the mitochondrial membranes should bear the strongest similarity to the outer membrane of the cell wall of the ancestral, gram-negative, aerobically respiring bacterium?
a.
 A
b.
 B
c.
 C
d.
 D
e.
 E
 78.
If the genes for ATP synthase underwent horizontal gene transfer and are no longer within the mitochondrion, then which membrane most immediately surrounds the genes for ATP synthase?
a.
 A
b.
 B
c.
 C
d.
 D
e.
 E
 79.
A biologist discovers a new unicellullar organism that possesses more than two flagella and two small, but equal-sized, nuclei. The organism has reduced mitochondria and no chloroplasts. How would you classify this organism?
a.
 apicomplexan
b.
 diplomonad
c.
 ciliate
d.
 prokaryote
e.
 Chlamydomonas
 80.
Assuming that all of the flagella found among the various types of protists require the same amount of ATP per unit time to operate, and assuming that all of an individual protist’s flagella are in use simultaneously, then which of these protists should use the greatest amount of ATP per unit time to move about?
a.
 Chlamydomonas
b.
 dinoflagellates
c.
 euglenids
d.
 diplomonads
e.
 golden algae
 81.
Which of the following groups does not include many planktonic species?
a.
 kinetoplastids.
b.
 golden algae.
c.
 diatoms.
d.
 dinoflagellates.
e.
 radiolarians.
 82.
Organisms classified as Euglenozoa have previously been classified as protozoans, protista, plants, and animals. Why the confusion?
a.
 Like protozoans, they are unicellular.
b.
 Like animals, many are heterotrophic.
c.
 Like plants, many are photosynthetic.
d.
 A and B only
e.
 A, B, and C
 83.
When a protist possesses two flagella, both are generally used for propulsion. Assuming that a flagellum containing a crystalline rod cannot undulate back and forth, and assuming that two undulatory flagella can produce more effective locomotion than can a single flagellum, which of these organisms should have the least effective locomotion?
a.
 golden algae
b.
 dinoflagellates
c.
 euglenids
d.
 Chlamydomonas
e.
 oomycetes
 84.

Which two genera have members that can evade the human immune system by frequently changing their surface proteins?

1. Plasmodium
2. Trichomonas
3. Paramecium
4. Trypanosoma
5. Entamoeba
a.
 1 and 2
b.
 1 and 4
c.
 2 and 3
d.
 2 and 4
e.
 4 and 5
 85.
Which of the following marine organisms produce potent neurotoxins that cause extensive fish kills, contaminate shellfish, and create severe respiratory irritation to humans along the shore?
a.
 red algae
b.
 dinoflagellates
c.
 diplomonads
d.
 euglenids
e.
 golden algae
 86.
Which structure(s) consist(s), at least in part, of DNA?
a.
 Trypanosoma kinetoplast
b.
 diplomonad mitochondrion
c.
 chlorarachniophytes nucleomorph
d.
 A and C only
e.
 A, B, and C
 87.
Which of the following is mismatched?
a.
 apicomplexa-internal parasites
b.
 golden algae;-planktonic producers
c.
 euglenozoa-unicellular flagellates
d.
 ciliates-red tide organisms
e.
 entamoeba-ingestive heterotrophs
 88.
Which of the following statements about dinoflagellates is false?
a.
 They possess two flagella.
b.
 Some cause red tides.
c.
 their walls are composed of cellulose plates.
d.
 Many types contain chlorophyll.
e.
 Their fossil remains form limestone deposits.
 89.
Which group(s) within the Alveolata include(s) members that are important in ocean food webs, cause(s) red tides that kill many fish, and may even be carnivorous?
a.
 ciliates
b.
 apicomplexans
c.
 dinoflagellates
d.
 A and B only
e.
 A, B, and C
 90.
Which of the following correctly pairs a protist with one of its characteristics?
a.
 kinetoplastids;-slender pseudopodia
b.
 plasmodial slime molds-flagellated stages
c.
 apicomplexans-parasitic
d.
 gymnamoebas-calcium carbonate shell
e.
 foraminiferans-abundant in soils
 91.
Which of the following statements concerning protists is false?
a.
 All protists are eukaryotic organisms; many are unicellular or colonial.
b.
 The organism that causes malaria is transmitted to humans by the bite of the tsetse fly.
c.
 All apicomplexans are parasitic.
d.
 Cellular slime molds have an amoeboid stage that may be followed by a stage during which spores are produced.
e.
 The euglenozoans that are functionally mixotrophic contain chloroplasts.
 92.
You are given an unknown organism to identify. It is unicellular and heterotrophic. It is motile, using many short extensions of the cytoplasm, each featuring the 9+2 pattern. It has well-developed organelles and three nuclei, one large and two small. This organism is most likely to be a member of which group?
a.
 foraminiferans
b.
 radiolarians
c.
 ciliates
d.
 kinetoplastids
e.
 slime molds
 93.
Which of the following is not characteristic of ciliates?
a.
 They use cilia as locomotory or feeding structures.
b.
 They are relatively complex cells.
c.
 They can exchange genetic material with other ciliates by the process of mitosis.
d.
 Most live as solitary cells in fresh water.
e.
 They have two or more nuclei.
 94.
If one speculates that it requires ten times as many ATP molecules to power a typical flagellum as to power a typical cilium for a given unit of time, and if one assumes that locomotion is the largest energy drain for protists, then which protist should have the largest number of ATP synthases per cell?
a.
 Euglena
b.
 Chlamydomonas
c.
 Giardia
d.
 Plasmodium
e.
 Paramecium
 95.
Which process results in genetic recombination, but is separate from the process wherein the population size of paramecium increases?
a.
 budding
b.
 meiotic division
c.
 mitotic division
d.
 conjugation
e.
 binary fission
 96.
Which statement regarding resistance is false?
a.
 Many of the oomycetes that cause late potato blight have become resistant to pesticides.
b.
 Many of the mosquitoes that transmit malaria to humans have become resistant to pesticides.
c.
 Many of the malarial parasites have become resistant to antimalarial drugs.
d.
 Many humans have become resistant to antimalarial drugs.
e.
 Trichomonas vaginalis is resistant to the normal acidity of the human vagina.
 97.
Why is the filamentous morphology of the water molds considered a case of convergent evolution with the hyphae of fungi?
a.
 Fungi are closely related to the water molds.
b.
 Body shape reflects ancestor-descendant relationships among organisms.
c.
 Filamentous shape is an adaptation for a nutritional mode as a decomposer.
d.
 Hyphae and filaments are necessary for locomotion in both groups.
e.
 Filamentous body shape is evolutionarily primitive for all eukaryotes.
 98.
The Irish potato famine was caused by an organism that belongs to which group?
a.
 bacterium
b.
 stramenopile
c.
 foraminiferan
d.
 apicomplexan
e.
 virus
 99.
If one were to apply the most recent technique used to fight late potato blight to the fight against the malarial infection of humans, then one would
a.
 increase the dosage of the least-expensive antimalarial drug administered to humans.
b.
 increase the dosage of the most common pesticide used to kill Anopheles mosquitoes.
c.
 introduce a predator of the malarial parasite into infected humans.
d.
 use a “cocktail” of at least three different pesticides against Anopheles mosquitoes.
e.
 insert genes from a Plasmodium-resistant strain of mosquito into Anopheles mosquitoes.
 100.
Which of the following is correctly described as a primary producer?
a.
 oomycete
b.
 kinetoplastid
c.
 apicomplexan
d.
 diatom
e.
 radiolarian
 101.
A certain unicellular eukaryote has a siliceous (glasslike) shell and autotrophic nutrition. To which group does it belong?
a.
 dinoflagellate
b.
 diatom
c.
 gymnamoeba
d.
 foraminiferan
e.
 slime mold
 102.
Diatoms are members of the phytoplankton. Diatoms lack any organelles that might have the “9+2 pattern.” They obtain their nutrition from functional chloroplasts, and each diatom is encased within two porous, glasslike valves. Which question would be most important for one interested in the day-to-day survival of individual diatoms?
a.
 How does carbon dioxide get into these protists?
b.
 How do diatoms move across the surfaces of bodies of water?
c.
 How do diatoms keep from sinking into poorly lit waters?
d.
 How do diatoms avoid being crushed by the action of waves?
e.
 How do diatom sperm cells locate diatom egg cells?
 103.
Concerning diatoms’ potential use as drug-delivery systems, which anatomical feature would seem to be most important?
a.
 their ability to withstand immense pressure
b.
 the chemical composition of their cell walls
c.
 the porous nature of their cell walls
d.
 the chemical composition of their food-storage material
e.
 the nuclear envelope
 104.
The largest seaweeds belong to which group?
a.
 cyanobacteria
b.
 red algae
c.
 green algae
d.
 brown algae
e.
 golden algae
 105.
A large seaweed that floats freely on the surface of deep bodies of water would be expected to lack which of the following?
a.
 thalli
b.
 bladders
c.
 blades
d.
 holdfasts
e.
 gel-forming polysaccharides
 106.
The following are all characteristic of the water molds (Oomycota) except
a.
 the presence of filamentous feeding structures.
b.
 flagellated zoospores.
c.
 a nutritional mode that can result in the decomposition of dead organic matter.
d.
 a similarity to fungi that is the result of evolutionary convergence.
e.
 a feeding plasmodium.
 107.

Theoretically, which two of the following present the richest potential sources of silica?

1. marine sediments consisting of foram tests
2. diatomaceous earth
3. marine sediments consisting of radiolarian tests
4. marine sediments consisting of dinoflagellate plates
a.
 1 and 2
b.
 1 and 4
c.
 2 and 3
d.
 2 and 4
e.
 3 and 4
 108.
Thread-like pseudopods that can perform phagocytosis are generally characteristic of which group?
a.
 cercozoans
b.
 gymnamoebas
c.
 entamoebas
d.
 amoeboid stage of cellular slime molds
e.
 oomycetes
 109.

Which two heterotrophic organisms most commonly derive nutrition from endosymbiotic relationships with photosynthetic protists?

1. ciliates
2. slime molds
3. parabasalids
4. reef-building coral animals
5. foraminiferans
a.
 1 and 2
b.
 2 and 3
c.
 2 and 4
d.
 3 and 4
e.
 4 and 5
 110.
Which of the following produce the dense glassy ooze of the deep-ocean floor?
a.
 forams
b.
 dinoflagellates
c.
 radiolarians
d.
 ciliates
e.
 apicomplexans
 111.
A snail-like, coiled, porous shell of calcium carbonate is characteristic of which group?
a.
 diatoms
b.
 foraminiferans
c.
 radiolarians
d.
 gymnamoebas
e.
 ciliates
 112.
What provides the best rationale for not classifying the slime molds as fungi? Their
a.
 SSU-rRNA sequences.
b.
 nutritional modes.
c.
 choice of habitats.
d.
 physical appearance.
e.
 reproductive methods.
 113.
Which dichotomous pair of alternatives is highlighted by the life cycle of the cellular slime molds?
a.
 prokaryotic versus eukaryotic
b.
 plant versus animal
c.
 unicellular versus multicellular
d.
 diploid versus haploid
e.
 autotroph versus heterotroph
 114.
What makes certain red algae appear red?
a.
 They live in warm coastal waters.
b.
 They possess pigments that reflect and transmit red light.
c.
 They use red light for photosynthesis.
d.
 They lack chlorophyll.
e.
 They contain the water-soluble pigment anthocyanin.
 115.
The structure and biochemistry of chloroplasts in red algae are most like the structure and biochemistry of chloroplasts in which of the following organisms?
a.
 golden algae
b.
 diatoms
c.
 dinoflagellates
d.
 green algae
e.
 brown algae
 116.
A biologist discovers an alga that is marine, multicellular, and lives at a depth reached only by blue light. This alga probably belongs to which group?
a.
 red algae
b.
 brown algae
c.
 green algae
d.
 dinoflagellates
e.
 golden algae
 117.
If blue light is the component of the visible spectrum that can penetrate to the greatest depth in water, then what should be expected of photosynthetic protists that survive at great depths?
a.
 They should absorb green light preferentially.
b.
 They should absorb blue light preferentially.
c.
 They should absorb red light preferentially.
d.
 They should absorb white light preferentially.
e.
 They should reflect green light preferentially.
 118.
Members of the green algae often differ from members of the plant kingdom in that some green algae
a.
 are heterotrophs.
b.
 are unicellular.
c.
 have chlorophyll a.
d.
 store carbohydrates as starch.
e.
 have cell walls containing cellulose.
 119.
Which taxonomic group containing eukaryotic organisms is thought to be directly ancestral to the plant kingdom?
a.
 golden algae
b.
 radiolarians
c.
 foraminiferans
d.
 apicomplexans
e.
 green algae
 120.
Which of the following are actual mutualistic partnerships that involve a protist and a host organism?
a.
 green alga : fungal partner of lichen
b.
 dinoflagellate : reef-building coral animal
c.
 Trichomonas : human
d.
 alga : certain foraminiferans
e.
 A, B, and D

Choose the organism from the list below that best fits each of the following descriptions.

A. euglenozoans
B. Chlamydomonas
C. dinoflagellates
D. stramenopiles
E. diplomonads
 121.
possess more than two identical, functional flagella
a.
 A
b.
 B
c.
 C
d.
 D
e.
 E
 122.
have one normal and one crystalline-rod-containing flagellum
a.
 A
b.
 B
c.
 C
d.
 D
e.
 E
 123.
have one flagellum oriented at 90 degrees to the second flagellum
a.
 A
b.
 B
c.
 C
d.
 D
e.
 E
 124.
have one hairy and one smooth flagellum
a.
 A
b.
 B
c.
 C
d.
 D
e.
 E
 125.
have two identical, functional flagella, roughly parallel to each other and emerging from about the same site
a.
 A
b.
 B
c.
 C
d.
 D
e.
 E

Choose the nutritional mode that is primarily employed by each of the protists listed below.

A. autotrophic
B. mixotrophic
C. heterotrophic (by absorption)
D. heterotrophic (by ingestion)
 126.
diatoms
a.
 A
b.
 B
c.
 C
d.
 D
e.
 E
 127.
oomycetes
a.
 A
b.
 B
c.
 C
d.
 D
e.
 E
 128.
phagocytic euglenids that possess functional chloroplasts
a.
 A
b.
 B
c.
 C
d.
 D
e.
 E
 129.
amoebozoans that do not possess endosymbionts
a.
 A
b.
 B
c.
 C
d.
 D
e.
 E

You are given five test tubes, each containing an unknown protist, and your task is to read the description below and match these five protists to the correct test tube.

A. Paramecium
B. Navicula (diatom)
C. Pfiesteria (dinoflagellate)
D. Entamoeba
E. Plasmodium


In test tube 1, you observe an organism feeding. Your sketch of the organism looks very similar to the figure below. When light, especially red and blue light, is shone on the tubes, oxygen bubbles accumulate on the inside of test tubes 2 and 3. Chemical analysis of test tube 3 indicates the presence of substantial amounts of silica. Chemical analysis of test tube 2 indicates the presence of a chemical that is toxic to fish and humans. Microscopic analysis of organisms in tubes 2, 4, and 5 reveals the presence of permanent, membrane-bounded sacs just under the plasma membrane. Microscopic analysis of organisms in tube 4 reveals the presence of an apicoplast in each. Microscopic analysis of the contents in tube 5 reveals the presence of one large nucleus and several small nuclei in each organism.

nar007-1.jpg
 130.
Test tube 2 contains
a.
 A
b.
 B
c.
 C
d.
 D
e.
 E
 131.
Test tube 4 contains
a.
 A
b.
 B
c.
 C
d.
 D
e.
 E
 132.
Test tube 5 contains
a.
 A
b.
 B
c.
 C
d.
 D
e.
 E
 133.
Test tube 3 contains
a.
 A
b.
 B
c.
 C
d.
 D
e.
 E
 134.
Test tube 1 contains
a.
 A
b.
 B
c.
 C
d.
 D
e.
 E

 
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