Category: 2nd Semester

Introduction to Plants Study Guide

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Introduction to Plants Quiz

 

 

Modified True/False
Indicate whether the statement is true or false.  If false, change the identified word or phrase to make the statement true.
 1.
Plants are multicellular prokaryotes. _________________________


 2.
The plant life cycle includes a diploid gamete and a haploid spore. _________________________


 3.
Mosses are most often found in dry environments. _________________________


 4.
Mosses and liverworts lack a vascular system for transporting water and nutrients. _________________________


 5.
Water must be present for fertilization to take place in mosses. _________________________


 6.
In mosses and liverworts, eggs are formed through mitosis in the antheridia. _________________________


 7.
Gametophytes of conifers are physically much larger than their sporophytes. _________________________


 8.
One important difference between mosses and ferns is that mosses have a vascular system. _________________________


 9.
Shoots, stems, and roots characterize the bodies of vascular plant sporophytes. _________________________


 10.
Ferns are characterized by fronds and fiddleheads. _________________________


 11.
Haploid fern spores are produced by gametophytes. _________________________


 12.
In ferns, a large sporophyte with leaves called fronds alternates with a heart-shaped gametophyte. _________________________


 13.
Ferns need water to reproduce because their sperm must swim to eggs. _________________________


 14.
Both mosses and ferns require a thin film of water for gametes to meet. _________________________


 15.
In both mosses and ferns, eggs are formed through mitosis in the antheridia. _________________________


 16.
Gymnosperm seeds are enclosed in a fruit. _________________________


 17.
Gametophytes of seed plants are large and easily viewed with the unaided eye. _________________________


 18.
Sexual reproduction in seed plants involves the transfer of pollen from the male reproductive structures of a plant to the female reproductive structures. _________________________


 19.
Seed plants cannot reproduce without a film of water for transferring of gametes. _________________________


 20.
A seed is a structure that contains a plant embryo. _________________________


 21.
A plant embryo is a new sporophyte. _________________________


 22.
In flowering plants, the embryos of monocots have two cotyledons. _________________________


 23.
Pollen is produced in the tip of the stamen, a structure called the sepal. _________________________


 24.
The lower portion of the pistil produces pollen. _________________________


 25.
Gametophytes develop within flowers. _________________________


 26.
Pollen tubes grow through the style toward the ovule. _________________________


 27.
Many seeds have appendages that aid in dispersal. _________________________


 28.
Asexual reproduction produces new plants that are genetically different from the parent plant. _________________________


 29.
Vegetative reproduction does require a plant to have flowers. _________________________


 30.
In vegetative reproduction, new plants may be generated from stems or roots. _________________________


 

Multiple Choice
Identify the choice that best completes the statement or answers the question.
 31.
The ancestors of today’s land plants were probably
a.
brown algae.
c.
green algae.
b.
red algae.
d.
lichens.
 32.
Among the challenges that faced early land plants were
a.
eliminating excess water.
b.
obtaining sunlight for photosynthesis.
c.
absorbing minerals from the rocky surface.
d.
avoiding being eaten by grazing mammals.
 33.
The waxy protective covering of a land plant is called a
a.
cuticle.
c.
rhizome.
b.
capsule.
d.
stoma.
 34.
Some land plants developed an internal system of interconnected tubes and vessels called
a.
cuticles.
c.
a circulatory system.
b.
nonvascular canals.
d.
vascular tissue.
 35.
sporophytes : spores ::
a.
sporophytes : gametophytes
c.
gametes : gametophytes
b.
gametophytes : gametes
d.
sporophytes : gametes
 36.
The diploid form in a plant’s life cycle is called the
a.
sporophyte.
c.
parental generation.
b.
gametophyte.
d.
alternate generation.
 37.
The haploid form in a plant’s life cycle is called the
a.
sporophyte.
c.
parental generation.
b.
gametophyte.
d.
alternate generation.
 38.
A haploid stage following a diploid stage in a plant’s life cycle is called
a.
generational recycling.
c.
alternating forms.
b.
periodic gametogenesis.
d.
alternation of generations.
 39.
In plants, haploid gametes are produced as a result of
a.
fertilization.
c.
encapsulation.
b.
meiosis.
d.
mitosis.
 40.
sporophytes : meiosis ::
a.
sporophytes : spores
c.
gametophytes : gametes
b.
gametophytes : mitosis
d.
sporophytes : gametes
 41.
Mosses, hornworts, and liverworts all possess
a.
fibrous roots.
c.
tap roots.
b.
spore capsules.
d.
green leaves.
 42.
In nonvascular plants, structures in which spores are produced are known as
a.
meristems.
c.
cones.
b.
pollen grains.
d.
sporangia.
 43.
Which of the following statements about moss spores is not true?
a.
They are produced by the sporophyte.
b.
They are dispersed and then germinate.
c.
They are produced in a capsule-like top.
d.
They are diploid.
 44.
The sporophyte generation in mosses produces spores by
a.
meiosis.
c.
sexual reproduction.
b.
mitosis.
d.
asexual reproduction.
 45.
The most noticeable form of a moss life cycle is the
a.
sporophyte.
c.
rhizoid.
b.
gametophyte.
d.
zygote.
 46.
In which of the following structures do seedless plants produce eggs?
a.
antheridia
c.
archegonia
b.
capsules
d.
cones
 47.
antheridia : sperm ::
a.
rhizoids : gametes
c.
archegonia : eggs
b.
seeds : gametophytes
d.
sperm : megaspores
 48.
Both mosses and ferns produce
a.
seeds.
c.
flowers.
b.
fruit.
d.
spores.
 49.
Fern sporophytes consist of rhizomes,
a.
large leaves, and flowers.
c.
pollen grains, and ovules.
b.
cones, and stems.
d.
roots, and fronds.
 50.
Unlike mosses, ferns possess
a.
spore capsules.
c.
antheridia.
b.
archegonia.
d.
vascular tissue.
 51.
Fiddleheads are produced by
a.
whisk ferns.
c.
ferns.
b.
club mosses.
d.
horsetails.
 52.
Both mosses and ferns produce gametes through
a.
mitosis.
c.
osmosis.
b.
meiosis.
d.
diffusion.
 53.
vascular plants : sporophytes ::
a.
sporophytic plants : gametophytes
c.
spores : gametes
b.
gametes : sporophytes
d.
nonvascular plants : gametophytes
The diagram below shows the plant life cycle.

nar001-1.jpg

 54.
Refer to the diagram above. At which point in the life cycle does fertilization take place?
a.
1
c.
3
b.
2
d.
4
 55.
Refer to the diagram above. The structures produced at 3 are called
a.
sporangia.
c.
spores.
b.
archegonia.
d.
antheridia.
 56.
Which of the following were the first land plants to evolve seeds?
a.
angiosperms
c.
mosses
b.
gymnosperms
d.
horsetails
 57.
liverworts, hornworts, and mosses : nonvascular plants ::
a.
gymnosperms and angiosperms : bryophytes
b.
ferns : mosses
c.
gymnosperms and angiosperms : seed plants
d.
bryophytes and liverworts : vascular plants
 58.
gymnosperms : naked seeds ::
a.
pollen : mosses
c.
liverwort : vascular tissue
b.
liverwort : pollen
d.
angiosperms : enclosed seeds
 59.
In seed plants, female gametophytes produce
a.
sperm.
c.
cells.
b.
eggs.
d.
spores.
 60.
A male gametophyte of a seed plant develops into a
a.
pollen grain.
c.
pollen tube.
b.
spore capsule.
d.
seed coat.
 61.
The partially developed plant found in seeds is known as a(n)
a.
gametophyte.
c.
embryo.
b.
spore capsule.
d.
sporophyte.
 62.
A typical seed contains all of the following except a(n)
a.
seed coat.
c.
embryo.
b.
nutritious tissue.
d.
spore case.
 63.
The tallest trees in the world are a species of
a.
conifers.
c.
liverworts.
b.
dicots.
d.
angiosperms.
 64.
The process of transferring pollen from a male cone to a female cone in gymnosperms is called
a.
fertilization.
c.
pollination.
b.
seed formation.
d.
asexual reproduction.
 65.
In conifers, the diploid condition is resumed following
a.
pollination.
c.
respiration.
b.
fertilization.
d.
sporulation.
 66.
The seeds of monocots have
a.
one embryo and two cotyledons.
c.
one embryo and one cotyledon.
b.
two embryos and two cotyledons.
d.
two embryos and one cotyledon.
 67.
Flowering plants are classified as monocots or dicots according to the number of their
a.
leaves.
c.
meristems.
b.
flowers.
d.
cotyledons.
 68.
Monocots and dicots are subdivisions of
a.
angiosperms.
c.
ferns.
b.
gymnosperms.
d.
mosses.
nar002-1.jpg
 69.
Refer to the diagram above. The structure labeled f
a.
supports the anther.
c.
supports the pistil.
b.
produces pollen.
d.
develops into a fruit.
 70.
Refer to the diagram above. The structure labeled c
a.
produces pollen.
b.
contains sperm cells.
c.
is the area where pollen lands and sticks.
d.
contains meristematic tissue.
 71.
Removing a flower’s stigma would initially affect
a.
fertilization.
c.
pollination.
b.
seed production.
d.
seed dispersal.
 72.
Pollen is produced in a structure called the
a.
anther.
c.
ovary.
b.
stigma.
d.
pistil.
 73.
In angiosperms, immediately following pollination,
a.
the seed develops.
c.
fertilization occurs.
b.
an egg cell is formed.
d.
the pollen tube begins to form.
 74.
During fertilization in flowering plants, one sperm fuses with an egg to form an embryo, and another fuses with two nuclei to form nutritive tissue. This event is called
a.
self-pollination.
c.
maximization.
b.
adaptation.
d.
double fertilization.
 75.
fruit : mature ovary
a.
gametophyte : sporophyte
c.
cotyledon : food reserve
b.
gymnosperm : angiosperm
d.
vascular plant : nonvascular plant
 76.
If a plant’s flowers are very colorful and produce nectar, the plant is probably pollinated by
a.
water.
c.
insects.
b.
wind.
d.
self-pollination.
 77.
One way that flowers produced by angiosperms help ensure the transfer of gametes is by
a.
traveling in the air currents.
b.
bursting open and projecting gametes onto the landscape.
c.
attracting animals that carry pollen from one flower to another.
d.
producing tasty fruits that animals depend on for food.
 78.
What function do all fruits produced by angiosperms perform?
a.
produce nutrients for the plant
b.
nourish the embryos
c.
disperse the seeds
d.
ensure pollination
 79.
Which structure allows plants to reproduce asexually?
a.
tuber
c.
archegonium
b.
flower
d.
antheridium
 80.
The production of offspring genetically identical to the parent plant is the result of
a.
sexual reproduction.
c.
alternation of generations.
b.
asexual reproduction.
d.
double fertilization.
 

Completion
Complete each statement.
 81.
The surface of a vascular plant is covered by a waxy, waterproof layer called a(n) ____________________.

 82.
One of the first environmental challenges that early land plants had to overcome was developing a way to conserve ____________________.

 83.
The sporophyte generation produces spores by the process of ____________________.

 84.
The haploid form of a plant is known as the ____________________ generation.

 85.
Nonvascular plants transport materials within their bodies through the process of ____________________.

 86.
A green, hornlike sporophyte growing upward from the gametophyte is typical of plants known as ____________________.

 87.
In mosses and liverworts, the ____________________ generation is the dominant generation.

 88.
The very tiny liverwort ____________________ grow from the archegonia under the caps of female stalks.

 89.
The gametophytes of ____________________ plants are larger and more noticeable than the sporophytes.

 90.
The seedless plants produce sperm within the ____________________.

 91.
True roots, stems, and leaves are associated with ____________________ plants.

 92.
A fern is an example of a(n) ____________________ vascular plant.

 93.
Both mosses and ferns produce eggs within structures called ____________________.

 94.
Like the nonvascular plants, the seedless vascular plants can reproduce sexually only when a film of ____________________ covers the gametophyte.

 95.
Unlike mosses, ferns have sporophytes that are much ____________________ than their gametophytes.

 96.
Seed plants whose seeds do not develop within a sealed container (fruit) are called ____________________.

 97.
Fruit is a characteristic associated only with the flowering plants, or ____________________.

 98.
A male gametophyte of a seed plant develops into a(n) ____________________.

 99.
The ____________________ is the protective cover that surrounds a seed.

 100.
The seed coat prevents the embryo from drying out, from mechanical injury, and from ____________________.

 101.
A(n) ____________________ is a specialized structure that develops from an ovule and serves to protect a plant embryo from harsh conditions.

 102.
The four major groups of gymnosperms are gnetophytes, cycads, ginkgoes, and ____________________.

 103.
A mature pine tree produces both male and female ____________________.

 104.
Gymnosperms are pollinated by ____________________, which makes sexual reproduction possible even during dry conditions.

 105.
The life cycle of a conifer is characterized by a large ____________________ generation.

 106.
In conifers, seeds form on the ____________________ of cones.

 107.
A plant that has flower parts that occur in fours or fives or multiples of four or five is a member of a subgroup called a(n) ____________________.

nar002-1.jpg
 108.
Refer to the diagram above. The structure labeled f is called the ____________________.

 109.
Refer to the diagram above. The structure labeled b is called the ____________________.

 110.
Refer to the diagram above. A flower like this one has all four basic flower parts and thus is an example of a(n) ____________________ flower.

 111.
The transfer of pollen grains from an anther to a stigma is known as ____________________.

 112.
In angiosperms, seeds develop from the ____________________ inside a(n) ____________________ after an egg has been fertilized.

 113.
The event in which one sperm fertilizes an egg and a second sperm fuses with two nuclei is called _________________________.

 114.
A flower is a(n) ____________________ structure that produces pollen and seeds.

 115.
Flowers are a source of ____________________ for pollinators.

 116.
The seeds of angiosperms are enclosed in ____________________.

 117.
Because flowering plants are rooted in the ground and cannot move from place to place, they must disperse their ____________________ so that their offspring can grow in new environments.

 118.
Many fruits are spread by ____________________ that are attracted to sweet, fleshy fruits, which they use for food.

 119.
Many of the structures by which plants reproduce vegetatively are modified ____________________.

 120.
Bulbs, stolons, and tubers are examples of modified stems that allow plants to reproduce ____________________.

 

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Introduction to Animals Quiz

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Introduction to Animals

 

 

True/False
Indicate whether the sentence or statement is true or false.
1.
A tissue is a group of dissimilar cells that are organized into a functional unit.
2.
The development of a particular animal’s body plan depends on the animal’s environment, rather than on the genetic information it carries.
3.
Flatworms are bilaterally symmetrical and cephalized.
4.
The fluid in the body cavity of an animal acts as a medium of transport for nutrients and wastes.
5.
All chordates retain their postanal tail in their adult life.
6.
Most invertebrates have kidneys that filter waste products from the blood.
7.
Terrestrial animals have a protective outer covering that helps prevent excessive water loss.
8.
Segmentation is evident in vertebrates in the repeating bony units of their backbones and ribs.
9.
During spiral cleavage, each cell of the blastula rests directly above or below an adjacent cell.
10.
In a cnidarian, endoderm forms the outer tissue and nervous system.
 

Multiple Choice
Identify the letter of the choice that best completes the statement or answers the question.
11.
A group of similar cells organized into a functional unit is called
a.
a nervous system.
c.
a tissue.
b.
specialized cells.
d.
an organ.
12.
Most animals have a head that is located at the ____ end of their body and a tail that is located at the ____ end of their body.
a.
ventral; dorsal
c.
anterior; posterior
b.
dorsal; ventral
d.
posterior; anterior
      introduction_to_ani_files/i0150000.jpg
13.
Refer to the illustration above. The organism labeled “B” in the diagram
a.
is asymmetrical.
c.
exhibits radial symmetry.
b.
is bilaterally symmetrical.
d.
has reverse symmetry.
14.
Refer to the illustration above. The organism labeled “A” in the diagram
a.
has no symmetry.
c.
exhibits radial symmetry.
b.
is bilaterally symmetrical.
d.
has reverse symmetry.
15.
Which of the following is found in vertebrates but not in invertebrates?
a.
dorsal nerve cord
c.
three germ layers
b.
coelom
d.
bilateral symmetry
16.
A characteristic shared by all chordates at some stage of their development is
a.
a dorsal hollow nerve cord.
c.
pharyngeal pouches.
b.
a notochord.
d.
All of the above
17.
Which of the following is not a characteristic of the largest phylum of invertebrates, the arthropods?
a.
segmentation
c.
closed circulatory system
b.
exoskeleton
d.
digestive tract
18.
The acoelomate body type is exemplified by
a.
flatworms.
c.
mollusks.
b.
roundworms.
d.
annelids.
19.
Which of the following is an incorrect match?
a.
ectoderm—nervous system
c.
endoderm—muscular system
b.
mesoderm—skeletal system
d.
endoderm—digestive system
The diagrams below are cross sections of three types of animal bodies.
      introduction_to_ani_files/i0230000.jpg
20.
Refer to the illustration above. Humans have the type of body cavity shown in diagram
a.
“A.”
c.
“C.”
b.
“B.”
d.
None of the above

 

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Elephants Can

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Elephants Can’t Jump
& Other Freaky Scientific Facts

Welcome to a Fun Site about Science!

Did you know that elephants can’t jump even though they have the same number of bones in their feet as other mammals?
The bones in an elephant’s foot are more closely packed together than other mammals so they do not have the flexibility or spring mechanisms that would enable them to jump.
How many bones are in an elephant’s trunk?The elephant’s trunk has numerous muscles but NO BONE.

 

What is a baby oyster called?They are called spats!
Three fruits are native to North America. Cranberries, Concord grapes, and blueberries!
What was the name of the captain and the ship on which Darwin made his famous voyage?Captain Fitzroy on the H.M.S. Beagle
A Swedish botanist, naturalist, physician and zoologist — Who am I?Carolus Linnaeus
Protozoan can move by cilia, flagella, or pseudopodia.
Give an example of a protist that moves by each of these means.
Include your NAME & PERIOD
[email protected] 

 

 

 

 

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When were you born?

Another Taxonomy Quiz

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Another Taxonomy Quiz

 

 

Modified True/False
Indicate whether the statement is true or false.  If false, change the identified word or phrase to make the statement true.
 1.
Scientists use taxonomy to determine the evolutionary history of organisms. _________________________


 2.
Taxonomy provides consistent ways to name organisms. _________________________


 3.
Scientific names of organisms consist of two English terms. _________________________


 4.
Two different organisms cannot have the same scientific name. _________________________


 5.
Genus is the basic biological unit in the Linnaean system of classification. _________________________


 6.
A genus is a taxonomic category that contains several families. _________________________


 7.
Under the Linnaean system of classification, organisms are grouped on the basis of similarities in structure. _________________________


 8.
Linnaeus devised eight levels of classification categories for living things. _________________________


 9.
The least inclusive group to which an organism can be assigned is its kingdom. _________________________


 10.
Kingdoms are subgroups of phyla. _________________________


 11.
A species is a larger taxonomic group than a genus. _________________________


 12.
Bird wings and insect wings are examples of analogous structures. _________________________


 13.
Organisms that have similar traits but evolved independently are the result of convergent evolution. _________________________


 14.
Cladistics is used to determine the sequence in which different groups of organisms evolved. _________________________


 15.
In modern systematics, studies of the changes in the skeletons of vertebrates have helped researchers to estimate the time at which each species began to evolve. _________________________


 16.
Comparing the sequence of DNA bases in the genes of several organisms is used to determine the order in which the organisms evolved. _________________________


 17.
All organisms in the kingdom Animalia are multicellular heterotrophs whose cells lack cell walls. _________________________


 18.
Archaea are eukaryotes that are characterized by several unique biochemical characteristics. _________________________


 19.
Traditionally, bacteria have been classified on the basis of their shape, cell wall composition, and metabolism. _________________________


 20.
Most organisms in the kingdoms Plantae and Animalia are multicellular. _________________________


 

Multiple Choice
Identify the choice that best completes the statement or answers the question.
 21.
Taxonomy is
a.
the study of life.
b.
the science of naming and classifying organisms.
c.
the evolutionary history of a species.
d.
the sequence in which different groups evolved.
 22.
An advantage of our scientific naming system is that
a.
common names mean the same in all countries.
b.
Latin names are easy to pronounce.
c.
biologists can communicate regardless of their native languages.
d.
organisms all have the same scientific name.
 23.
All scientific names of organisms must be
a.
unique and have two Latin words.
b.
general and use the species name.
c.
different and repeat the phylum name.
d.
similar and include the common name.
 24.
Linnaeus’s two-word system for naming organisms is called
a.
taxonomic evolution.
c.
Greek polynomials.
b.
Genus species.
d.
binomial nomenclature.
 25.
In the Linnaean system of classification, the level that identifies one unique organism is the
a.
kingdom.
c.
genus.
b.
family.
d.
species.
 26.
Under the Linnaean system of classification, plants and animals are sorted into groups based on
a.
number and size.
c.
form and size.
b.
form and structure.
d.
number and structure.
 27.
The largest division that a group of organisms can belong to is a
a.
domain.
c.
genus.
b.
class.
d.
kingdom.
 28.
Placement in each level of classification is based on
a.
specific characteristics.
c.
shared characteristics.
b.
general characteristics.
d.
different characteristics.
 29.
Similar genera are grouped into a(n)
a.
phylum.
c.
family.
b.
class.
d.
order.
 30.
Analogous structures
a.
have a common size in organisms.
b.
perform the same function in organisms.
c.
have the same structure in organisms.
d.
evolve from a common ancestor.
 31.
Traditional systematics emphasizes the importance of
a.
derived characteristics.
c.
similar characteristics.
b.
unique characteristics.
d.
compared characteristics.
 32.
Similar features that evolve through convergent evolution are called
a.
analogous characters.
c.
environmental characters.
b.
homologous characters.
d.
genetic characters.
 33.
Convergent evolution produces analogous characters in different species as the result of
a.
similar environments.
c.
sharing a common ancestor.
b.
different environments.
d.
shared derived characters.
 34.
A phylogenetic tree differs from a cladogram in that a phylogenetic tree
a.
hypothesizes the time at which each group of organisms evolved.
b.
also indicates the new characteristics that evolved with each group of organisms
c.
only illustrates hypothesized relationships among groups of organisms.
d.
predicts the next group of organisms that is expected to evolve.
 35.
Studies of fossils of dinosaurs and birds show that
a.
feathers may not be an important difference between dinosaurs and birds.
b.
dinosaurs can be considered to be modern descendents of birds.
c.
the anatomies of the dinosaurs and birds are unrelated.
d.
dinosaurs and birds share many analogous characters.
 36.
A model used by biologists to represent evolutionary history among species is called a
a.
phylogram.
c.
histogram.
b.
cladogram.
d.
parallelogram.
 37.
Derived characters are traits
a.
that are shared by all species.
b.
that originated in a common ancestor.
c.
found in closely related species.
d.
found in distantly related species.
 38.
During Linnaeus’ time, scientists divided all living organisms into
a.
five phyla.
c.
three domains.
b.
four families.
d.
two kingdoms.
 39.
Which of the following terms is no longer used to describe a group of organisms in the modern classification system?
a.
Archaea
c.
Monera
b.
Eubacteria
d.
Protista
 40.
Sponges are animals that were once classified as
a.
bacteria.
c.
plants.
b.
fungi.
d.
protists.
 41.
Which of the following characteristics was used to reclassify sponges?
a.
body type
c.
cell walls
b.
cell type
d.
nutrition
 42.
The kingdoms Eubacteria and Archaebacteria were once grouped in a kingdom called
a.
Protista.
c.
Monera.
b.
Animalia.
d.
Plantae.
 43.
Four of the kingdoms include eukaryotes and the other two include
a.
plants.
c.
animals.
b.
fungi.
d.
prokaryotes.
 44.
Which of the following is not a characteristic used to differentiate kingdoms?
a.
cell type
c.
nutrition
b.
root system
d.
body type
 45.
Protista is an example of a
a.
kingdom.
c.
genus.
b.
class.
d.
species.
 46.
Which two kingdoms contain both unicellular and multicellular organisms?
a.
Archaea and Animalia
c.
Animalia and Fungi
b.
Protists and Bacteria
d.
Protista and Fungi
 47.
Bacteria : prokaryotes ::
a.
Fungi : prokaryotes
c.
Protista : eukaryotes
b.
Animalia : prokaryotes
d.
Archaea : eukaryotes
 48.
One difference between plants and animals is that plants are
a.
prokaryotic and animals are eukaryotic.
b.
eukaryotic and animals are prokaryotic.
c.
autotrophs and animals are heterotrophs.
d.
heterotrophs and animals are autotrophs.
 49.
The science of classifying living things is called
a.
identification.
c.
taxonomy.
b.
classification.
d.
speciation.
 50.
Taxonomy is defined as the science of
a.
classifying plants according to their uses in agricultural experiments.
b.
studying ribosomal RNA sequencing techniques.
c.
grouping organisms according to their characteristics and evolutionary history.
d.
studying reproductive mechanisms and gene flow.
 51.
As we move through the biological hierarchy from the kingdom to species level, organisms
a.
vary more and more.
b.
are less and less related to each other.
c.
become more similar in appearance.
d.
always are members of the same order.
 52.
A mushroom is difficult to classify in Linnaeus’s two-kingdom classification system because
a.
it has another common name, the toadstool.
b.
it doesn’t seem to fit into either kingdom.
c.
mushrooms had not yet evolved in Linnaeus’s time.
d.
All of the above
 53.
Which of the following was not a consideration for Carolus Linnaeus when he developed his system of nomenclature of organisms?
a.
It should include detailed descriptions of an organism in its name.
b.
It should assign each organism a unique name.
c.
It should assign names using a language that can be recognized worldwide.
d.
It should enable scientists to classify organisms according to their presumed evolutionary relationships to other organisms.
 54.
Which of the following scientists developed the system of classifying organisms by assigning them a genus and species name?
a.
Leakey
c.
Darwin
b.
Aristotle
d.
Linnaeus
 55.

mc055-1.jpg

Refer to the illustration above. A shark’s skeleton is made of cartilage while a dolphin’s skeleton is made of bone. This is one reason the two organisms are placed in different

a.
kingdoms.
c.
subspecies.
b.
domains.
d.
classes.
 56.
The organism Quercus phellos is a member of the genus
a.
Plantae.
c.
Quercus.
b.
phellos.
d.
Protista.
 57.
Poison ivy is also known as Rhus toxicodendron. Its species identifier is
a.
poison.
c.
ivy.
b.
Rhus.
d.
toxicodendron.
 58.
The red maple is also known as Acer rubrum. Its scientific name is
a.
red maple.
c.
rubrum.
b.
Acer.
d.
Acer rubrum.
 59.
The scientific name of an organism
a.
varies according to the native language of scientists.
b.
is the same for scientists all over the world.
c.
may refer to more than one species.
d.
may have more than one genus name.
 60.
Scientists don’t use the common names of organisms because
a.
an organism may have more than one common name.
b.
common names are too ambiguous.
c.
an organism rarely has the same name in different languages.
d.
All of the above
 61.
An organism can have
a.
one genus name and one species identifier.
b.
one genus name and two species identifiers.
c.
two scientific names if it is found on different continents.
d.
two genus names but only one species identifier.
 62.
In which language are scientific names written?
a.
English
c.
Arabic
b.
Greek
d.
Latin
 63.
Two organisms in the same class but different orders
a.
are in different kingdoms.
b.
have the same genus name.
c.
are in the same phylum.
d.
are members of the same species.
 64.
Organisms in different genera
a.
may share the second word of their scientific names.
b.
may be in the same family.
c.
may be in different orders.
d.
All of the above
 65.
Two organisms in the same order but different families may
a.
be more similar than two organisms in different classes.
b.
be in the same class.
c.
have the same species identifier.
d.
All of the above
 66.
Kingdoms are divided into phyla, and each phylum is divided into
a.
families.
c.
orders.
b.
classes.
d.
genera.
 67.
The correct order of the biological hierarchy from kingdom to species is
a.
kingdom, class, family, order, phylum, genus, species.
b.
kingdom, phylum, order, family, class, genus, species.
c.
kingdom, phylum, class, order, family, genus, species.
d.
kingdom, class, order, phylum, family, genus, species.
 68.
The lowest hierarchy level in biological classification is the
a.
genus.
c.
family.
b.
species.
d.
order.
 69.
Which of the following is the least inclusive classification group?
a.
class
c.
phylum
b.
genus
d.
species
 70.
Quercus rubra : Quercus phellos ::
a.
Anolis carolinensis : Parus carolinensis
b.
Erithacus rubicula : Turdus migratoria
c.
Aphis pomi : Aphis gossypii
d.
carp : goldfish
 71.
class : family ::
a.
order : phylum
c.
species : genus
b.
genus : class
d.
phylum : order
 72.
Today, biologists classify organisms by their
a.
physical similarities.
c.
behavioral similarities.
b.
chemical similarities.
d.
All of the above
 73.
Phylogenetic trees depict
a.
known evolutionary relationships between organisms.
b.
presumed evolutionary relationships based on physical features only.
c.
only living organisms.
d.
presumed evolutionary relationships based on a variety of types of evidence.
 74.
The DNA sequences of two species of sharks would
a.
be more similar than the DNA sequences of a shark and a dolphin.
b.
show no discernible differences.
c.
be very close to the DNA sequences of a dolphin.
d.
indicate how the sharks evolved.
 75.
Which of the following is (are) used in systematic taxonomy to classify organisms?
a.
patterns of embryological development
b.
homologous features
c.
amino acid sequences of proteins
d.
All of the above
 76.
analogous features : convergent evolution ::
a.
two members of the same genus : same species
b.
cladogram : evolutionary relationships
c.
common names : universal identification
d.
cladograms : exact, direct information
nar001-1.jpg
 77.
Refer to the illustration above. A branching diagram like the one shown is called a
a.
phenetic tree.
c.
family tree.
b.
cladogram.
d.
homology.
 78.
Refer to the illustration above. Each particular feature, such as dry skin, that is used to assign an organism to a group is called a(n)
a.
special character.
b.
analogous character.
c.
derived character.
d.
homologous character.
 79.
Nearly all single-celled eukaryotes that are either heterotrophic or photosynthetic belong to the kingdom
a.
Animalia.
c.
Plantae.
b.
Fungi.
d.
Protista.
 80.
Most multicellular, nucleated autotrophs that carry on photosynthesis belong to the kingdom
a.
Animalia.
c.
Fungi.
b.
Eubacteria.
d.
Plantae.
 81.
Multicellular, nucleated heterotrophs that always obtain food by absorbing nutrients from the environment belong to the kingdom
a.
Animalia.
c.
Fungi.
b.
Eubacteria.
d.
Plantae.
 82.
An organism that breaks down organic matter, which it then absorbs, is in the kingdom
a.
Fungi.
c.
Animalia.
b.
Plantae.
d.
Protista.
 83.
Simple, non-nucleated organisms that use hydrogen to produce methane are in the domain
a.
Archaea.
c.
Eukarya.
b.
Bacteria.
d.
None of the above
 84.
The kingdom defined as including any eukaryotes that are not plants, animals, or fungi is the kingdom
a.
Protista.
c.
Animalia.
b.
Plantae.
d.
Fungi.
 85.
Carl Woese proposed the three-domain system of classification based on the examination of
a.
embryos.
c.
ribosomal RNA.
b.
fossils.
d.
organisms’ physical features.
 86.
The three domain system of classification is based on similarities and differences in ____, while the six-kingdom system is based on similarities and differences in ____.
a.
DNA; DNA, fossils, embryological development, and physical features
b.
DNA; embryological development, fossils, physical features, and RNA
c.
ribosomal RNA; embryological development, fossils, physical features, and various molecular structures
d.
physical features; embryological development, fossils, physical features, and various molecular structures
 87.
Which of the following groups are placed together by cladistics but are placed in separate groups by classical taxonomy?
a.
birds and crocodiles
c.
turtles and birds
b.
birds and mammals
d.
snakes and mammals
 

Completion
Complete each statement.
 88.
The current system used for naming organisms was developed by ____________________.

 89.
The two-word system for naming organisms is called _________________________.

 90.
The scientific name of an organism gives biologists a common way of ____________________ regardless of their native languages.

 91.
All names assigned to organisms under the Linnaean system are in the ____________________ language.

 92.
The unique two-word name for a species is its ____________________ name.

 93.
All living things are grouped into one of three ____________________.

 94.
There are ____________________ levels of classification in the modern classification system.

 95.
A kingdom contains many ____________________.

 96.
Classes with similar characteristics are assigned to a(n) ____________________.

 97.
Each level of classification is based on ____________________ shared by all the organisms it contains.

 98.
Homo habilis, Homo erectus, and Homo sapiens all belong to the same ____________________.

 99.
Traditionally, scientists have used differences in appearance and ____________________ to classify organisms.

 100.
Unlike cladistics, traditional systematics places more ____________________ on some traits than on others.

 101.
Analogous structures are found in ____________________ taxa as a result of similar environmental conditions.

 102.
The type of evolution that results in similar characteristics found in different organisms as the result of selection within similar environments is called ____________________ evolution.

 103.
The evolutionary history of a species is called its ____________________.

 104.
Shared derived characters are found in organisms that once shared a(n) ____________________ ancestor.

 105.
A method of analysis that reconstructs phylogenies by inferring relationships based on shared characteristics is called ____________________.

 106.
A model developed by systematists that uses shared derived characters to show the evolutionary history of different organisms is called a(n) ____________________.

 107.
Cladistics is used to determine the ____________________ in which different groups of organisms evolved.

 108.
Animals that appear early on a cladogram do not share as many of the same ____________________ traits as the animals that appear later on the cladogram.

 109.
Modern systematic biologists use the ____________________ rate of DNA mutations like a “molecular clock.”

 110.
Two kingdoms include prokaryotes, while four kingdoms include ____________________.

 111.
Bacteria have strong exterior cell walls made of ____________________.

 112.
An organism made of many cells that are permanently associated and that coordinate their activities is called a(n) ____________________ organism.

 113.
Eukaryotes that are not fungi, plants, or animals are called ____________________.

 114.
Aristotle classified plants on the basis of differences in their ____________________.

 115.
The science of naming and classifying organisms is called ____________________.

 116.
____________________ devised the two-name system of naming organisms.

 117.
Biologists of Linnaeus’s time classified every living thing as either plant or ____________________.

 118.
A genus is subdivided into smaller groups called ____________________.

 119.
Each kind of organism on Earth is assigned a unique two-word ____________________.

 120.
All scientific names are made up of two words that are often derived from the ____________________ language.

 121.
The first word of a scientific name indicates the ____________________ to which the organism belongs.

 122.
A kingdom is divided into phyla when animals are being classified or into ____________________ when plants are being classified.

 123.
The evolutionary history of a species is called its ____________________.

 124.

co124-1.jpg

Refer to the illustration above. Organism 4 belongs to the kingdom ____________________.

 125.
Eukaryotic organisms that lack specialized tissue systems are members of the kingdom ____________________.

 126.
Corals, spiders, and rodents all belong to the kingdom ____________________.

 127.
The domains of the three-domain system of classification are Archaea, Bacteria, and ____________________.

 128.
The variety of organisms at all taxonomic levels is called ____________________.

 129.
Cladistics uses shared and ____________________ characters to group taxa.

 130.
The Greek philosopher ____________________ classified organisms as either plants or animals.

 

Problem
 131.

The following table presents data on some characteristics found in vertebrates. A “+” indicates that an organism has a particular characteristic and a “–” indicates that an organism does not have a particular characteristic.

Characteristics
Organism
Jaws
Limbs
Hair
Lungs
Tail
Lamprey
–
–
–
–
+
Turtle
+
+
–
+
+
Cat
+
+
+
+
+
Gorilla
+
+
+
+
+
Lungfish
+
–
–
+
+
Trout
+
–
–
–
+
Human
+
+
+
+
–

Using these data, construct a cladogram illustrating the evolutionary relationships among these organisms. Each branch point should indicate a common ancestor. Write the name of the shared character that is common to all organisms above each branching point. A shared character can be the absence of a structure common to organisms below that point on the tree. Write your answer in the space below.

 

Essay
 132.
Why might the use of common names to describe organisms sometimes cause confusion? Give several examples to support your answer. Write your answer in the space below.

 133.
While on a biological expedition to a tropical rain forest, you discover a previously unidentified animal. Explain the guidelines you would follow to choose a genus and species name for the animal. Write your answer in the space below.

 134.
The red fox (Vulpes vulpes), the coyote (Canis latrans), and the dog (Canis familiaris) are all members of the family Canidae. The mountain lion (Felis concolor) is a member of the family Felidae. Describe the relationships among these animals. Write your answer in the space below.

 135.
A species is defined as a group of organisms that are similar and can interbreed and produce fertile offspring in nature. Horses and donkeys can interbreed and produce mules, which cannot produce offspring. Is it possible that horses and donkeys belong to the same species? Explain. Write your answer in the space below.

 136.
What are the main criteria currently used to classify organisms? Write your answer in the space below.

 

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Bacteria and Viruses

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bacteria and Viruses

 

 

Multiple Choice
Identify the choice that best completes the statement or answers the question.
 1.
Many microscopic organisms or entities have been identified as pathogens, including all of the following except:
a.
protozoa.
b.
viruses.
c.
fungi.
d.
bacteria.
e.
None of the above, all may be pathogenic.
 2.
Which of the following statements about bacteria is false?
a.
A small percentage of bacteria are pathogenic.
b.
Some bacteria can photosynthesize.
c.
Bacteria are important decomposers.
d.
Bacteria are not cellular and are sometimes not classified as life forms.
e.
Bacteria convert atmospheric nitrogen into ammonia and then nitrates that can be used by plants.
 3.
Viruses were first identified:
a.
because they caused an infection and formed colonies on nutrient agar plates.
b.
because they were seen in the light microscope.
c.
because they caused an infection and were small enough to pass through filters that trapped bacteria.
d.
because they were smaller than bacteria and had all the properties of living organisms.
e.
because they caused an infection and were seen in the electron microscope.
 4.
The protein coat of a virus is called the:
a.
capsule.
b.
capsid.
c.
exospore.
d.
phage.
e.
pilus.
 5.
Viruses that attack bacteria are called:
a.
phages.
b.
bacteriods
c.
prions.
d.
virons.
e.
viroids.
Figure 23-01
Use the figure below to answer the corresponding questions.nar001-1.jpg

 6.
The structure of the virus in Figure 23-01 that is common to all viruses is:
a.
2.
b.
3.
c.
4.
d.
5.
e.
All of the above.
 7.
In Figure 23-01, the function of the structure labeled 3 is:
a.
attachment to a host cell.
b.
locomotion.
c.
mate recognition.
d.
replication.
e.
to take over host cell mechanisms.
 8.
Viruses are classified by:
a.
the sequence of their DNA.
b.
structural similarities.
c.
the sequence of their rRNA genes.
d.
the traditional Linnaean binomial nomenclature system.
e.
an international committee.
 9.
Viruses:
a.
are very tiny cells on the order of 500 nm.
b.
contain both RNA and DNA.
c.
cannot independently perform metabolic activities.
d.
have a standard morphology that includes a capsid, tail, and tail fibers.
e.
All of the above.
 10.
Viruses:
a.
are usually species-specific.
b.
may have multiple origins.
c.
are probably related to mobile genetic elements.
d.
may have escaped from cells.
e.
All of the above.
 11.
Phages are being considered for:
a.
vectors in gene therapy experiments.
b.
antibiotics in bacterial infections.
c.
gene transfer vectors in animal cells.
d.
being equivalent to the first living organisms.
e.
All of the above.
 12.
Temperate viruses:
a.
always destroy their host immediately.
b.
are considered virulent.
c.
do not always destroy their host.
d.
do not undergo a lysogenic cycle.
e.
undergo a lytic cycle.
 13.
Virulent (lytic) phages:
a.
infect viruses.
b.
destroy bacteria.
c.
infect, but do not destroy bacteria.
d.
infect virions.
e.
infect prions.
 14.
The five stages of a lytic infection are attachment, penetration, _____________, assembly, and release.
a.
lysis
b.
prophage
c.
lysogenesis
d.
transduction
e.
replication
 15.
A prophage:
a.
is phage DNA that is integrated into viral DNA.
b.
is phage DNA that is integrated into bacterial DNA.
c.
replicates only when the eukaryotic cell it infects replicates.
d.
is an underdeveloped lytic virus.
e.
is a bacterial cell about to lyse.
 16.
The bacterium that causes botulism disease is harmless until it:
a.
is infected by lytic bacteria.
b.
is infected by certain retroviruses.
c.
contains a certain prophage DNA.
d.
is irradiated by UV radiation.
e.
is infected by prions.
 17.
____________ conversion occurs when a bacterium carrying viral genes takes on new, atypical characteristics.
a.
Transducing
b.
Lysogenic
c.
Prophage
d.
Lytic
e.
Reverse
 18.
The specificity of viruses to different types of cells is due to _____________ sites on the host cell.
a.
prophage
b.
receptor
c.
transduction
d.
penetration
e.
transcription
 19.
Retroviruses differ from other RNA viruses by:
a.
having reverse transcriptase instead of RNA-dependent RNA polymerase.
b.
the shape of their capsid.
c.
the way they infect their host cells.
d.
the sugar coating on their capsids.
e.
lytically destroying their hosts.
 20.
Which of the following diseases is not caused by a virus?
a.
rabies
b.
polio
c.
warts in humans
d.
chickenpox
e.
Lyme disease
 21.
Which of the following identifies a group of DNA viruses?
a.
retroviruses
b.
herpesviruses
c.
paramyxoviruses
d.
filovirus
e.
picornaviruses
 22.
Viral proteins can damage host cells by:
a.
increasing the rate of fermentation within the host.
b.
producing endotoxins.
c.
causing a decline in coordination and increased irritability.
d.
preventing transcription of viral nucleic acids.
e.
overwhelming the host cell with a large number of viruses.
 23.
Viral infections in humans spread via the circulatory system. Viral infections in plants spread from cell to cell via:
a.
endocytosis.
b.
plasmodesmata.
c.
infected seeds.
d.
pili.
e.
transformation.
 24.
Human viruses can enter human cells by fusion with the cell membrane or by:
a.
diffusion into the cell.
b.
passage through specific protein channels.
c.
coating themselves with lipids that cloak their entrance into the cell.
d.
endocytosis.
e.
hitchhiking onto protein signals entering the cell.
 25.
Viroids cause a variety of plant diseases and are composed only of:
a.
strands of RNA.
b.
strands of DNA.
c.
protein coats.
d.
peptidoglycan.
e.
a capsid.
 26.
Mad cow disease is an example of an infection caused by a:
a.
bacterium.
b.
bacteriophage.
c.
retrovirus.
d.
viroid.
e.
prion.
 27.
_____________ is credited with the discovery of prions as a new biological principle of infection.
a.
Stanley Prusiner
b.
Anton van Leeuwenhoek
c.
Dmitrii Ivanowsky
d.
Stanley Brenner
e.
Carl Woese
 28.
A symptom of a transmissible spongiform encephalopathy (TSE) is:
a.
degeneration of the digestive tract.
b.
progressive immune deficiency.
c.
degeneration of the brain and central nervous system.
d.
inflammation of the reproductive organs.
e.
influenza-like symptoms.
 29.
The volume of a typical bacterium is about ____________ the volume of a typical eukaryotic cell.
a.
equal to
b.
a half
c.
a tenth
d.
a hundredth
e.
a thousandth
 30.
A chain of round bacteria would be called:
a.
spirilla.
b.
diplococci.
c.
bacilli.
d.
streptococci.
e.
streptobacilli.
 31.
Rod-shaped bacteria are called:
a.
streptococci.
b.
bacilli.
c.
diplococci.
d.
vibrio.
e.
spirochete.
Figure 23-02
Use the figure below to answer the corresponding questions.nar002-1.jpg

 32.
The structure in Figure 23-02 labeled C is:
a.
a ribosome.
b.
the plasma membrane.
c.
the capsule.
d.
the cell wall.
e.
the flagellum.
 33.
What is the function of the structure labeled A in Figure 23-02?
a.
to adhere to surfaces or other bacteria
b.
to prevent phagocytosis
c.
support and protection in hypotonic conditions
d.
transmission of DNA between bacteria
e.
locomotion
 34.
Even though bacteria lack membrane-bound organelles, such as chloroplasts and mitochondria, they can still perform the functions of these organelles by localizing certain metabolic enzymes on:
a.
the nuclear membranes.
b.
the endoplasmic reticulum.
c.
the plasma membrane.
d.
ribosomes.
e.
the cell wall.
 35.
Most bacterial cells keep from bursting in a hypotonic environment by:
a.
an efficient water pump.
b.
a tough cell membrane.
c.
pumping large quantities of salts into the cell.
d.
a rigid cell wall.
e.
a stiff capsule.
 36.
Gram-positive bacteria would stain __________ in a gram stain because of a thick layer of __________ in their cell walls.
a.
green; peptidoglycan
b.
purple; peptidoglycan
c.
green; cellulose
d.
purple; polysaccharides
e.
red; polysaccharides
 37.
The walls of Eubacteria contain peptidoglycan, which is:
a.
lipids crosslinked with sugars.
b.
sugars crosslinked with proteins.
c.
a protein.
d.
a lipid.
e.
a polysaccharide.
 38.
Penicillin works most effectively against gram-positive bacteria because:
a.
penicillin affects cell membranes.
b.
they have a thick peptidoglycan cell wall and penicillin affects the synthesis of peptidoglycans.
c.
they have special protein channels that allow penicillin to enter the cell and halt the cell cycle.
d.
they are smaller than gram-negative bacteria and, thus, easily take up penicillin by diffusion.
e.
they contain prophages that negatively interact with penicillin.
 39.
Some bacteria avoid a host’s immune system by means of:
a.
efficient use of their flagella.
b.
ameboid motion.
c.
their capsule.
d.
changing their cell wall structure.
e.
eliminating the use of a membrane.
 40.
Bacteria:
a.
are incapable of locomotion.
b.
move by means of pili
c.
move by means of cilia.
d.
move by means of a rotating flagella.
e.
move by means of a whiplike flagella.
 41.
Small circles of DNA called ______________ exist in addition to the bacterial chromosome.
a.
capsids
b.
plasmids
c.
chromatids
d.
pili
e.
centromeres
 42.
Small hairlike structures on the surface of bacteria are called:
a.
capsids.
b.
pili.
c.
chromatids.
d.
plasmids.
e.
virons.
 43.
Plasmids of bacteria often have genes involved in:
a.
reproduction.
b.
motility.
c.
viral resistance.
d.
antibiotic resistance.
e.
photosynthesis.
 44.
Pili are involved in adhesion of bacterial cells to a substrate or host, or in transmission of __________ between bacteria.
a.
ribosomes
b.
cytoplasm
c.
vectors
d.
RNA
e.
DNA
 45.
Prokaryotes have their genetic information stored in:
a.
several small, circular pieces of DNA.
b.
a single, small, circular piece of DNA.
c.
a large, linear piece of DNA.
d.
several small, linear pieces of DNA.
e.
a large, circular piece of DNA.
 46.
_______________ is a form of genetic exchange in bacteria that involves contact between two cells.
a.
Transformation
b.
Transduction
c.
Conjugation
d.
Binary fission
e.
Budding
 47.
_____________ are dormant structures formed by bacteria in response to adverse environmental conditions.
a.
Capsids
b.
Endospores
c.
Exotoxins
d.
Endotoxins
e.
Heterocysts
 48.
Most bacteria are:
a.
photoheterotrophs.
b.
chemoheterotrophs.
c.
autotrophs.
d.
heterotrophs.
e.
chemoautotrophs.
 49.
A bacterium that gains nourishment from dead organisms is referred to as:
a.
an autotroph.
b.
a parasite.
c.
a saprotroph.
d.
a chemoautotroph.
e.
a pathogen.
 50.
A(an) ___________________ bacterium would not be able to survive in the presence of oxygen.
a.
facultative aerobic
b.
facultative anaerobic
c.
facultative autotrophic
d.
obligate aerobic
e.
obligate anaerobic
 51.
The most common mode of reproduction in bacteria is:
a.
binary fission.
b.
transformation.
c.
transduction.
d.
conjugation.
e.
mitosis.
 52.
The first indication that Archae were different from the Eubacteria came from differences noted in their:
a.
cell wall.
b.
preferred habitats.
c.
16 S rRNA sequence.
d.
protein synthesis machinery.
e.
resistance to antibiotics.
 53.
The Archaea differ from the Eubacteria and eukaryotes by having different ____________ in their cell membranes, but they are similar to eukaryotes in their ____________ process.
a.
sugars; replication
b.
sugars; transcription
c.
lipids; replication
d.
lipids; transcription
e.
proteins; transcription
Figure 23-03
Use the figure below to answer the corresponding questions.nar003-1.jpg

 54.
Which of the following groups from Figure 23-03 represents gram-negative bacteria?
a.
Spirochetes
b.
Protists
c.
Methanogens
d.
Halophiles
e.
None of the above.
 55.
Which of the following groups from Figure 23-03 is a member of the Eubacteria domain?
a.
Fungi
b.
Halophiles
c.
Chlamydias
d.
Protists
e.
More than one of the above.
 56.
About how many different species of bacteria have been classified?
a.
200
b.
2,000
c.
4,000
d.
20,000
e.
40,000
 57.
The most significant difference between the Archaea and the Eubacteria is:
a.
lack of a nuclear envelope in the Archaea.
b.
the absence of the 70S ribosomes in the Eubacteria.
c.
the presence of a single filament flagellum in the Eubacteria.
d.
the absence of peptidoglycans in the cell walls of the Archaea.
e.
All of the above.
 58.
One difference between the Archaea and the Eukarya is:
a.
the lack of a nuclear envelope in the Archaea.
b.
the absence of the 70S ribosomes in the Archaea.
c.
the presence of membrane-bound organelles in the Archaea.
d.
the presence of peptidoglycans in the cell walls of the Archaea.
e.
the presence of simple RNA polymerase in the Archaea.
 59.
One unique characteristic associated with some of the extreme halophilic Archaea is:
a.
that they are found at deep-sea vents on the sea floor.
b.
that they are a source of most known antibiotics.
c.
that they have photosynthetic ability involving a purple bacteriorhodopsin pigment.
d.
that they fix atmospheric nitrogen that is then used by plants.
e.
that most form symbiotic associations.
 60.
_____________ Archae are typically found in abnormally hot environments.
a.
Extreme halophile
b.
Extreme thermophile
c.
Pyrrhanogen
d.
Metanogen
e.
Any of the above.
 61.
Most prokaryotes belong to the:
a.
Fungi.
b.
Archaea.
c.
Protista.
d.
Eubacteria.
e.
Viroids.
 62.
Bacterial ____________ cause systemic symptoms such as fever, whereas bacterial ____________ cause more specific maladies.
a.
phages; prophages
b.
prophages; phages
c.
endotoxins; exotoxins
d.
exotoxins; endotoxins
e.
exotoxins; phages
 63.
The bacterial reproductive parasite Wolbachia is known to:
a.
eradicate males from a population.
b.
convert males into females.
c.
cause infected females to lay eggs that develop without fertilization.
d.
reduce the number of males in a population.
e.
All the above.
 64.
The symbiotic bacteria found in the root nodules of legumes:
a.
supply the plant with the nitrogen it needs in the form of nitrates.
b.
are motile, soil-dwelling bacteria.
c.
belong to the genus Rhizobium.
d.
are gram-negative Eubacteria.
e.
All of the above.
 65.
Koch’s postulates include all the following except:
a.
when a sample of a pure culture is injected into a healthy host causes the same disease.
b.
a sample of the microorganism from a diseased host can be grown in pure culture.
c.
the microorganism can be recovered from an experimentally infected host.
d.
the microorganism must be visible in the electron microscope.
e.
the pathogen must be present in every individual with the disease.
 66.
The first bacteria that was clearly identified as the cause of an infectious disease was:
a.
Legionella pneumophila, which causes Legionnaires’ disease.
b.
Chamydia sp., which causes pelvic inflammatory disease in women.
c.
Clostridium botulinum, which causes botulism.
d.
Vibrio cholerae, which causes cholera.
e.
Bacillus anthracis, which causes anthrax.
 

Short Answer
 67.
Compare and contrast a virus and a bacterium.

 68.
List the characteristics of the following groups and identify examples for each: Archaea, Eubacteria, and Eukarya.

 69.

Compare and contrast the metabolic diversity of bacteria in one of the two groups below.

A.Obligate anaerobes, facultative anaerobes, and aerobes
B.Autotrophic and heterotrophic bacteria

 70.
Identify and briefly discuss two ecological roles filled by bacteria.

 

Essay
 71.
Describe the theory that attempts to explain the species specificity of viruses to their hosts.

 72.
Discuss the distinction between gram-negative and gram-positive bacteria. In the laboratory, how is this determined? What are differences between these two groups of bacteria?

 73.
Describe endotoxins and exotoxins. What effects do they each have on infected persons?

 

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