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PCC Biochemistry

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PCC Biochemistry
 

True/False
Indicate whether the statement is true or false. Write  + for true and  0 for false.
 1.
Atoms have a positive charge.
 2.
An element is made up of more than one kind of atom.
 3.
Hydrogen and oxygen atoms have an equal number of electrons.
 4.
A molecule is an atom that has gained or lost an electron.
 5.
An atom that gains or loses one or more electrons is called an ion.
 6.
An atom with more electrons than protons has a positive charge.
 7.
Ionic bonds form between two negatively charged particles.
 8.
A covalent bond forms between two atoms that share electrons to form a molecule.
 9.
Adhesion is an attraction between different substances.
 10.
The ability of water to retain heat helps cells maintain homeostasis.
 11.
Nonpolar molecules dissolve well in water.
 12.
Water molecules attract nonpolar molecules such as oil.
 13.
Organic compounds contain carbon atoms that are covalently bonded to other elements—typically hydrogen, oxygen, and other carbon atoms.
 14.
A nucleotide has four parts.
 15.
RNA is made up of a double strand of nucleotides.
 16.
DNA stores hereditary information that can be used to make proteins.
 17.
When cells break down food, the energy from the food is temporarily stored as ATP.
 18.
The amount of energy needed to cause a chemical reaction to start is called activation energy.
 19.
Without enzymes, chemical reactions necessary for life would not occur at a rate sufficient to sustain life.
 20.
Enzymes speed up a chemical reaction by increasing the activation energy of the reaction.
 21.
When an enzyme binds with its substrate, the activation energy needed for the chemical reaction to occur is increased.
 22.
Chemical reactions that occur in cells are called biochemical reactions.
 

Multiple Choice
Identify the choice that best completes the statement or answers the question.
 23.
Atoms are composed of
a.
 protons.
c.
 electrons.
b.
 neutrons.
d.
 All of the above
 24.
The electrons of an atom
a.
 are found in the nucleus along with the protons.
b.
 occupy the space surrounding the nucleus.
c.
 have a positive charge.
d.
 are attached to the positive charge of neutrons.
 25.
The smallest particle of matter that can retain the chemical properties of carbon is a(n)
a.
 carbon molecule.
c.
 carbon atom.
b.
 carbon macromolecule.
d.
 element.
 26.
A substance that is composed of only one type of atom is called a(n)
a.
 nucleus.
c.
 element.
b.
 cell.
d.
 molecule.
 27.
All matter is composed of
a.
 cells.
c.
 atoms.
b.
 molecules.
d.
 carbon.
 28.
A molecule that has a partial positive charge on one side and a partial negative charge on the other side is called a
a.
 nonpolar molecule.
c.
 charged molecule.
b.
 polar molecule.
d.
 bipolar molecule.
 29.
A chemical formula shows the
a.
 kinds of bonds found in the molecule.
b.
 kinds of bonds found in the compound.
c.
 kinds of elements found in the compound.
d.
 arrangement of the elements found in the compound.
 30.
Ionic bonds form between molecules that have
a.
 opposite charges.
c.
 no charges.
b.
 the same charge.
d.
 neutral charges.
 31.
The bond formed when two atoms share a pair of electrons is called a(n)
a.
 hydrogen bond.
c.
 covalent bond.
b.
 ionic bond.
d.
 water bond.
 32.
Sharing of electrons in the outer energy levels of two atoms
a.
 results in ion formation.
b.
 occurs in covalent bonds.
c.
 only occurs if both are atoms of the same element.
d.
 is found only among carbon atoms.
 33.
Water is important to life because it
a.
 surrounds all cells.
b.
 is found inside cells.
c.
 influences the shape of the cell membrane.
d.
 All of the above
 34.
Nonpolar molecules have
a.
 no negative or positive poles.
c.
 only a negative pole.
b.
 both negative and positive poles.
d.
 only a positive pole.
 35.
When placed in the same container, oil and water do not mix because
a.
 they are both polar.
c.
 they are both nonpolar.
b.
 water is polar and oil is nonpolar.
d.
 water is nonpolar and oil is polar.
 36.
Due to the polarity of water, compounds that dissolve best in water contain
a.
 nonpolar bonds.
c.
 polar bonds.
b.
 ionic bonds.
d.
 Both (b) and (c)
 37.
Water is a polar molecule because
a.
 it contains two hydrogen atoms for each oxygen atom.
b.
 it has a charge.
c.
 different parts of the molecule have slightly different charges.
d.
 it does not have a charge.
 38.
Acidic solutions have a pH that is
a.
 less than 7.
c.
 a negative number.
b.
 between 7 and 14.
d.
 more than 7.
 39.
Hydrogen ions, H+, react with hydroxide ions, OH-, to form
a.
 water.
c.
 a base.
b.
 an acid.
d.
 None of the above
 40.
Which of the following is not an organic macromolecule?
a.
 carbohydrate
c.
 lipid
b.
 ice
d.
 nucleic acid
 41.
All organic compounds contain the element
a.
 carbon.
c.
 calcium.
b.
 nitrogen.
d.
 sodium.
 42.
Which of the following organic molecules are classified as carbohydrates?
a.
 amino acids
c.
 nucleotides
b.
 fatty acids
d.
 sugars
 43.
Polysaccharides are
a.
 carbohydrates.
c.
 proteins.
b.
 lipids.
d.
 unsaturated fats.
 44.
Lipids are
a.
 polar molecules.
c.
 water soluble.
b.
 similar to water molecules.
d.
 nonpolar molecules.
 45.
Which of the following organic molecules are most closely related to proteins?
a.
 amino acids
c.
 nucleotides
b.
 fatty acids
d.
 sugars
 46.
Long chains of amino acids are found in
a.
 carbohydrates.
c.
 proteins.
b.
 lipids.
d.
 sugars.
 47.
All of the following are examples of lipids except
a.
 saturated fats.
c.
 cholesterol.
b.
 starch.
d.
 earwax.
 48.
Lipids are soluble in
a.
 water.
c.
 oil.
b.
 salt water.
d.
 All of the above
 49.
Which organic molecules below are most closely related to lipids?
a.
 amino acids
c.
 nucleotides
b.
 fatty acids
d.
 sugars
 50.
Which of the following organic molecules are most closely related to nucleic acids?
a.
 amino acids
c.
 nucleotides
b.
 fatty acids
d.
 sugars
 51.
Which of the following is a carbohydrate?
a.
 DNA
c.
 wax
b.
 insulin
d.
 sucrose
 52.
Carbohydrates and lipids have many carbon-hydrogen bonds; therefore, they both
a.
 store energy in these bonds.
c.
 dissolve only in vinegar.
b.
 are easily dissolved in water.
d.
 exist only in cells of plants.
nar001-1.jpg
nar001-2.jpg
Molecule A
Molecule B
 53.
Refer to the illustration above. Molecules like Molecule B are found in
a.
 carbohydrates.
c.
 nucleic acids.
b.
 lipids.
d.
 proteins.
 54.
Liquid fats called oils contain
a.
 mostly unsaturated fatty acids.
c.
 many glucose molecules.
b.
 mostly saturated fatty acids.
d.
 amino acids.
 55.
Animals store glucose in the form of
a.
 cellulose.
c.
 wax.
b.
 glycogen.
d.
 lipids.
 56.
The shape of a protein is primarily determined by
a.
 the type and sequence of its amino acids.
b.
 its size.
c.
 its cell location.
d.
 None of the above
 57.
The two types of nucleic acids are
a.
 chlorophyll and retinal.
c.
 lipids and sugars.
b.
 DNA and RNA.
d.
 glucose and glycogen.
 58.
DNA stores
a.
 fat.
c.
 protein.
b.
 carbohydrates.
d.
 heredity information.
 59.
The two strands of a DNA molecule are held together by
a.
 ionic bonds.
c.
 hydrogen bonds.
b.
 covalent bonds.
d.
 None of the above
 60.
A molecule shaped like a spiral staircase (double helix) is typical of
a.
 deoxyribonucleic acid.
c.
 lipids.
b.
 ribonucleic acid.
d.
 carbohydrates.
 61.
ATP (adenosine triphosphate) stores energy for cells to use in the bonds between its
a.
 amino acids.
c.
 nucleotides.
b.
 carbon atoms.
d.
 phosphates.
nar002-1.jpg
 62.
Refer to the illustration above. Which graph illustrates what happens during an energy-releasing reaction?
a.
 Graph A
b.
 Graph B
c.
 both graphs because they each show a different stage of an energy releasing reaction
d.
 None of the above
 63.
Refer to the illustration above. Which graph illustrates a reaction during which energy is released?
a.
 Graph A
b.
 Graph B
c.
 both graphs because all chemical reactions release energy
d.
 None of the above
nar003-1.jpg
 64.
Refer to the illustration above. Which of the following statements regarding the graph is true?
a.
 Reaction 2 occurs faster than Reaction 3 because Reaction 2 requires more energy than Reaction 3.
b.
 The difference between the graphs shown for Reaction 2 and Reaction 3 is because of a difference in the activation energy of these reactions.
c.
 Reactant A contains more energy at the beginning of the reaction than product C has after the reaction.
d.
 All of the above
 65.
Refer to the illustration above. Reaction 3 in the graph
a.
 probably occurred in the presence of a catalyst.
b.
 requires more activation energy than Reaction 2.
c.
 is the same as Reaction 1, but faster.
d.
 is slower than Reaction 2.
 66.
The molecule on which an enzyme acts is called a(n)
a.
 active site.
c.
 organic molecule.
b.
 inactive site.
d.
 substrate.
 67.
An enzyme
a.
 is not used up when catalyzing a reaction.
b.
 lowers the activation energy of a reaction.
c.
 bonds with a substrate molecule at the enzyme’s active site.
d.
 All of the above
 68.
Which of the following conditions affects the function of enzymes?
a.
 pH
c.
 enzyme concentration
b.
 heat
d.
 All of the above
 69.
Reducing activation energy
a.
 is a violation of the laws of nature.
b.
 requires higher temperatures than those found within cells.
c.
 occurs only when reactants are quickly added to the reaction mixture.
d.
 is accomplished by the action of catalysts on reactants.
 70.
Enzymes
a.
 are able to heat up molecules so that they can react.
b.
 always provide carbon dioxide for chemical reactions.
c.
 are biological catalysts.
d.
 absorb excess heat so that reactions occur at low temperatures.
 71.
A cell contains
a.
 thousands of different kinds of enzymes, each promoting a different chemical reaction.
b.
 one kind of enzyme that promotes thousands of different chemical reactions.
c.
 approximately 100 kinds of enzymes, each promoting a different chemical reaction.
d.
 one enzyme that promotes photosynthesis and one enzyme that promotes cellular respiration.
 72.
Amylase is a digestive enzyme that breaks down starch into
a.
 amino acids.
c.
 glycogen.
b.
 glucose.
d.
 cellulose.
 73.
The digestive enzyme pepsin works with hydrochloric acid to break down proteins in the stomach. Pepsin probably works best at a pH of
a.
 11.
c.
 3.
b.
 7.
d.
 Both (b) and (c).

 
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Study Guide Cellular Respiration

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Multiple Choice
Identify the choice that best completes the statement or answers the question.
 1.
When cells break down food molecules, energy
a.
 is released all at once.
b.
 is released entirely as body heat into the environment.
c.
 is temporarily stored in ATP molecules.
d.
 causes excitation of electrons in chlorophyll molecules.
 2.
ATP
a.
 contains five phosphate groups.
b.
 is essential for a cell to perform all the tasks necessary for life.
c.
 is found only in bacteria.
d.
 All of the above
 3.
A substance produced during photosynthesis that is used for completion of cellular respiration is
a.
 water.
c.
 NADPH.
b.
 ATP.
d.
 oxygen.
 4.
The process of cellular respiration
a.
 is performed only by organisms that are incapable of photosynthesis.
b.
 breaks down food molecules to release stored energy.
c.
 occurs before plants are able to carry out photosynthesis.
d.
 occurs only in animals.
 5.
cellular respiration : organic compounds ::
a.
 light bulb : glass
c.
 automobile : gasoline
b.
 trunk : clothing
d.
 country : nation
 6.
When glycolysis occurs,
a.
 a molecule of glucose is split.
b.
 two molecules of pyruvic acid are made.
c.
 some ATP is produced.
d.
 All of the above
 7.
The name of the process that takes place when organic compounds are broken down in the absence of oxygen is
a.
 respiration.
c.
 fermentation.
b.
 oxidation.
d.
 All of the above
 8.
When muscles are exercised extensively in the absence of sufficient oxygen,
a.
 a large amount of ATP is formed.
b.
 NADH molecules split.
c.
 lactic acid is produced.
d.
 cellular respiration ceases.
 9.
You have been growing some animal cells in culture. The cells grow well for several weeks, and then their growth slows down. You conduct some tests and determine that there is a lot of lactic acid in the culture fluid. Which of the following is the most likely explanation for the poor growth of the cells?
a.
 There is too much glucose in the culture fluid.
b.
 There is not enough glucose in the culture fluid.
c.
 There is too much oxygen in the culture fluid.
d.
 There is not enough oxygen in the culture fluid.
 10.
If the formation of a standard amount of ATP under certain conditions requires 12 kcal of energy and the complete oxidation of glucose yields 686 kcal of energy, how efficient is glycolysis at extracting energy from glucose?
a.
 1.7%
c.
 7.0%
b.
 3.5%
d.
 35%
 11.
Cellular respiration takes place in two stages:
a.
 glycolysis and fermentation.
b.
 Stage 1 and Stage 2 of photosynthesis.
c.
 glycolysis, then aerobic respiration.
d.
 aerobic respiration, then glycolysis.
 12.
In cellular respiration, a two-carbon molecule combines with a four-carbon molecule to form citric acid as part of
a.
 glycolysis.
b.
 carbon fixation.
c.
 the Krebs cycle.
d.
 the electron transport chain.
 13.
Acetyl coenzyme A
a.
 is formed from the breakdown of pyruvic acid.
b.
 enters the Krebs cycle.
c.
 can be used in synthesis of needed molecules.
d.
 All of the above
 14.
Glycolysis and aerobic respiration are different in that
a.
 glycolysis occurs on the cell membrane, while aerobic respiration occurs in mitochondria.
b.
 glycolysis occurs only in photosynthesis, while aerobic respiration is part of cellular respiration.
c.
 glycolysis occurs in the absence of oxygen, while aerobic respiration requires oxygen.
d.
 There is no difference; these terms are different names for the same process.
 15.
Which of the following is not formed during the Krebs cycle?
a.
 CO2
c.
 NADH
b.
 FADH2
d.
 NADPH
 16.
Which of the following is not part of cellular respiration?
a.
 electron transport
c.
 the Krebs cycle
b.
 glycolysis
d.
 the Calvin cycle
 17.
With oxygen present, the Krebs cycle and the electron transport chain
a.
 provide organisms an alternative to glycolysis.
b.
 produce most of the ATP needed for life.
c.
 break down glucose to produce carbon dioxide, water, and ATP.
d.
 All of the above
 18.
Water is an end product in
a.
 lactic acid formation.
c.
 the Krebs cycle.
b.
 fermentation.
d.
 the electron transport chain.
 19.
Krebs cycle : CO2 ::
a.
 glycolysis : glucose
b.
 acetyl CoA formation : O2
c.
 cellular respiration : O2
d.
 electron transport chain : ATP
 20.
ATP molecules produced during aerobic respiration
a.
 remain in the mitochondria in which they are formed.
b.
 are stored in chloroplasts of the same cell in which they are formed.
c.
 enter the cell’s cytoplasm through the membranes of the mitochondria in which they are formed.
d.
 are distributed by the bloodstream to all cells in the body.
 21.
At the end of the electron transport chain,
a.
 the electrons combine with oxygen and protons to form water.
b.
 the electrons are used in the formation of ethyl alcohol.
c.
 the electrons build up inside the mitochondria and diffuse back to a thylakoid.
d.
 None of the above
C6 H12O6 + 6O2 + ADP + P ® 6CO2 + 6 H2O + MOLECULE A
 22.
The process shown in the equation above begins in the cytoplasm of a cell and ends in the
a.
 cytoplasm.
c.
 endoplasmic reticulum.
b.
 mitochondria.
d.
 lysosome.
 23.
The equation above summarizes the process known as
a.
 photosynthesis.
c.
 cellular respiration.
b.
 fermentation.
d.
 protein breakdown.
 24.
The molecule referred to as “molecule A” in the equation above is
a.
 NADPH.
c.
 NADH.
b.
 ATP.
d.
 ADP.
 25.
When living cells break down molecules, energy is
a.
 stored as ADP.
c.
 released as heat.
b.
 stored as ATP.
d.
 Both b and c
 26.
Which of the following is the best explanation for the presence of both chloroplasts and mitochondria in plant cells?
a.
 In the light, plants are photosynthetic autotrophs. In the dark, they are heterotrophs.
b.
 If plants cannot produce enough ATP in the process of photosynthesis to meet their energy needs, they can produce it in aerobic respiration.
c.
 Sugars are produced in chloroplasts. These sugars can be stored in the plant for later use, converted to other chemicals, or broken down in aerobic respiration to yield ATP for the plant to use to meet its energy needs.
d.
 The leaves and sometimes the stems of plants contain chloroplasts, which produce ATP to meet the energy needs of these plant parts. The roots of plants contain mitochondria, which produce ATP to meet the energy needs of these plant parts.
 27.
In cellular respiration, the most energy is transferred during
a.
 glycolysis.
b.
 lactic acid fermentation.
c.
 the Krebs cycle.
d.
 the electron transport chain
 28.
Electrons are donated to the electron transport chain by
a.
 ATP and NADH.
c.
 ATP and NAD+.
b.
 FADH2 and NADH.
d.
 NAD+ and ATP.
 29.
If the formation of 38 molecules of ATP requires 266 kcal of energy and the complete oxidation of glucose yields 686 kcal of energy, how efficient is cellular respiration at extracting energy from glucose?
a.
 20%
c.
 25%
b.
 39%
d.
 100%
 

Completion
Complete each statement.
 30.
During fermentation, either ethyl alcohol and carbon dioxide or ____________________ is formed.
 31.
Of the maximum possible yield of 38 ATP molecules produced by the complete oxidation of one glucose molecule, ____________________ molecules of ATP are produced during glycolysis.
 32.
The Krebs cycle takes place in the _________________________.
 

Essay
 33.
The relationship between photosynthesis and cellular respiration is usually described as a cycle. Briefly explain. Write your answer in the space below.

 
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Sponges & Cnidarians Study Guide

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Sponges & Cnidarians Quiz

 

 

Multiple Choice
Identify the choice that best completes the statement or answers the question.
 1.

mc001-1.jpg

Refer to the illustration above. Which organism is most closely related to a jellyfish?

a.
 1
c.
 3
b.
 2
d.
 4
 2.
Which of the following distinguishes sponges from other invertebrates?
a.
 They are not motile in any stage of their life cycle.
b.
 They obtain nutrients by diffusion rather than by ingestion.
c.
 Their cells are not organized into tissues.
d.
 They reproduce only asexually.
 3.
Sponges
a.
 are nonsymmetrical.
b.
 lack organization into tissues and organs.
c.
 possess cells that are capable of recognizing other sponge cells.
d.
 All of the above
 4.
Collar cells
a.
 are specialized for reproduction.
b.
 draw water into the body of a sponge.
c.
 produce cytochrome oxidase.
d.
 are parasitic protozoa.
 5.
Spicules are
a.
 flexible protein fibers.
b.
 hard spike-like structures in the wall of a sponge.
c.
 similar to seeds; a complete sponge can grow from each spicule.
d.
 used for taking in food and water.
 6.
Adult sponges
a.
 have body walls with many pores.
b.
 possess true tissues.
c.
 are active swimmers.
d.
 use stinging cells to capture prey.
 7.
Skeletal support in sponges may be provided by
a.
 spicules of calcium carbonate.
b.
 spicules of silicon dioxide.
c.
 fibers called spongin.
d.
 All of the above
 8.
Sponges obtain food
a.
 through photosynthesis.
b.
 by using their spicules to paralyze protozoa.
c.
 by filtering small organisms from the water.
d.
 with their spongin.
 9.
In sponges, currents that draw water through the organism are created by
a.
 amoebocytes.
c.
 gemmules.
b.
 collar cells.
d.
 spicules.
 10.
The cells that move throughout the sponge’s body wall to deliver food to the organism’s cells are called
a.
 amoebocytes.
c.
 gemmules.
b.
 choanocytes.
d.
 spicules.
 11.
Water leaves the interior of a sponge through the
a.
 food vacuoles.
c.
 body wall.
b.
 spicules.
d.
 osculum.
 12.
collar cell : water ::
a.
 amoebocyte : nutrients and wastes
b.
 spongin : food
c.
 spicule : water
d.
 osculum : mesenchyme
 13.
The gemmules of sponges
a.
 create water currents for feeding.
b.
 are equivalent to the sperm cells of higher animals.
c.
 are equivalent to the egg cells of higher animals.
d.
 are necessary for one form of asexual reproduction.
 14.
Hermaphroditic organisms
a.
 reproduce only by asexual means.
b.
 produce both eggs and sperm.
c.
 have gemmules that are fertilized by amoebocytes.
d.
 possess only male amoebocytes.
 15.
Hermaphrodism is advantageous in sponges because
a.
 they reproduce asexually.
b.
 they have gemmules.
c.
 they are sessile.
d.
 None of the above is true; hermaphrodism does not occur in sponges.
 16.
Sponges can reproduce
a.
 by the budding of new sponges from the parent.
b.
 by a breakup of the original parent into fragments that each become a new sponge.
c.
 sexually, using sperm and eggs.
d.
 All of the above
 17.
some freshwater sponges : gemmules ::
a.
 hermaphrodites : eggs and sperm
b.
 gemmules : eggs
c.
 gemmules : sperms
d.
 amoebocytes : eggs
 18.

mc018-1.jpg

Refer to the illustration above. Which organism captures its prey using nematocysts?

a.
 1
c.
 3
b.
 2
d.
 4
 19.
Many cnidarians have two distinct life stages,
a.
 the gametophyte and the sporophyte.
b.
 the polyp and the medusa.
c.
 the egg and the adult.
d.
 the egg and the larva.
 20.
Nematocysts
a.
 contain harpoonlike structures called cnidocytes.
b.
 create water currents in sponges.
c.
 can spear a cnidarian’s prey.
d.
 are found in most predatory ctenophores.
 21.
The cnidarian’s inner layer of tissue is specialized for
a.
 digestion.
c.
 capturing prey.
b.
 reproduction.
d.
 All of the above
 22.
The outer cell layer of a cnidarian is the
a.
 ectoderm.
c.
 endoderm.
b.
 mesoglea.
d.
 epidermis.
 23.
Which of the following is a characteristic associated only with cnidarians?
a.
 a digestive tract with a single opening
b.
 cnidocytes specialized for defense and capturing prey
c.
 choanocytes containing nematocysts
d.
 a parasitic life cycle
 24.
sponges : fewer than three body layers ::
a.
 ctenophores : no body symmetry
b.
 sponges : bilateral symmetry
c.
 cnidarians : nerve net
d.
 cnidarians : choanocytes
 25.
The phylum Cnidaria includes all of the following except
a.
 jellyfish.
c.
 sea anemones.
b.
 squids.
d.
 corals.
 26.
Planula larvae of scyphozoans
a.
 result from fertilization of eggs by sperm.
b.
 swim freely through the water.
c.
 settle to the ocean bottom and grow into polyps.
d.
 All of the above
 27.
The hydra is unique among the hydrozoans because it
a.
 is an active swimmer.
b.
 lives in colonies.
c.
 is strictly a marine species.
d.
 has no medusa stage.
 28.
Which of the following is not sessile as an adult?
a.
 sponge
b.
 coral
c.
 sea anemone
d.
 Portuguese man-of-war
 29.
Sea anemones are
a.
 medusae.
c.
 larvae.
b.
 polyps.
d.
 eggs.

The diagram below illustrates the life cycle of the jellyfish.

nar001-1.jpg
 30.
Refer to the illustration above. Which stage is called a planula?
a.
 1
c.
 3
b.
 2
d.
 None of the above
 31.
Refer to the illustration above. Which stage reproduces asexually?
a.
 1
c.
 3
b.
 2
d.
 None of the above
 32.
Anthozoans include
a.
 jellyfish.
b.
 hydras.
c.
 the Portuguese man-of-war.
d.
 sea anemones and corals.
 33.
Scyphozoans, such as jellyfish, spend most of their lives as
a.
 polyps.
c.
 corals.
b.
 medusae.
d.
 parasites.
 34.
The class of cnidarians that typically live only as polyps is the
a.
 Anthozoa.
c.
 Scyphozoa.
b.
 Hydrozoa.
d.
 None of the above
 35.
Which of the following is not a characteristic of ctenophores?
a.
 bioluminescence
b.
 movement by means of beating cilia
c.
 use of cnidocytes to capture prey
d.
 hermaphrodism
 

Completion
Complete each statement.
 36.
____________________ is drawn into a sponge through pores and leaves through the osculum.
 37.
A network of tough, flexible protein fibers called ____________________ provides support in some sponges.
 38.
Spike-like objects that make up the skeleton of some sponges are called ____________________.
 39.
A sponge’s ____________________ may be composed of either calcium carbonate or silicon dioxide.
 40.
Food molecules are carried throughout a sponge’s body by ____________________.
 41.
Food-filled balls of amoebocytes that are involved in asexual reproduction in sponges are called ____________________.
 42.
An organism that produces both eggs and sperm is called a(n) ____________________.
 43.
A free-floating, gelatinous body form of a cnidarian is called a(n) ____________________, while an attached body form is called a(n) ____________________.
 44.
Cnidarians have two cell layers, the epidermis and the ____________________.
 45.
A coral is a member of the class ____________________.
 46.
Ctenophores are the largest organisms that move by the beating of ____________________.

 
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Protist Study Guide

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Protist Quiz

 

 

Modified True/False
Indicate whether the statement is true or false.  If false, change the identified word or phrase to make the statement true.
 1.
The kingdom Protista contains the eukaryotes that are not plants, animals, or fungi. _________________________
 2.
Sexual reproduction with spores evolved in protists. _________________________
 3.
Tissues, organs, and organ systems evolved in unicellular protists. _________________________
 4.
Sexual reproduction allows Chlamydomonas to delay development of new organisms until environmental conditions are favorable. _________________________
 5.
Amoebas move by means of pseudopodia. _________________________
 6.
Diatoms are the only type of protists with single shells. _________________________
 7.
Paramecium takes in food through its contractile vacuole. _________________________
 8.
Cellular slime molds form a mass of cytoplasm that has many nuclei. _________________________
 9.
Protists have an important effect on humans because they cause disease. _________________________
 10.
Malaria is caused by the protist Plasmodium and is spread by the bite of certain fleas. _________________________
 11.
Carrageenan is a product made by protists that is used to flavor many food products. _________________________
 

Multiple Choice
Identify the choice that best completes the statement or answers the question.
 12.
Which of the following is not true about some or all protists?
a.
 unicellular and heterotrophic
c.
 multicellular and autotrophic
b.
 unicellular and autotrophic
d.
 multicellular and prokaryotic
 13.
The kingdom Protista does not include
a.
 most of the single-celled eukaryotes.
c.
 multicellular seaweed.
b.
 slime and water molds.
d.
 prokaryotes.
 14.
Which of the following characteristics did not evolve in the Kingdom Protista?
a.
 unicellularity
c.
 membrane-bound organelles
b.
 gametes
d.
 complex cilia and flagella
 15.
sexual reproduction : diversity ::
a.
 flagella : cilia
c.
 green algae : flagella
b.
 multicellularity : tissues
d.
 unicellularity : protists
 16.
Eukaryotes that lack the features of animals, plants, or fungi are classified in the kingdom
a.
 Archaebacteria.
c.
 Protista.
b.
 Plantae.
d.
 Animalia.
 17.
You have been given an unknown organism to identify. You find that it is unicellular and has a cell wall. Which of the following must it also have?
a.
 chloroplasts
c.
 pseudopodia
b.
 asexual reproduction
d.
 one or more flagella
 18.
When Chlamydomonas reproduces sexually, it divides by mitosis, producing
a.
 zygospores.
c.
 haploid gametes.
b.
 diploid gametes.
d.
 zoospores.
 19.
Zoospores are
a.
 produced as a result of meiosis.
c.
 produced as a result of mitosis.
b.
 diploid.
d.
 all parasitic.
 20.
The haploid, gamete-producing phase in the life cycle of some multicellular protists is known as the
a.
 zygospore generation.
c.
 conjugation generation.
b.
 gametophyte generation.
d.
 sporophyte generation.
 21.
The marine green alga Ulva reproduces sexually by
a.
 alternation of generations.
c.
 mitosis.
b.
 conjugation.
d.
 aggregation.
 22.
Pseudopodia are used for
a.
 Paramecium conjugation.
c.
 Euglena reproduction.
b.
 movement by amoebas.
d.
 Paramecium mitosis.
 23.
Amoebas capture food by
a.
 engulfing it.
c.
 trapping it with flagella.
b.
 using cilia.
d.
 taking it into an oral groove.
 24.
When an individual diatom gets too small because of repeated division, it
a.
 grows to full size in its existing shell.
b.
 slips out of its shell, grows to full size, and regenerates a new shell.
c.
 slips out of its shell, grows to full size, and reinhabits its old shell.
d.
 slips out of its shell and lives the rest of its life without a shell.
 25.
Algae are
a.
 sometimes heterotrophic.
b.
 always microscopic in size.
c.
 found in fresh water, salt water, and damp soil.
d.
 found only in fresh water.
 26.
Red algae
a.
 are multicellular.
c.
 have eyespots.
b.
 are unicellular.
d.
 have double shells.
 27.
Euglenoids are examples of protists that
a.
 can be both autotrophic and heterotrophic.
b.
 are only parasitic heterotrophs.
c.
 are always autotrophic.
d.
 swim away from light.
 28.
dinoflagellates : flagella ::
a.
 amoebas : pseudopodia
c.
 ciliates : pseudopodia
b.
 sporozoans : flagella
d.
 amoebas : flagella
 29.
The process in which two Paramecia come together to exchange parts of their genetic material is called
a.
 mitosis.
c.
 pollination.
b.
 replication.
d.
 conjugation.
nar001-1.jpg
 30.
Refer to the illustration above. Excess water in the body of the Paramecium is forced back out by the structure labeled
a.
 A
c.
 D
b.
 C
d.
 E
 31.
Refer to the illustration above. The structure that contains the cell’s chromosomes is labeled
a.
 A
c.
 C
b.
 B
d.
 E
 32.
Refer to the illustration above. Structure C is the
a.
 macronucleus.
c.
 oral groove.
b.
 contractile vacuole.
d.
 micronucleus.
 33.
Refer to the illustration above. The structure that controls routine cellular functions is labeled
a.
 A
c.
 C
b.
 B
d.
 D
 34.
Funguslike protists reproduce by releasing
a.
 gametes.
c.
 zoospores.
b.
 spores.
d.
 plasmodia.
 35.
Giardiasis is a disease that is spread
a.
 by direct person-to-person contact.
c.
 through contaminated water.
b.
 through the air.
d.
 by the Anopheles mosquito.
 36.
Chagas disease is spread by
a.
 kissing bugs.
c.
 contaminated food.
b.
 mosquitoes.
d.
 contaminated water.
 37.
Which of the following is not a human disease caused by a protist?
a.
 amebic dysentery
c.
 malaria
b.
 toxoplasmosis
d.
 tuberculosis.
 38.
giardiasis : contaminated water ::
a.
 amebic dysentery : mosquito
c.
 malaria : mosquito
b.
 amebic dysentery : giardiasis
d.
 malaria : food contamination
 39.
The protist that causes malaria reproduces in the
a.
 intestine of a human.
c.
 red blood cells of a human.
b.
 red blood cells of a mosquito.
d.
 stinger of a mosquito.
 40.
Malaria is caused by several species of
a.
 Toxoplasma.
c.
 Giardia.
b.
 Phytophthora.
d.
 Plasmodium.
 41.
The stage in the life cycle of Plasmodium in which it lives in mosquitoes and is injected into humans is called the
a.
 gametophyte.
c.
 sporophyte.
b.
 sporozoite.
d.
 zoospore.
 42.
Symbiotic protists live in all of the following organisms except
a.
 termites.
c.
 cattle.
b.
 corals.
d.
 bacteria.
 43.
Protists that play an important role in aquatic food webs are called
a.
 plankton.
c.
 anchovies.
b.
 lichens.
d.
 cyanobacteria.
 44.
The evolution of the plant kingdom can be inferred by studying
a.
 green algae.
c.
 red algae.
b.
 brown algae.
d.
 dinoflagellates.
 45.
A mass of cytoplasm that has many nuclei is a(n)
a.
 spore.
c.
 colony.
b.
 plasmodium.
d.
 amoeba.
 46.
A protist that almost destroyed the entire potato crop in Ireland in 1846 is a
a.
 plasmodial slime mold.
c.
 dinoflagellate.
b.
 cellular slime mold.
d.
 water mold.
 47.
A downy mildew gets nutrients by
a.
 photosynthesis.
b.
 absorbing them from the environment.
c.
 making them from inorganic chemicals.
d.
 making them from organic building blocks.
 48.
When an algal bloom dies, the bacteria that decompose the algae
a.
 deplete carbon dioxide levels in the water.
b.
 kill the plankton population.
c.
 deplete oxygen levels in the water.
d.
 kill fish.
 49.
A protist used by scientists to study cell movement and cell signaling is a
a.
 dinoflagellate.
c.
 paramecium.
b.
 diatom.
d.
 slime mold.
 50.
Agar is a product used to grow bacteria. Agar comes from
a.
 bacteria.
c.
 diatoms.
b.
 algae.
d.
 amoebas.
 

Completion
Complete each statement.
 51.
Two important features that evolved in the protists were multicellularity and sexual reproduction with the production of ____________________.
 52.
The evolution of ____________________ allowed single-celled organisms to perform many functions at the same time.
 53.
When ______________________________ evolved, protists could become genetically diverse.
 54.
Although protists are diverse, they are all ____________________.
Life Cycle of Chlamydomonas
nar002-1.jpg
 55.
Refer to the illustration above. Arrow B is pointing to a ____________________ in the life cycle.
 56.
Refer to the illustration above. Arrow A is pointing to ____________________ in the life cycle.
 57.
According to the illustration above, Chlamydomonas reproduces both sexually and ____________________.
 58.
Some protists undergo sexual reproduction only at times of environmental ____________________.
 59.
Ulva is characterized by two distinct multicellular phases: a diploid, spore producing phase called the ____________________ generation and a haploid, gamete-producing phase called the ____________________ generation.
nar003-1.jpg
 60.
Refer to the illustration above. The organism shown in A moves and obtains food by means of ____________________.
 61.
Refer to the illustration above. The organism shown in C moves by means of ____________________.
 62.
Refer to the illustration above. The organism shown in B moves by means of ____________________.
 63.
Some amoeboid protists have porous shells called ____________________.
 64.
____________________ have double shells that resemble small boxes with lids.
 65.
The large brown algae that grow along coasts are called ____________________.
 66.
Protists that are strict photoautotrophs are called ____________________.
 67.
Poisonous “red tides” are caused by population explosions of ____________________.
 68.
Brown algae are the only algae that form more than one kind of ____________________.
 69.
Some protists have ____________________ that contain light-sensitive pigments.
 70.
____________________ disease is a protist-caused disease that is transmitted by kissing bugs.
 71.
Disease-causing protists are transmitted mainly by insects or by contaminated ____________________ and ____________________.
 72.
The stage of Plasmodium that infects the liver is called the ____________________; the second stage of the Plasmodium life cycle, which infects red blood cells, is called the ____________________.
 73.
Plantlike protists produce ____________________, which allows most forms of life to live on Earth.
 74.
____________________ are related to green algae and are thought to have evolved from them.
 75.
Funguslike protists resemble fungi in that they reproduce with ____________________ and they ____________________ nutrients from their environment.
 76.
Cellular slime molds usually exist as single-celled amoebas, but they form ____________________ and release ____________________ when food or water is scarce.
 77.
A water mold caused the great potato famine in ____________________ in 1846.
 78.
The empty shells of diatoms are used as ____________________ in cleaning agents.
 79.
Red algae produce carrageenan, which is used in the food industry to ____________________ foods such as ice cream and salad dressings.

 
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Quiz Cell Reproduction

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Cell Reproduction

 

 

True/False
Indicate whether the sentence or statement is true or false.
1.
The information needed by a cell to direct its activities and to determine its characteristics is contained in molecules of deoxyribonucleic acid (DNA).
2.
Gametes are diploid so that when fertilization occurs, the resulting zygote will have the characteristic number of chromosomes for that species.
3.
A karyotype is a type of gene.
4.
Cell division in bacteria and eukaryotes takes place in precisely the same manner.
5.
Cells spend most of their lifetime in interphase.
6.
After the replication of a cell’s chromatids, there are twice as many centromeres as there are chromosomes.
7.
Asexual reproduction occurs by mitosis.
8.
During telophase, a nuclear envelope surrounds each new set of chromosomes.
9.
Chromatids separate from each other during telophase.
10.
After mitosis and cytokinesis, each new cell has a complete set of the original cell’s  chromosomes.
 

Completion
Complete each sentence or statement.
11.
Following replication of its DNA, each chromosome contains two ____________________, which are attached to each other by a centromere.
12.
Chromosomes that are not involved in sex determination are called ____________________.
13.
A picture of a cell’s chromosomes is called a ____________________.
14.
The sequence of events that occurs in a cell from one mitotic division to the next is called the ____________________.
15.
“Cables” made of microtubules that extend from the poles of a cell to the centromeres during cell division are called ____________________.
16.
In mitosis, anaphase follows ____________________.
17.
The stage of meiosis during which homologues line up along the equator of the cell is called ____________________.
18.
The process called ____________________ guarantees that the number of chromosomes in gametes is half the number of chromosomes in body cells.
19.
A reciprocal exchange of corresponding segments of DNA is called ____________________.
20.
As a result of spermatogenesis, ____________________ cells are produced that can all develop into sperm cells. As a result of oogenesis, only ____________________ cell(s) develop(s) into (an) egg cell(s).

 
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