Category: Curriculum Map

Sponges & Cnidarians Study Guide

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Sponges & Cnidarians Quiz

 

 

Multiple Choice
Identify the choice that best completes the statement or answers the question.
 1.

mc001-1.jpg

Refer to the illustration above. Which organism is most closely related to a jellyfish?

a.
 1
c.
 3
b.
 2
d.
 4
 2.
Which of the following distinguishes sponges from other invertebrates?
a.
 They are not motile in any stage of their life cycle.
b.
 They obtain nutrients by diffusion rather than by ingestion.
c.
 Their cells are not organized into tissues.
d.
 They reproduce only asexually.
 3.
Sponges
a.
 are nonsymmetrical.
b.
 lack organization into tissues and organs.
c.
 possess cells that are capable of recognizing other sponge cells.
d.
 All of the above
 4.
Collar cells
a.
 are specialized for reproduction.
b.
 draw water into the body of a sponge.
c.
 produce cytochrome oxidase.
d.
 are parasitic protozoa.
 5.
Spicules are
a.
 flexible protein fibers.
b.
 hard spike-like structures in the wall of a sponge.
c.
 similar to seeds; a complete sponge can grow from each spicule.
d.
 used for taking in food and water.
 6.
Adult sponges
a.
 have body walls with many pores.
b.
 possess true tissues.
c.
 are active swimmers.
d.
 use stinging cells to capture prey.
 7.
Skeletal support in sponges may be provided by
a.
 spicules of calcium carbonate.
b.
 spicules of silicon dioxide.
c.
 fibers called spongin.
d.
 All of the above
 8.
Sponges obtain food
a.
 through photosynthesis.
b.
 by using their spicules to paralyze protozoa.
c.
 by filtering small organisms from the water.
d.
 with their spongin.
 9.
In sponges, currents that draw water through the organism are created by
a.
 amoebocytes.
c.
 gemmules.
b.
 collar cells.
d.
 spicules.
 10.
The cells that move throughout the sponge’s body wall to deliver food to the organism’s cells are called
a.
 amoebocytes.
c.
 gemmules.
b.
 choanocytes.
d.
 spicules.
 11.
Water leaves the interior of a sponge through the
a.
 food vacuoles.
c.
 body wall.
b.
 spicules.
d.
 osculum.
 12.
collar cell : water ::
a.
 amoebocyte : nutrients and wastes
b.
 spongin : food
c.
 spicule : water
d.
 osculum : mesenchyme
 13.
The gemmules of sponges
a.
 create water currents for feeding.
b.
 are equivalent to the sperm cells of higher animals.
c.
 are equivalent to the egg cells of higher animals.
d.
 are necessary for one form of asexual reproduction.
 14.
Hermaphroditic organisms
a.
 reproduce only by asexual means.
b.
 produce both eggs and sperm.
c.
 have gemmules that are fertilized by amoebocytes.
d.
 possess only male amoebocytes.
 15.
Hermaphrodism is advantageous in sponges because
a.
 they reproduce asexually.
b.
 they have gemmules.
c.
 they are sessile.
d.
 None of the above is true; hermaphrodism does not occur in sponges.
 16.
Sponges can reproduce
a.
 by the budding of new sponges from the parent.
b.
 by a breakup of the original parent into fragments that each become a new sponge.
c.
 sexually, using sperm and eggs.
d.
 All of the above
 17.
some freshwater sponges : gemmules ::
a.
 hermaphrodites : eggs and sperm
b.
 gemmules : eggs
c.
 gemmules : sperms
d.
 amoebocytes : eggs
 18.

mc018-1.jpg

Refer to the illustration above. Which organism captures its prey using nematocysts?

a.
 1
c.
 3
b.
 2
d.
 4
 19.
Many cnidarians have two distinct life stages,
a.
 the gametophyte and the sporophyte.
b.
 the polyp and the medusa.
c.
 the egg and the adult.
d.
 the egg and the larva.
 20.
Nematocysts
a.
 contain harpoonlike structures called cnidocytes.
b.
 create water currents in sponges.
c.
 can spear a cnidarian’s prey.
d.
 are found in most predatory ctenophores.
 21.
The cnidarian’s inner layer of tissue is specialized for
a.
 digestion.
c.
 capturing prey.
b.
 reproduction.
d.
 All of the above
 22.
The outer cell layer of a cnidarian is the
a.
 ectoderm.
c.
 endoderm.
b.
 mesoglea.
d.
 epidermis.
 23.
Which of the following is a characteristic associated only with cnidarians?
a.
 a digestive tract with a single opening
b.
 cnidocytes specialized for defense and capturing prey
c.
 choanocytes containing nematocysts
d.
 a parasitic life cycle
 24.
sponges : fewer than three body layers ::
a.
 ctenophores : no body symmetry
b.
 sponges : bilateral symmetry
c.
 cnidarians : nerve net
d.
 cnidarians : choanocytes
 25.
The phylum Cnidaria includes all of the following except
a.
 jellyfish.
c.
 sea anemones.
b.
 squids.
d.
 corals.
 26.
Planula larvae of scyphozoans
a.
 result from fertilization of eggs by sperm.
b.
 swim freely through the water.
c.
 settle to the ocean bottom and grow into polyps.
d.
 All of the above
 27.
The hydra is unique among the hydrozoans because it
a.
 is an active swimmer.
b.
 lives in colonies.
c.
 is strictly a marine species.
d.
 has no medusa stage.
 28.
Which of the following is not sessile as an adult?
a.
 sponge
b.
 coral
c.
 sea anemone
d.
 Portuguese man-of-war
 29.
Sea anemones are
a.
 medusae.
c.
 larvae.
b.
 polyps.
d.
 eggs.

The diagram below illustrates the life cycle of the jellyfish.

nar001-1.jpg
 30.
Refer to the illustration above. Which stage is called a planula?
a.
 1
c.
 3
b.
 2
d.
 None of the above
 31.
Refer to the illustration above. Which stage reproduces asexually?
a.
 1
c.
 3
b.
 2
d.
 None of the above
 32.
Anthozoans include
a.
 jellyfish.
b.
 hydras.
c.
 the Portuguese man-of-war.
d.
 sea anemones and corals.
 33.
Scyphozoans, such as jellyfish, spend most of their lives as
a.
 polyps.
c.
 corals.
b.
 medusae.
d.
 parasites.
 34.
The class of cnidarians that typically live only as polyps is the
a.
 Anthozoa.
c.
 Scyphozoa.
b.
 Hydrozoa.
d.
 None of the above
 35.
Which of the following is not a characteristic of ctenophores?
a.
 bioluminescence
b.
 movement by means of beating cilia
c.
 use of cnidocytes to capture prey
d.
 hermaphrodism
 

Completion
Complete each statement.
 36.
____________________ is drawn into a sponge through pores and leaves through the osculum.
 37.
A network of tough, flexible protein fibers called ____________________ provides support in some sponges.
 38.
Spike-like objects that make up the skeleton of some sponges are called ____________________.
 39.
A sponge’s ____________________ may be composed of either calcium carbonate or silicon dioxide.
 40.
Food molecules are carried throughout a sponge’s body by ____________________.
 41.
Food-filled balls of amoebocytes that are involved in asexual reproduction in sponges are called ____________________.
 42.
An organism that produces both eggs and sperm is called a(n) ____________________.
 43.
A free-floating, gelatinous body form of a cnidarian is called a(n) ____________________, while an attached body form is called a(n) ____________________.
 44.
Cnidarians have two cell layers, the epidermis and the ____________________.
 45.
A coral is a member of the class ____________________.
 46.
Ctenophores are the largest organisms that move by the beating of ____________________.

 
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Protist Study Guide

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Protist Quiz

 

 

Modified True/False
Indicate whether the statement is true or false.  If false, change the identified word or phrase to make the statement true.
 1.
The kingdom Protista contains the eukaryotes that are not plants, animals, or fungi. _________________________
 2.
Sexual reproduction with spores evolved in protists. _________________________
 3.
Tissues, organs, and organ systems evolved in unicellular protists. _________________________
 4.
Sexual reproduction allows Chlamydomonas to delay development of new organisms until environmental conditions are favorable. _________________________
 5.
Amoebas move by means of pseudopodia. _________________________
 6.
Diatoms are the only type of protists with single shells. _________________________
 7.
Paramecium takes in food through its contractile vacuole. _________________________
 8.
Cellular slime molds form a mass of cytoplasm that has many nuclei. _________________________
 9.
Protists have an important effect on humans because they cause disease. _________________________
 10.
Malaria is caused by the protist Plasmodium and is spread by the bite of certain fleas. _________________________
 11.
Carrageenan is a product made by protists that is used to flavor many food products. _________________________
 

Multiple Choice
Identify the choice that best completes the statement or answers the question.
 12.
Which of the following is not true about some or all protists?
a.
 unicellular and heterotrophic
c.
 multicellular and autotrophic
b.
 unicellular and autotrophic
d.
 multicellular and prokaryotic
 13.
The kingdom Protista does not include
a.
 most of the single-celled eukaryotes.
c.
 multicellular seaweed.
b.
 slime and water molds.
d.
 prokaryotes.
 14.
Which of the following characteristics did not evolve in the Kingdom Protista?
a.
 unicellularity
c.
 membrane-bound organelles
b.
 gametes
d.
 complex cilia and flagella
 15.
sexual reproduction : diversity ::
a.
 flagella : cilia
c.
 green algae : flagella
b.
 multicellularity : tissues
d.
 unicellularity : protists
 16.
Eukaryotes that lack the features of animals, plants, or fungi are classified in the kingdom
a.
 Archaebacteria.
c.
 Protista.
b.
 Plantae.
d.
 Animalia.
 17.
You have been given an unknown organism to identify. You find that it is unicellular and has a cell wall. Which of the following must it also have?
a.
 chloroplasts
c.
 pseudopodia
b.
 asexual reproduction
d.
 one or more flagella
 18.
When Chlamydomonas reproduces sexually, it divides by mitosis, producing
a.
 zygospores.
c.
 haploid gametes.
b.
 diploid gametes.
d.
 zoospores.
 19.
Zoospores are
a.
 produced as a result of meiosis.
c.
 produced as a result of mitosis.
b.
 diploid.
d.
 all parasitic.
 20.
The haploid, gamete-producing phase in the life cycle of some multicellular protists is known as the
a.
 zygospore generation.
c.
 conjugation generation.
b.
 gametophyte generation.
d.
 sporophyte generation.
 21.
The marine green alga Ulva reproduces sexually by
a.
 alternation of generations.
c.
 mitosis.
b.
 conjugation.
d.
 aggregation.
 22.
Pseudopodia are used for
a.
 Paramecium conjugation.
c.
 Euglena reproduction.
b.
 movement by amoebas.
d.
 Paramecium mitosis.
 23.
Amoebas capture food by
a.
 engulfing it.
c.
 trapping it with flagella.
b.
 using cilia.
d.
 taking it into an oral groove.
 24.
When an individual diatom gets too small because of repeated division, it
a.
 grows to full size in its existing shell.
b.
 slips out of its shell, grows to full size, and regenerates a new shell.
c.
 slips out of its shell, grows to full size, and reinhabits its old shell.
d.
 slips out of its shell and lives the rest of its life without a shell.
 25.
Algae are
a.
 sometimes heterotrophic.
b.
 always microscopic in size.
c.
 found in fresh water, salt water, and damp soil.
d.
 found only in fresh water.
 26.
Red algae
a.
 are multicellular.
c.
 have eyespots.
b.
 are unicellular.
d.
 have double shells.
 27.
Euglenoids are examples of protists that
a.
 can be both autotrophic and heterotrophic.
b.
 are only parasitic heterotrophs.
c.
 are always autotrophic.
d.
 swim away from light.
 28.
dinoflagellates : flagella ::
a.
 amoebas : pseudopodia
c.
 ciliates : pseudopodia
b.
 sporozoans : flagella
d.
 amoebas : flagella
 29.
The process in which two Paramecia come together to exchange parts of their genetic material is called
a.
 mitosis.
c.
 pollination.
b.
 replication.
d.
 conjugation.
nar001-1.jpg
 30.
Refer to the illustration above. Excess water in the body of the Paramecium is forced back out by the structure labeled
a.
 A
c.
 D
b.
 C
d.
 E
 31.
Refer to the illustration above. The structure that contains the cell’s chromosomes is labeled
a.
 A
c.
 C
b.
 B
d.
 E
 32.
Refer to the illustration above. Structure C is the
a.
 macronucleus.
c.
 oral groove.
b.
 contractile vacuole.
d.
 micronucleus.
 33.
Refer to the illustration above. The structure that controls routine cellular functions is labeled
a.
 A
c.
 C
b.
 B
d.
 D
 34.
Funguslike protists reproduce by releasing
a.
 gametes.
c.
 zoospores.
b.
 spores.
d.
 plasmodia.
 35.
Giardiasis is a disease that is spread
a.
 by direct person-to-person contact.
c.
 through contaminated water.
b.
 through the air.
d.
 by the Anopheles mosquito.
 36.
Chagas disease is spread by
a.
 kissing bugs.
c.
 contaminated food.
b.
 mosquitoes.
d.
 contaminated water.
 37.
Which of the following is not a human disease caused by a protist?
a.
 amebic dysentery
c.
 malaria
b.
 toxoplasmosis
d.
 tuberculosis.
 38.
giardiasis : contaminated water ::
a.
 amebic dysentery : mosquito
c.
 malaria : mosquito
b.
 amebic dysentery : giardiasis
d.
 malaria : food contamination
 39.
The protist that causes malaria reproduces in the
a.
 intestine of a human.
c.
 red blood cells of a human.
b.
 red blood cells of a mosquito.
d.
 stinger of a mosquito.
 40.
Malaria is caused by several species of
a.
 Toxoplasma.
c.
 Giardia.
b.
 Phytophthora.
d.
 Plasmodium.
 41.
The stage in the life cycle of Plasmodium in which it lives in mosquitoes and is injected into humans is called the
a.
 gametophyte.
c.
 sporophyte.
b.
 sporozoite.
d.
 zoospore.
 42.
Symbiotic protists live in all of the following organisms except
a.
 termites.
c.
 cattle.
b.
 corals.
d.
 bacteria.
 43.
Protists that play an important role in aquatic food webs are called
a.
 plankton.
c.
 anchovies.
b.
 lichens.
d.
 cyanobacteria.
 44.
The evolution of the plant kingdom can be inferred by studying
a.
 green algae.
c.
 red algae.
b.
 brown algae.
d.
 dinoflagellates.
 45.
A mass of cytoplasm that has many nuclei is a(n)
a.
 spore.
c.
 colony.
b.
 plasmodium.
d.
 amoeba.
 46.
A protist that almost destroyed the entire potato crop in Ireland in 1846 is a
a.
 plasmodial slime mold.
c.
 dinoflagellate.
b.
 cellular slime mold.
d.
 water mold.
 47.
A downy mildew gets nutrients by
a.
 photosynthesis.
b.
 absorbing them from the environment.
c.
 making them from inorganic chemicals.
d.
 making them from organic building blocks.
 48.
When an algal bloom dies, the bacteria that decompose the algae
a.
 deplete carbon dioxide levels in the water.
b.
 kill the plankton population.
c.
 deplete oxygen levels in the water.
d.
 kill fish.
 49.
A protist used by scientists to study cell movement and cell signaling is a
a.
 dinoflagellate.
c.
 paramecium.
b.
 diatom.
d.
 slime mold.
 50.
Agar is a product used to grow bacteria. Agar comes from
a.
 bacteria.
c.
 diatoms.
b.
 algae.
d.
 amoebas.
 

Completion
Complete each statement.
 51.
Two important features that evolved in the protists were multicellularity and sexual reproduction with the production of ____________________.
 52.
The evolution of ____________________ allowed single-celled organisms to perform many functions at the same time.
 53.
When ______________________________ evolved, protists could become genetically diverse.
 54.
Although protists are diverse, they are all ____________________.
Life Cycle of Chlamydomonas
nar002-1.jpg
 55.
Refer to the illustration above. Arrow B is pointing to a ____________________ in the life cycle.
 56.
Refer to the illustration above. Arrow A is pointing to ____________________ in the life cycle.
 57.
According to the illustration above, Chlamydomonas reproduces both sexually and ____________________.
 58.
Some protists undergo sexual reproduction only at times of environmental ____________________.
 59.
Ulva is characterized by two distinct multicellular phases: a diploid, spore producing phase called the ____________________ generation and a haploid, gamete-producing phase called the ____________________ generation.
nar003-1.jpg
 60.
Refer to the illustration above. The organism shown in A moves and obtains food by means of ____________________.
 61.
Refer to the illustration above. The organism shown in C moves by means of ____________________.
 62.
Refer to the illustration above. The organism shown in B moves by means of ____________________.
 63.
Some amoeboid protists have porous shells called ____________________.
 64.
____________________ have double shells that resemble small boxes with lids.
 65.
The large brown algae that grow along coasts are called ____________________.
 66.
Protists that are strict photoautotrophs are called ____________________.
 67.
Poisonous “red tides” are caused by population explosions of ____________________.
 68.
Brown algae are the only algae that form more than one kind of ____________________.
 69.
Some protists have ____________________ that contain light-sensitive pigments.
 70.
____________________ disease is a protist-caused disease that is transmitted by kissing bugs.
 71.
Disease-causing protists are transmitted mainly by insects or by contaminated ____________________ and ____________________.
 72.
The stage of Plasmodium that infects the liver is called the ____________________; the second stage of the Plasmodium life cycle, which infects red blood cells, is called the ____________________.
 73.
Plantlike protists produce ____________________, which allows most forms of life to live on Earth.
 74.
____________________ are related to green algae and are thought to have evolved from them.
 75.
Funguslike protists resemble fungi in that they reproduce with ____________________ and they ____________________ nutrients from their environment.
 76.
Cellular slime molds usually exist as single-celled amoebas, but they form ____________________ and release ____________________ when food or water is scarce.
 77.
A water mold caused the great potato famine in ____________________ in 1846.
 78.
The empty shells of diatoms are used as ____________________ in cleaning agents.
 79.
Red algae produce carrageenan, which is used in the food industry to ____________________ foods such as ice cream and salad dressings.

 
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Quiz Cell Reproduction

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Cell Reproduction

 

 

True/False
Indicate whether the sentence or statement is true or false.
1.
The information needed by a cell to direct its activities and to determine its characteristics is contained in molecules of deoxyribonucleic acid (DNA).
2.
Gametes are diploid so that when fertilization occurs, the resulting zygote will have the characteristic number of chromosomes for that species.
3.
A karyotype is a type of gene.
4.
Cell division in bacteria and eukaryotes takes place in precisely the same manner.
5.
Cells spend most of their lifetime in interphase.
6.
After the replication of a cell’s chromatids, there are twice as many centromeres as there are chromosomes.
7.
Asexual reproduction occurs by mitosis.
8.
During telophase, a nuclear envelope surrounds each new set of chromosomes.
9.
Chromatids separate from each other during telophase.
10.
After mitosis and cytokinesis, each new cell has a complete set of the original cell’s  chromosomes.
 

Completion
Complete each sentence or statement.
11.
Following replication of its DNA, each chromosome contains two ____________________, which are attached to each other by a centromere.
12.
Chromosomes that are not involved in sex determination are called ____________________.
13.
A picture of a cell’s chromosomes is called a ____________________.
14.
The sequence of events that occurs in a cell from one mitotic division to the next is called the ____________________.
15.
“Cables” made of microtubules that extend from the poles of a cell to the centromeres during cell division are called ____________________.
16.
In mitosis, anaphase follows ____________________.
17.
The stage of meiosis during which homologues line up along the equator of the cell is called ____________________.
18.
The process called ____________________ guarantees that the number of chromosomes in gametes is half the number of chromosomes in body cells.
19.
A reciprocal exchange of corresponding segments of DNA is called ____________________.
20.
As a result of spermatogenesis, ____________________ cells are produced that can all develop into sperm cells. As a result of oogenesis, only ____________________ cell(s) develop(s) into (an) egg cell(s).

 
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Quiz Genetics

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Genetics

 

 

True/False
Indicate whether the sentence or statement is true or false.
1.
Genetics is the branch of biology that involves the study of how different traits are transmitted from one generation to the next.
2.
Mendel discovered predictable patterns in the inheritance of traits.
3.
The scientific study of heredity is called genetics.
4.
In Mendel’s experiments with the flower color of pea plants, only the parental generation produced white flowers.
5.
Mendel concluded that the patterns of inheritance are determined entirely by the environment.
6.
The law of independent assortment was proposed by Mendel to explain his observations of inheritance patterns.
7.
Genes on chromosomes are the units of inheritance.
8.
The allele for a recessive trait is usually represented by a capital letter.
9.
Heterozygous individuals have two of the same alleles for a particular gene.
10.
A probability of 1/4 is equal to a probability of 75 percent.
11.
The dominant allele for tallness in pea plants is represented by the letter t.
12.
In codominance, two alleles are expressed at the same time.
13.
All genes have only two alleles.
14.
A dihybrid cross involves two pairs of contrasting traits.
15.
Crosses involving a study of one gene are called monohybrid crosses.
 

Completion
Complete each sentence or statement.
16.
A reproductive process in which fertilization occurs within a single plant is ____________________.
17.
Mendel produced strains of pea plants through the process of ____________________.
18.
____________________ refers to the transmission of traits from parent to offspring in sexually reproducing organisms.
19.
In heterozygous individuals, only the ____________________ allele achieves expression.
20.
A trait that is not expressed in the F1 generation resulting from the crossbreeding of two genetically different, true-breeding organisms is called ____________________.
21.
The principle that states that one factor may mask the effect of another factor is the principle of ____________________.
22.
In Mendel’s experiments, a trait that disappeared in the F1 generation but reappeared in the F2 generation was always a ____________________.
23.
The cellular process that results in the segregation of Mendel’s factors is ____________________.
24.
Mendel formulated two principles known as the laws of ____________________.
25.
An organism that has two identical alleles for a trait is called ____________________.
26.
An organism’s ____________________ refers to the set of alleles it has inherited.
27.
The likelihood that a specific event will occur is called ____________________.
In pea plants, tallness (T) is dominant to shortness (t). Crosses between plants with these traits can be analyzed using a Punnett square similar to the one shown below.
T
t
T
1
2
t
3
4
28.
Refer to the illustration above. The parents shown in the Punnett square could have offspring with a genotype ratio of ____________________.
29.
Refer to the illustration above. The phenotype of the plant that would be represented in box “4” of the Punnett square would be ____________________.
30.
A cross involving two pairs of contrasting traits is a(n) ____________________ cross.

 
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Protein Synthesis Study Guide

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Protein Synthesis Study Guide

 

 

Multiple Choice
Identify the choice that best completes the statement or answers the question.
 1.
What did Griffith observe when he injected into mice a mixture of heat-killed disease-causing bacteria and live harmless bacteria?
a.
 The disease-causing bacteria changed into harmless bacteria.
b.
 The mice developed pneumonia.
c.
 The harmless bacteria died.
d.
 The mice were unaffected.
 2.
Which of the following is a nucleotide found in DNA?
a.
 ribose + phosphate group + thymine
b.
 ribose + phosphate group + uracil
c.
 deoxyribose + phosphate group + uracil
d.
 deoxyribose + phosphate group + cytosine
 3.
DNA replication results in two DNA molecules,
a.
 each with two new strands.
b.
 one with two new strands and the other with two original strands.
c.
 each with one new strand and one original strand.
d.
 each with two original strands.
 4.
During mitosis, the
a.
 DNA molecules unwind.
b.
 histones and DNA molecules separate.
c.
 DNA molecules become more tightly coiled.
d.
 nucleosomes become less tightly packed.
 5.
Unlike DNA, RNA contains
a.
 adenine.
c.
 phosphate groups.
b.
 uracil.
d.
 thymine.
 6.
Which type(s) of RNA is(are) involved in protein synthesis?
a.
 transfer RNA only
b.
 messenger RNA only
c.
 ribosomal RNA and transfer RNA only
d.
 messenger RNA, ribosomal RNA, and transfer RNA
 7.
During transcription, an RNA molecule is formed
a.
 that is complementary to both strands of DNA.
b.
 that is complementary to neither strand of DNA.
c.
 that is double-stranded.
d.
 inside the nucleus.
 8.
How many codons are needed to specify three amino acids?
a.
 3
c.
 9
b.
 6
d.
 12
 9.
Which of the following terms is LEAST closely related to the others?
a.
 intron
c.
 polypeptide
b.
 tRNA
d.
 anticodon
 10.
Which type of RNA functions as a blueprint of the genetic code?
a.
 rRNA
c.
 mRNA
b.
 tRNA
d.
 RNA polymerase
 11.
Which of the following is NOT a gene mutation?
a.
 inversion
c.
 deletion
b.
 insertion
d.
 substitution
 12.
Which of the following statements is NOT true?
a.
 Mutations do not occur in hox genes.
b.
 Hox genes that are found in different animals are very different from each other.
c.
 Hox genes control the normal development of an animal.
d.
 Hox genes occur in clusters.
 13.
Avery’s experiments showed that bacteria are transformed by
a.
 RNA.
c.
 proteins.
b.
 DNA.
d.
 carbohydrates.
 14.

Figure 12-5 shows the structure of a(an)

mc014-1.jpg

 

Figure 12–5

a.
 DNA molecule.
c.
 RNA molecule.
b.
 amino acid.
d.
 protein.
 15.
DNA is copied during a process called
a.
 replication.
c.
 transcription.
b.
 translation.
d.
 transformation.
 16.
In eukaryotes, DNA
a.
 is located in the nucleus.
c.
 is located in the ribosomes.
b.
 floats freely in the cytoplasm.
d.
 is circular.
 17.
RNA contains the sugar
a.
 ribose.
c.
 glucose.
b.
 deoxyribose.
d.
 lactose.
 18.
Which RNA molecule carries amino acids?
a.
 messenger RNA
c.
 ribosomal RNA
b.
 transfer RNA
d.
 RNA polymerase
 19.
What is produced during transcription?
a.
 RNA molecules
c.
 RNA polymerase
b.
 DNA molecules
d.
 proteins
 20.

What does Figure 12-6 show?

mc020-1.jpg

Figure 12-6

a.
 anticodons
b.
 the order in which amino acids are linked
c.
 the code for splicing mRNA
d.
 the genetic code
 21.
What happens during the process of translation?
a.
 Messenger RNA is made from DNA.
b.
 The cell uses information from messenger RNA to produce proteins.
c.
 Transfer RNA is made from messenger RNA.
d.
 Copies of DNA molecules are made.
 22.
Genes contain instructions for assembling
a.
 purines.
c.
 proteins.
b.
 nucleosomes.
d.
 pyrimidines.
 23.
A mutation that involves a single nucleotide is called a(an)
a.
 chromosomal mutation.
c.
 point mutation.
b.
 inversion.
d.
 translocation.
 

Completion
Complete each statement.
 24.

The structure labeled X in Figure 12-1 is a(an) ____________________.

co024-1.jpg

 

Figure 12–1
 25.
The order of nitrogenous bases in DNA determines the order of ____________________ in proteins.
 26.
There is no ____________________ that is specified by a stop codon on an mRNA molecule.
 27.
The lac repressor releases the operator in the presence of ____________________.
 28.
In eukaryotes, proteins that attract RNA polymerase bind to ____________________ sequences in DNA.
 29.
According to the principle of ____________________, hydrogen bonds can form only between adenine and thymine, and between guanine and cytosine.
 30.
Chromatin contains proteins called ____________________.
 31.

In Figure 12-7, A, B, and C are three types of ____________________.

co031-1.jpg

 

Figure 12–7
 32.
After introns are cut out of an RNA molecule, the remaining ____________________ are spliced back together to form the final messenger RNA.
 33.
A mutation in a series of genes, called the ____________________, can change the organs that develop in specific parts of an embryo.
 

Short Answer
 34.
At the beginning of DNA replication, what two processes “unzip” the two strands of a DNA molecule?
 35.

In Figure 12-2, which molecule is tRNA, and what is its function?

sa035-1.jpg

 

Figure 12–2
 36.

According to Figure 12-3, what codons specify the amino acid arginine?

sa036-1.jpg

 

Figure 12–3
 37.
What happens to lac repressors in E. coli when lactose is present?
 38.
What are the three main parts of an RNA nucleotide?
 39.
What must happen to a DNA molecule before RNA polymerase can make RNA?
 40.
What causes translation to stop?
 41.
What is a mutation?
 

Essay
 42.
Describe the structure of a DNA molecule.
 43.
Contrast the functions of the three main types of RNA.
 

Other

USING SCIENCE SKILLS

nar001-1.jpg

 

Figure 12–4
 44.
Interpreting Graphics What process is illustrated in Figure 12-4?
 45.
Interpreting Graphics Identify structure C in Figure 12-4.
 46.
Interpreting Graphics Which labeled structure in Figure 12-4 is a codon?
 47.
Inferring What is the relationship between the codons and anticodons in Figure 12-4? How is this relationship important?
 48.
Predicting In Figure 12-4, what will happen after the ribosome joins the methionine and phenylalanine?

USING SCIENCE SKILLS

nar002-1.jpg

Figure 12–8
 49.
Classifying What general type of mutation results from processes A, B, C, and D in Figure 12-8?
 50.
Interpreting Graphics In Figure 12-8, which process or processes involve two chromosomes?
 51.
Comparing and Contrasting Contrast process A and process B in Figure 12-8.
 52.
Interpreting Graphics During which process in Figure 12-8 does a segment of a chromosome become oriented in the reverse direction?
 53.
Interpreting Graphics In Figure 12-8, which process produces two chromosomes with translocations?

 
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