Category: Curriculum Map

Seed Plants

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Seed Plants

 

 

True/False
Indicate whether the sentence or statement is true or false.
1.
Tracheids and sieve tubes make up a xylem vessel.
2.
The main function of ground tissue is to conduct water and minerals.
3.
Vascular tissue is found within ground tissue, which makes up the outside of the plant.
4.
The outer protective layer of tissue on a vascular plant is known as the meristem.
5.
Monocot stems cannot become large in diameter because they lack lateral meristems.
6.
The loss of water by transpiration at the leaves helps pull water into the plant at the roots.
7.
The blade of a compound leaf is divided into leaflets.
8.
Many gymnosperms, such as pine, spruce, and fir trees, produce their seeds in cones.
9.
The flowers of angiosperms are ornamental and have no reproductive function.
10.
Brightly colored petals, scents, and nectar are all adaptations of flowers that help ensure pollination.
11.
Plants with colorful flowers are pollinated most commonly by wind.
 

Multiple Choice
Identify the letter of the choice that best completes the statement or answers the question.
12.
The conducting cells of phloem are called
a.
tracheids.
c.
sieve plates.
b.
sieve tube members.
d.
vessel elements.
13.
Plants grow in regions of active cell division called
a.
meristems.
c.
phloem.
b.
xylem.
d.
dermal tissue.
14.
The lengthening of plant roots and shoots is called
a.
secondary growth.
c.
primary growth.
b.
germination.
d.
vascular growth.
seed_plants_files/i0170000.jpg
15.
Refer to the illustration above. The structure indicated at “f”
a.
supports the anther.
b.
produces pollen.
c.
has tiny structures that look like leaves.
d.
develops into a fruit.
16.
Refer to the illustration above. The structure labeled “c”
a.
produces pollen.
c.
is sticky to the touch.
b.
contains sperm cells.
d.
contains meristematic tissue.
17.
The process of transferring pollen from a male cone to a female cone in gymnosperms is called
a.
fertilization.
c.
pollination.
b.
seed formation.
d.
asexual reproduction.
18.
If a plant’s flowers are very colorful and produce nectar, the plant is probably pollinated by
a.
water.
c.
insects.
b.
wind.
d.
self-pollination.
19.
Fertilization
a.
involves the union of the egg and sperm.
b.
may not follow pollination at all.
c.
may not occur until weeks or months after pollination has taken place.
d.
All of the above
20.
After an egg has been fertilized, a fruit develops from the
a.
style.
c.
ovule.
b.
ovary.
d.
sepal.

 
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PCC Biochemistry 2011

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Multiple Choice
Identify the choice that best completes the statement or answers the question.
 1.
The three particles that make up atoms are
a.
 protons, neutrons, and isotopes.
c.
 positives, negatives, and electrons.
b.
 neutrons, isotopes, and electrons.
d.
 protons, neutrons, and electrons.
 2.
The space surrounding the nucleus of an atom contains
a.
 protons.
c.
 neutrons.
b.
 electrons.
d.
 ions.
 3.
Democritus believed that atoms
a.
 were composed of electrons.
c.
 could be divided.
b.
 were composed of protons.
d.
 could not be divided.
 4.
If an atom contains 3 protons, 4 neutrons,  and 3 electrons, its mass number would be
a.
 3.
c.
 7.
b.
 4.
d.
 11.
 5.
If a chlorine atom had 17 protons and 18 neutrons, it would be called
a.
 chlorine-17.
c.
 chlorine-35.
b.
 chlorine-18.
d.
 chlorine-1.
 6.
Isotopes are atoms of the same element with the same number of protons and
a.
 a different number of electrons.
c.
 a different number of neutrons.
b.
 a different number of molecules.
d.
 the same number of neutrons.
 7.
Which of the following is a use of radioactive isotopes?
a.
 can determine the ages of rocks and fossils
b.
 can be used to treat cancer and kill bacteria that cause food to spoil
c.
 can be used as “tracers” to follow the movements of substances within organisms
d.
 all of the above
 8.
If an atom contains 11 protons and 12 neutrons, its atomic number is
a.
 1.
c.
 12.
b.
 11.
d.
 23.
 9.
Which of the following terms describes a substance formed by the combination of two or more elements in definite proportions?
a.
 compound
c.
 nucleus
b.
 isotope
d.
 enzyme
 10.
Which of the following makes up a molecule of water?
a.
 one atom of hydrogen and one atom of oxygen
b.
 one atom of sodium and one atom of chlorine
c.
 one atom of hydrogen and two atoms of oxygen
d.
 two atoms of hydrogen and one atom of oxygen
 11.
Which of the following is NOT true about chlorine?
a.
 It is a poisonous, greenish gas.
b.
 It combines with sodium to form table salt.
c.
 It was used to kill many soldiers in World War I.
d.
 It is not reactive.
 12.
Which of the following statements about a compound is true?
a.
 The physical and chemical properties of a compound are usually very different from those of the elements from which it is formed.
b.
 Only the physical properties of a compound are usually the same as those of the elements from which it is formed.
c.
 Only the chemical properties of a compound are usually the same as those of the elements from which it is formed.
d.
 The physical and chemical properties of a compound are usually the same as those of the elements from which it is formed.
 13.
A covalent bond is formed as the result of
a.
 transferring electrons.
c.
 transferring protons.
b.
 sharing an electron pair.
d.
 sharing a proton pair.
 14.
Which term does NOT apply to sodium chloride?
a.
 molecule
c.
 compound
b.
 ionic bonding
d.
 crystal
 15.
What type of electron is available to form bonds?
a.
 valence
c.
 ionic
b.
 nucleus
d.
 covalent
 16.
What type of ion forms when an atom loses electrons?
a.
 neutral
c.
 negative
b.
 positive
d.
 possibly positive or negative
 17.
Ice floats on water because
a.
 of cohesion.
c.
 water shrinks when it freezes.
b.
 ice has a higher density than water.
d.
 water expands when it freezes.
 18.
The most abundant compound in most living things is
a.
 carbon dioxide.
c.
 sodium chloride.
b.
 water.
d.
 sugar.
 19.
Water molecules are polar, with the
a.
 oxygen side being slightly positive and the hydrogen side being slightly negative.
b.
 oxygen and hydrogen sides being slightly positive.
c.
 oxygen and hydrogen sides being slightly negative.
d.
 oxygen side being slightly negative and the hydrogen side being slightly positive.
 20.
In a water molecule, shared electrons spend more time around the oxygen atom than the hydrogen atoms.  As a result, the oxygen atom is
a.
 slightly negative.
c.
 slightly positive.
b.
 very negative.
d.
 very positive.
 21.
A solution is a(an)
a.
 combination of isotopes.
b.
 chemical reaction.
c.
 evenly distributed mixture of two or more substances.
d.
 combination of two or more liquids.
 22.
If you stir salt into boiling water, you produce a
a.
 mixture called a suspension.
c.
 solution and suspension.
b.
 mixture called a solution.
d.
 mixture only.
 23.
When salt is dissolved in water, water is the
a.
 reactant.
c.
 solute.
b.
 solution.
d.
 solvent.
 24.
While preparing a cell culture, a scientist places a colony of bacteria into distilled water and stirs it up.  This mixture of water and living cells would best be called a(an)
a.
 solution.
b.
 suspension.
c.
 buffer.
d.
 adhesion.
 25.
If the pH of stomach acid and of oven cleaner were measured,
a.
 both would be below 7.
b.
 both would be above 7.
c.
 the pH of stomach acid would be above 7, but the pH of oven cleaner would be below 7.
d.
 the pH of stomach acid would be below 7, but the pH of oven cleaner would be above 7.
 26.
A map of eastern North America, showing the pH of rainfall in the various states, indicates that the pH of rain in New York State varies from 4.22 to 4.40. According to these figures, the most acidic rainfall in New York State has a pH of
a.
 4.22.
c.
 4.35.
b.
 4.30.
d.
 4.40.
 27.
A substance with a pH of 6 is called
a.
 an acid.
c.
 both an acid and a base.
b.
 a base.
d.
 neither an acid nor a base.
 28.
Solutions that contain concentrations of H+ ions lower than pure water
a.
 have pH values below 7.
c.
 are bases.
b.
 are acids.
d.
 are enzymes.
 29.
Amino acid is to protein as
a.
 fat is to lipid.
c.
 sugar is to fat.
b.
 DNA is to RNA.
d.
 simple sugar is to starch.
 30.
A monosaccharide is a
a.
 carbohydrate.
c.
 nucleic acid.
b.
 lipid.
d.
 protein.
 31.
Which of the following is NOT a monomer?
a.
 a glucose molecule
c.
 a nucleotide
b.
 an amino acid
d.
 a protein
 32.
Which of the following is NOT a function of proteins?
a.
 store and transmit genetic information
b.
 help to fight disease
c.
 control the rate of reactions and regulate cell processes
d.
 build tissues such as bone and muscle
 33.
Which statement is true?
a.
 Simple sugars are made of polysaccharides.
b.
 Glycerol is made of fatty acids.
c.
 RNA molecules are made of nucleotides.
d.
 Amino acids are made of proteins.
 34.
In chemical reactions, atoms are
a.
 created.
c.
 rearranged.
b.
 destroyed.
d.
 neutralized.
 35.
When hydrogen and oxygen combine to form water, water is
a.
 a product.
c.
 both a product and a reactant.
b.
 a reactant.
d.
 neither a product nor a reactant.
 36.
Identify the reactant(s) in the chemical reaction, CO2 + H2O ® H2CO3.
a.
 CO2, H2O, and H2CO3
c.
 H2CO3
b.
 CO2 and H2O
d.
 CO2
 37.
What is the process that changes one set of chemicals into another set of chemicals?
a.
 cohesion
c.
 chemical reaction
b.
 adhesion
d.
 dissolving
 38.
What is the term used to describe the energy needed to get a reaction started?
a.
 adhesion energy
c.
 cohesion energy
b.
 activation energy
d.
 chemical energy
 39.
Chemical reactions that release energy
a.
 will not occur.
c.
 will always explode.
b.
 will never explode.
d.
 often occur spontaneously.
 40.
If a reaction in one direction releases energy, the reaction in the opposite direction
a.
 also releases energy.
c.
 destroys energy.
b.
 absorbs energy.
d.
 cannot occur.
 41.
Which of the following is a form of energy that may be released during a chemical reaction?
a.
 heat
c.
 light
b.
 sound
d.
 all of the above
 42.
Which of the following statements about enzymes is NOT true?
a.
 Enzymes work best at a specified pH.
b.
 All enzymes have the same shape as their substrates.
c.
 Enzymes are proteins.
d.
 The shape of an enzyme allows it to do its job.
 43.
Which of the following statements is true about catalysts?
a.
 Catalysts slow down the rate of chemical reactions.
b.
 All catalysts are enzymes.
c.
 Catalysts are used up during a chemical reaction.
d.
 Catalysts lower the activation energy of a chemical reaction.
 44.
A substance that accelerates the rate of a chemical reaction is called a(an)
a.
 catalyst.
c.
 molecule.
b.
 lipid.
d.
 element.
 45.
Enzymes affect the reactions in living cells by changing the
a.
 products of the reaction.
c.
 temperature of the reaction.
b.
 speed of the reaction.
d.
 pH of the reaction.
 

Short Answer
 46.
Why are atoms considered neutral?
 47.
What is a molecule?
 

Other

USING SCIENCE SKILLS

 

pH Values of Some Common Substances
Substance pH
Hydrochloric acid
1.0
Sulfuric acid
1.2
Tomatoes
4.2
Rainwater
6.2
Pure water
7.0
Sea water
8.5
Ammonium chloride
11.1
Sodium hydroxide
13.0

Figure 2–2
 48.
Applying Concepts What is the strongest acid listed in Figure 2–2?
 49.
Applying Concepts What is the pH of the strongest base listed in Figure 2–2?
 50.
Applying Concepts Using your knowledge of the pH scale, which of the chemicals in Figure 2-2 has the lowest concentration of H+ ions?

 
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Genetics

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Genetics
 

Modified True/False
Indicate whether the statement is true or false.  If false, change the identified word or phrase to make the statement true.
 1.
Mendel discovered predictable patterns in the inheritance of traits. _________________________
 2.
Garden peas are difficult to grow because they mature slowly. _________________________
 3.
When Mendel cross-pollinated two varieties from the P generation that exhibited contrasting traits, he called the offspring the second filial, or F2, generation. _________________________
 4.
The contrasting forms of each character studied by Mendel appeared in a 3:1 ratio in the F2 generation. _________________________
 5.
A dominant allele masks the effect of a recessive allele. _________________________
 6.
The allele for a recessive trait is usually represented by a capital letter. _________________________
 7.
Heterozygous individuals have two of the same alleles for a particular gene. _________________________
 8.
The inheritance of sex-linked traits can be studied by making a pedigree of several generations of a family. _________________________
nar001-1.jpg
 9.
Refer to the illustration above. The father listed in the pedigree is most likely heterozygous for the trait. _________________________
 10.
Refer to the illustration above. Child #3 probably has the dominant phenotype. _________________________
 11.
Albinism is caused by a recessive allele. _________________________
 12.
The phenotype that results from an inherited pair of alleles depends on the instructions in the genes only. _________________________
 13.
Traits for different characters that are usually inherited together are said to be combined. _________________________
 

Multiple Choice
Identify the choice that best completes the statement or answers the question.
 14.
The passing of traits from parents to offspring is called
a.
 genetics.
c.
 development.
b.
 heredity.
d.
 maturation.
 15.
The difference between Mendel’s experiments in the area of heredity and those done by earlier researchers was that
a.
 earlier researchers did not have microscopes.
b.
 earlier researchers used detailed and numerical procedures.
c.
 Mendel expressed the results of his experiments in terms of numbers.
d.
 Mendel used pea plants with both purple and white flowers.
 16.
The scientific study of heredity is called
a.
 meiosis.
c.
 genetics.
b.
 crossing-over.
d.
 pollination.
 17.
The “father” of genetics was
a.
 A. Knight.
c.
 Gregor Mendel.
b.
 Hans Krebs.
d.
 Charles Darwin.
 18.
Garden peas are good subjects for studying heredity because they
a.
 are difficult to grow.
c.
 produce few offspring.
b.
 mature quickly.
d.
 have few traits.
 19.
Mendel obtained his P generation by allowing the plants to
a.
 self-pollinate.
c.
 assort independently.
b.
 cross-pollinate.
d.
 segregate.
 20.
Step 1 of Mendel’s garden pea experiment, allowing each variety of garden pea to self-pollinate for several generations, produced the
a.
 F1 generation.
c.
 P generation.
b.
 F2 generation.
d.
 P1 generation.
 21.
F2 : F1 ::
a.
 P : F1
c.
 F1 : P
b.
 F1 : F2
d.
 P : F2
 22.
An allele that is always expressed whenever it is present is called
a.
 dominant.
c.
 recessive.
b.
 phenotypic.
d.
 superior.
 23.
The discovery of chromosomes provided a link between the first law of heredity that stemmed from Mendel’s work and
a.
 pollination.
c.
 mitosis.
b.
 inheritance.
d.
 meiosis.
 24.
The law of segregation states that
a.
 alleles of a gene separate from each other during meiosis.
b.
 different alleles of a gene can never be found in the same organism.
c.
 each gene of an organism ends up in a different gamete.
d.
 each gene is found on a different molecule of DNA.
 25.
Mendel’s law of segregation states that
a.
 pairs of alleles are dependent on one another when separation occurs during gamete formation.
b.
 pairs of alleles separate independently of one another after gamete formation.
c.
 each pair of alleles remains together when gametes are formed.
d.
 the two alleles for a trait segregate independently when gametes are formed.
 26.
The phenotype of an organism
a.
 is used to represent its genetic composition.
b.
 is the physical appearance of a trait.
c.
 occurs only in dominant individuals.
d.
 cannot be seen.
 27.
If an individual possesses two recessive alleles for the same trait, the individual is said to be
a.
 homozygous for the trait.
c.
 heterozygous for the trait.
b.
 haploid for the trait.
d.
 mutated.
 28.
When an individual heterozygous for a trait is crossed with an individual homozygous recessive for the trait, the offspring produced will
a.
 all have the same genotype.
b.
 show two different phenotypes.
c.
 show three different phenotypes.
d.
 all have the same phenotype.
 29.
Tallness (T) is dominant to shortness (t) in pea plants. Which of the following represents a genotype of a pea plant that is heterozygous for tallness?
a.
 T
c.
 Tt
b.
 TT
d.
 tt
 30.
homozygous : heterozygous ::
a.
 heterozygous : Bb
c.
 probability : chance
b.
 gg : Gg
d.
 factor : gene
 31.
Mendel’s finding that the inheritance of one trait had no effect on the inheritance of another became known as the
a.
 law of dominance.
b.
 law of universal inheritance.
c.
 law of separate convenience.
d.
 law of independent assortment.

In humans, having freckles (F) is dominant to not having freckles (f). The inheritance of these traits can be studied using a Punnett square similar to the one shown below.

nar002-1.jpg
 32.
Refer to the illustration above. The child represented in box 1 in the Punnett square would
a.
 be homozygous for freckles.
b.
 have an extra freckles chromosome.
c.
 be heterozygous for freckles.
d.
 not have freckles.
 33.
Refer to the illustration above. The parents shown in the Punnett square could have children with a phenotype ratio of
a.
 1:2:1.
c.
 3:1.
b.
 4:0.
d.
 2:2.
 34.
Refer to the illustration above. Which box in the Punnett square represents a child who does not have freckles?
a.
 box 1
c.
 box 3
b.
 box 2
d.
 box 4
 35.
Refer to the illustration above. The child in box 3 of the Punnett square has the genotype
a.
 FF.
c.
 ff.
b.
 Ff.
d.
 FfFf.

In rabbits, black fur (B) is dominant to brown fur (b). Consider the following cross between two rabbits.

nar003-1.jpg
 36.
Refer to the illustration above. The device shown, which is used to determine the probable outcome of genetic crosses, is called a
a.
 Mendelian box.
c.
 genetic graph.
b.
 Punnett square.
d.
 phenotypic paradox.
 37.
Refer to the illustration above. Both of the parents in the cross are
a.
 black.
c.
 homozygous dominant.
b.
 brown.
d.
 homozygous recessive.
 38.
Refer to the illustration above. The phenotype of the offspring indicated by box 3 would be
a.
 brown.
c.
 a mixture of brown and black.
b.
 black.
d.
 white.
 39.
Refer to the illustration above. The genotypic ratio of the F1 generation would be
a.
 1:1.
c.
 1:3.
b.
 3:1.
d.
 1:2:1.
 40.
What is the expected genotypic ratio resulting from a homozygous dominant ´ heterozygous monohybrid cross?
a.
 1:0
c.
 1:2:1
b.
 1:1
d.
 1:3:1
 41.
What is the expected genotypic ratio resulting from a heterozygous ´ heterozygous monohybrid cross?
a.
 1:2:1
c.
 1:2
b.
 1:3:1
d.
 1:0
 42.
What is the expected phenotypic ratio resulting from a homozygous dominant ´ heterozygous monohybrid cross?
a.
 1:3:1
c.
 2:1
b.
 1:2:1
d.
 1:0
 43.
The unknown genotype of an individual with a dominant phenotype can be determined using a
a.
 ratio.
c.
 probability formula.
b.
 dihybrid cross.
d.
 test cross.
 44.
What is the probability that the offspring of a homozygous dominant individual and a homozygous recessive individual will exhibit the dominant phenotype?
a.
 0.25
c.
 0.66
b.
 0.5
d.
 1.0
 45.
Probability is calculated by dividing the number of one kind of possible outcome by the
a.
 number of other kinds of outcomes.
b.
 total number of all possible outcomes.
c.
 number of genes being considered.
d.
 total number of offspring produced.
 46.
If a characteristic is sex-linked, the gene for it is found on
a.
 a sex chromosome.
c.
 a linked chromosome.
b.
 an autosome.
d.
 an allele.
 47.
Since the allele for colorblindness is located on the X chromosome, colorblindness
a.
 cannot be inherited.
c.
 is sex-linked.
b.
 occurs only in adults.
d.
 occurs only in females.
 48.
A diagram in which several generations of a family and the occurrence of certain genetic characteristics are shown is called a
a.
 Punnett square.
c.
 pedigree.
b.
 monohybrid cross.
d.
 family karyotype.
 49.
In humans, eye color and height are controlled by
a.
 simple dominance.
c.
 polygenic inheritance.
b.
 multiple alleles.
d.
 incomplete dominance.
 50.
Which of the following traits is controlled by multiple alleles in humans?
a.
 eye color
c.
 colorblindness
b.
 blood type
d.
 albinism
 51.
What would be the blood type of a person who inherited an A allele from one parent and an O allele from the other?
a.
 type A
c.
 type AB
b.
 type B
d.
 type O
 52.
Which of the following is not an outcome of the environment modifying a phenotype?
a.
 the changing of the color of an animal’s fur as the temperature changes
b.
 the increased intelligence of a person who attended school for many years
c.
 the very short stature of a kind of tree that grows at a high altitude in comparison with the same kind of tree growing at a lower altitude
d.
 the pink-flowered snapdragons that result from crosses between red-flowered and white-flowered snapdragon plants
 53.
Genes that are close together on a single chromosome are considered to be
a.
 alleles.
c.
 independent.
b.
 homozygous.
d.
 linked.

 
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Nucleic Acids

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Nucleic Acids

 

 

Modified True/False
Indicate whether the statement is true or false.  If false, change the identified word or phrase to make the statement true.
 1.
It has been discovered that the genetic material is protein. _________________________
 2.
Hershey and Chase were the first two scientists to prove that genetic material is composed of proteins. _________________________
 3.
The five-carbon sugar in DNA nucleotides is called ribose. _________________________
 4.
After years of research, the structure of the DNA molecule is now known to be a double helix. _________________________
 5.
Franklin’s X-ray diffraction images suggested that the DNA molecule resembled a tightly coiled spring, a shape called a helix. _________________________
 6.
In all living things, DNA replication must occur after cell division. _________________________
 7.
Before a DNA molecule can replicate itself, it must coil up. _________________________
 8.
Helicases unwind the double helix of DNA by breaking the nitrogen bonds that link the base pairs. _________________________
 9.
Errors in nucleotide sequence that occur during replication cannot be corrected. _________________________
 10.
RNA molecules contain the five-carbon sugar ribose. _________________________
 11.
During transcription, the information on a DNA molecule is “rewritten” into an mRNA molecule. _________________________
 12.
When a tRNA anticodon binds to an mRNA codon, the amino acid detaches from the tRNA molecule and bonds to the end of a growing protein chain. _________________________
 

Multiple Choice
Identify the choice that best completes the statement or answers the question.
 13.
Griffith’s transformation experiments
a.
 changed proteins into DNA.
b.
 caused harmless bacteria to become deadly.
c.
 resulted in DNA molecules becoming proteins.
d.
 were designed to show the effect of heat on bacteria.
 14.
Griffith’s experiments showed that
a.
 dead bacteria could be brought back to life.
b.
 harmful bacteria were hardier than harmless bacteria.
c.
 heat caused the harmful and harmless varieties of bacteria to fuse.
d.
 genetic material could be transferred between dead bacteria and living bacteria.
 15.
Avery’s experiments showed that transformation
a.
 is prevented by protein-destroying enzymes.
b.
 is prevented by DNA-destroying enzymes.
c.
 causes protein to become DNA.
d.
 is caused by a protein.
 16.
Avery and his research team concluded that
a.
 RNA was the genetic material.
b.
 protein bases were the genetic material.
c.
 DNA and RNA were found in the human nucleus.
d.
 DNA was responsible for transformation.
 17.
Using radioactive tracers to determine the interactions of bacteriophages and their host bacteria, Hershey and Chase demonstrated without question that
a.
 genes are composed of protein molecules.
b.
 DNA and proteins are actually the same molecules located in different parts of cells.
c.
 bacteria inject their DNA into the cytoplasm of bacteriophages.
d.
 DNA is the molecule that stores genetic information in cells.
 18.
All of the following are true of the viruses Hershey and Chase used in their study except
a.
 they consisted of DNA surrounded by a protein coat.
b.
 they injected their DNA into cells.
c.
 they destroyed the DNA of the infected bacteria.
d.
 they caused infected bacteria to make many new viruses.
 19.
The scientist who worked with Martha Chase to prove that genetic material is composed of DNA was
a.
 Alfred Hershey.
c.
 Francis Crick.
b.
 Oswald Avery.
d.
 Rosalind Franklin.
 20.
Molecules of DNA are composed of long chains of
a.
 amino acids.
c.
 monosaccharides.
b.
 fatty acids.
d.
 nucleotides.
 21.
Which of the following is not part of a molecule of DNA?
a.
 deoxyribose
c.
 phosphate
b.
 nitrogen base
d.
 ribose
 22.
A nucleotide consists of
a.
 a sugar, a protein, and adenine.
b.
 a sugar, an amino acid, and starch.
c.
 a sugar, a phosphate group, and a nitrogen base.
d.
 a starch, a phosphate group, and a nitrogen base.
 23.
The part of the molecule for which DNA is named is the
a.
 phosphate group.
c.
 nitrogen base.
b.
 sugar.
d.
 hydrogen bonds.
 24.
Purines and pyrimidines are
a.
 nitrogen bases found in amino acids.
b.
 able to replace phosphate groups from defective DNA.
c.
 names of specific types of DNA molecules.
d.
 classification groups of nitrogen bases.
 25.
Of the four nitrogen bases in DNA, which two are purines and which two are pyrimidines?
a.
 purines: adenine, thymine; pyrimidines: uracil, cytosine
b.
 purines: adenine, thymine; pyrimidines: guanine, cytosine
c.
 purines: adenine, guanine; pyrimidines: thymine, cytosine
d.
 purines: uracil, thymine; pyrimidines: guanine, cytosine
 26.
The amount of guanine in an organism always equals the amount of
a.
 protein.
c.
 adenine.
b.
 thymine.
d.
 cytosine.
 27.
adenine : thymine ::
a.
 protein : DNA
c.
 guanine : cytosine
b.
 Watson : Crick
d.
 guanine : thymine
 28.
Watson and Crick built models that demonstrated that
a.
 DNA and RNA have the same structure.
b.
 DNA is made of two strands that twist into a double helix.
c.
 guanine forms hydrogen bonds with adenine.
d.
 thymine forms hydrogen bonds with cytosine.
 29.
The scientists credited with establishing the structure of DNA are
a.
 Avery and Chargaff.
c.
 Mendel and Griffith.
b.
 Hershey and Chase.
d.
 Watson and Crick.
 30.
X-ray diffraction photographs by Wilkins and Franklin suggested that
a.
 DNA and RNA are the same molecules.
b.
 DNA is composed of either purines or pyrimidines, but not both.
c.
 DNA molecules are arranged as a tightly coiled helix.
d.
 DNA and proteins have the same basic structure.
 31.
During DNA replication, a complementary strand of DNA is made from each original DNA strand. Thus, if a portion of the original strand is CCTAGCT, then the new strand will be
a.
 TTGCATG.
c.
 CCTAGCT.
b.
 AAGTATC.
d.
 GGATCGA.
 32.
Which of the following is not true about DNA replication?
a.
 It must occur before a cell can divide.
b.
 Two complementary strands are duplicated.
c.
 The double strand unwinds and unzips while it is being duplicated.
d.
 The new DNA molecule has two newly-made strands.
 33.
The attachment of nucleotides to form a complementary strand of DNA during replication
a.
 is accomplished by DNA polymerase.
b.
 is accomplished only in the presence of tRNA.
c.
 prevents separation of complementary strands of RNA.
d.
 is the responsibility of the proofreading enzymes.
 34.
The enzymes responsible for adding nucleotides to the exposed DNA bases during replication are
a.
 replicases.
c.
 helicases.
b.
 DNA polymerases.
d.
 template enzymes.
 35.
The enzymes that unwind DNA during replication are called
a.
 double helixes.
c.
 forks.
b.
 DNA helicases.
d.
 phages.
 36.
All of the following are true about DNA replication in prokaryotic cells except
a.
 replication begins at many sites along the DNA.
b.
 replication begins at one site along the DNA loop.
c.
 replication occurs in two opposite directions.
d.
 there are two replication forks.
 37.
Transcription, which is a stage of gene expression, is the process by which genetic information encoded in DNA is transferred to a(n)
a.
 RNA molecule.
c.
 uracil molecule.
b.
 DNA molecule.
d.
 tRNA molecule.
 38.
RNA differs from DNA in that RNA
a.
 is double-stranded.
c.
 contains the nitrogen base uracil.
b.
 contains deoxyribose.
d.
 does not contain adenine.
 39.
RNA is chemically similar to DNA except that the sugar in RNA has an additional
a.
 oxygen atom.
c.
 nitrogen base.
b.
 phosphate group.
d.
 carbon atom.
 40.
In RNA molecules, adenine is complementary to
a.
 cytosine.
c.
 thymine.
b.
 guanine.
d.
 uracil.
 41.
Each of the following is a type of RNA except
a.
 carrier RNA.
c.
 ribosomal RNA.
b.
 messenger RNA.
d.
 transfer RNA.
 42.
During transcription,
a.
 proteins are synthesized.
c.
 RNA is produced.
b.
 DNA is replicated.
d.
 translation occurs.
 43.
During transcription, the genetic information for making a protein is “rewritten” as a molecule of
a.
 messenger RNA.
c.
 transfer RNA.
b.
 ribosomal RNA.
d.
 translation RNA.
 44.
Transcription begins when RNA polymerase
a.
 attaches to a ribosome.
b.
 unwinds a strand of DNA.
c.
 binds to a strand of RNA.
d.
 attaches to the promoter sequence of a gene.
mRNA: CUCAAGUGCUUC

nar001-1.jpg
 45.
Refer to the illustration above. What is the portion of the protein molecule coded for by a piece of mRNA with the sequence CUCAAGUGCUUC?
a.
 Ser—Tyr—Arg—Gly
c.
 Leu—Lys—Cys—Phe
b.
 Val—Asp—Pro—His
d.
 Pro—Glu—Leu—Val
 46.
Refer to the illustration above. The anticodons for the codons in the mRNA with the sequence CUCAAGUGCUUC are
a.
 GAG—UUC—ACG—AAG.
c.
 CUC—GAA—CGU—CUU.
b.
 GAG—TTC—ACG—AAG.
d.
 CUU—CGU—GAA—CUC.
 47.
Refer to the illustration above. Which of the following would represent the strand of DNA from which the mRNA strand CUCAAGUGCUUC was made?
a.
 CUCAAGUGCUUC
c.
 GAGTTCACGAAG
b.
 GAGUUCACGAAG
d.
 AGACCTGTAGGA
mRNA codons amino acid
UAU, UAC tyrosine
CCU, CCC, CCA, CCG proline
GAU, GAC aspartic acid
AUU, AUC, AUA isoleucine
UGU, UGC cysteine
 48.
Refer to the illustration above. Suppose that you are given a protein containing the following sequence of amino acids: tyrosine, proline, aspartic acid, isoleucine, and cysteine. Use the portion of the genetic code given to determine which of the following contains a DNA sequence that codes for this amino acid sequence.
a.
 AUGGGUCUAUAUACG
c.
 GCAAACTCGCGCGTA
b.
 ATGGGTCTATATACG
d.
 ATAGGGCTTTAAACA
 49.
The function of rRNA is to
a.
 synthesize DNA.
c.
 form ribosomes.
b.
 synthesize mRNA.
d.
 transfer amino acids to ribosomes.
 50.
At the very beginning of translation, the first tRNA molecule
a.
 binds to the mRNA’s anticodon.
b.
 attaches directly to the DNA codon.
c.
 connects an amino acid to its anticodon.
d.
 binds to the mRNA’s start codon.
 51.
Transfer RNA
a.
 carries an amino acid to its correct codon.
b.
 synthesizes amino acids as they are needed.
c.
 produces codons to match the correct anticodons.
d.
 converts DNA into mRNA.
 52.
Which of the following does not affect the final outcome of gene expression?
a.
 the environment of the cells
b.
 the number of amino acids in the protein being produced
c.
 the presence of other cells
d.
 the timing of gene expression
 

Completion
Complete each statement.
 53.
Griffith’s experiment showed that live bacteria without capsules acquired the ability to make capsules from dead bacteria with capsules in a process Griffith called ____________________.
 54.
Avery’s prevention of transformation using DNA-destroying enzymes provided evidence that ____________________ molecules function as the hereditary material.
 55.
A DNA subunit composed of a phosphate group, a five-carbon sugar, and a nitrogen-containing base is called a(n) ____________________.
 56.
The name of the five-carbon sugar that makes up a part of the backbone of molecules of DNA is ____________________.
 57.
Due to the strict pairing of nitrogen bases in DNA molecules, the two strands are said to be ____________________ to each other.
 58.
Watson and Crick determined that DNA molecules have the shape of a(n) ____________________ ____________________.
 59.
Chargaff’s observations established the ____________________ rules, which describe the specific pairing between bases on DNA strands.
 60.
Watson and Crick used the X-ray diffraction photographs of ____________________ and ____________________ to build their model of DNA.
 61.
The process by which DNA copies itself is called ____________________.
 62.
Enzymes called ____________________ are responsible for unwinding the DNA double helix by breaking the hydrogen bonds that hold the complementary strands together.
 63.
Errors in nucleotide sequencing are corrected by enzymes called ____________________.
 64.
Transcription and translation are stages in the process of ____________________.
 65.
The second stage of gene expression is called ____________________.
 66.
The nitrogen-containing base that is found only in RNA is ____________________.
 67.
The enzyme responsible for making mRNA is called ____________________.
 68.
Messenger RNA is produced during the process of ____________________.
 69.
The sequence of three nucleotides that code for specific amino acids or stop signals in the synthesis of protein is called a(n) ____________________.
 70.
During translation, amino acids are brought to the ribosomes by molecules of ____________________.
 71.
Nucleotide sequences of tRNA that are complementary to codons on mRNA are called ____________________.
 72.
The information contained in a molecule of messenger RNA is used to make protein during the process of ____________________.

 
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Moss & Fern Quiz

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Name: 

Moss and Fern

 

 

True/False
Indicate whether the sentence or statement is true or false.
1.
Land plants have a complex life cycle that involves an alternation of generations between a haploid gametophyte and a diploid sporophyte.
2.
The sporophyte of a nonvascular plant is larger and lives longer than the gametophyte.
3.
The life cycle of nonvascular plants involves alternation of generations.
4.
Mosses, liverworts, and hornworts all are generally found in moist habitats.
5.
Nonvascular plants have true leaves but lack true stems and roots.
6.
Mosses and ferns no longer require the presence of a film of water for reproduction.
7.
Ferns need water to reproduce because their sperm must swim to eggs.
8.
Mosses are called pioneer plants because they can promote the development of new communities in barren areas that have been burned or destroyed by humans.
9.
Sphagnum moss is used in potting and gardening soils because of its ability to encourage water drainage.
 

Multiple Choice
Identify the letter of the choice that best completes the statement or answers the question.
10.
The ancestors of today’s land plants were probably
a.
brown algae.
c.
green algae.
b.
red algae.
d.
lichens.
11.
The challenges faced by early land plants included
a.
conserving water.
b.
reproducing on land.
c.
absorbing minerals from the rocky surface.
d.
All of the above
12.
The diploid form in a plant’s life cycle is called the
a.
sporophyte.
c.
parental generation.
b.
gametophyte.
d.
alternate generation.
13.
The haploid form in a plant’s life cycle is called the
a.
sporophyte.
c.
parental generation.
b.
gametophyte.
d.
alternate generation.
14.
Which of the following is not a bryophyte?
a.
moss
c.
hornwort
b.
liverwort
d.
fern
15.
Which of the following is not characteristic of all nonvascular plants?
a.
They produce seeds.
b.
They have an alternation of generations lifestyle.
c.
They produce spores.
d.
They require water for sexual reproduction.
16.
The water-retaining ability of sphagnum moss makes it ideal for
a.
using in garden-soil mixes.
b.
use in packing bulbs and flowers for shipping.
c.
use in houseplant soils.
d.
All of the above
17.
Similarities shared by monocots and primitive dicots suggest that
a.
monocots and dicots evolved independently.
b.
monocots were on Earth long before dicots.
c.
monocots evolved from dicots.
d.
dicots evolved from monocots.

 
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