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Quiz Protein Synthesis

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Protein Synthesis

 

 

Completion
Complete each sentence or statement.
1.
In eukaryotes, gene expression is related to the coiling and uncoiling of ____________________.
2.
A DNA subunit composed of a phosphate group, a five-carbon sugar, and a nitrogen-containing base is called a(n) ____________________.
3.
The name of the five-carbon sugar that makes up a part of the backbone of molecules of DNA is ____________________.
4.
Knowing the order of the bases in a gene permits scientists to determine the exact order of the amino acids in the expressed ____________________.
5.
Due to the strict pairing of nitrogen base pairs in DNA molecules, the two strands are said to be ____________________ to each other.
6.
According to base-pairing rules, adenine pairs with ____________________ and guanine pairs with ____________________.
7.
The enzyme that is responsible for replicating molecules of DNA by attaching complementary bases in the correct sequence is ____________________.
8.
Enzymes called ____________________ are responsible for unwinding the DNA double helix by breaking the hydrogen bonds that hold the complementary strands together.
9.
The process by which DNA copies itself is called ____________________.
10.
Molecules of ____________________ carry instructions for protein synthesis from the nucleus to the cytoplasm.
11.
The nitrogen-containing base that is found only in RNA is ____________________.
12.
The enzyme responsible for making RNA is called ____________________.
13.
The form of ribonucleic acid that carries genetic information from the DNA to the ribosomes is ____________________.
14.
A ____________________ is a sequence of DNA at the beginning of a gene that signals RNA polymerase to begin transcription.
15.
Messenger RNA is produced during the process of ____________________.
16.
Of the 64 codons of mRNA, 61 code for ____________________, 3 are ____________________ signals, and one is a ____________________ signal.
17.
Nucleotide sequences of tRNA that are complementary to codons on mRNA are called ____________________.
18.
The sequence of three nucleotides that code for specific amino acids or stop signals in the synthesis of protein is called a(n) ____________________.
19.
The information contained in a molecule of messenger RNA is used to make protein during the process of ____________________.
20.
During translation, amino acids are brought to the ribosomes by molecules of ____________________.

 
Check Your Work     Reset

Safety quiz

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Safety Quiz

 

 Check your knowledge of lab safety! 

1. When you find an unlabeled bottle of chemical in the lab, you should:

Smell it to see what it is
Ask your teacher
Waft the chemical
Pour it down the drain

2. If you break a beaker in the lab, the first thing you should do is:

Tell your teacher
Clean up the glass
Put the broken glass in a separate container labeled broken glass
Carefully use your hands to pick up the largest pieces

3. When you complete your lab work, which of the following should you not do:

Clean & return materials to the lab cart
Try your own experiment
Turn in all lab work to your teacher
Return to your own seat

4. Which of the following procedures is not correct:

Add acid to water
Pipette by mouth
Keep flammables away from open flames
Never used chipped glass

5. What is the most important thing to do before starting a lab:

Put on goggles
Put on your lab apron
Pick up your materials from the lab cart
Read the entire lab

6. When heating liquids in test tubes:

Always tightly cork the test tube
hold the test tube pointing upward
Hold test tubes at a slant pointed away from everyone
None of the above

7. Which of the following is true about heating glass:

Only use glassware marked Kimex
Only use glassware marked Pyrex
Both A & B are correct
Always ask the teacher if the container can be heated

8. Which of the following is correct lab procedure:

Place heated glassware on countertops away from the edge
Hold dissecting specimens tightly with your hand when cutting with a scalpel
Wear gloves when dissecting & dispensing irritating chemicals
Pour excess chemical back into its original container

9. Which of the following statements is correct:

Never use cracked glassware
Wash hands before & after dissecting
Treat all chemicals as poisonous
All of the above

10. When inserting glass tubing into stoppers:

Use glycerin & a twisting motion
Hold the stopper tightly as you push the glass tubing into it
Insert the tubing into the stopper under water
Always ask your teacher to insert the glass tubing for you

 

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Genetics

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Genetics
 

Modified True/False
Indicate whether the statement is true or false.  If false, change the identified word or phrase to make the statement true.
 1.
Mendel discovered predictable patterns in the inheritance of traits. _________________________
 2.
Garden peas are difficult to grow because they mature slowly. _________________________
 3.
When Mendel cross-pollinated two varieties from the P generation that exhibited contrasting traits, he called the offspring the second filial, or F2, generation. _________________________
 4.
The contrasting forms of each character studied by Mendel appeared in a 3:1 ratio in the F2 generation. _________________________
 5.
A dominant allele masks the effect of a recessive allele. _________________________
 6.
The allele for a recessive trait is usually represented by a capital letter. _________________________
 7.
Heterozygous individuals have two of the same alleles for a particular gene. _________________________
 8.
The inheritance of sex-linked traits can be studied by making a pedigree of several generations of a family. _________________________
nar001-1.jpg
 9.
Refer to the illustration above. The father listed in the pedigree is most likely heterozygous for the trait. _________________________
 10.
Refer to the illustration above. Child #3 probably has the dominant phenotype. _________________________
 11.
Albinism is caused by a recessive allele. _________________________
 12.
The phenotype that results from an inherited pair of alleles depends on the instructions in the genes only. _________________________
 13.
Traits for different characters that are usually inherited together are said to be combined. _________________________
 

Multiple Choice
Identify the choice that best completes the statement or answers the question.
 14.
The passing of traits from parents to offspring is called
a.
 genetics.
c.
 development.
b.
 heredity.
d.
 maturation.
 15.
The difference between Mendel’s experiments in the area of heredity and those done by earlier researchers was that
a.
 earlier researchers did not have microscopes.
b.
 earlier researchers used detailed and numerical procedures.
c.
 Mendel expressed the results of his experiments in terms of numbers.
d.
 Mendel used pea plants with both purple and white flowers.
 16.
The scientific study of heredity is called
a.
 meiosis.
c.
 genetics.
b.
 crossing-over.
d.
 pollination.
 17.
The “father” of genetics was
a.
 A. Knight.
c.
 Gregor Mendel.
b.
 Hans Krebs.
d.
 Charles Darwin.
 18.
Garden peas are good subjects for studying heredity because they
a.
 are difficult to grow.
c.
 produce few offspring.
b.
 mature quickly.
d.
 have few traits.
 19.
Mendel obtained his P generation by allowing the plants to
a.
 self-pollinate.
c.
 assort independently.
b.
 cross-pollinate.
d.
 segregate.
 20.
Step 1 of Mendel’s garden pea experiment, allowing each variety of garden pea to self-pollinate for several generations, produced the
a.
 F1 generation.
c.
 P generation.
b.
 F2 generation.
d.
 P1 generation.
 21.
F2 : F1 ::
a.
 P : F1
c.
 F1 : P
b.
 F1 : F2
d.
 P : F2
 22.
An allele that is always expressed whenever it is present is called
a.
 dominant.
c.
 recessive.
b.
 phenotypic.
d.
 superior.
 23.
The discovery of chromosomes provided a link between the first law of heredity that stemmed from Mendel’s work and
a.
 pollination.
c.
 mitosis.
b.
 inheritance.
d.
 meiosis.
 24.
The law of segregation states that
a.
 alleles of a gene separate from each other during meiosis.
b.
 different alleles of a gene can never be found in the same organism.
c.
 each gene of an organism ends up in a different gamete.
d.
 each gene is found on a different molecule of DNA.
 25.
Mendel’s law of segregation states that
a.
 pairs of alleles are dependent on one another when separation occurs during gamete formation.
b.
 pairs of alleles separate independently of one another after gamete formation.
c.
 each pair of alleles remains together when gametes are formed.
d.
 the two alleles for a trait segregate independently when gametes are formed.
 26.
The phenotype of an organism
a.
 is used to represent its genetic composition.
b.
 is the physical appearance of a trait.
c.
 occurs only in dominant individuals.
d.
 cannot be seen.
 27.
If an individual possesses two recessive alleles for the same trait, the individual is said to be
a.
 homozygous for the trait.
c.
 heterozygous for the trait.
b.
 haploid for the trait.
d.
 mutated.
 28.
When an individual heterozygous for a trait is crossed with an individual homozygous recessive for the trait, the offspring produced will
a.
 all have the same genotype.
b.
 show two different phenotypes.
c.
 show three different phenotypes.
d.
 all have the same phenotype.
 29.
Tallness (T) is dominant to shortness (t) in pea plants. Which of the following represents a genotype of a pea plant that is heterozygous for tallness?
a.
 T
c.
 Tt
b.
 TT
d.
 tt
 30.
homozygous : heterozygous ::
a.
 heterozygous : Bb
c.
 probability : chance
b.
 gg : Gg
d.
 factor : gene
 31.
Mendel’s finding that the inheritance of one trait had no effect on the inheritance of another became known as the
a.
 law of dominance.
b.
 law of universal inheritance.
c.
 law of separate convenience.
d.
 law of independent assortment.

In humans, having freckles (F) is dominant to not having freckles (f). The inheritance of these traits can be studied using a Punnett square similar to the one shown below.

nar002-1.jpg
 32.
Refer to the illustration above. The child represented in box 1 in the Punnett square would
a.
 be homozygous for freckles.
b.
 have an extra freckles chromosome.
c.
 be heterozygous for freckles.
d.
 not have freckles.
 33.
Refer to the illustration above. The parents shown in the Punnett square could have children with a phenotype ratio of
a.
 1:2:1.
c.
 3:1.
b.
 4:0.
d.
 2:2.
 34.
Refer to the illustration above. Which box in the Punnett square represents a child who does not have freckles?
a.
 box 1
c.
 box 3
b.
 box 2
d.
 box 4
 35.
Refer to the illustration above. The child in box 3 of the Punnett square has the genotype
a.
 FF.
c.
 ff.
b.
 Ff.
d.
 FfFf.

In rabbits, black fur (B) is dominant to brown fur (b). Consider the following cross between two rabbits.

nar003-1.jpg
 36.
Refer to the illustration above. The device shown, which is used to determine the probable outcome of genetic crosses, is called a
a.
 Mendelian box.
c.
 genetic graph.
b.
 Punnett square.
d.
 phenotypic paradox.
 37.
Refer to the illustration above. Both of the parents in the cross are
a.
 black.
c.
 homozygous dominant.
b.
 brown.
d.
 homozygous recessive.
 38.
Refer to the illustration above. The phenotype of the offspring indicated by box 3 would be
a.
 brown.
c.
 a mixture of brown and black.
b.
 black.
d.
 white.
 39.
Refer to the illustration above. The genotypic ratio of the F1 generation would be
a.
 1:1.
c.
 1:3.
b.
 3:1.
d.
 1:2:1.
 40.
What is the expected genotypic ratio resulting from a homozygous dominant ´ heterozygous monohybrid cross?
a.
 1:0
c.
 1:2:1
b.
 1:1
d.
 1:3:1
 41.
What is the expected genotypic ratio resulting from a heterozygous ´ heterozygous monohybrid cross?
a.
 1:2:1
c.
 1:2
b.
 1:3:1
d.
 1:0
 42.
What is the expected phenotypic ratio resulting from a homozygous dominant ´ heterozygous monohybrid cross?
a.
 1:3:1
c.
 2:1
b.
 1:2:1
d.
 1:0
 43.
The unknown genotype of an individual with a dominant phenotype can be determined using a
a.
 ratio.
c.
 probability formula.
b.
 dihybrid cross.
d.
 test cross.
 44.
What is the probability that the offspring of a homozygous dominant individual and a homozygous recessive individual will exhibit the dominant phenotype?
a.
 0.25
c.
 0.66
b.
 0.5
d.
 1.0
 45.
Probability is calculated by dividing the number of one kind of possible outcome by the
a.
 number of other kinds of outcomes.
b.
 total number of all possible outcomes.
c.
 number of genes being considered.
d.
 total number of offspring produced.
 46.
If a characteristic is sex-linked, the gene for it is found on
a.
 a sex chromosome.
c.
 a linked chromosome.
b.
 an autosome.
d.
 an allele.
 47.
Since the allele for colorblindness is located on the X chromosome, colorblindness
a.
 cannot be inherited.
c.
 is sex-linked.
b.
 occurs only in adults.
d.
 occurs only in females.
 48.
A diagram in which several generations of a family and the occurrence of certain genetic characteristics are shown is called a
a.
 Punnett square.
c.
 pedigree.
b.
 monohybrid cross.
d.
 family karyotype.
 49.
In humans, eye color and height are controlled by
a.
 simple dominance.
c.
 polygenic inheritance.
b.
 multiple alleles.
d.
 incomplete dominance.
 50.
Which of the following traits is controlled by multiple alleles in humans?
a.
 eye color
c.
 colorblindness
b.
 blood type
d.
 albinism
 51.
What would be the blood type of a person who inherited an A allele from one parent and an O allele from the other?
a.
 type A
c.
 type AB
b.
 type B
d.
 type O
 52.
Which of the following is not an outcome of the environment modifying a phenotype?
a.
 the changing of the color of an animal’s fur as the temperature changes
b.
 the increased intelligence of a person who attended school for many years
c.
 the very short stature of a kind of tree that grows at a high altitude in comparison with the same kind of tree growing at a lower altitude
d.
 the pink-flowered snapdragons that result from crosses between red-flowered and white-flowered snapdragon plants
 53.
Genes that are close together on a single chromosome are considered to be
a.
 alleles.
c.
 independent.
b.
 homozygous.
d.
 linked.

 
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PCC Phylogeny Study Guide

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PCC Phylogeny Study Guide

 

 

Multiple Choice
Identify the choice that best completes the statement or answers the question.
 1.
Biologists use a classification system to group organisms in part because organisms
a.
 are going extinct.
c.
 are too much alike.
b.
 are very numerous and diverse.
d.
 share too many derived characters.
 2.
The study of organisms requires the use of
a.
 only large, general categories of organisms.
b.
 only small, specific categories of organisms.
c.
 both large and small categories of organisms.
d.
 no categories of organisms.
 3.
Scientists assign each type of organism a universally accepted name in the system known as
a.
 traditional classification.
c.
 binomial nomenclature.
b.
 the three domains.
d.
 cladistics.
 4.
For many species, there are often regional differences in their
a.
 common names.
c.
 taxa.
b.
 scientific names.
d.
 binomial nomenclature.
 5.
In taxonomy, a group at any level of organization is referred to as a
a.
 cladogram.
c.
 taxon.
b.
 binomial.
d.
 system.
 6.
Scientists have identified and named
a.
 all living species.
c.
 all extinct species.
b.
 all living and extinct species.
d.
 a fraction of all species.
 7.
In the scientific version of a species name, which of the terms is capitalized?
a.
 the first term only
c.
 both the first and second terms
b.
 the second term only
d.
 neither the first nor the second term
 8.
Based on their names, you know that the baboons Papio annubis and Papio cynocephalus do NOT belong to the same
a.
 class.
c.
 genus.
b.
 family.
d.
 species.
 9.
How do binomial, or two-part, names compare with early versions of scientific names?
a.
 They are longer.
c.
 They are completely descriptive.
b.
 They are shorter.
d.
 They are in English.
 10.
The second part of a scientific name is unique to each
a.
 order in its class.
c.
 genus in its family.
b.
 family in its order.
d.
 species in its genus.
 11.
Often, the second part of a scientific name is
a.
 a Latinized description of a particular trait.
b.
 the same as for other members of the same genus.
c.
 capitalized if it derives from a proper name.
d.
 different in different locations.
 12.
Before Linnaeus, scientific names were problematic because they were
a.
 too brief to be descriptive.
c.
 written only in Greek.
b.
 very long and difficult to standardize.
d.
 written only in Latin.
 13.
In Linnaeus’s system of classification, how many taxonomic categories were there?
a.
 one
c.
 five
b.
 three
d.
 seven
 14.
A genus is composed of a number of related
a.
 kingdoms.
c.
 orders.
b.
 phyla.
d.
 species.
 15.
Several different classes make up a
a.
 kingdom.
c.
 family.
b.
 phylum.
d.
 genus.
 16.
Which two kingdoms did Linnaeus recognize?
a.
 bacteria and animals
c.
 plants and animals
b.
 plants and fungi
d.
 protists and animals
 17.
Animals that are warm-blooded, have body hair, and produce milk for their young are grouped in the class
a.
 Amphibia.
c.
 Aves.
b.
 Mammalia.
d.
 Reptilia.
 18.
The most general and largest category in Linnaeus’s system is
a.
 the phylum.
c.
 the genus.
b.
 the kingdom.
d.
 the domain.
 19.
Traditional classifications tended to take into account primarily
a.
 extinct organisms.
c.
 DNA similarities.
b.
 RNA similarities.
d.
 general similarities in appearance.
 20.
Sometimes, organisms that are not closely related look similar because of
a.
 convergent evolution.
c.
 mutations.
b.
 molecular clocks.
d.
 reclassification.
 21.
The procedure of grouping organisms based on their evolutionary history is called
a.
 traditional classification.
c.
 derived characters.
b.
 binomial nomenclature.
d.
 evolutionary classification.
 22.
In an evolutionary classification scheme, species within one genus should
a.
 be more similar to one another than they are to species in other genera.
b.
 not be similar in appearance.
c.
 be limited to species that can interbreed.
d.
 have identical genes.
 23.
What kind of analysis focuses on the order in which derived characters appeared in organisms?
a.
 cladistic analysis
c.
 taxonomy
b.
 traditional classification
d.
 anatomy
 24.
In biology, an evolutionary innovation is also referred to as a
a.
 derived character.
c.
 molecular clock.
b.
 taxonomic group.
d.
 physical similarity.
 25.
What do scientists consider when they perform a cladistic analysis?
a.
 only the RNA of organisms
c.
 derived characters
b.
 all traits of organisms
d.
 only physical similarities
 26.
An analysis of derived characters is used to generate a
a.
 family tree based on external appearance.
b.
 family tree based on DNA structure.
c.
 cladogram.
d.
 traditional classification system.
 27.
What does a cladistic analysis show about organisms?
a.
 the relative importance of each derived character
b.
 the order in which derived characters evolved
c.
 the general fitness of the organisms analyzed
d.
 all traits of each organism analyzed
 28.
Similar genes are evidence of
a.
 binomial nomenclature.
c.
 common ancestry.
b.
 mutations.
d.
 different anatomy.
 29.
What do all organisms have in common?
a.
 They use DNA and RNA to pass on information.
b.
 They are all prokaryotes.
c.
 They are all eukaryotes.
d.
 They are genetically identical.
 30.
What is true about dissimilar organisms such as a cow and a yeast?
a.
 They are not related at all.
b.
 Their degree of relatedness cannot be evaluated.
c.
 Their degree of relatedness can be determined from their genes.
d.
 They can interbreed and thus are the same species.
 31.
Scientists have found that humans and yeasts
a.
 have similar genes for the assembly of certain proteins.
b.
 share all aspects of cellular structure.
c.
 have nothing in common.
d.
 cannot be evaluated for degree of relatedness.
 32.
What does the presence of similar genes in very dissimilar organisms imply?
a.
 The genes were produced by different selection pressures.
b.
 The organisms share a common ancestor.
c.
 The organisms do not share a common ancestor.
d.
 The genes became identical through mutation.
 33.
What is the main idea behind the model of a molecular clock?
a.
 that neutral mutations accumulate at a steady rate
b.
 that certain traits are under the pressure of natural selection
c.
 that segments of DNA can be compared with segments of RNA
d.
 that phenotypes, not genotypes, are affected by natural selection
 34.
All organisms in the kingdoms Protista, Plantae, Fungi, and Animalia are
a.
 multicellular organisms.
c.
 eukaryotes.
b.
 photosynthetic organisms.
d.
 prokaryotes.
 35.
Which kingdom contains heterotrophs with cell walls of chitin?
a.
 Protista
c.
 Plantae
b.
 Fungi
d.
 Animalia
 36.
What kingdoms composed the three-kingdom classification system used by scientists in the late 1800s?
a.
 animals, plants, fungi
c.
 animals, fungi, protists
b.
 animals, plants, bacteria
d.
 animals, plants, protists
 37.
Which of the kingdoms in the six-kingdom system of classification was once grouped with plants?
a.
 Animalia
c.
 Fungi
b.
 Carnivores
d.
 Protista
 38.
Some scientists propose that the kingdom Protista should be broken up into several kingdoms. Which of these statements accurately supports this idea?
a.
 Protists are all very similar and easy to confuse.
b.
 Protista contains very diverse organisms that do not fit into the other kingdoms.
c.
 Protists are the most numerous organisms on Earth.
d.
 Protista evolved before any other kingdom.
 39.
The domain that corresponds to the kingdom Eubacteria is
a.
 Archaea.
c.
 Eukarya.
b.
 Bacteria.
d.
 Fungi.
 40.
The domain that contains unicellular organisms that live in extreme environments is
a.
 Eubacteria.
c.
 Archaea.
b.
 Eukarya.
d.
 Bacteria.
 41.
The two domains composed of only unicellular organisms are
a.
 Eubacteria and Archaea.
c.
 Archaea and Bacteria.
b.
 Eukarya and Bacteria.
d.
 Archaea and Eukarya.
 42.
The three-domain system arose when scientists grouped organisms according to how long they have been
a.
 alive in their present forms.
c.
 evolving independently.
b.
 going extinct.
d.
 using DNA to store information.
 43.
The three-domain system recognizes fundamental differences between two groups of
a.
 prokaryotes.
c.
 protists.
b.
 eukaryotes.
d.
 multicellular organisms.
 44.
Organisms in the kingdoms Eubacteria and Archaebacteria were previously grouped in a kingdom called
a.
 Animalia.
c.
 Monera.
b.
 Fungi.
d.
 Eukarya.
 45.
What is thought to be true about the three domains of living things?
a.
 They diverged from a common ancestor fairly recently.
b.
 They diverged from a common ancestor before the evolution of the main groups of eukaryotes.
c.
 They did not have a common ancestor.
d.
 Domains Bacteria and Archaea evolved after the main groups of eukaryotes.
 46.
Taxonomy is the science of:
a.
 making new biological species.
b.
 generating cladograms that represent evolutionary relationships between organisms.
c.
 naming, describing, and classifying organisms.
d.
 conserving biodiversity.
e.
 comparing macromolecules to assess evolutionary relationships.
 47.
About __________ different species have been described and named to date.
a.
 160,000
b.
 265,000
c.
 750,000
d.
 1.75 million
e.
 6.25 million
 48.
The scientific study of the diversity of organisms and the evolutionary relationships between them is:
a.
 taxonomy.
b.
 ecology.
c.
 biological classification.
d.
 evolutionary biology.
e.
 systematics.
 49.
What is the correct format for the scientific name of an extinct carnivorous dinosaur?
a.
 tyrannosaurus Rex
b.
 Tyrannosaurus Rex
c.
 Tyrannosaurus rex
d.
 Tyrannosaurusrex
e.
 tyrannosaurus rex
 50.
The binomial system of nomenclature is a product of the work of:
a.
 Charles Darwin.
b.
 Carolus Linnaeus.
c.
 Gregor Mendel.
d.
 Paul Hebert.
e.
 Ernst Haeckel.
 51.
Which classification level would contain the greatest number of species?
a.
 class
b.
 division or phylum
c.
 domain
d.
 family
e.
 order
 52.
Which classification level would be the least inclusive?
a.
 genus
b.
 family
c.
 phylum
d.
 order
e.
 class
 53.
Zea mays is the scientific name of the corn plant. Zea is the ____________ name.
a.
 class
b.
 division
c.
 genus
d.
 ordinal
e.
 species
 54.
Closely related or similar genera are grouped into a single:
a.
 class.
b.
 phylum.
c.
 order.
d.
 species.
e.
 family.
 55.
How would the scientific name of the yellow perch, Perca flavescens, be abbreviated?
a.
 Perca f.
b.
 Perca Fl.
c.
 P. flavescens
d.
 Perc. fl.
e.
 P. flav.
 56.
The classification scheme of Linnaeus was originally based on ________, but has now been altered to reflect ___________.
a.
 similarities; structural differences
b.
 biodiversity; structural similarity
c.
 evolutionary history; structural similarity
d.
 similarities; evolutionary history
e.
 differences; similarities
 57.
Which of the following is a taxon?
a.
 class
b.
 family
c.
 phylum
d.
 species
e.
 All of the above.
 58.
Some biologists are considering adopting a different classification scheme based on common ancestors, called:
a.
 BioDiversity.
b.
 the biological BarCode.
c.
 the phylogical guide.
d.
 the molecular blueprint.
e.
 PhyloCode.
 59.
Which of the following is the taxon that can be most clearly defined in biological terms?
a.
 class
b.
 species
c.
 strain
d.
 subspecies
e.
 variety
 60.
Most biologists recognize ___________ domains.
a.
 3
b.
 4
c.
 5
d.
 6
e.
 12
 61.
The classification level of domain is immediately “above” (more inclusive than) the level of:
a.
 a class.
b.
 a genus.
c.
 a kingdom.
d.
 a phylum.
e.
 a species.
 62.
The first kingdom recognized beyond Plantae and Animalia was:
a.
 Archae.
b.
 Protista.
c.
 Eubacteria.
d.
 Archaebacteria.
e.
 Fungi.
Figure 22-02
Use the figure below to answer the corresponding questions.nar001-1.jpg
 63.
The animals in Figure 22-02 are all representative of the:
a.
 Class Carnivora.
b.
 Order Carnivora.
c.
 Phylum Animalia.
d.
 Class Chordata.
e.
 Order Mammalia.
 64.
The taxonomic grouping that would represent the next highest (more inclusive) level above that represented in Figure 22-02 is:
a.
 Family.
b.
 Order.
c.
 Class.
d.
 Phylum.
e.
 None of the above.
 65.
The original two Kingdoms that were established to organize living organisms were:
a.
 Protista and Animalia.
b.
 Eukaryotae and Prokaryotae.
c.
 Plantae and Animalia.
d.
 Plantae and Eukarya.
e.
 Eubacteria and Eukarya.
 66.
Early biologists classified living things into two kingdoms. Many biologists today recognize ____________ kingdom(s).
a.
 one
b.
 two
c.
 three
d.
 six
e.
 twelve
 67.
Bacteria are found in the Kingdom:
a.
 Eubacteria.
b.
 Fungi.
c.
 Protista.
d.
 Animalia.
e.
 Plantae.
 68.
Which Kingdom contains the protozoa, water and slime molds, and algae?
a.
 Prokaryotae
b.
 Fungi
c.
 Protista
d.
 Animalia
e.
 Plantae
 69.
Which of the following does not describe members of the Kingdom Fungi?
a.
 absorb nutrients produced by other organisms
b.
 possess cell walls
c.
 not photosynthetic
d.
 cells lack a nucleus
e.
 yeasts and mushrooms
 70.
Fungi may be differentiated from plants, because fungi are:
a.
 photosynthetic.
b.
 all macroscopic.
c.
 all multicellular.
d.
 heterotrophic.
e.
 all prokaryotic.
 71.
The evolutionary history of a group of organisms from a common ancestor is termed:
a.
 biohistory.
b.
 phylogeny.
c.
 phrenology.
d.
 phenetics.
e.
 species origenetics.
 72.
An example of homologous structures is the wing of a bat and:
a.
 the arm of a human.
b.
 the wing of a beetle.
c.
 the tail of a whale.
d.
 the leg of a chimpanzee.
e.
 the dorsal fin of a shark.
 73.
An example of homoplastic structures is the wing of a butterfly and:
a.
 the wing of a moth.
b.
 the wing of a bird.
c.
 the antenna of the butterfly.
d.
 the legs of the butterfly.
e.
 the antenna of a moth.
 74.
Humans, as well as other mammals ranging from mice to elephants, have hair. Hair, then, would be considered to be:
a.
 a derived character.
b.
 an ancestral character.
c.
 a cladistic character.
d.
 an analogous character.
e.
 a polyphyletic character.
 75.
Sea snakes, which are reptiles, are similar in body form to eels, which are fish. Sea snakes and eels therefore share ________________ body form.
a.
 ancestral
b.
 homoplastic
c.
 homologous
d.
 monophyletic
e.
 cladistic
 76.
A(an) __________________ character is a trait that has evolved relatively recently.
a.
 derived
b.
 ancestral
c.
 cladistic
d.
 homologous
e.
 polyphyletic
 77.
Phylogenetic systematics produces branching diagrams called:
a.
 phylogenic trees.
b.
 cladistic trees.
c.
 phenograms.
d.
 molecular clocks.
e.
 cladograms.
 78.
A cladogram is based on:
a.
 homologous characteristics.
b.
 homoplastic characteristics.
c.
 polyphyletic taxa.
d.
 fossil evidence only.
e.
 derived characters only.
Figure 22-03
Use the figure below to answer the corresponding questions.nar002-1.jpg
 79.
The organism labeled B in Figure 22-03 is a common ancestor to:
a.
 organism 2.
b.
 organism 3.
c.
 organism 5.
d.
 organism 6.
e.
 All of the above.
 80.
In Figure 22-03, the pair of organisms that have the most recent ancestor is:
a.
 2 and 4.
b.
 6 and 4.
c.
 4 and 5.
d.
 2 and 3.
e.
 1 and 2.
 81.
In Figure 22-03, the taxon labeled II is:
a.
 monophyletic.
b.
 paraphyletic.
c.
 polyphyletic.
d.
 a clade.
e.
 an outgroup.

 
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PCC Prokaryotes

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Multiple Choice
Identify the choice that best completes the statement or answers the question.
 1.
Eubacteria and archaebacteria differ in
a.
 the presence of a nucleus.
c.
 size.
b.
 the makeup of their cell walls.
d.
 the presence of a cell wall.
 2.
Escherichia coli is classified as a(an)
a.
 archaebacterium.
b.
 eubacterium.
c.
 eukaryote.
d.
 virus.
 3.
Which of the following is NOT a way in which archaebacteria and eubacteria differ?
a.
 Archaebacteria lack an important carbohydrate found in the cell walls of eubacteria.
b.
 The two groups have very different membrane lipids.
c.
 Archaebacteria have gene sequences that are similar to those of eukaryotes.
d.
 Archaebacteria follow the lytic cycle, while eubacteria follow the lysogenic cycle.
 4.
Which of the following are members of the kingdom Archaebacteria?
a.
 methanogens
c.
 eukaryotes
b.
 eubacteria
d.
 E. coli

nar001-1.jpg

Figure 19–1
 5.
The structure in Figure 19–1 represents a(an)
a.
 virus.
c.
 methanogen.
b.
 archaebacterium.
d.
 eubacterium.
 6.
Which structure or structures shown in Figure 19–1 have key differences in eubacteria and archaebacteria?
a.
 A, B, C
c.
 D only
b.
 A, B, E
d.
 A only

nar002-1.jpg

Figure 19–2
 7.
Which cell shape in Figure 19–2 is called a coccus?
a.
 A
c.
 C
b.
 B
d.
 none of the above
 8.
Which of the following can survive either with oxygen or without it?
a.
 obligate aerobes
c.
 facultative anaerobes
b.
 obligate anaerobes
d.
 bacteriophages
 9.
Some bacteria are able to survive unfavorable conditions by forming
a.
 photoautotrophs.
c.
 coccus.
b.
 capsids.
d.
 endospores.
 10.
Which of the following is(are) used to identify prokaryotes?
a.
 cell shape
c.
 the way prokaryotes obtain energy
b.
 the way prokaryotes move
d.
 all of the above
 11.
Where are you likely to find a photoautotroph?
a.
 in your refrigerator
b.
 in the darkness of the ocean
c.
 in your digestive system
d.
 near the surfaces of lakes, streams, and oceans
 12.
Unlike photoautotrophs, chemoautotrophs obtain energy
a.
 directly from the sun.
c.
 indirectly from organic molecules.
b.
 directly from inorganic molecules.
d.
 indirectly from other organisms.
 13.
A method called Gram staining is used to tell
a.
 what shape a prokaryote has.
b.
 how a prokaryote obtains energy.
c.
 what kind of cell wall a prokaryote has.
d.
 whether a prokaryote has flagella.
 14.
Which of the following describes a role of bacteria in the environment?
a.
 carrying out photosynthesis
c.
 fixing nitrogen
b.
 recycling nutrients
d.
 all of the above
 15.
Bacteria that break down the nutrients in dead matter into simpler substances that are taken up by plant roots are called
a.
 endospores.
c.
 photoautotrophs.
b.
 flagella.
d.
 decomposers.
 16.
Nitrogen fixation involves each of the following EXCEPT
a.
 soybeans.
c.
 fertilizer.
b.
 Rhizobium.
d.
 nodules on roots.
 17.
Which of the following is produced when bacteria break down complex compounds in sewage?
a.
 carbon dioxide gas
c.
 nitrogen
b.
 purified water
d.
 all of the above
 18.
Humans use bacteria to
a.
 clean up small oil spills.
c.
 synthesize drugs.
b.
 mine minerals from the ground.
d.
 all of the above
 19.
Bacteria living in extreme environments may be a good source of
a.
 antibiotics.
c.
 nitrogen-fixing bacteria.
b.
 heat-stable enzymes.
d.
 Gram stains.
 20.
Which of the following is a way that bacteria cause disease?
a.
 by capsids
c.
 by conjugation
b.
 by nitrogen fixation
d.
 by releasing toxins
 21.
Bacteria that cause disease are called
a.
 viruses.
c.
 endospores.
b.
 pathogens.
d.
 antibiotics.
 22.
Food stored in a refrigerator will keep longer because the bacteria that spoil food
a.
 die at low temperatures.
b.
 take longer to multiply at low temperatures.
c.
 require light to live.
d.
 grow more slowly in the dark.
 23.
Which of the following is a characteristic of bacteria that is key to keeping them under control?
a.
 Most bacteria cannot survive high temperatures for long periods.
b.
 Most bacteria are resistant to harmful chemicals.
c.
 Most bacteria form endospores when subjected to harsh conditions.
d.
 Most bacteria do not cause food to spoil.
 24.
Which of the following will NOT kill bacteria?
a.
 refrigeration
c.
 chemical disinfection
b.
 boiling
d.
 frying
 25.
The chromosomes of bacteria
a.
 contain numerous types of organelles.
b.
 are divided into compartments.
c.
 vary in number, depending on the species of bacteria.
d.
 contain a single circular piece of DNA.
 26.
Structures found in bacterial cells but not in eukaryotic cells are
a.
 nuclei.
c.
 membrane-bound organelles.
b.
 linear chromosomes.
d.
 circular chromosomes.
nar003-1.jpg
 27.
Refer to the illustration above. Organism B has a shape similar to that of
a.
 Micrococcus.
c.
 Streptococcus.
b.
 Bacillus.
d.
 Leptospira.
 28.
Refer to the illustration above. The shape represented by Organism A applies to the bacterial genus
a.
 Streptococcus, which causes strep throat.
b.
 Leptospira, which can cause urinary tract infections in humans.
c.
 Bacillus, which produces antibiotics.
d.
 Penicillium, which produces penicillin.
 29.
Refer to the illustration above. The shape represented by Organism C is called
a.
 a coccus.
c.
 a bacillus.
b.
 a spirillum.
d.
 filamentous.
 30.
Bacteria often have small extra loops of DNA called
a.
 nucleoids.
c.
 plasmids.
b.
 pili.
d.
 prions.
 31.
Cell organelles that Escherichia coli and other bacteria have in common with eukaryotes are
a.
 chloroplasts.
c.
 nuclei.
b.
 mitochondria.
d.
 ribosomes.
 32.
It is important to distinguish between Gram-positive and Gram-negative bacteria in diagnosing a bacterial infection because
a.
 Gram-negative and Gram-positive bacteria differ in their response to different antibiotics.
b.
 Gram-positive bacteria never cause fatal diseases.
c.
 Gram-positive bacteria destroy antibiotics, preventing them from working.
d.
 Gram-positive bacteria do not respond to many antibiotics.
 33.
Bacterial cells have
a.
 a cell wall only.
b.
 a cell membrane only.
c.
 both a cell membrane and an outer cell wall.
d.
 a cell wall inside their cell membrane.
 34.
Escherichia coli is an example of a bacterium that has
a.
 a thin layer of peptidoglycan in its cell wall.
b.
 a thick layer of peptidoglycan in its cell wall.
c.
 a shape called a coccus.
d.
 a cell wall but no cell membrane.
 35.
Cyanobacteria are photoautotrophs because they require
a.
 oxygen.
c.
 inorganic chemicals.
b.
 carbon dioxide.
d.
 light.
 36.
Nitrogen-fixing bacteria
a.
 repair nitrogen-damaged soybean roots.
b.
 damage the environment by using atmospheric oxygen to produce toxic nitrogen compounds.
c.
 convert atmospheric nitrogen into a usable form of nitrogen.
d.
 convert ammonia in the soil into nitrogen gas.
 37.
Bacterial cells such as Escherichia coli transfer pieces of genetic material in a process called
a.
 binary fission.
c.
 conjugation.
b.
 mitosis.
d.
 sexual reproduction.
 38.
Bacterial endospores
a.
 are formed when there is plenty of available food.
b.
 allow certain species to survive harsh environmental conditions.
c.
 are similar to human tumors.
d.
 can cause growth abnormalities in plants.
 39.
A chain of round bacteria would be called:
a.
 spirilla.
b.
 diplococci.
c.
 bacilli.
d.
 streptococci.
e.
 streptobacilli.
 40.
Rod-shaped bacteria are called:
a.
 streptococci.
b.
 bacilli.
c.
 diplococci.
d.
 vibrio.
e.
 spirochete.
Figure 23-02
Use the figure below to answer the corresponding questions.nar004-1.jpg
 41.
The structure in Figure 23-02 labeled C is:
a.
 a ribosome.
b.
 the plasma membrane.
c.
 the capsule.
d.
 the cell wall.
e.
 the flagellum.
 42.
What is the function of the structure labeled A in Figure 23-02?
a.
 to adhere to surfaces or other bacteria
b.
 to prevent phagocytosis
c.
 support and protection in hypotonic conditions
d.
 transmission of DNA between bacteria
e.
 locomotion
 43.
The walls of Eubacteria contain peptidoglycan, which is:
a.
 lipids crosslinked with sugars.
b.
 sugars crosslinked with proteins.
c.
 a protein.
d.
 a lipid.
e.
 a polysaccharide.
 44.
Penicillin works most effectively against gram-positive bacteria because:
a.
 penicillin affects cell membranes.
b.
 they have a thick peptidoglycan cell wall and penicillin affects the synthesis of peptidoglycans.
c.
 they have special protein channels that allow penicillin to enter the cell and halt the cell cycle.
d.
 they are smaller than gram-negative bacteria and, thus, easily take up penicillin by diffusion.
e.
 they contain prophages that negatively interact with penicillin.
 45.
Some bacteria avoid a host’s immune system by means of:
a.
 efficient use of their flagella.
b.
 ameboid motion.
c.
 their capsule.
d.
 changing their cell wall structure.
e.
 eliminating the use of a membrane.
 46.
Bacteria:
a.
 are incapable of locomotion.
b.
 move by means of pili
c.
 move by means of cilia.
d.
 move by means of a rotating flagella.
e.
 move by means of a whiplike flagella.
 47.
Small circles of DNA called ______________ exist in addition to the bacterial chromosome.
a.
 capsids
b.
 plasmids
c.
 chromatids
d.
 pili
e.
 centromeres
 48.
Small hairlike structures on the surface of bacteria are called:
a.
 capsids.
b.
 pili.
c.
 chromatids.
d.
 plasmids.
e.
 virons.
 49.
Plasmids of bacteria often have genes involved in:
a.
 reproduction.
b.
 motility.
c.
 viral resistance.
d.
 antibiotic resistance.
e.
 photosynthesis.
 50.
Pili are involved in adhesion of bacterial cells to a substrate or host, or in transmission of __________ between bacteria.
a.
 ribosomes
b.
 cytoplasm
c.
 vectors
d.
 RNA
e.
 DNA

 
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