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Darwinian Evolution – PreAP Biology

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Darwinian Evolution – PreAP Biology
  

Multiple Choice
Identify the choice that best completes the statement or answers the question.
 
 1.
Which of the following are examples of fossils?
a.
 shells or old bones
b.
 any traces of dead organisms
c.
 insects trapped in tree sap
d.
 All of the above
 
 2.
Animal fossils may form when
a.
 an animal is buried by sediment.
b.
 an animal is buried on the ocean floor, in swamps, in mud, or in tar pits.
c.
 an animal’s tissue is replaced by harder minerals.
d.
 All of the above
 
 3.
Darwin drew ideas for his theory from observations of organisms on
a.
 the Samoan Islands.
b.
 Manhattan Island.
c.
 the Hawaiian Islands.
d.
 the Galápagos Islands.
 
 4.
The species of finches that Darwin observed differed in the shape of their beaks. According to Darwin, all of these species probably
a.
 had a common ancestor.
b.
 had migrated from Africa.
c.
 had descended from similar birds in Africa.
d.
 ate the same diet.
 
 5.
Darwin thought that the animals of the Galápagos Islands were similar to those of the nearby coast of South America because
a.
 the animals’ ancestors had migrated from South America to the Galápagos Islands.
b.
 the animals had all been brought to the islands by humans.
c.
 the islands had slowly drifted away from the mainland.
d.
 the animals in both places had evolved in nearly identical environments
 
 6.
According to Darwin, evolution occurs
a.
 only through artificial selection.
b.
 during half-life periods of 5,715 years.
c.
 because of natural selection.
d.
 so rapidly that it can be observed easily.
 
 7.
When Darwin published his first book about evolution, he included all of the following ideas except
a.
 the idea that species change slowly over time.
b.
 the idea that some organisms reproduce at a greater rate than others.
c.
 the idea that species are permanent and unchanging.
d.
 the idea that some species become better suited to their environment than others.
 
 8.
The major idea that Darwin presented in his book The Origin of Species was that
a.
 species change over time and never compete with each other.
b.
 animals change, but plants remain the same over time.
c.
 species may change in small ways but cannot give rise to new species.
d.
 species change over time by natural selection.
 
 9.
Natural selection is the process by which
a.
 the age of selected fossils is calculated.
b.
 organisms with traits well suited to their environment survive and reproduce more successfully than organisms less suited to the same environment.
c.
 acquired traits are passed on from one generation to the next.
d.
 All of the above
 
 10.
Populations of the same species living in different places
a.
 do not vary.
b.
 always show balancing selection.
c.
 are genetically identical to each other.
d.
 become increasingly different as each population becomes adapted to its own environment.
 
 11.
Scarcity of resources and a growing population are most likely to result in
a.
 decreased homology.
b.
 increased genetic variation.
c.
 increased competition.
d.
 convergent evolution.
 
   
 
nar001-1.jpg
 
 12.
Refer to the illustration above. An analysis of DNA from these organisms would indicate that
a.
 they have identical DNA.
b.
 they all have the same number of bones.
c.
 their nucleotide sequences show many similarities.
d.
 they all have the same number of chromosomes.
 
 13.
Refer to the illustration above. The similarity of these structures is one form of evidence that the organisms
a.
 share a common ancestor.
b.
 all grow at different rates.
c.
 evolved instantaneously.
d.
 live for a long time.
 
 14.
Refer to the illustration above. The bones labeled “X” can be referred to as
a.
 vestigial structures.
b.
 sequential structures.
c.
 homologous structures.
d.
 fossil structures.
 
 15.
Which of the following is most likely a vestigial structure?
a.
 the human tailbone
c.
 flower color
b.
 the beak of a finch
d.
 a fossil of a snail
 
 16.
Homologous structures in organisms provide evidence that the organisms
a.
 share a common ancestor.
b.
 must have lived at different times.
c.
 have a skeletal structure.
d.
 are now extinct.
 
 17.
Anatomical structures that appear to be derived from a functional structure in an ancestor, but that currently do not serve an important function, are called
a.
 inorganic.
c.
 fossilized.
b.
 mutated.
d.
 vestigial.
 
 18.
The beak of a bird and the beak of a giant squid evolved independently and serve the same function. The beaks are
a.
 divergent structures.
c.
 analogous structures.
b.
 homologous structures.
d.
 hybrid structures.
 
 19.
Evidence that evolution occurs includes all of the following except
a.
 acquired characteristics.
b.
 similarities and differences in proteins and DNA sequences between organisms.
c.
 the fossil record.
d.
 homologous structures among different organisms.
 
 20.

Cytochrome c is a protein that is involved in cellular respiration in all eukaryotic organisms. Human cytochrome c contains 104 amino acids. The following table compares human cytochrome c with cytochrome c from a number of other organisms.

 

Organism		 Number of cytochrome c amino acids
that differ from human cytochrome c amino acids
Chickens
18
Chimpanzees
0
Dogs
13
Rattlesnakes
20
Rhesus monkeys
1
Yeasts
56
   

Which of the following is not a valid inference from these data?

a.
 Chimpanzees are more closely related to humans than yeasts are.
b.
 The cytochrome c of chimpanzees differs from that of rhesus monkeys by only one amino acid.
c.
 Dogs are more closely related to humans than chickens are.
d.
 All of the proteins produced by chimpanzees and humans are identical.
 
 21.
The accumulation of differences between populations that once formed a single population is called
a.
 coevolution.
b.
 adaptation.
c.
 divergent evolution.
d.
 cumulative differentiation.
 
 22.
Over millions of years, plants and their pollinators have
a.
 coevolved.
c.
 become parasites.
b.
 crossbred.
d.
 become competitive.
 
 23.

mc023-1.jpg

Refer to the illustration above. While the shark and dolphin are similar in appearance, dolphins evolved from ancestors that were very different from sharks. The current similarity between sharks and dolphins is an example of

a.
 coevolution.
c.
 convergent evolution.
b.
 biogeography.
d.
 divergent evolution.
 
 24.
What is the idea developed by Charles Lyell which states that the geologic processes that shaped Earth in the past continue to operate in the same way today?
a.
 inheritance of acquired characteristics
b.
 catastrophism
c.
 uniformitarianism
d.
 descent with modification
 
 25.
The idea of inheritance of acquitted characteristics was proposed by
a.
 Charles Darwin.
c.
 Jean-Baptiste Lamarck.
b.
 George Cuvier.
d.
 Charles Lyell.
 
 26.
Which of the following describes a population?
a.
 dogs and cats living in Austin, Texas
b.
 four species of fish living in a pond
c.
 dogwood trees in Middletown, Connecticut
d.
 roses and tulips in a garden
 
 27.
The movement of alleles into or out of a population due to migration is called
a.
 mutation.
c.
 nonrandom mating.
b.
 gene flow.
d.
 natural selection.
 
 28.
What type of population is most susceptible to loss of genetic variability as a result of genetic drift?
a.
 large populations
b.
 medium-sized populations
c.
 small populations
d.
 populations that fluctuate in size
 
 29.
A change in the frequency of a particular gene in one direction in a population is called
a.
 directional selection.
b.
 acquired variation.
c.
 chromosome drift.
d.
 stabilizing selection.
 
 30.
The type of selection that may eliminate intermediate phenotypes is
a.
 direction selection.
b.
 disruptive selection.
c.
 polygenic selection.
d.
 stabilizing selection.
 
 31.
Directional selection tends to eliminate
a.
 both extremes in a range of phenotypes.
b.
 one extreme in a range of phenotypes.
c.
 intermediate phenotypes.
d.
 None of the above; it causes new phenotypes to form.
 
 32.
The large, brightly colored tail feathers of the male peacock are valuable to him because
a.
 they attract potential predators.
b.
 they warn off potential competitors for mates.
c.
 they attract potential mates.
d.
 they attract people who provide them with food.
 
 33.
The hypothesis that evolution occurs at an irregular rate through geologic time is known as
a.
 directional evolution.
b.
 directional equilibrium.
c.
 punctuated equilibrium.
d.
 punctuated evolution.
 

 

 
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Fish

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Fish

 

 

True/False
Indicate whether the sentence or statement is true or false.
1.
Lobe-finned fishes were the ancestors of amphibians.
2.
Small, jawed fishes are the first vertebrates for which there is fossil evidence.
3.
Fishes and amphibians first appeared on Earth during the Cambrian period, about 550 million years ago.
4.
A fish’s gills would collapse on land.
5.
Since they live in salt water, marine fishes do not have a problem maintaining the proper balance of water and salt in their body.
6.
The first fishes to develop jaws were called spiny fishes, members of the class Acanthodia.
7.
Sharks have good vision and can detect electromagnetic fields coming from prey animals.
8.
Members of the class Osteichthyes have skeletons of cartilage.
9.
Bony fishes have a swim bladder.
10.
In order to fill their swim bladders, bony fishes have to come to the surface to gulp air.
 

Multiple Choice
Identify the letter of the choice that best completes the statement or answers the question.
11.
Which of the following would not be an advantage of the endoskeleton found in all vertebrates?
a.
It protects internal body structures.
b.
It aids in movement.
c.
It helps prevent desiccation in terrestrial vertebrates.
d.
It provides structural support in terrestrial vertebrates.
12.
The urinary bladder and kidneys make up the ____ of a fish.
a.
respiratory system.
c.
excretory system.
b.
digestive system.
d.
circulatory system.
13.
The first vertebrates
a.
were jawless fishes.
b.
had thick, bony plates that covered their bodies.
c.
had no well-developed vertebral column.
d.
All of the above
14.
placoderms : armor ::
a.
bony fishes : cartilaginous skeleton
b.
sharks : no teeth
c.
lampreys : jaws
d.
sharks and bony fishes : streamlined bodies
15.
bony fishes : stronger muscles ::
a.
bony fishes : lungs
c.
sharks : ray fins
b.
sharks : bony skeleton
d.
sharks : rows of teeth
16.
Which of the following senses is not used by sharks to detect prey?
a.
olfaction
c.
lateral-line system
b.
vision
d.
touch
17.
The eggs of many species of sharks
a.
are released from the mother’s body before fertilization.
b.
are released from the mother’s body after fertilization.
c.
are released from the mother’s body after developing into young embryos.
d.
hatch inside the mother’s body, where the young sharks continue to grow.
18.
Members of the class Osteichthyes
a.
have skeletons made of bone.
c.
include the rays and skates.
b.
do not have jaws.
d.
All of the above
19.
A collection chamber that reduces the resistance of blood flow into the heart of a fish is called the
a.
sinus venosus.
c.
conus arteriosus.
b.
ventricle.
d.
atrium.
20.
The countercurrent flow of water and blood found in the gills of fishes
a.
allows blood and water to flow in the same direction.
b.
ensures that oxygen diffuses into the blood over the whole length of the blood vessels in the gills.
c.
results in an uneven supply of oxygen reaching the blood vessels in the gills.
d.
hampers the diffusion of oxygen and carbon dioxide between the blood and the water.

 
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Flat and Round Worms

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Flat and Round Worms

 

 

True/False
Indicate whether the sentence or statement is true or false.
1.
Planarians have a branched digestive tract with both a mouth and an anus.
2.
Most flatworms are not parasitic.
3.
Tapeworms absorb food from their host’s intestine directly through their skin.
4.
Humans can avoid trichinosis by wearing shoes when they walk through fields.
5.
Rotifers have a distinct head end with a mouth and a distinct tail end that has an opening through which substances from the digestive, reproductive, and excretory systems exit the body.
 

Multiple Choice
Identify the letter of the choice that best completes the statement or answers the question.
6.
Flatworms can reproduce asexually by
a.
fission.
c.
producing polyps.
b.
forming larvae.
d.
exchanging both sperm and eggs.
7.
Which of the following is not found in flatworms?
a.
a head
c.
bilateral symmetry
b.
a circulatory system
d.
a nervous system
8.
Flatworms have no need for circulatory and respiratory systems because
a.
the digestive system performs these functions.
b.
their cells are close to the animal’s exterior surface.
c.
the spherical body shape allows diffusion of materials into tissues.
d.
the coelom is bathed in blood and oxygen.
9.
Schistosomiasis is a disease caused by a
a.
roundworm.
c.
cestode.
b.
trematode.
d.
planarian.
10.
turbellarians : free living ::
a.
planaria : parasitic
c.
cestodes : free living
b.
tapeworms : free living
d.
flukes : parasitic
11.
Which of the following statements about tapeworms is false?
a.
They can infect a person who eats improperly cooked beef.
b.
They belong to the genus Schistosoma.
c.
They can grow to be large in human intestines.
d.
These flatworms do not have a digestive system.
12.
To which phylum do roundworms belong?
a.
Annelida
c.
Platyhelminthes
b.
Nematoda
d.
Arthropoda
13.
Roundworms have a fluid-filled cavity between the gut and body wall called a
a.
coelom.
c.
digestive system.
b.
pseudocoelom.
d.
None of the above
14.
Pseudocoelomates
a.
must move rapidly to enhance diffusion of nutrients.
b.
must be very small or have body shapes with short distances between organs and the body surface.
c.
must have a circulatory system.
d.
All of the above
15.
The first organisms to develop an internal body cavity were the
a.
flatworms.
c.
mollusks.
b.
nematodes.
d.
arthropods.
16.
All of the following groups of invertebrates are coelomates, except
a.
annelids.
c.
mollusks.
b.
echinoderms.
d.
nematodes.
17.
The evolution of body cavities was important because
a.
fluids within the body cavity aid in circulation of materials from one part of the body to another.
b.
fluids in the cavity make the body rigid and offer resistance to muscles, aiding in movement.
c.
organs are better able to function if they can move freely within the body cavity.
d.
All of the above
18.
The nematode Ascaris lumbricoides infects humans, spending most of its adult life inside the intestines of its host. To be infected, a person must
a.
consume the nematode’s eggs.
c.
sit on an infested toilet seat.
b.
walk barefoot on infested soil.
d.
All of the above
19.
A type of roundworm that lives a parasitic life is
a.
Ascaris.
c.
Trichinella.
b.
Necator.
d.
All of the above
20.
Rotifers eliminate excess water that they collect from their freshwater environment by
a.
diffusion.
c.
flame cells and excretory tubules.
b.
kidneys.
d.
a mastax.

 
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Chapter 3 Biochemistry Studyguide

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Chapter 3 Biochemistry Study Guide

 

 

Modified True/False
Indicate whether the statement is true or false.  If false, change the identified word or phrase to make the statement true.
 1.
Atoms have a positive charge. _________________________
 2.
Electrons have very little mass. _________________________
 3.
Molecules are atoms that have gained or lost one or more electrons. _________________________
 4.
An atom with more electrons than protons has a positive charge. _________________________
 5.
A covalent bond forms between two atoms that share electrons to form a molecule. _________________________
 6.
Water molecules attract nonpolar molecules such as oil. _________________________
 7.
The ability of water to retain heat helps cells maintain a constant internal temperature. _________________________
 8.
The role of carbohydrates in cells is to supply energy. _________________________
 9.
RNA is made up of a double strand of nucleotides. _________________________
 10.
When cells break down food, the energy from the food is temporarily stored as ATP. _________________________
 11.
The amount of energy needed to cause a chemical reaction to start is called activation energy. _________________________
 12.
Without enzymes, chemical reactions necessary for life would not occur quickly or easily enough to sustain life. _________________________
 13.
When an enzyme binds with its substrate, the activation energy needed for the chemical reaction to occur is increased. _________________________
 

Multiple Choice
Identify the choice that best completes the statement or answers the question.
 14.
Atoms are not composed of
a.
 protons.
c.
 electrons.
b.
 neutrons.
d.
 chemical bonds
 15.
The electrons of an atom
a.
 are found in the nucleus along with the protons.
b.
 occupy the space surrounding the nucleus.
c.
 have a positive charge.
d.
 are attached to the positive charge of neutrons.
 16.
The smallest particle of matter that can retain the chemical properties of carbon is a carbon
a.
 molecule.
c.
 atom.
b.
 macromolecule.
d.
 element.
 17.
A substance that is composed of only one type of atom is called a(n)
a.
 compound.
c.
 element.
b.
 cell.
d.
 molecule.
 18.
All matter is composed of
a.
 cells.
c.
 atoms.
b.
 molecules.
d.
 carbon.
 19.
Covalent bonds form when
a.
 two molecules of water share electrons.
b.
 a molecule of water becomes an ion.
c.
 two hydrogen atoms share electrons with one oxygen atom.
d.
 two hydronium ions are attracted to each other.
 20.
Ionic bonds form between particles that have
a.
 opposite charges.
c.
 no charges.
b.
 the same charge.
d.
 neutral charges.
 21.
The bond formed when two atoms share a pair of electrons is called a(n)
a.
 hydrogen bond.
c.
 covalent bond.
b.
 ionic bond.
d.
 water bond.
 22.
Sharing of electrons in the outer energy levels of two atoms
a.
 results in ion formation.
b.
 makes both atoms stable.
c.
 only occurs if both are atoms of the same element.
d.
 is found only among carbon atoms.
 23.
A molecule that has a partial positive charge on one side and a partial negative charge on the other side is called a(n)
a.
 nonpolar molecule.
c.
 charged molecule.
b.
 polar molecule.
d.
 ion.
 24.
Nonpolar molecules have
a.
 no negative or positive ends.
c.
 only a negative end.
b.
 both negative and positive ends.
d.
 only a positive end.
 25.
When placed in the same container, oil and water do not mix because
a.
 they are both polar.
c.
 they are both nonpolar.
b.
 water is polar and oil is nonpolar.
d.
 water is nonpolar and oil is polar.
 26.
Attractions between water molecules are called
a.
 covalent bonds.
c.
 polar bonds.
b.
 ionic bonds.
d.
 hydrogen bonds.
 27.
Water is a polar molecule because
a.
 it contains two hydrogen atoms for each oxygen atom.
b.
 it has a charge.
c.
 different parts of the molecule have slightly different charges.
d.
 it does not have a charge.
 28.
Which is not a unique property of water?
a.
 Frozen water floats.
b.
 Water retains a large amount of heat.
c.
 Water molecules stick to each other.
d.
 Water cools rapidly.
 29.
Acidic solutions have a pH that is
a.
 less than 7.
c.
 a negative number.
b.
 between 7 and 14.
d.
 more than 7.
 30.
Hydronium ions, H+, react with hydroxide ions, OH-, to form
a.
 water.
c.
 a base.
b.
 an acid.
d.
 a buffer.
 31.
Which of the following is not a large biomolecule?
a.
 carbohydrate
c.
 lipid
b.
 ice
d.
 nucleic acid
 32.
The building blocks of most biomolecules contain the element
a.
 carbon.
c.
 calcium.
b.
 nitrogen.
d.
 sodium.
 33.
Which of the following molecules are classified as carbohydrates?
a.
 amino acids
c.
 nucleotides
b.
 fats
d.
 sugars
 34.
Polysaccharides are
a.
 carbohydrates.
c.
 proteins.
b.
 lipids.
d.
 nucleic acids.
nar001-1.jpg
nar001-2.jpg
Molecule A
Molecule B
 35.
Refer to the illustration above. Molecule A is a
a.
 carbohydrate.
c.
 nucleic acid.
b.
 lipid.
d.
 protein.
 36.
Plants store glucose in the form of
a.
 starch.
c.
 cellulose.
b.
 glycogen.
d.
 chitin.
 37.
Which of the following is a carbohydrate?
a.
 ATP
c.
 wax
b.
 steroid
d.
 sucrose
 38.
Lipids are
a.
 soluble in water.
b.
 made of chains of amino acids.
c.
 linked together with peptide bonds.
d.
 used by the body for storing energy.
 39.
All of the following are examples of lipids except
a.
 oil.
c.
 steroids.
b.
 starch.
d.
 candle wax.
 40.
Which molecules are most closely related to lipids?
a.
 amino acids
b.
 long chains of carbon and hydrogen
c.
 nucleotides
d.
 sugars
 41.
Which of the following molecules are most closely related to proteins?
a.
 amino acids
c.
 nucleotides
b.
 monosaccharides
d.
 sugars
 42.
Long chains of amino acids are found in
a.
 carbohydrates.
c.
 proteins.
b.
 lipids.
d.
 sugars.
 43.
The overall shape of a single chain of amino acids in a protein is that protein’s
a.
 primary structure.
c.
 tertiary structure.
b.
 secondary structure.
d.
 quaternary structure.
 44.
The amino group of one amino acid is linked to the carboxyl group of another amino acid in a protein. This link is a(n)
a.
 peptide bond.
c.
 ionic bond.
b.
 hydrogen bond.
d.
 polar bond.
 45.
What gives each amino acid its unique properties?
a.
 its side group
c.
 its carboxyl group
b.
 its amino group
d.
 its sequence
 46.
The two types of nucleic acids are
a.
 RNA and ATP.
c.
 DNA and ATP.
b.
 DNA and RNA.
d.
 nucleotides and ATP.
 47.
Which of the following molecules are most closely related to nucleic acids?
a.
 amino acids
c.
 nucleotides
b.
 fats
d.
 sugars
 48.
DNA stores
a.
 fat.
c.
 energy.
b.
 carbohydrates.
d.
 hereditary information.
 49.
The two strands of a DNA molecule are held together by
a.
 ionic bonds.
c.
 hydrogen bonds.
b.
 covalent bonds.
d.
 peptide bonds.
 50.
Which of the following is not part of a nucleotide in a DNA molecule?
a.
 three phosphate groups
c.
 a base
b.
 a sugar
d.
 a phosphate group
 51.
ATP (adenosine triphosphate) stores energy in the bonds between its
a.
 hydrogen atoms.
c.
 nucleotides.
b.
 carbon atoms.
d.
 phosphate groups.
 52.
When paper burns, the paper combines with oxygen to form carbon dioxide and water vapor. How does the mass of carbon dioxide plus water vapor compare with the mass of the paper plus oxygen?
a.
 The mass of carbon dioxide plus water vapor is greater than that of paper plus oxygen.
b.
 The mass of carbon dioxide plus water vapor is less than that of paper plus oxygen.
c.
 It is impossible to tell.
d.
 The mass of carbon dioxide plus water vapor is identical to that of paper plus oxygen.
 53.
The law of conservation of energy states that energy cannot be
a.
 changed from one form to another.
b.
 taken from the surroundings in a reaction.
c.
 released into the surroundings in a reaction.
d.
 created or destroyed in a chemical reaction.
 54.
A chemical reaction will probably occur between two substrate molecules if they
a.
 are far apart.
b.
 are aligned in the wrong spatial orientation.
c.
 have large amounts of kinetic energy.
d.
 have little kinetic energy.
 55.
Reducing activation energy
a.
 is a violation of the laws of nature.
b.
 requires higher temperatures than those found within cells.
c.
 occurs only when reactants are quickly added to the reaction mixture.
d.
 is accomplished by the action of enzymes on reactants.
nar002-1.jpg
 56.
Refer to the illustration above. Which of the following statements regarding the graph is true?
a.
 Reaction 2 occurs faster than Reaction 3 because Reaction 2 requires more energy than Reaction 3.
b.
 The difference between the graphs shown for Reaction 2 and Reaction 3 occurs because of a difference in the activation energy of these reactions.
c.
 Reactant A contains more energy at the beginning of the reaction than product C has at the end of the reaction.
d.
 Product B contains more energy at the end of the reaction than reactant A has at the beginning of the reaction.
 57.
Refer to the illustration above. Reaction 3 in the graph
a.
 probably occurred in the presence of an enzyme.
b.
 requires more activation energy than Reaction 2.
c.
 is the same as Reaction 1, but faster.
d.
 is slower than Reaction 2.
 58.
The molecule on which an enzyme acts is called a(n)
a.
 active site.
c.
 polar molecule.
b.
 inactive site.
d.
 substrate.
 59.
An enzyme
a.
 is used up in a reaction.
b.
 raises the activation energy of a reaction.
c.
 bonds with an active site on a substrate molecule.
d.
 lowers the activation energy of a reaction.
 60.
Enzymes
a.
 are able to heat up molecules so that they can react.
b.
 always provide carbon dioxide for chemical reactions.
c.
 hold substrate molecules in the correct alignment.
d.
 absorb excess heat so that reactions occur at low temperatures.
 61.
A cell contains
a.
 thousands of different kinds of enzymes, each assisting in a different chemical reaction.
b.
 one kind of enzyme that assists in thousands of different chemical reactions.
c.
 approximately 100 kinds of enzymes, each assisting in a different chemical reaction.
d.
 one enzyme that assists in reactions involving protein substrates and one enzyme that assists in reactions involving substrates that are not proteins.
 

Completion
Complete each statement.
 62.
The negatively charged particles in an atom are ____________________.
 63.
Protons and neutrons are found in the ____________________ of an atom.
 64.
A(n) ____________________ is a group of atoms held together by covalent bonds.
 65.
Sodium chloride, NaCl, is an example of a(n) _________________.
 66.
A(n) ____________________ bond forms between two atoms sharing electrons.
 67.
The attraction between oppositely charged ions results in the formation of a(n) ____________________.
 68.
Weak chemical attractions between polar molecules are ____________________ bonds.
 69.
Lipids are ____________________ molecules because they have no negative and positive poles.
 70.
Water heats and cools ____________________.
 71.
The attraction that causes water and other liquids to form drops and thin films is ____________________.
 72.
The medium in which most cellular events take place is ____________________.
 73.
Substances with a pH less than 7 are ____________________.
 74.
Substances with a pH greater than 7 are ____________________.
 75.
The pH scale measures the concentration of ____________________ ions in solutions.
 76.
A carbon atom can bond with four other atoms because it has ____________________ valence electrons.
 77.
A(n) ____________________ contains carbon, hydrogen, and oxygen in a ratio of 1:2:1.
 78.
Amino acids are the building blocks of __________________.
 79.
Most proteins consist of two or more ________________ that twist and fold around each other.
 80.
Long chains of nucleotides are called ____________________.
 81.
The ability to move or change matter is ____________________.
 82.
All living things require a source of ____________________ to carry out their life activities.
 83.
The starting materials for chemical reactions are called ____________________, while the new substances that are formed are called ____________________.
 84.
The energy needed to start a chemical reaction is called ____________________.
 85.
A biochemical reaction can be speeded up by adding a(n) ____________________, which lowers the amount of activation energy required to start the reaction.
 86.
The portion of an enzyme molecule into which a specific substrate can fit is called the ____________________.
 

Short Answer
 87.
How many different kinds of atoms are there in an element?
 88.
How does an atom become an ion?
 89.
An ionic bond forms between what two kinds of particles?
 90.
What makes a water molecule polar?
 91.
How well do nonpolar molecules dissolve in water?
 92.
What is an attraction between particles of different substances called?
 93.
What are the two most common elements found in large biomolecules?
 94.
What is the function of lipids in cells?
 95.
What determines the primary structure of a protein?
 96.
Where do your cells get most of the energy they need for metabolism?
 97.
How do enzymes speed up a chemical reaction?
 

Problem
 98.

The following statements are about the molecule ATP (adenosine triphosphate). For each statement, first determine whether it is true or false. Then, if it is false, rewrite the statement so that it is correct.

a. ATP is chemically similar to a carbohydrate.
b. Cells require ATP to function.
c. None of the energy in food molecules is stored in ATP.
d. ATP is the primary source of energy for chemical reactions occurring in all cells of all living organisms.

nar003-1.jpg
 99.

Refer to the illustration above. The graph depicts the relative energy levels of the products and reactants for the following chemical reaction: A + B « C + D.

a. Which substances, A, B, C, and/or D, are present at point 1 on the graph?
b. Which substances, A, B, C, and/or D, are present at point 3 on the graph?
c. Why is point 2 at a higher energy level than point 1?
d. Why is point 3 at a lower energy level than point 1?
e. Draw a dashed line on the graph indicating how the energy level of this reaction over time would be different if the enzyme that catalyzes the reaction were not present.

Enzymes catalyze a variety of biological reactions. The extent to which they can speed up the rate of a reaction is dependent on a number of factors. Draw a graph for the following condition(s), showing the effect of altering one factor on the relative rate of a reaction. Use “0” to indicate no activity, and “1” through “10” to indicate increasing rate of reaction from very low to very high. Include a label for your graph(s).
 100.
Refer to the paragraph above, and then draw your graph in the space below. Enzyme #1 is inactive between 0°C and 10°C. It is active above 10°C, with the rate increasing steadily until the temperature reaches 40°C. At 40°C, the rate of the reaction is very high. Above 40°C, the rate decreases steadily until the temperature reaches 60°C, at which point the enzyme is no longer active.
 101.
Refer to the paragraph above, and draw your graph. Enzyme #2 is inactive at a pH of 1–4. It is active above a pH of 4, with the rate increasing slowly until the pH reaches 6. Above a pH of 6, the rate increases sharply until the pH reaches 7. Above a pH of 7, the rate decreases sharply until the pH reaches 8. Above a pH of 8, the rate decreases gradually until the pH reaches 10, at which point the enzyme is no longer active.
 102.
Refer to the paragraph above, and draw your graph. Enzyme #3 is inactive when the concentration of the substrate it acts upon is zero. The enzyme is active when the substrate concentration is above zero, with the rate increasing only very slightly until the concentration reaches 30%. Above 30%, the rate increases very sharply to a high level, until the concentration reaches 60%. Above a concentration of 60%, the rate increases very little. The rate does not increase when the substrate concentration is above 80%.
 

Essay
 103.
Describe how an enzyme can function in speeding up a chemical reaction within a cell.

 
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Chapter 4 Cell Structure Study Guide

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Chapter 4 Cell Structure Study Guide

 

  

Modified True/False
Indicate whether the statement is true or false.  If false, change the identified word or phrase to make the statement true.
 
 1.
Robert Hooke first observed cells by looking at a thin slice of cork under a microscope. _________________________
 


 
 2.
Mathias Schleiden concluded that cells make up every part of a plant. _________________________
 


 
 3.
Differences in the colors of cells enable different cells to perform different functions. _________________________
 


 
 4.
All cells have a cell wall that surrounds them. _________________________
 


 
 5.
All multicellular organisms are made up of prokaryotic cells. _________________________
 


 
 6.
The cells of animals are prokaryotic. _________________________
 


 
 7.
The cytoskeleton is a web of protein fibers in eukaryotic cells. _________________________
 


 
 8.
Substances made in the nucleus, such as RNA messages, move into the nucleolus by passing through nuclear pores. _________________________
 


 
 9.
Flattened, membrane-bound sacs that package and distribute proteins are called the Golgi apparatus. _________________________
 


 
 10.
Ribosomes attached to the smooth ER make proteins. _________________________
 


 
 11.
Lysosomes contain specific enzymes that break down large molecules, such as food particles. _________________________
 


 
 12.
Ribosomes are the sites of ATP production in animals. _________________________
 


 
 13.
Most of a cell’s ATP is produced in the cell’s mitochondria. _________________________
 


 
 14.
A typical animal cell contains one or more chloroplasts. _________________________
 


 
 15.
A chloroplast is an organelle that uses light energy to make sugar from carbon dioxide and water. _________________________
 


 
 16.
Prokaryotes are always multicellular organisms. _________________________
 


 
 17.
Many prokaryotes have flagella that allow them to attach to surfaces. _________________________
 


 
 18.
A tissue is a distinct group of cells that have similar structures and functions. _________________________
 


 
 19.
A leaf is made up of different tissues that work together. _________________________
 


 
 20.
In multicellular organisms, a single cell must carry out all of the organism’s activities. _________________________
 


 
 21.
A unicellular organism is composed of many individual, permanently associated cells that coordinate their activities. _________________________
 


 
 22.
Colonial organisms are unicellular organisms that can live as a connected group or survive when separated. _________________________
 


 
 23.
Some protists and most fungi have a multicellular body. _________________________
 


 
 24.
Most multicellular organisms begin as a single cell. _________________________
 


 
  

Multiple Choice
Identify the choice that best completes the statement or answers the question.
 
 25.
Which of the following led to the discovery of cells?
a.
 electricity
c.
 microscopes
b.
 computers
d.
 calculators
 
 26.
Which of the following is part of the cell theory?
a.
 All living things are made of one cell.
b.
 Cells are the basic units of structure and function in organisms.
c.
 Most cells arise from existing cells.
d.
 Cells are nonliving units that make up organisms.
 
 27.
When the volume of a cell increases, its surface area
a.
 increases at the same rate.
c.
 increases at a faster rate.
b.
 remains the same.
d.
 increases at a slower rate.
 
 28.
Surface area is an important factor in limiting cell growth because
a.
 the cell can burst if the membrane becomes too large.
b.
 materials cannot enter the cell if it is too large.
c.
 the cell may become too large to take in enough food and to remove enough wastes.
d.
 waste products cannot leave the cell if it is too small.
 
 29.
The size to which cells can grow is limited by their
a.
 location.
c.
 function.
b.
 structure.
d.
 surface area-to-volume ratio.
 
 30.
As cell size increases, the surface area-to-volume ratio
a.
 decreases.
c.
 increases then decreases.
b.
 increases.
d.
 remains the same.
 
 31.
To function most efficiently, a cell’s size must be
a.
 large.
c.
 small.
b.
 medium.
d.
 any size.
 
 32.
Which of the following shapes would allow a cell to have the greatest surface area-to-volume ratio?
a.
 sphere
c.
 egg-shaped
b.
 cube
d.
 broad and flat
 
 33.
A cube with a side length of 6 mm has a surface area-to-volume ratio of
a.
 1:1.
c.
 3:1.
b.
 2:1.
d.
 6:1.
 
 34.
One difference between prokaryotes and eukaryotes is that prokaryotes do not have
a.
 DNA.
c.
 cytoplasm.
b.
 a cell membrane.
d.
 a nucleus.
 
 35.
Which cells have a cell membrane, cytoplasm, ribosomes, and DNA?
a.
 only animal cells
c.
 only eukaryotic cells
b.
 only prokaryotic cells
d.
 all cells
 
 36.
The genetic material that provides instructions for making proteins is
a.
 DNA.
c.
 cytoplasm.
b.
 cytosol.
d.
 a ribosome.
 
 37.
A structure within a eukaryotic cell that carries out specific activities inside the cell is called a(n)
a.
 organelle.
c.
 nucleus.
b.
 cytoplasm.
d.
 membrane.
 
 38.
Which of the following statements about prokaryotes is correct?
a.
 They have a nucleus.
b.
 Their evolution preceded that of eukaryotes.
c.
 The organelles in their cytoplasm are surrounded by membranes.
d.
 They are multicellular organisms.
 
 39.
Only eukaryotic cells have
a.
 DNA.
c.
 ribosomes.
b.
 membrane-bound organelles.
d.
 cytoplasm.
 
   
 
nar001-1.jpg
 
 40.
Refer to the illustration above. Which structure acts as a boundary between the outside environment and the inside of the cell?
a.
 structure 1
c.
 structure 3
b.
 structure 2
d.
 structure 4
 
 41.
Refer to the illustration above. Which structure immediately identifies this cell as a eukaryote?
a.
 structure 1
c.
 structure 3
b.
 structure 2
d.
 structure 4
 
 42.
Refer to the illustration above. In eukaryotic cells, DNA is found in
a.
 structure 1.
c.
 structure 3.
b.
 structure 2.
d.
 structure 5.
 
 43.
Refer to the illustration above. Structure 2 is
a.
 rough endoplasmic reticulum.
c.
 a mitochondrion.
b.
 a Golgi apparatus.
d.
 the nucleus.
 
 44.
Refer to the illustration above. Which structure produces vesicles filled with proteins?
a.
 structure 1
c.
 structure 4
b.
 structure 2
d.
 structure 5
 
 45.
Refer to the illustration above. Structure 5 is
a.
 part of the endoplasmic reticulum.
c.
 a mitochondrion.
b.
 a Golgi apparatus.
d.
 the nucleus.
 
 46.
Refer to the illustration above. The cell uses structure 3 to
a.
 transport material from one part of the cell to another.
b.
 package proteins so they can be stored by the cell.
c.
 use light energy to make sugar.
d.
 use energy from organic compounds to make ATP.
 
 47.
Refer to the illustration above. The cell shown is probably an animal cell because it
a.
 has mitochondria.
c.
 has a cell membrane.
b.
 does not have a cell wall.
d.
 does not have a nucleus.
 
 48.
Microfilaments, microtubules, and intermediate fibers are three kinds of cytoskeleton
a.
 protein fibers.
c.
 organelles.
b.
 membranes.
d.
 DNA.
 
 49.
What kind of cytoskeleton fibers could help a cell change shape to fit into a space?
a.
 microfilaments
c.
 intermediate fibers
b.
 microtubules
d.
 tubulin fibers
 
 50.
Which of the following is true of both DNA and some proteins?
a.
 made in nucleus
b.
 made in ribosomes
c.
 must be kept separate from cytoplasm
d.
 must be kept separate from nucleus
 
 51.
cell : cell membrane ::
a.
 nucleus : DNA
c.
 organelle : cell
b.
 nucleus : nuclear envelope
d.
 cell : DNA
 
 52.
The double membrane surrounding the nucleus is called the
a.
 nucleolus.
c.
 ribosome.
b.
 nuclear wall.
d.
 nuclear envelope.
 
 53.
In a cell, proteins are made on the
a.
 mitochondria.
c.
 nucleus.
b.
 ribosomes.
d.
 cell membrane.
 
 54.
Where are bound ribosomes located?
a.
 suspended in the cytosol
b.
 inside the nucleus
c.
 attached to membranes of another organelle
d.
 outside the cell membrane
 
 55.
The organelle that moves proteins and other substances through the cell is the
a.
 endoplasmic reticulum.
c.
 Golgi apparatus.
b.
 mitochondrion.
d.
 cytoplasm.
 
 56.
The organelle that modifies, sorts, and packages proteins is the
a.
 endoplasmic reticulum.
c.
 lysosome.
b.
 ribosome.
d.
 Golgi apparatus.
 
   
 
nar002-1.jpg
 
 57.
Refer to the illustration above. The structures labeled 4 are
a.
 vesicles.
c.
 ribosomes.
b.
 lysosomes.
d.
 chloroplasts.
 
 58.
Refer to the illustration above. Which structure packages proteins for distribution?
a.
 structure 1
c.
 structure 3
b.
 structure 2
d.
 structure 4
 
 59.
Refer to the illustration above. Structure 3 is a(n)
a.
 mitochondrion.
c.
 ribosome.
b.
 endoplasmic reticulum.
d.
 vesicle.
 
 60.
Plant cells have a large membrane-bound compartment in which water, waste products, and nutrients can be stored. This compartment is called the
a.
 mitochondrion.
c.
 Golgi apparatus.
b.
 chloroplast.
d.
 central vacuole.
 
 61.
A cell that requires a lot of energy might contain large numbers of
a.
 chromosomes.
c.
 mitochondria.
b.
 vacuoles.
d.
 lysosomes.
 
 62.
The organelles associated with plant photosynthesis are the
a.
 mitochondria.
c.
 Golgi apparatus.
b.
 chloroplasts.
d.
 vacuoles.
 
 63.
sunlight : chloroplasts ::
a.
 chloroplasts : lysosomes
c.
 organic compounds : ribosomes
b.
 organic compounds : mitochondria
d.
 ATP : vesicles
 
 64.
What do chloroplasts and mitochondria have in common?
a.
 absorption of light energy
c.
 production of ATP
b.
 presence in all cells
d.
 digestion of cell wastes
 
 65.
All the following are found in both plant and animal cells, except
a.
 a cell wall.
c.
 mitochondria.
b.
 a cell membrane.
d.
 endoplasmic reticulum.
 
 66.
Short, thick outgrowths that allow prokaryotes to attach to surfaces or each other are called
a.
 flagella.
c.
 microfilaments.
b.
 microtubules.
d.
 pili.
 
 67.
Which of the following is an example of a prokaryotic cell?
a.
 chloroplast
c.
 bacterium
b.
 fungus
d.
 muscle cell
 
 68.
Which of the following pairs contains unrelated items?
a.
 eukaryote-plant
c.
 cell wall-animal cell
b.
 ribosome-protein
d.
 mitochondria-ATP
 
 69.
What level of organization is the small intestine?
a.
 cell
c.
 organ
b.
 tissue
d.
 organ system
 
 70.
Which of the following statements about colonial organisms is correct?
a.
 They are multicellular.
b.
 Their cell activities are integrated.
c.
 They are a collection of different kinds of cells.
d.
 They can survive when separated.
 
  

Completion
Complete each statement.
 
   71.
All cells arise from ____________________.
 
 

 
   72.
The basic unit of structure and function in an organism is the ____________________.
 
 

 
   73.
The statement that “cells arise only from existing cells” is part of the ____________________.
 
 

 
   74.
As a cell’s size decreases, its surface area-to-volume ratio ____________________.
 
 

 
   75.
The surface area-to-volume ratio limits a cell’s ____________________.
 
 

 
   76.
Eukaryotic cells contain specialized structures called ____________________.
 
 

 
   77.
A cell with a nucleus is a(n) ____________________ cell.
 
 

 
   78.
Scientists think that ____________________ cells evolved about 1.5 billion years ago.
 
 

 
   79.
All substances that enter or leave a cell must cross the cell ____________________.
 
 

 
   80.
The ____________________ houses a cell’s DNA, which contains genetic material.
 
 

 
   81.
The organelles where protein synthesis occurs in a cell are called ____________________.
 
 

 
   82.
Prokaryotic cells have a cell ____________________ that surrounds the cell membrane.
 
 

 
   83.
Some prokaryotic cells have a ____________________ that surrounds the cell wall.
 
 

 
   84.
____________________ cells have a system of internal membranes that divides the cytoplasm into compartments.
 
 

 
   85.
The web of protein fibers that supports the shape of the cell is called the ____________________.
 
 

 
   86.
The cytoskeleton’s network of ____________________ fibers anchors cell organelles.
 
 

 
   87.
A ribosome is made of ____________________ and many proteins.
 
 

 
   88.
DNA instructions are copied as ____________________ messages.
 
 

 
   89.
Ribosomes use RNA messages to assemble ____________________.
 
 

 
   90.
The ____________________ is a structure that makes ribosome parts in the nucleus.
 
 

 
   91.
Rough endoplasmic reticulum has ____________________ attached to its surface.
 
 

 
   92.
____________________ endoplasmic reticulum has no attached ribosomes.
 
 

 
   93.
Vesicles that contain newly made proteins move through the ____________________ from the ER to the Golgi apparatus.
 
 

 
   94.
Vesicles help maintain ____________________ by storing and releasing various substances as the cell needs them.
 
 

 
   95.
Lysosomes work by fusing with other ____________________.
 
 

 
   96.
Photosynthesis takes place in the ____________________ of plant cells.
 
 

 
   97.
Both plant cells and animal cells have cell membranes. In addition, plant cells are surrounded by a(n) ____________________.
 
 

 
   98.
In multicellular organisms, similar cells group together to make ____________________.
 
 

 
   99.
A group of identical cells that can survive alone if separated are called ____________________ organisms.
 
 

 
  

Short Answer
 
   100.
Why did it take more than 150 years for scientists to appreciate the discoveries of Hook and Leeuwenhoek?
 

 
   101.
What are the three parts of the cell theory?
 

 
   102.
What happens to a cell’s surface area-to-volume ratio as the cell gets larger?
 

 
   103.
How can a large cell have a large surface area-to-volume ratio?
 

 
   104.
What is the difference in the location of DNA in a prokaryotic cell and in a eukaryotic cell?
 

 
   105.
What is the function of organelles in eukaryotic cells?
 

 
   106.
Describe the characteristics of DNA in a prokaryotic cell.
 

 
   107.
What are three kinds of cytoskeleton in eukaryotic cells?
 

 
   108.
What are three functions of the cytoskeleton?
 

 
   109.
Where are ribosome parts made and assembled?
 

 
   110.
What kind of ribosomes makes proteins that remain inside the cell?
 

 
   111.
How does the appearance of the two kinds of endoplasmic reticulum differ? What causes the difference?
 

 
   112.
What happens to the vesicle membrane of a vesicle that migrates to the cell membrane and releases proteins to the outside of the cell?
 

 
   113.
What is the function of a contractile vacuole in a protist?
 

 
   114.
Describe what happens in a protist after the cell membrane surrounds food outside the cell.
 

 
   115.
What is the difference between the energy source of chloroplasts and mitochondria? What do the two organelles have in common?
 

 
   116.
Compare the functions of flagella and pili in prokaryotes.
 

 
   117.
What are three structures present in plant cells but not in animal cells?
 

 
   118.
What are the levels of organization of cells in a multicellular organism?
 

 
   119.
How does a multicellular organism develop from a single cell?
 

 
  

Essay
 
   120.
Small cells function more efficiently than large cells do. Briefly explain why this is true, using the concept of surface area-to-volume ratio.
 

 
   121.
Describe the making of a ribosome. Include the difference between the two kinds of ribosomes.
 

 
   122.
Describe the movement of proteins through the internal membrane system of a cell.
 

 

 

 
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