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Multiple Choice
Identify the choice that best completes the statement or answers the question.

What is a localized group of organisms that belong to the same species?

a.	biosystem
b.	community
c.	population
d.	ecosystem
e.	organ system

Plants convert the energy of sunlight into

a.	the energy of motion.
b.	carbon dioxide and water.
c.	the potential energy of chemical bonds.
d.	minerals.
e.	kinetic energy.

As a result of photosynthesis, plants release ____ into the atmosphere.

a.	methane
b.	carbon dioxide
c.	water
d.	minerals
e.	oxygen

Which of the following is the main source of energy for producers such as plants and other photosynthetic organisms?

a.	sunlight or solar energy
b.	carbon dioxide or kinetic energy
c.	heat or thermal energy
d.	chemicals or chemical energy
e.	both B and D

The dynamics of any ecosystem include the following major processes:

a.	the flow of energy from sunlight to producers
b.	the flow of energy from sunlight to producers and then to consumers
c.	the recycling of chemical nutrients
d.	the flow of energy to producers and the recycling of nutrients
e.	the flow of energy from sunlight to producers and then to consumers, and the recycling of chemical nutrients

What are the basic “building blocks” of deoxyribonucleic acid (DNA)?

a.	100,000 different kinds of proteins
b.	26 different kinds of chromosomes
c.	20 different kinds of amino acids
d.	4 different kinds of nucleotides
e.	3 different kinds of genomes

Which of the following is reflective of the phrase “the whole is greater than the sum of its parts”?

a.	high-throughput technology
b.	emergent properties
c.	natural selection
d.	reductionism
e.	feedback regulations

Prokaryotic and eukaryotic cells generally have which of the following features in common?

a.	a membrane-bounded nucleus
b.	a cell wall made of cellulose
c.	ribosomes
d.	flagella or cilia that contain microtubules
e.	linear chromosomes made of DNA and protein

Which of the following are characteristics shared by members of both domain Bacteria and domain Archaea?

a.	cytosol
b.	nucleus
c.	DNA
d.	A and C only
e.	A, B, and C

A water sample from a hot thermal vent contained a single-celled organism that lacked a nucleus. What is its most likely classification?

a.	domain Eukarya
b.	domain Archaea
c.	kingdom Animalia
d.	kingdom Protista
e.	kingdom Fungi

In a hypothetical world, every 50 years people over 6 feet tall are eliminated from the population. Based on your knowledge of natural selection, you would predict that the average height of the human population will

a.	remain unchanged.
b.	gradually decline.
c.	rapidly decline.
d.	gradually increase.
e.	rapidly increase.

The method of scientific inquiry that describes natural structures and processes as accurately as possible through careful observation and the analysis of data is known as

a.	hypothesis-based science.
b.	discovery science.
c.	experimental science.
d.	quantitative science.
e.	qualitative science.

What is a hypothesis?

a.	the same thing as an unproven theory
b.	a tentative explanation that can be tested and is falsifiable
c.	a verifiable observation sensed directly, or sensed indirectly with the aid of scientific instrumentation
d.	a fact based on qualitative data that is testable
e.	a fact based on quantitative data that is falsifiable

The statement “If you show your dog affection, then your dog will seek your company” is an example of

a.	a statement that can be tested.
b.	a statement derived from a hypothesis.
c.	a prediction.
d.	deductive reasoning.
e.	all of the above

Trace elements are those required by an organism in only minute quantities. Which of the following is a trace element that is required by humans and other vertebrates?

a.	nitrogen
b.	calcium
c.	iodine
d.	sodium
e.	phosphorus

Which of the following statements is false?

a.	Atoms of the various elements differ in their number of subatomic particles.
b.	All atoms of a particular element have the same number of protons in their nuclei.
c.	The neutrons and protons present in the nucleus of an atom are almost identical in mass; each has a mass of about 1 dalton.
d.	An atom is the smallest unit of an element that still retains the properties of the element.
e.	Protons and electrons are electrically charged particles. Protons have one unit of negative charge, and electrons have one unit of positive charge.

Each element is unique and different from other elements because of the number of protons in the nuclei of its atoms. Which of the following indicates the number of protons in an atom’s nucleus?

a.	atomic mass
b.	atomic weight
c.	atomic number
d.	mass weight
e.	mass number

The mass number of an element can be easily approximated by adding together the number of ____ in an atom of that element.

a.	protons and neutrons
b.	energy levels
c.	protons and electrons
d.	neutrons and electrons
e.	isotopes

The nucleus of a nitrogen atom contains 7 neutrons and 7 protons. Which of the following is a correct statement concerning nitrogen?

a.	The nitrogen atom has a mass number of approximately 7 daltons and an atomic mass of 14.
b.	The nitrogen atom has a mass number of approximately 14 daltons and an atomic mass of 7.
c.	The nitrogen atom has a mass number of 14 and an atomic mass of 7 grams.
d.	The nitrogen atom has a mass number of 7 grams and an atomic number of 14.
e.	The nitrogen atom has a mass number of 14 and an atomic mass of approximately 14 daltons.

An atom with an atomic number of 9 and a mass number of 19 would have an atomic mass of approximately

a.	9 daltons.
b.	9 grams.
c.	10 daltons.
d.	20 grams.
e.	19 daltons.

Two isotopes of the same element will have different numbers of

a.	protons.
b.	neutrons.
c.	electrons.
d.	protons and neutrons.
e.	neutrons and electrons.

Electrons exist only at fixed levels of potential energy. However, if an atom absorbs sufficient energy, a possible result is that

a.	an electron may move to an electron shell farther out from the nucleus.
b.	an electron may move to an electron shell closer to the nucleus.
c.	the atom may become a radioactive isotope.
d.	the atom would become a positively charged ion, or cation.
e.	the atom would become a negatively charged ion, or anion.

The atomic number of neon is 10. Therefore, which of the following is correct about an atom of neon?

a.	It has 8 electrons in its outer electron shell.
b.	It is inert.
c.	It has an atomic mass of 10 daltons.
d.	A and B only
e.	A, B, and C are correct.

From its atomic number of 15, it is possible to predict that the phosphorus atom has

a.	15 neutrons.
b.	15 protons.
c.	15 electrons.
d.	8 electrons in its outermost electron shell.
e.	B and C only

Use the figure below to answer the following questions.

Which drawing depicts the electron configuration of oxygen (O)?

a.	Drawing A
b.	Drawing B
c.	Drawing C
d.	Drawing D
e.	Drawing E

Which drawing depicts an atom that is inert or chemically unreactive?

a.	Drawing A
b.	Drawing B
c.	Drawing C
d.	Drawing D
e.	Drawing E

Which drawing depicts an atom with a valence of 2?

a.	Drawing A
b.	Drawing B
c.	Drawing C
d.	Drawing D
e.	Drawing E

Use the information extracted from the periodic table in the figure below to answer the following questions.

How many electrons does nitrogen have in its valence shell?

a.	2
b.	5
c.	7
d.	8
e.	14

How many neutrons are present in the nucleus of a phosphorus atom?

a.	8
b.	15
c.	16
d.	31
e.	46

How many electrons would be expected in the outermost electron shell of an atom with atomic number 12?

a.	1
b.	2
c.	4
d.	6
e.	8

What results from an unequal sharing of electrons between atoms?

a.	a nonpolar covalent bond
b.	a polar covalent bond
c.	an ionic bond
d.	a hydrogen bond
e.	a hydrophobic interaction

A covalent bond is likely to be polar when

a.	one of the atoms sharing electrons is much more electronegative than the other atom.
b.	the two atoms sharing electrons are equally electronegative.
c.	the two atoms sharing electrons are of the same element.
d.	it is between two atoms that are both very strong electron acceptors.
e.	the two atoms sharing electrons are different elements.

Use the figure below to answer the following questions. .

What results from the chemical reaction?

a.	a cation with a net charge of +1
b.	a cation with a net charge of -1
c.	an anion with a net charge of +1
d.	an anion with a net charge of -1
e.	A and D

What is the atomic number of the cation formed in the reaction?

a.	1
b.	8
c.	10
d.	11
e.	16

In ammonium chloride salt (NH4Cl) the anion is a single chloride ion, . What is the cation of NH4Cl?

a.	N, with a charge of +3
b.	H, with a charge of +1
c.	H2 with a charge of +4
d.	NH4 with a charge of +1
e.	NH4 with a charge of +4

Van der Waals interactions result when

a.	hybrid orbitals overlap.
b.	electrons are not symmetrically distributed in a molecule.
c.	molecules held by ionic bonds react with water.
d.	two polar covalent bonds react.
e.	a hydrogen atom loses an electron.

A van der Waals interaction is the weak attraction between

a.	the electrons of one molecule and the electrons of a nearby molecule.
b.	the nucleus of one molecule and the electrons of a nearby molecule.
c.	a polar molecule and a nearby nonpolar molecule.
d.	a polar molecule and a nearby molecule that is also polar.
e.	a nonpolar molecule and a nearby molecule that is also nonpolar.

Which of the following is not considered to be a weak molecular interaction?

a.	a covalent bond
b.	a van der Waals interaction
c.	an ionic bond in the presence of water
d.	a hydrogen bond
e.	A and B only

An example of a hydrogen bond is the bond between

a.	C and H in methane (CH4).
b.	the H of one water molecule and the O of another water molecule.
c.	Na+and Cl- in salt.
d.	the two hydrogen atoms in a molecule of hydrogen gas (H2).
e.	Mg+and Cl- in MgCl2.

Which of the following is a correct definition of a kilocalorie?

a.	the amount of heat required to raise the temperature of 1 g of water by 1°F
b.	the amount of heat required to raise the temperature of 1 g of water by 1°C
c.	the amount of heat required to raise the temperature of 1 kg of water by 1°F
d.	the amount of heat required to raise the temperature of 1 kg of water by 1°C
e.	the amount of heat required to raise the temperature of 1,000 g of water by 1°F

Desert rabbits are adapted to the warm climate because their large ears aid in the removal of heat due to the

a.	high surface tension of water.
b.	high heat of vaporization of water.
c.	high specific heat of water.
d.	buffering capacity of water.
e.	dissociation of water molecules.

Temperature usually increases when water condenses. Which behavior of water is most directly responsible for this phenomenon?

a.	the change in density when it condenses to form a liquid or solid
b.	reactions with other atmospheric compounds
c.	the release of heat by the formation of hydrogen bonds
d.	the release of heat by the breaking of hydrogen bonds
e.	the high surface tension of water

How many molecules of glucose (C6H2O6 molecular mass =180 daltons) would be present in one mole of glucose?

a.	24
b.	342
c.	23 1014
d.	180 1014
e.	6.02 1023

Use the figure below to answer the following questions:

How many grams of the molecule in the figure above would be required to make 2.5 L of a 1 M solution of the molecule?
(Carbon = 12, Oxygen = 16, Hydrogen = 1)

a.	29
b.	30
c.	60
d.	150
e.	342

Which of the following ionizes completely in solution and is considered to be a strong base?

a.	NaCl
b.	HCl
c.	NH3
d.	H2CO3
e.	NaOH

A given solution contains 0.0001(10-4) moles of hydrogen ions [H+] per liter. Which of the following best describes this solution?

a.	acidic: H+ acceptor
b.	basic: H+ acceptor
c.	acidic: H+ donor
d.	basic: H+ donor
e.	neutral

A solution contains 0.0000001(10-7) moles of hydroxide ions [OH-] per liter. Which of the following best describes this solution?

a.	acidic: H+ acceptor
b.	basic: H+ acceptor
c.	acidic: H+ donor
d.	basic: H+ donor
e.	neutral

Which of the following solutions has the greatest concentration of hydroxide ions [OH-]?

a.	lemon juice at pH 2
b.	vinegar at pH 3
c.	tomato juice at pH 4
d.	urine at pH 6
e.	seawater at pH 8

Which of the following statements is true about buffer solutions?

a.	They maintain a constant pH when bases are added to them but not when acids are added to them.
b.	They maintain a constant pH when acids are added to them but not when bases are added to them.
c.	They maintain a constant pH of exactly 7 in all living cells and biological fluids.
d.	They maintain a relatively constant pH.
e.	They are found only in living systems and biological fluids.

One of the buffers that contribute to pH stability in human blood is carbonic acid H2CO3. Carbonic acid is a weak acid that when placed in an aqueous solution dissociates into a bicarbonate ion (HCO3-) and a hydrogen ion (H+) Thus,

If the pH of the blood increases, one would expect

a.	a decrease in the concentration of H2CO3 and an increase in the concentration of H2O.
b.	an increase in the concentration of H2CO3 and a decrease in the concentration of H2O.
c.	a decrease in the concentration of HCO3- and an increase in the concentration of H2O.
d.	an increase in the concentration of HCO3- and a decrease in the concentration of H2O.
e.	a decrease in the concentration of HCO3- and an increase in the concentration of both H2CO3and H2O.

Multiple Choice
Identify the choice that best completes the statement or answers the question.

Biology is the study of

a.	minerals.	c.	the weather.
b.	life.	d.	energy.

All organisms possess DNA. DNA

a.	creates energy for cells.
b.	allows sensitivity to environmental stimuli.
c.	contains information for growth and development.
d.	captures energy from the sun.

Instructions for traits that are passed from parents to offspring are known as

a.	a species plan.	c.	genes.
b.	organ codes.	d.	natural selections.

Homeostasis means

a.	a change over long periods of time.
b.	keeping things the same.
c.	rapid change.
d.	the same thing as evolution.

Ecology

a.	refers to change in species over time.
b.	refers to a delicate internal balance within organisms.
c.	is inconsistent with evolution.
d.	is the study of communities or organisms in relation to their environment.

Which of the following is not necessarily a characteristic of living things?

a.	homeostasis	c.	complexity
b.	metabolism	d.	reproduction

The smallest units that can carry on all the functions of life are called

a.	molecules.	c.	organelles.
b.	cells.	d.	species.

Living things

a.	need energy for life processes.
b.	have the ability to reproduce.
c.	are composed of cells.
d.	All of the above

All organisms are composed of

a.	diatoms.	c.	cells.
b.	cellulose.	d.	None of the above

Which of the following is a characteristic of all living things?

a.	movement	c.	development
b.	photosynthesis	d.	cellular organization

Which of the following is not a partial explanation for our lack of understanding of many of the living things on Earth?

a.	Many organisms are microscopic in size and therefore difficult to observe.
b.	Many organisms are so different from other organisms that it is difficult to understand them.
c.	Many organisms live in areas of the world that are difficult to explore.
d.	Tropical rain forests contain many species, and it is difficult to find all of them in these dense forests.

A scientist noticed that in acidic pond water some salamanders developed with curved spines. This was a(n)

a.	hypothesis.	c.	observation.
b.	theory.	d.	control.

Which example of scientific methodology is incorrect?

a.	observation—a number of people in a certain place dying of a disease outbreak
b.	measurement—a record of the number of people with symptoms of a disease and the number of people who had died from the disease
c.	analysis of data—comparison of the effects of mixing monkey cells with virus-containing blood in test tubes and the effects of mixing liquid from these test tubes with fresh monkey cells
d.	inference making—identification of the Ebola virus as the cause of a disease by taking electron micrographs of substances found in the blood of persons affected with the disease

The English physician Ronald Ross wanted to try to find the cause of malaria. Based on his observations, Dr. Ross suggested that the Anopheles mosquito might spread malaria from person to person. This suggestion was a

a.	prediction.	c.	theory.
b.	hypothesis.	d.	scientific “truth.”

The English physician Ronald Ross knew that the parasite Plasmodium was always found in the blood of malaria patients. He thought that if the Anopheles mosquitoes were responsible for spreading malaria, then Plasmodium would be found in the mosquitoes. This idea was a

a.	prediction.	c.	theory.
b.	hypothesis.	d.	scientific “truth.”

Scientific hypotheses are most often tested by the process of

a.	communicating.	c.	experimenting.
b.	inferring.	d.	analyzing data.

A unifying explanation for a broad range of observations is a

a.	hypothesis.	c.	prediction.
b.	theory.	d.	controlled experiment.

A hypothesis that does not explain an observation

a.	is known as an inaccurate forecast.
b.	often predicts a different observation.
c.	is rejected.
d.	None of the above

Scientists usually design experiments

a.	with a good idea of the expected experimental results.
b.	based on wild guesses.
c.	in order to develop new laboratory tools.
d.	All of the above

A scientific theory

a.	is absolutely certain.
b.	is unchangeable.
c.	may be revised as new evidence is presented.
d.	is a controlled experiment.

The word theory used in a scientific sense means

a.	a highly tested, generally accepted principle.
b.	a guess made with very little knowledge to support it.
c.	an absolute scientific certainty.
d.	None of the above

observation : hypothesis ::

a.	theory : observation	c.	hypothesis : experiment
b.	guess : hypothesis	d.	theory : control

Which of the following components of a scientific investigation would benefit from communication between scientists?

a.	observing	c.	analyzing data
b.	measuring	d.	All of the above

Typically, the order in which the steps of the scientific method are applied is

a.	observations, predictions, hypothesis, controlled testing, theory, verification.
b.	predictions, observations, hypothesis, theory, controlled testing, verification.
c.	observations, hypothesis, predictions, controlled testing, theory, verification.
d.	observations, hypothesis, predictions, controlled testing, verification, theory.

A light microscope that has an objective lens of 10 and an ocular lens of 20 has a magnification of

a.	30.	c.	300.
b.	200.	d.	2000.

Which of the following is not a correct association between an SI base unit abbreviation and its base quantity?

a.	A—area
b.	m—length
c.	s—time
d.	mol—amount of a substance

Atoms are composed of

a.	protons with a positive charge.
b.	neutrons with no charge.
c.	electrons with a negative charge.
d.	All of the above

The smallest particle of carbon that can retain the chemical properties of carbon is

a.	a carbon molecule.
b.	a carbon macromolecule.
c.	a carbon atom.
d.	the nucleus of a carbon atom.

A substance that is composed of only one type of atom is called a(n)

a.	nucleus.	c.	element.
b.	cell.	d.	molecule.

All matter in the universe is composed of

a.	cells.	c.	atoms.
b.	molecules.	d.	carbon.

The electrons of an atom

a.	are found in the nucleus along with the protons.
b.	orbit the nucleus in various energy levels.
c.	have a positive charge.
d.	are attracted to the positive charge of neutrons.

Atoms that have gained energy

a.	have protons and neutrons that move farther apart.
b.	lose neutrons from the nucleus.
c.	have electrons that move to higher energy levels.
d.	absorb electrons into the nucleus.

Which of the following states of matter contain(s) particles that are tightly linked together in a definite shape?

a.	solid	c.	gas
b.	liquid	d.	solid and liquid

Because carbon has four electrons in its outer energy level,

a.	it can form bonds with carbon atoms only.
b.	these atoms are naturally chemically stable.
c.	it can react with up to four other atoms to form covalent bonds.
d.	it cannot react with anything other than organic molecules.

The bond formed when two atoms share a pair of electrons is called a

a.	hydrogen bond.	c.	covalent bond.
b.	nonpolar bond.	d.	water bond.

Sharing of electrons between atoms of two or more elements

a.	results in the formation of an ion.
b.	results in the formation of a compound.
c.	results in the formation of noble gases.
d.	results in destabilization of the atoms involved.

Which of the following statements most accurately describes the difference between an ionic bond and a covalent bond?

a.	Atoms held together by ionic bonds separate when placed in water, while atoms held together by covalent bonds do not separate in water.
b.	Ionic bonds hold together atoms of two different types, while covalent bonds hold together atoms of the same type.
c.	Electrons are exchanged between atoms held together by an ionic bond, but they are shared between atoms held together by a covalent bond.
d.	Ionic bonds form between atoms that carry opposite charges, while covalent bonds form between uncharged atoms.

Refer to the graph above. Reaction 1 in the graph

a.	is an energy-storing reaction.
b.	requires a greater activation energy than reaction 2.
c.	may use the same initial reactant condition needed to form product Y.
d.	All of the above

Refer to the graph above. Which of these statements regarding the graph is true?

a.	Reaction 2 occurs faster than reaction 3 because reaction 2 requires more energy than reaction 3.
b.	The difference in the graphs shown for reaction 2 and reaction 3 is due to a difference in the activation energy needed for these reactions.
c.	Reactant X contains more energy at the beginning of the reaction than product Z has after the reaction.
d.	All of the above

Changing the course or pathway of a chemical reaction so that it requires less activation energy

a.	is a violation of the laws of nature.
b.	requires higher temperatures than those found within cells.
c.	occurs only when reactants are quickly added to the reaction mixture.
d.	is accomplished by the action of catalysts on reactants.

When a molecule gains an electron, it has been

a.	oxidized.	c.	digested.
b.	reduced.	d.	inactivated.

The concentration of a solution is

a.	the number of particles of a substance in a solvent.
b.	the amount of a solvent that is dissolved in a fixed amount of a solution.
c.	the amount of a solute that is dissolved in a fixed amount of a solution.
d.	the ratio of solute to solvent in a solution.

A neutral solution has an equal number of

a.	hydrogen and hydronium ions.
b.	hydroxide and hydronium ions.
c.	hydrogen and hydroxide ions.
d.	oxygen and hydrogen ions.

A solution with a pH of 11 is

a.	acidic.	c.	neutral.
b.	alkaline.	d.	a buffer.

Acidic solutions have a pH that is

a.	less than 7.	c.	a negative number.
b.	between 0 and 14.	d.	more than 7.

Buffers

a.	are of relatively little importance in living things.
b.	are formed when a large number of hydroxide ions are released in a solution.
c.	are formed when a large number of hydronium ions are released in a solution.
d.	tend to prevent great fluctuations in pH.

Atoms become more stable when they form compounds because

a.	they always lose electrons when they form compounds.
b.	their outer orbitals become filled when they form compounds.
c.	they always gain electrons when they form compounds.
d.	their nucleus loses extra protons when they form compounds.

A water molecule is polar because its hydrogen and oxygen atoms

a.	both lose electrons.
b.	become ions.
c.	both gain electrons.
d.	do not share the electrons equally.

Water molecules break up other polar substances

a.	such as salts.
b.	because of the uneven charge distribution that exists in water molecules.
c.	thus freeing ions in these substances for use by the body.
d.	All of the above

Which of the following characteristics of water is not a result of hydrogen bonding?

a.	adhesive strength
b.	capillarity
c.	cohesive strength
d.	All of the above are a result of hydrogen bonding.

Name: 

Multiple Choice
Identify the choice that best completes the statement or answers the question.

The smallest unit that can carry out all activities we associate with life is:

a.	atom.
b.	organelle.
c.	cell.
d.	tissue.
e.	organ.

What characteristic of cells could be used to determine the presence or absence of life?

a.	presence of organic molecules
b.	presence of inorganic molecules
c.	alteration of concentrations of organic and/or inorganic molecules
d.	relatively constant concentrations of organic and/or inorganic molecules
e.	None of the above would be useful in determining the presence or absence of life.

Which of the following is not found in single celled organisms?

a.	atoms
b.	cells
c.	tissues
d.	Neither A nor B is found in single celled organisms.
e.	Neither A, nor B, nor C is found in single celled organisms.

Evidence that all living cells have a common origin is provided by:

a.	the cell theory, which states that the cell is the basic unit of life.
b.	the fact that all new cells come from previously existing cells.
c.	the fact that cells are the building blocks of the most complex plants.
d.	basic similarities in cell structure and chemistry.
e.	the fact that cells are the smallest units that can carry out all life activities.

As biologists continue to unlock the secrets of ________, many new doors are opening to development of medical treatments.

a.	proteins
b.	mitochondria
c.	cell membranes
d.	DNA
e.	ribosomes

The function of the plasma membrane is to:

a.	serve as a highly selective barrier.
b.	completely isolate the cell from the external environment.
c.	equalize the chemical composition inside and outside the cell.
d.	allow cells to accumulate materials and energy.
e.	Both A and D.

It is advantageous for cells to be small because:

a.	a small cell size prevents a cell from weighing too much.
b.	a small cell size occupies less space in nature where space is limited.
c.	a small cell has a small volume relative to surface area, thereby increasing efficient transport.
d.	a small cell has a small surface area relative to volume, thereby facilitating ion balance.
e.	a small cell is better able to conserve energy than a larger cell.

Figure 04-01
Use the figure below to answer the corresponding questions.

Which of the following statements about Figure 04-01 is true?

a.	Figure B has a greater surface area than Figure A.
b.	Figure B has a greater volume than Figure A.
c.	Figure B has a smaller volume than Figure A.
d.	Figure B has a greater surface area to volume ratio than Figure A.
e.	Figure B has a smaller surface area to volume ratio than Figure A.

Based on your knowledge of basic geometric relationships, the actual surface area to volume ratio for Figure B in Figure 04-01 is:

a.	0.01.
b.	0.06.
c.	100.
d.	1,000.
e.	This cannot be determined from the information provided.

One strategy that allows larger cells to have an effective surface area to volume ratio is:

a.	having a completely spherical shape.
b.	being short and fat.
c.	having thin, finger-like projections.
d.	having a thinner plasma membrane.
e.	locomotion.

Which of the following is not an example of homeostasis?

a.	A cell maintains a constant pH.
b.	A cell maintains a constant glucose concentration.
c.	A cell maintains a constant salt concentration.
d.	A cell maintains a constant water concentration.
e.	All of the above are examples of homeostasis.

Which of the following descriptions or structures does not match the cell type?

a.	Sperm cells have flagella.
b.	Nerve cells have long, thin extensions.
c.	Epithelial cells are rectangular.
d.	White blood cells can change shape.
e.	All of the above are correct.

Which scientist first viewed living cells?

a.	Robert Hooke
b.	Matthias Schleiden
c.	Theodor Schwann
d.	Anton van Leeuwenhoek
e.	August Weismann

The ratio of the size of the image seen with the microscope to the actual size of the object is:

a.	magnification.
b.	resolution.
c.	resolving power.
d.	centrifugation.
e.	None of the above.

Electron microscopes have a much higher resolution than either the human eye or any light microscope because:

a.	of their higher magnification.
b.	the lenses used are of much higher quality.
c.	of the very short (nanometer) wavelengths of electrons.
d.	the images are viewed on screens, rather than directly using an eyepiece or ocular lens.
e.	All of the above.

The advantage of studying cells using a phase contrast microscope is that:

a.	the magnification is greater.
b.	the resolving power is greater.
c.	it is faster.
d.	it permits us to view internal structures of live cells.
e.	it uses a beam of electrons to allow us to see the organelles enclosed by the plasma membrane.

The accompanying figure is the product of a:

a.	phase-contrast light microscope.
b.	Nomarski differential interference microscope.
c.	transmission electron microscope.
d.	scanning electron microscope.
e.	confocal fluorescence microscope.

The scanning electron microscope differs from the transmission electron microscope in that the scanning electron microscope:

a.	can view a live specimen.
b.	relies on the detection of electrons from the beam after contact with the specimens.
c.	can view the internal structure of a cell.
d.	utilizes a beam of light that passes through the specimen.
e.	gives a three dimensional image of the object being studied.

Differential centrifugation is a process that:

a.	separates different components of the cell that function differently.
b.	separates components of the cell that have a different chemical makeup.
c.	analyzes the chemical components of the cell.
d.	separates components of the cell that have different densities.
e.	allows researchers to view the contents of the cells.

Which cell structure would not be in a eukaryotic cell, but would be found in a prokaryotic cell?

a.	cell wall
b.	flagellum
c.	ribosomes
d.	Gogli complex
e.	DNA

Membrane-bounded organelles facilitate faster chemical reactions because:

a.	reactants are within close proximity to each other.
b.	membranes lower the activation energy of biochemical reactions.
c.	membrane-bounded organelles act as catalysts for biochemical reactions.
d.	reactants move faster within membrane-bounded organelles.
e.	reactants are less likely to encounter each other within membrane-bounded organelles.

A eukaryotic cell:

a.	is usually smaller than a prokaryotic cell.
b.	has its DNA concentrated in one area of the cell without a nuclear membrane.
c.	typically has a cell wall, in addition to a plasma membrane.
d.	is a bacteria-like organism.
e.	has a variety of membranous organelles.

Membranes facilitate all of the following except:

a.	facilitating the formation of energy-yielding gradients.
b.	acting as barriers to ions.
c.	acting as important “work benches” within cells.
d.	directing the synthesis of proteins.
e.	maintaining the identity of different cellular compartments.

Which of the following structures would not be found in cells of a plant’s roots?

a.	mitochondria
b.	chloroplasts
c.	endoplasmic reticulum
d.	nucleus
e.	All of the above would be found in cells of a plant’s root.

Select the cell type that is not correctly matched with the type of predominate organelle it would need to perform its unique function:

a.	Sperm cells have many mitochondria to provide energy for the flagellum.
b.	Pancreas cells have many ribosomes to produce the protein insulin.
c.	Liver cells have many ribosomes to produce detoxifying protein enzymes.
d.	Plant leaf cells have many chloroplasts to produce sugar by using energy from sunlight.
e.	All of the cells above are correctly matched with the predominate type of organelle they would need to perform their unique function.

Which of the following structures or activities is not directly part of the endomembrane system?

a.	budding
b.	lysosomes
c.	ribosomes
d.	peroxisomes
e.	Golgi complex

DNA is associated with proteins, forming a complex known as:

a.	chromosomes.
b.	nucleoli.
c.	nucleus.
d.	genes.
e.	chromatin.

In the classic experiments by Bracht and Hammerling, the nucleus of Acetabularia was removed, the cap was cut off, a nucleus of a different species was inserted, and the cap was allowed to regenerate. The new cap was then removed. After the second regeneration, the cap was observed, and the following conclusion was made:

a.	The shape of the cap was controlled by the nucleus, thus, the nucleus was the control center of the cell.
b.	The shape of the cap was under the control of the stalk, which produced a control substance.
c.	The shape of the cap was independent of both the stalk and the holdfast.
d.	The “cren” caps were defective due to some mutation in the cap. Thus, “cren” caps are independent of control from both the base and the holdfast.
e.	At the time no conclusion could be made because in the early 20th century, biologists did not know about the composition of DNA.

Nucleoli contain chromosomal regions that specialize in making:

a.	proteins.
b.	RNA.
c.	ribosomes.
d.	lipids.
e.	hormones.

If a toxin, such as a bacterial toxin, destroys ribosomes, what cellular activity will be affected first?

a.	protein synthesis
b.	DNA synthesis
c.	movement
d.	energy storage
e.	active transport

Proteins made on ribosomes may be further modified within the:

a.	lysosomes.
b.	nucleus.
c.	mitochondria.
d.	Golgi complex.
e.	peroxisomes.

The smooth endoplasmic reticulum:

a.	is absent in most plant cells.
b.	synthesizes proteins.
c.	provides structural support.
d.	synthesizes lipids.
e.	is required for ribosome synthesis.

Figure 04-02
Use the figure below to answer the corresponding questions.

The cellular structure indicated by the arrow in Figure 04-02 is responsible for:

a.	lipid and fatty acid metabolism.
b.	protein synthesis.
c.	digestion of unused organelles.
d.	replication.
e.	None of the above.

Which of the following statements about the structure surrounded by the box in Figure 04-02 is true?

a.	This structure is only found in plant cells.
b.	This structure is characteristic of both prokaryotic and eukaryotic cells.
c.	This structure plays a central role in the process of transcription.
d.	This structure typically represents a significant portion of the overall cell volume.
e.	This structure represents the main storage area for the cell.

Which of the following pairs is correctly matched?

a.	chloroplast – storage of enzymes
b.	lysosome – powerhouse of the cell
c.	nucleolus – site of ribosomal subunit synthesis
d.	plastids – structural support of the cell
e.	Golgi complex – production of energy

Which of the following organelles plays an important role in apoptosis, or programmed cell death?

a.	ribosomes
b.	mitochondria
c.	chloroplasts
d.	vacuoles
e.	peroxisomes

One function of peroxisomes involves the process of:

a.	cell death.
b.	water storage.
c.	protein synthesis.
d.	DNA replication.
e.	detoxification.

During an infection, white blood cells travel to the infected site and phagocytize the pathogens. After phagocytosis, primary lysosomes fuse with the phagocytic vesicle to form a larger vesicle called a secondary lysosome. The reason for this is:

a.	to introduce antibodies to the phagocytic vesicles.
b.	to wrap the pathogen in additional membrane, rendering them harmless.
c.	to coat the bacteria in lipids derived from the Golgi complex, which cover and smother them.
d.	to mix the pathogens with strong hydrolytic enzymes and destroy them.
e.	to prepare the bacteria for export from the body.

All of the following functions are performed by plant vacuoles except:

a.	maintaining hydrostatic (turgor) pressure.
b.	waste storage and recycling.
c.	storage of proteins.
d.	breakdown of unneeded cellular materials.
e.	storage of nucleic acids.

The theory that chloroplasts and mitochondria had their evolutionary beginnings in eukaryotic cells as endosymbionts is supported by all of the following except:

a.	chloroplasts and mitochondria are completely autonomous within eukaryotic cells.
b.	chloroplasts and mitochondria have DNA.
c.	chloroplasts and mitochondria have small ribosomes for protein synthesis.
d.	chloroplasts and mitochondria are approximately the same size as prokaryotic cells.
e.	chloroplasts and mitochondria have the same shape as prokaryotic cells.

A cellular structure found in plant but not animal cells is the:

a.	chloroplast.
b.	ribosome.
c.	endoplasmic reticulum.
d.	microtubule.
e.	microfilament.

Figure 04-03
Use the figure below to answer the corresponding questions.

Refer to Figure 04-03. The formation of ATP occurs in the portion of the chloroplast labeled:

a.	structure A.
b.	structure B.
c.	structure C.
d.	structure D.
e.	structure E.

The formation of carbohydrates from carbon dioxide and water occurs in the portion of the chloroplast in Figure 04-03 labeled:

a.	structure A.
b.	structure B.
c.	structure C.
d.	structure D.
e.	structure E.

Which of the following is a key component of the cytoskeleton?

a.	membranes
b.	cytoskeleton
c.	DNA
d.	ribosomes
e.	None of the above.

The force necessary to cause microtubules of cilia and flagella to slide alongside one another is provided through the action of _________ proteins, which derive the energy to perform their work directly from ______ molecules.

a.	kinesin; ADP
b.	kinesin; glucose
c.	tubulin; ATP
d.	dynein; ATP
e.	dynein; ADP

The structures in the micrograph could be:

a.	chloroplasts.
b.	cilia.
c.	RER.
d.	flagella.
e.	B and D

Figure 04-04
Use the figure below to answer the corresponding questions.

The organelle featured in Figure 04-04:

a.	is present in a few prokaryotes.
b.	is the major site of protein synthesis in the cell.
c.	plays a vital role in packaging materials to be secreted.
d.	plays a central role in energy metabolism.
e.	is located in the nucleus.

The structures indicated by the arrows in Figure 04-04 are:

a.	thylakoid lamellae.
b.	grana.
c.	cristae.
d.	matrices.
e.	plastids.

The main process that occurs at the site of the structures marked by arrows in Figure 04-04 is:

a.	protein synthesis.
b.	photosynthesis.
c.	conversion of food molecules to ATP.
d.	processing and packaging of proteins.
e.	transcription.

A single cell in a smoker’s lung has become cancerous. It doubles its DNA and divides much faster than a normal lung cell. The most likely change that would have caused this condition took place in the:

a.	nucleus.
b.	nucleolus.
c.	microtubule.
d.	mitochondria.
e.	lysosome.

Cells have internal structures called organelles. Which is not a function of organelles?

a.	Store genetic information.
b.	Convert energy to more usable forms.
c.	Synthesize polymers.
d.	Manufacture membranes.
e.	All of the above are organelle functions.

Which of the following is not a cell covering or part of a cell covering?

a.	glycocalyx
b.	extracellular matrix
c.	cristae
d.	cell wall
e.	integrins

The principle cell adhesion molecules in vertebrates and in many invertebrates are cadherins. These are important in:

a.	preventing the invasiveness of some malignant tumors.
b.	calcium-dependent adhesion between cells that form multicellular sheets.
c.	embryonic development.
d.	cell adhesion in vertebrates and in many invertebrates.
e.	All of the above.

All of the following are functions of the cell membrane except:

a.	transmitting signals.
b.	participating in energy transfer.
c.	being freely permeable.
d.	regulating the passage of materials.
e.	participating in chemical reactions.

Which of the following structures is composed of two layers of phospholipids associated with proteins integrated within or attached to these layers?

a.	cell wall
b.	plasma membrane
c.	microfilaments
d.	flagellum
e.	ribosomes

Phospholipids can form bilayer structures because of their:

a.	rectangular shapes.
b.	amphipathic nature.
c.	ability to dissolve well in water.
d.	inability to associate with other phospholipids.
e.	lack of fatty acids.

Phospholipids can form bilayers because the molecules:

a.	have two distinct regions, one strongly hydrophobic and the other strongly hydrophilic.
b.	are amphipathic molecules.
c.	have cylindrical shapes that allow them to associate with water most easily as a bilayer structure.
d.	Both A and B.
e.	A, B, and C.

A key discovery that weakened the Davson-Danielli “sandwich” model of cell membranes was that:

a.	membrane proteins form a solid sheet on either side of the phospholipid bilayer.
b.	membrane proteins form a solid sheet separating the phospholipid layer.
c.	the phospholipids do not associate with each other in the hydrophobic region of membranes.
d.	membrane proteins were not uniform and did not form flattened sheets.
e.	membrane proteins occurred in regular organized patterns on the surface of membranes.

Proposed the fluid mosaic model of cell membrane structure in 1972:

a.	S. Jonathan Singer.
b.	Garth Nicolson.
c.	Hugh Davson.
d.	Both A and B.
e.	A, B, and C.

Which of the following is a typical component of eukaryotic cell membranes?

a.	DNA
b.	glucose
c.	cholesterol
d.	water
e.	All of the above.

Cholesterol within membranes functions as a(an) ____________ through its interactions with both hydrophobic and hydrophilic parts of phospholipids.

a.	water blocker
b.	pH buffer
c.	energy source
d.	temperature controller
e.	fluidity buffer

In a lipid bilayer, ___________ fatty acid tails face each other within the bilayer and form a region that excludes water.

a.	hypertonic
b.	hyperosmotic
c.	hypotonic
d.	hydrophilic
e.	hydrophobic

Which of the following functions best explains the reason for the asymmetrically oriented structure of the proteins in the cell membrane?

a.	These proteins are manufactured by free ribosomes.
b.	Each type of protein has its own function.
c.	These proteins pass through the ER membrane into the ER lumen.
d.	Enzymes are needed to modify the carbohydrate chains on these proteins.
e.	These proteins are initially formed by ribosomes on the rough ER.

Which of the following is not a function associated with membrane proteins?

a.	Recognition of surface antigens of bacterial cells.
b.	Forming junctions between adjacent cells.
c.	Identify the cell as belonging to a particular individual.
d.	Serve as anchoring points for networks of cytoskeletal elements.
e.	All of the above are functions associated with membrane proteins.

Which of the following is not a function of the transmembrane proteins called aquaporins?

a.	Transmembrane proteins
b.	Facilitate the rapid transport of water through the plasma membrane
c.	Located in mammalian kidney tubules
d.	Respond to specific hormones
e.	All of the above are functions associated with aquaporins.

Catalysts are reusable. Enzymes are protein catalysts, and are reusable. Select the protein(s) below that is (are) not used up by the process carried out:

a.	Sodium-potassium pump carrier proteins
b.	Aquaporins
c.	Proteins involved in facilitated diffusion
d.	Both A and B.
e.	A, B, and C.

Integral proteins:

a.	are weakly bound to the surface of the membrane.
b.	are strongly bound to the cytosolic surface of the membrane.
c.	have no hydrophobic portions.
d.	are completely embedded within the lipid bilayer.
e.	are amphipathic.

What is meant by the term “fluid mosaic model”?

a.	It is the diffusion of lipid-soluble substances through the lipid bilayer.
b.	It is the movement of lipids and integral proteins within the lipid bilayer.
c.	It is the solubility of water in the membrane.
d.	It is the method of substance transport across the membrane.
e.	It is the movement of surface proteins through the membrane.

A transmembrane protein differs from other membrane proteins because it:

a.	is covalently linked to the outer surface of the plasma membrane.
b.	is a glycoprotein with carbohydrates attached.
c.	is attached to the inside of the membrane by an ionic bond.
d.	completely extends through the membrane.
e.	is completely embedded within the membrane.

Peripheral proteins are linked to either surface of the plasma membrane by:

a.	covalent disulfide bonds.
b.	associating with fatty acids through hydrophobic interactions.
c.	embedding in one side of the membrane and, thus, not extending through to the other side.
d.	associating with glycoproteins on the inner membrane surface.
e.	bonding to integral proteins through weak linkages.

Which of the following statements explaining the differences in number and types of peripheral proteins found on the inner and outer surfaces of cell membranes is correct?

a.	The functions of the membrane differ on the inside and outside of the cell.
b.	Not all proteins can pass through the membrane and, thus, more accumulate on the inside.
c.	Proteins on the outside of the membrane are synthesized at a slower rate than proteins on the inside of the membrane.
d.	Proteins on the outside of membrane are made extracellularly and are unable to penetrate the phospholipid bilayer and enter the cell.
e.	The external peripheral proteins are weakly attached to the membrane and are readily washed away.

Proteins that are destined to become associated with the inner surface of the plasma membrane are:

a.	manufactured in the same way as protein hormones.
b.	manufactured in the same way as proteins destined to become external peripheral proteins.
c.	made on free ribosomes in the cytoplasm.
d.	made on ribosomes located on the rough endoplasmic reticulum.
e.	transported to the plasma membrane within a secretory vesicle.

Biological membranes are normally permeable to:

a.	large, hydrophilic molecules.
b.	small, hydrophilic molecules.
c.	large, hydrophobic molecules.
d.	small, hydrophobic molecules.
e.	None of the above.

A bottle of perfume is opened on the opposite side of the room and within minutes you begin to smell the perfume. This phenomenon is a classic example of:

a.	dialysis.
b.	osmosis.
c.	active transport.
d.	facilitated diffusion.
e.	diffusion.

Which of the following molecules is least likely to cross a cellular membrane by simple diffusion?

a.	carbon dioxide
b.	nitrogen
c.	oxygen
d.	potassium ion
e.	water

The passive movement of a substance along its concentration gradient is termed:

a.	active transport.
b.	dialysis.
c.	diffusion.
d.	exocytosis.
e.	osmosis.

Simple diffusion may involve the movement of ______________________ through the plasma membrane down a concentration gradient.

a.	small polar molecules
b.	small nonpolar molecules
c.	large polar molecules
d.	large nonpolar molecules
e.	water

The difference between dialysis and osmosis is that:

a.	in osmosis, the solute moves through a selectively permeable membrane.
b.	in dialysis, the solvent moves through a selectively permeable membrane.
c.	in osmosis, the solute moves from a region of high concentration to a region of low concentration.
d.	in dialysis, the solute moves from a region of high concentration to a region of low concentration.
e.	in dialysis, the solvent moves from a region of high concentration to a region of low concentration through a selectively permeable membrane.

If the concentration of solutes in a cell is less than the concentration of solutes in the surrounding fluid, then the extracellular fluid is said to be:

a.	hypertonic.
b.	hypotonic.
c.	isotonic.
d.	stable.
e.	amphipathic.

The higher the concentration of solute in a solution, the _________ the effective water concentration and the ________ the osmotic pressure.

a.	lower; lower
b.	lower; higher
c.	higher; higher
d.	higher; lower
e.	Answer cannot be determined from the information provided.

Figure 05-01
Use the figure below to answer the corresponding questions.

Which of the following statements about the red blood cells in Figure 05-01 Sample B is true?

a.	These red blood cells have been placed in an isotonic solution.
b.	These red blood cells have swollen in response to a hypertonic external solution.
c.	These red blood cells have swollen in response to a hypotonic external solution.
d.	These red blood cells have shrunken in response to a hypertonic external solution.
e.	These red blood cells have shrunken in response to a hypotonic external solution.

Which of the following statements about the red blood cells in Figure 05-01 Sample A is true?

a.	There has been no net water movement.
b.	There has been a net flow of water out of the cell.
c.	There has been a net flow of water into the cell.
d.	Pinocytosis has occurred.
e.	Plasmolysis has occurred.

A patient who has had a severe hemorrhage accidentally receives a large transfusion of distilled water directly into a major blood vessel. You would expect this mistake to:

a.	have no unfavorable effect as long as the water is free of bacteria.
b.	have serious, perhaps fatal consequences because there would be too much fluid to pump.
c.	have serious, perhaps fatal consequences because the red blood cells could shrink.
d.	have serious, perhaps fatal consequences because the red blood cells could swell and burst.
e.	have no serious effect because the kidney could quickly eliminate excess water.

A plant cell placed in a hypertonic solution will:

a.	remain unchanged.
b.	undergo lysis.
c.	undergo plasmolysis.
d.	swell slightly.
e.	become crenated.

Penicillin is toxic to certain dividing bacterial cells because it prevents cell wall formation, causing the cells to burst. This indicates that the bacteria live in:

a.	a hypotonic medium.
b.	a hypertonic medium.
c.	an isotonic medium.
d.	a medium with higher osmotic pressure than the cell.
e.	Both B and D.

A wilted flower placed in a vase of water for several hours became stiff and stood erect. When it was placed in a salt solution, it wilted. From this information we can say that the cells of the flower are:

a.	hypotonic to both fresh water and the salt solution.
b.	hypertonic to both the fresh water and the salt solution.
c.	hypertonic to fresh water but hypotonic to the salt solution.
d.	hypotonic to fresh water but hypertonic to the salt solution.
e.	isotonic to fresh water but hypotonic to the salt solution.

Which of the following membrane activities does not require the expenditure of energy by the cell?

a.	active transport
b.	osmosis
c.	endocytosis
d.	exocytosis
e.	synthesis of more membrane

Facilitated diffusion:

a.	requires a transmembrane protein.
b.	requires ATP.
c.	can move molecules against a concentration gradient.
d.	is typically used to transport small nonpolar molecules.
e.	All of the above.

A bacterium containing sodium ions at a concentration of 0.1 mM lives in a pond that contains sodium ions at 0.005 mM. Evidently, sodium ions are entering the cell by:

a.	active transport.
b.	endocytosis.
c.	diffusion.
d.	facilitated diffusion.
e.	osmosis.

The energy-requiring movement of materials against a concentration gradient is termed:

a.	active transport.
b.	dialysis.
c.	facilitated diffusion.
d.	osmosis.
e.	plasmolysis.

Although glucose molecules constantly diffuse into a cell along their concentration gradient, equilibrium is never reached and glucose continues to enter the cell. This is a direct result of:

a.	the very fast turnover rate of glucose metabolism.
b.	the continuous excretion of glucose from other parts of the cell.
c.	the rapid and continuous intracellular formation of glucose-6-P.
d.	the active transport of glucose.
e.	the ability of the cell to engulf glucose by pinocytosis.

Which of the following statements about the sodium-potassium pump is true?

a.	It transports hydrogen ions out of the cell.
b.	It transports 3 sodium ions out of the cell in exchange for 2 potassium ions.
c.	It transports 2 sodium ions out of the cell in exchange for 2 potassium ions.
d.	It transports 2 sodium ions out of the cell in exchange for 3 potassium ions.
e.	It transports water directly out of the cell.

A person has a genetic disease that prevents the phospholipids in the plasma membrane of the white blood cells from freely fusing with the other membranes within the cell. How would this disease affect phagocytosis?

a.	Lysosomes would not be formed.
b.	Facilitated diffusion would not occur.
c.	Lysosomes would be formed lacking hydrolytic enzymes.
d.	The phagocytic vacuole would not fuse with the lysosome.
e.	Endocytosis would not occur.

Which of the following are forms of carrier-mediated transport?

a.	Facilitated diffusion.
b.	Carrier-mediated active transport.
c.	Osmosis.
d.	Both A and B.
e.	A, B, and C.

Which of the following describes how facilitated diffusion is powered?

a.	Facillitated diffusion is “free of cost.”
b.	Energy is required to do the work of establishing and maintaining a concentration gradient.
c.	ATP is required directly.
d.	Both A and B.
e.	A, B, and C.

Pinocytosis:

a.	is engulfment of large particles by the cell.
b.	occurs in protozoans and algae but not in more complex organisms.
c.	involves the specific binding of molecules to receptors on the cell surface.
d.	is the nonspecific uptake of fluids by an invagination of the cell membrane.
e.	is movement of molecules against the concentration gradient through a permeable membrane.

Receptor-mediated endocytosis:

a.	is a passive process.
b.	involves only membrane transport proteins.
c.	brings about the selective uptake of materials by enclosing them in membranous vesicles.
d.	does not require energy.
e.	is most likely to be found in cells that release large amounts of hormones.

A human white blood cell engulfs a bacterial cell by:

a.	carrier-mediated facilitated diffusion.
b.	exocytosis.
c.	phagocytosis.
d.	pinocytosis.
e.	the sodium-potassium pump.

Select the receptor mediated endocytosis events that are in the correct (before, after) order:

a.	Endosome fuses with lysosome; receptors are transported to plasma membrane and recycled.
b.	Ligand binds to receptors; coated vesicle forms by endocytosis.
c.	Contents are digested and released in the cytosol; ligand separates from its receptor.
d.	Endosome fuses with lysosome; receptors are transported to plasma membrane and recycled.
e.	None of the events are listed in the correct order.

In cells that are constantly involved in secretion, an equivalent amount of membrane must be returned to the interior of the cell for each vesicle that fuses with the plasma membrane; if this does not occur, then what would happen?

a.	The ratio of cell surface would decrease, compared to cell volume.
b.	The cell surface would shrivel.
c.	The surface area would remain constant.
d.	The number of membrane receptor proteins would decrease.
e.	The cell surface will keep expanding.

Figure 05-02
Use the figure below to answer the corresponding questions.

The process illustrated in Figure 05-02 is called:

a.	facilitated diffusion.
b.	pinocytosis.
c.	cotransport.
d.	lysis.
e.	exocytosis.

The process illustrated in Figure 05-02 would most likely be used to transport:

a.	glucose.
b.	hormones.
c.	potassium ions.
d.	carbon dioxide.
e.	bacteria.

One difference between tight junctions and desmosomes is that tight junctions:

a.	are regions where the plasma membrane from two neighboring cells are in actual contact.
b.	occur only in plants.
c.	involve connective microfilaments that traverse the space between adjacent cells.
d.	are anchored by microfilaments on the insides of the cell membranes of adjacent cells.
e.	contain a 24 nm space between two adjacent membranes.

Plasmodesmata of plant cells are functionally equivalent to ____________ of animal cells.

a.	gap junctions
b.	desmosomes
c.	tight junctions
d.	cell surface receptors
e.	microvilli

The structures in this figure:

a.	provide anchorage points between adjacent cells.
b.	allow the transport of small molecules and ions between adjacent cells.
c.	allow passage of materials through intercellular spaces.
d.	prevent the passage of materials through intercellular spaces.
e.	can only be found in plants.

Which of the following is not part of the process of cell signaling?

a.	Synthesis and release of signaling molecules.
b.	Facilitated transport.
c.	Transport to target cells.
d.	Response by the cell.
e.	Termination of signaling.

The process in which cells convert and amplify an extracellular signal into an intracellular signal:

a.	Synthesis and release of signaling molecules.
b.	Transport to target cells.
c.	Signal transduction.
d.	Response by the cell.
e.	Termination of signaling.

In a signaling pathway, the second messenger is often:

a.	GTP.
b.	GDP.
c.	cyclic AMP.
d.	cyclic ADP.
e.	ATP.

Multiple Choice
Identify the choice that best completes the statement or answers the question.

Self-Quiz Questions

All organisms on your campus make up

a.	an ecosystem.
b.	a community.
c.	a population.
d.	an experimental group.
e.	a taxonomic domain.

Which of the following is a correct sequence of levels in life’s hierarchy, proceeding downward from an individual animal?

a.	brain, organ system, nerve cell, nervous tissue
b.	organ system, population of cells, nervous tissue, brain
c.	organism, organ system, tissue, cell, organ
d.	nervous system, brain, nervous tissue, nerve cell
e.	organ system, tissue, molecule, cell

Which of the following is not an observation or inference on which Darwin’s theory of natural selection is based?

a.	Poorly adapted individuals never produce offspring.
b.	There is heritable variation among individuals.
c.	Because of overproduction of offspring, there is competition for limited resources.
d.	Individuals whose inherited characteristics best fit them to the environment will generally produce more offspring.
e.	A population can become adapted to its environment.

Systems biology is mainly an attempt to

a.	understand the integration of all levels of biological organization from molecules to the biosphere.
b.	simplify complex problems by reducing the system into smaller, less complex units.
c.	model one level of biological organization based on an understanding of the lower levels of organization.
d.	provide a systematic method for interpretation of large amounts of biological data.
e.	speed up the technological application of scientific knowledge.

Protists and bacteria are grouped into different domains because

a.	protists eat bacteria.
b.	bacteria are not made of cells.
c.	bacterial cells lack a nucleus.
d.	bacteria decompose protists.
e.	protists are photosynthetic.

Which of the following best demonstrates the unity among all organisms?

a.	matching DNA nucleotide sequences
b.	descent with modification
c.	the structure and function of DNA
d.	natural selection
e.	emergent properties

Which of the following is an example of qualitative data?

a.	The temperature decreased from 20°C to 15°C.
b.	The plant’s height is 25 centimeters.
c.	The fish swam in a zig-zag motion.
d.	The six pairs of robins hatched an average of three chicks.
e.	The contents of the human stomach are mixed about every 20 seconds.

Which of the following best describes the logic of hypothesis-based science?

a.	If I generate a testable hypothesis, tests and observations will support it.
b.	If my prediction is correct, it will lead to a testable hypothesis.
c.	If my observations are accurate, they will support my hypothesis.
d.	If my hypothesis is correct, I can expect certain test results.
e.	If my experiments are set up right, they will lead to a testable hypothesis.

A controlled experiment is one that

a.	proceeds slowly enough that a scientist can make careful records of the results.
b.	may include experimental groups and control groups tested in parallel.
c.	is repeated many times to make sure the results are accurate.
d.	keeps all environmental variables constant.
e.	is supervised by an experienced scientist.

Which of the following statements best distinguishes hypotheses from theories in science?

a.	Theories are hypotheses that have been proved.
b.	Hypotheses are guesses; theories are correct answers.
c.	Hypotheses usually are relatively narrow in scope; theories have broad explanatory power.
d.	Hypotheses and theories are essentially the same thing.
e.	Theories are proved true in all cases; hypotheses are usually falsified by tests.

An element is to a (an) ____ as an organ is to a (an) ____.

a.	atom; organism
b.	compound; organism
c.	molecule; cell
d.	atom; cell
e.	compound; organelle

In the term trace element, the modifier trace means

a.	the element is required in very small amounts.
b.	the element can be used as a label to trace atoms through an organism’s metabolism.
c.	the element is very rare on Earth.
d.	the element enhances health but is not essential for the organism’s long-term survival.
e.	the element passes rapidly through the organism.

Compared to 31P, the radioactive isotope 32P has

a.	a different atomic number.
b.	one more neutron.
c.	one more proton.
d.	one more electron.
e.	a different charge.