Author: Biology Junction Team

Darwinian Evolution – PreAP Biology

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Darwinian Evolution – PreAP Biology
  

Multiple Choice
Identify the choice that best completes the statement or answers the question.
 
 1.
Which of the following are examples of fossils?
a.
 shells or old bones
b.
 any traces of dead organisms
c.
 insects trapped in tree sap
d.
 All of the above
 
 2.
Animal fossils may form when
a.
 an animal is buried by sediment.
b.
 an animal is buried on the ocean floor, in swamps, in mud, or in tar pits.
c.
 an animal’s tissue is replaced by harder minerals.
d.
 All of the above
 
 3.
Darwin drew ideas for his theory from observations of organisms on
a.
 the Samoan Islands.
b.
 Manhattan Island.
c.
 the Hawaiian Islands.
d.
 the Galápagos Islands.
 
 4.
The species of finches that Darwin observed differed in the shape of their beaks. According to Darwin, all of these species probably
a.
 had a common ancestor.
b.
 had migrated from Africa.
c.
 had descended from similar birds in Africa.
d.
 ate the same diet.
 
 5.
Darwin thought that the animals of the Galápagos Islands were similar to those of the nearby coast of South America because
a.
 the animals’ ancestors had migrated from South America to the Galápagos Islands.
b.
 the animals had all been brought to the islands by humans.
c.
 the islands had slowly drifted away from the mainland.
d.
 the animals in both places had evolved in nearly identical environments
 
 6.
According to Darwin, evolution occurs
a.
 only through artificial selection.
b.
 during half-life periods of 5,715 years.
c.
 because of natural selection.
d.
 so rapidly that it can be observed easily.
 
 7.
When Darwin published his first book about evolution, he included all of the following ideas except
a.
 the idea that species change slowly over time.
b.
 the idea that some organisms reproduce at a greater rate than others.
c.
 the idea that species are permanent and unchanging.
d.
 the idea that some species become better suited to their environment than others.
 
 8.
The major idea that Darwin presented in his book The Origin of Species was that
a.
 species change over time and never compete with each other.
b.
 animals change, but plants remain the same over time.
c.
 species may change in small ways but cannot give rise to new species.
d.
 species change over time by natural selection.
 
 9.
Natural selection is the process by which
a.
 the age of selected fossils is calculated.
b.
 organisms with traits well suited to their environment survive and reproduce more successfully than organisms less suited to the same environment.
c.
 acquired traits are passed on from one generation to the next.
d.
 All of the above
 
 10.
Populations of the same species living in different places
a.
 do not vary.
b.
 always show balancing selection.
c.
 are genetically identical to each other.
d.
 become increasingly different as each population becomes adapted to its own environment.
 
 11.
Scarcity of resources and a growing population are most likely to result in
a.
 decreased homology.
b.
 increased genetic variation.
c.
 increased competition.
d.
 convergent evolution.
 
   
 
nar001-1.jpg
 
 12.
Refer to the illustration above. An analysis of DNA from these organisms would indicate that
a.
 they have identical DNA.
b.
 they all have the same number of bones.
c.
 their nucleotide sequences show many similarities.
d.
 they all have the same number of chromosomes.
 
 13.
Refer to the illustration above. The similarity of these structures is one form of evidence that the organisms
a.
 share a common ancestor.
b.
 all grow at different rates.
c.
 evolved instantaneously.
d.
 live for a long time.
 
 14.
Refer to the illustration above. The bones labeled “X” can be referred to as
a.
 vestigial structures.
b.
 sequential structures.
c.
 homologous structures.
d.
 fossil structures.
 
 15.
Which of the following is most likely a vestigial structure?
a.
 the human tailbone
c.
 flower color
b.
 the beak of a finch
d.
 a fossil of a snail
 
 16.
Homologous structures in organisms provide evidence that the organisms
a.
 share a common ancestor.
b.
 must have lived at different times.
c.
 have a skeletal structure.
d.
 are now extinct.
 
 17.
Anatomical structures that appear to be derived from a functional structure in an ancestor, but that currently do not serve an important function, are called
a.
 inorganic.
c.
 fossilized.
b.
 mutated.
d.
 vestigial.
 
 18.
The beak of a bird and the beak of a giant squid evolved independently and serve the same function. The beaks are
a.
 divergent structures.
c.
 analogous structures.
b.
 homologous structures.
d.
 hybrid structures.
 
 19.
Evidence that evolution occurs includes all of the following except
a.
 acquired characteristics.
b.
 similarities and differences in proteins and DNA sequences between organisms.
c.
 the fossil record.
d.
 homologous structures among different organisms.
 
 20.

Cytochrome c is a protein that is involved in cellular respiration in all eukaryotic organisms. Human cytochrome c contains 104 amino acids. The following table compares human cytochrome c with cytochrome c from a number of other organisms.

 

Organism		 Number of cytochrome c amino acids
that differ from human cytochrome c amino acids
Chickens
18
Chimpanzees
0
Dogs
13
Rattlesnakes
20
Rhesus monkeys
1
Yeasts
56
   

Which of the following is not a valid inference from these data?

a.
 Chimpanzees are more closely related to humans than yeasts are.
b.
 The cytochrome c of chimpanzees differs from that of rhesus monkeys by only one amino acid.
c.
 Dogs are more closely related to humans than chickens are.
d.
 All of the proteins produced by chimpanzees and humans are identical.
 
 21.
The accumulation of differences between populations that once formed a single population is called
a.
 coevolution.
b.
 adaptation.
c.
 divergent evolution.
d.
 cumulative differentiation.
 
 22.
Over millions of years, plants and their pollinators have
a.
 coevolved.
c.
 become parasites.
b.
 crossbred.
d.
 become competitive.
 
 23.

mc023-1.jpg

Refer to the illustration above. While the shark and dolphin are similar in appearance, dolphins evolved from ancestors that were very different from sharks. The current similarity between sharks and dolphins is an example of

a.
 coevolution.
c.
 convergent evolution.
b.
 biogeography.
d.
 divergent evolution.
 
 24.
What is the idea developed by Charles Lyell which states that the geologic processes that shaped Earth in the past continue to operate in the same way today?
a.
 inheritance of acquired characteristics
b.
 catastrophism
c.
 uniformitarianism
d.
 descent with modification
 
 25.
The idea of inheritance of acquitted characteristics was proposed by
a.
 Charles Darwin.
c.
 Jean-Baptiste Lamarck.
b.
 George Cuvier.
d.
 Charles Lyell.
 
 26.
Which of the following describes a population?
a.
 dogs and cats living in Austin, Texas
b.
 four species of fish living in a pond
c.
 dogwood trees in Middletown, Connecticut
d.
 roses and tulips in a garden
 
 27.
The movement of alleles into or out of a population due to migration is called
a.
 mutation.
c.
 nonrandom mating.
b.
 gene flow.
d.
 natural selection.
 
 28.
What type of population is most susceptible to loss of genetic variability as a result of genetic drift?
a.
 large populations
b.
 medium-sized populations
c.
 small populations
d.
 populations that fluctuate in size
 
 29.
A change in the frequency of a particular gene in one direction in a population is called
a.
 directional selection.
b.
 acquired variation.
c.
 chromosome drift.
d.
 stabilizing selection.
 
 30.
The type of selection that may eliminate intermediate phenotypes is
a.
 direction selection.
b.
 disruptive selection.
c.
 polygenic selection.
d.
 stabilizing selection.
 
 31.
Directional selection tends to eliminate
a.
 both extremes in a range of phenotypes.
b.
 one extreme in a range of phenotypes.
c.
 intermediate phenotypes.
d.
 None of the above; it causes new phenotypes to form.
 
 32.
The large, brightly colored tail feathers of the male peacock are valuable to him because
a.
 they attract potential predators.
b.
 they warn off potential competitors for mates.
c.
 they attract potential mates.
d.
 they attract people who provide them with food.
 
 33.
The hypothesis that evolution occurs at an irregular rate through geologic time is known as
a.
 directional evolution.
b.
 directional equilibrium.
c.
 punctuated equilibrium.
d.
 punctuated evolution.
 

 

 
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Chemistry Quiz

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Chemistry

 

True/False
Indicate whether the sentence or statement is true or false.
1.
Two atoms having the same number of protons and electrons but different numbers of neutrons are called isotopes.
2.
The nucleus of an atom contains protons and electrons.
3.
A compound consists of atoms of two or more elements joined by chemical bonds.
4.
Energy can be converted from one form to another.
5.
The scale used for measuring the relative concentrations of hydrogen   ions and hydroxide ions in a solution is called the pH scale.
6.
Iron atoms and silver atoms have the same number of protons.
7.
An atom containing nine electrons can have three in its first energy level.
8.
Stable atoms need electrons to fill their outer energy levels.
9.
The types of particles that are located in the nucleus of an atom are protons and neutrons, and the types of particles that are located in the energy levels surrounding the nucleus are electrons.
10.
Buffers can neutralize acids, but they do not affect bases.
 

Multiple Choice
Identify the letter of the choice that best completes the statement or answers the question.
11.
A solution that contains equal concentrations of hydrogen ions and hydroxide ions is a(n):
a.
neutral solution
c.
base
b.
acid
d.
compound
12.
The type of bond formed when two atoms share electrons is a(n):
a.
covalent bond
c.
elemental bond
b.
ionic bond
d.
homogeneous bond
13.
Carbon has an atomic number of 6. The number of energy levels in carbon is:
a.
1
c.
3
b.
2
d.
6
14.
In most elements, how many electrons are in the outer energy level of stable atoms?
a.
3
c.
8
b.
5
d.
12
15.
A solution with a pH of 9 has:
a.
an equal concentration of hydrogen and hydroxide ions
b.
a greater concentration of hydroxide ions than hydrogen ions
c.
a greater concentration of hydrogen ions than hydroxide ions
d.
a greater concentration of hydroxide ions than a solution with a pH of 10
16.
Carbon 12 and carbon 14 have the same number of protons and electrons, but they differ in the number of neutrons.  Therefore, they are:
a.
isometric
c.
icicles
b.
isotopes
d.
two different elements
17.
How many protons are in an atom that has a mass number of 23 and an atomic number of 11?
a.
11
c.
23
b.
12
d.
34
18.
Which of the following is matter?
a.
oxygen
c.
heat
b.
light
d.
all of these
19.
The subscript ‘2’ in H2 represents the number of:
a.
electrons
c.
ions
b.
molecules
d.
atoms
20.
The smallest unit of a compound that still retains the compound’s unique chemical properties is the:
a.
sol
c.
atom
b.
bond
d.
molecule
21.
Which of the following best describes a compound?
a.
atoms of one element that are chemically combined
b.
two or more elements combined chemically in a definite proportion
c.
atoms of the same element that have different mass numbers
d.
two or more atoms that are not combined chemically
22.
In a covalent bond, electrons are:
a.
shared
c.
lost
b.
gained
d.
transferred
23.
Which of the following pH values represents the most acidic condition?
a.
3
c.
10
b.
6
d.
14
24.
The main difference between covalent bonds and ionic bonds is that electrons:
a.
are shared in covalent bonds, but not in ionic bonds
b.
are shared in ionic bonds, but not in covalent bonds
c.
are shared in both, but at different times
d.
are involved only in covalent bonds
25.
Which of the following is the most common solvent in organisms?
a.
alcohol
c.
water
b.
lipids
d.
amino acids
26.
The bond formed when two atoms share a pair of electrons is called a
a.
hydrogen bond.
c.
covalent bond.
b.
nonpolar bond.
d.
water bond.
27.
The smallest particle of matter that can retain the chemical properties of carbon is
a.
a carbon molecule.
c.
a carbon atom.
b.
a carbon macromolecule.
d.
an element.
28.
All matter in the universe is composed of
a.
cells.
c.
atoms.
b.
molecules.
d.
carbon.
29.
Which of the following statements most accurately describes the difference between an ionic bond and a covalent bond?
a.
Atoms held together by ionic bonds separate when placed in water while atoms held together by covalent bonds do not separate in water.
b.
Ionic bonds hold together atoms of two different types, while covalent bonds hold together atoms of the same type.
c.
Electrons are exchanged between atoms held together by an ionic bond, but they are shared between atoms held together by a covalent bond.
d.
Ionic bonds form between atoms that carry opposite charges, while covalent bonds form between uncharged atoms.
      chp2_files/i0320000.jpg
30.
Refer to the graph above. Reaction “3” in the graph
a.
probably occurred in the presence of a catalyst.
b.
requires a greater activation energy than Reaction “2.”
c.
is the same as Reaction “1,” but faster.
d.
takes longer than Reaction “2.”
31.
Changing the course or pathway of a chemical reaction so that it requires less activation energy
a.
is a violation of the laws of nature.
b.
requires higher temperatures than those found within cells.
c.
occurs only when reactants are quickly added to the reaction mixture.
d.
is accomplished by the action of catalysts on reactants.
32.
A cell contains
a.
thousands of different kinds of enzymes, each promoting a different chemical reaction.
b.
one kind of enzyme that promotes thousands of different chemical reactions.
c.
approximately 100 kinds of enzymes, each promoting a different chemical reaction.
d.
one enzyme that promotes photosynthesis and one enzyme that promotes cellular respiration.
33.
The terms base and alkaline refer to solutions that
a.
contain dissolved sodium hydroxide.
b.
contain more hydronium ions than hydroxide ions.
c.
contain more hydroxide ions than hydronium ions.
d.
contain more hydroxide ions than hydrogen ions.
34.
Acidic solutions have a pH that is
a.
less than 7.
c.
a negative number.
b.
between 0 and 14.
d.
more than 7.
35.
Buffers
a.
are of relatively little importance in living things.
b.
are formed when a large number of hydroxide ions are released in a solution.
c.
are formed when a large number of hydronium ions are released in a solution.
d.
tend to prevent great fluctuations in pH.

 
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Ecology Quiz

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Ecology Quiz

 

Test your knowledge of Ecology!

1. A cold biome characterized by permafrost under the surface?
a) Taiga
b) Tundra
c) Deciduous forest
d) Savanna2. An organism that feeds on plants and animals?
a) Carnivore
b) Omnivore
c) Epiphyte
d) Herbivore

3. All of the following are abiotic factors except:
a) Tree
b) Temperature
c) pH
d) Sunlight

4. Corals would be found in which zone:
a) Oceanic
b) Estuary
c) Neritic
d) Benthic

5. Which of the following is not part of the nitrogen cycle:
a) Ammonification
b) Transpiration
c) Nitrification
d) Rhizobacteria

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Chemistry Quiz

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Chemistry

 

True/False
Indicate whether the sentence or statement is true or false.
1.
Two atoms having the same number of protons and electrons but different numbers of neutrons are called isotopes.
2.
The nucleus of an atom contains protons and electrons.
3.
A compound consists of atoms of two or more elements joined by chemical bonds.
4.
Energy can be converted from one form to another.
5.
The scale used for measuring the relative concentrations of hydrogen   ions and hydroxide ions in a solution is called the pH scale.
6.
Iron atoms and silver atoms have the same number of protons.
7.
An atom containing nine electrons can have three in its first energy level.
8.
Stable atoms need electrons to fill their outer energy levels.
9.
The types of particles that are located in the nucleus of an atom are protons and neutrons, and the types of particles that are located in the energy levels surrounding the nucleus are electrons.
10.
Buffers can neutralize acids, but they do not affect bases.
 

Multiple Choice
Identify the letter of the choice that best completes the statement or answers the question.
11.
A solution that contains equal concentrations of hydrogen ions and hydroxide ions is a(n):
a.
neutral solution
c.
base
b.
acid
d.
compound
12.
The type of bond formed when two atoms share electrons is a(n):
a.
covalent bond
c.
elemental bond
b.
ionic bond
d.
homogeneous bond
13.
Carbon has an atomic number of 6. The number of energy levels in carbon is:
a.
1
c.
3
b.
2
d.
6
14.
In most elements, how many electrons are in the outer energy level of stable atoms?
a.
3
c.
8
b.
5
d.
12
15.
A solution with a pH of 9 has:
a.
an equal concentration of hydrogen and hydroxide ions
b.
a greater concentration of hydroxide ions than hydrogen ions
c.
a greater concentration of hydrogen ions than hydroxide ions
d.
a greater concentration of hydroxide ions than a solution with a pH of 10
16.
Carbon 12 and carbon 14 have the same number of protons and electrons, but they differ in the number of neutrons.  Therefore, they are:
a.
isometric
c.
icicles
b.
isotopes
d.
two different elements
17.
How many protons are in an atom that has a mass number of 23 and an atomic number of 11?
a.
11
c.
23
b.
12
d.
34
18.
Which of the following is matter?
a.
oxygen
c.
heat
b.
light
d.
all of these
19.
The subscript ‘2’ in H2 represents the number of:
a.
electrons
c.
ions
b.
molecules
d.
atoms
20.
The smallest unit of a compound that still retains the compound’s unique chemical properties is the:
a.
sol
c.
atom
b.
bond
d.
molecule
21.
Which of the following best describes a compound?
a.
atoms of one element that are chemically combined
b.
two or more elements combined chemically in a definite proportion
c.
atoms of the same element that have different mass numbers
d.
two or more atoms that are not combined chemically
22.
In a covalent bond, electrons are:
a.
shared
c.
lost
b.
gained
d.
transferred
23.
Which of the following pH values represents the most acidic condition?
a.
3
c.
10
b.
6
d.
14
24.
The main difference between covalent bonds and ionic bonds is that electrons:
a.
are shared in covalent bonds, but not in ionic bonds
b.
are shared in ionic bonds, but not in covalent bonds
c.
are shared in both, but at different times
d.
are involved only in covalent bonds
25.
Which of the following is the most common solvent in organisms?
a.
alcohol
c.
water
b.
lipids
d.
amino acids
26.
The bond formed when two atoms share a pair of electrons is called a
a.
hydrogen bond.
c.
covalent bond.
b.
nonpolar bond.
d.
water bond.
27.
The smallest particle of matter that can retain the chemical properties of carbon is
a.
a carbon molecule.
c.
a carbon atom.
b.
a carbon macromolecule.
d.
an element.
28.
All matter in the universe is composed of
a.
cells.
c.
atoms.
b.
molecules.
d.
carbon.
29.
Which of the following statements most accurately describes the difference between an ionic bond and a covalent bond?
a.
Atoms held together by ionic bonds separate when placed in water while atoms held together by covalent bonds do not separate in water.
b.
Ionic bonds hold together atoms of two different types, while covalent bonds hold together atoms of the same type.
c.
Electrons are exchanged between atoms held together by an ionic bond, but they are shared between atoms held together by a covalent bond.
d.
Ionic bonds form between atoms that carry opposite charges, while covalent bonds form between uncharged atoms.
      chp2_files/i0320000.jpg
30.
Refer to the graph above. Reaction “3” in the graph
a.
probably occurred in the presence of a catalyst.
b.
requires a greater activation energy than Reaction “2.”
c.
is the same as Reaction “1,” but faster.
d.
takes longer than Reaction “2.”
31.
Changing the course or pathway of a chemical reaction so that it requires less activation energy
a.
is a violation of the laws of nature.
b.
requires higher temperatures than those found within cells.
c.
occurs only when reactants are quickly added to the reaction mixture.
d.
is accomplished by the action of catalysts on reactants.
32.
A cell contains
a.
thousands of different kinds of enzymes, each promoting a different chemical reaction.
b.
one kind of enzyme that promotes thousands of different chemical reactions.
c.
approximately 100 kinds of enzymes, each promoting a different chemical reaction.
d.
one enzyme that promotes photosynthesis and one enzyme that promotes cellular respiration.
33.
The terms base and alkaline refer to solutions that
a.
contain dissolved sodium hydroxide.
b.
contain more hydronium ions than hydroxide ions.
c.
contain more hydroxide ions than hydronium ions.
d.
contain more hydroxide ions than hydrogen ions.
34.
Acidic solutions have a pH that is
a.
less than 7.
c.
a negative number.
b.
between 0 and 14.
d.
more than 7.
35.
Buffers
a.
are of relatively little importance in living things.
b.
are formed when a large number of hydroxide ions are released in a solution.
c.
are formed when a large number of hydronium ions are released in a solution.
d.
tend to prevent great fluctuations in pH.

 
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Chapter 4 Cell Structure Study Guide

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Chapter 4 Cell Structure Study Guide

 

  

Modified True/False
Indicate whether the statement is true or false.  If false, change the identified word or phrase to make the statement true.
 
 1.
Robert Hooke first observed cells by looking at a thin slice of cork under a microscope. _________________________
 


 
 2.
Mathias Schleiden concluded that cells make up every part of a plant. _________________________
 


 
 3.
Differences in the colors of cells enable different cells to perform different functions. _________________________
 


 
 4.
All cells have a cell wall that surrounds them. _________________________
 


 
 5.
All multicellular organisms are made up of prokaryotic cells. _________________________
 


 
 6.
The cells of animals are prokaryotic. _________________________
 


 
 7.
The cytoskeleton is a web of protein fibers in eukaryotic cells. _________________________
 


 
 8.
Substances made in the nucleus, such as RNA messages, move into the nucleolus by passing through nuclear pores. _________________________
 


 
 9.
Flattened, membrane-bound sacs that package and distribute proteins are called the Golgi apparatus. _________________________
 


 
 10.
Ribosomes attached to the smooth ER make proteins. _________________________
 


 
 11.
Lysosomes contain specific enzymes that break down large molecules, such as food particles. _________________________
 


 
 12.
Ribosomes are the sites of ATP production in animals. _________________________
 


 
 13.
Most of a cell’s ATP is produced in the cell’s mitochondria. _________________________
 


 
 14.
A typical animal cell contains one or more chloroplasts. _________________________
 


 
 15.
A chloroplast is an organelle that uses light energy to make sugar from carbon dioxide and water. _________________________
 


 
 16.
Prokaryotes are always multicellular organisms. _________________________
 


 
 17.
Many prokaryotes have flagella that allow them to attach to surfaces. _________________________
 


 
 18.
A tissue is a distinct group of cells that have similar structures and functions. _________________________
 


 
 19.
A leaf is made up of different tissues that work together. _________________________
 


 
 20.
In multicellular organisms, a single cell must carry out all of the organism’s activities. _________________________
 


 
 21.
A unicellular organism is composed of many individual, permanently associated cells that coordinate their activities. _________________________
 


 
 22.
Colonial organisms are unicellular organisms that can live as a connected group or survive when separated. _________________________
 


 
 23.
Some protists and most fungi have a multicellular body. _________________________
 


 
 24.
Most multicellular organisms begin as a single cell. _________________________
 


 
  

Multiple Choice
Identify the choice that best completes the statement or answers the question.
 
 25.
Which of the following led to the discovery of cells?
a.
 electricity
c.
 microscopes
b.
 computers
d.
 calculators
 
 26.
Which of the following is part of the cell theory?
a.
 All living things are made of one cell.
b.
 Cells are the basic units of structure and function in organisms.
c.
 Most cells arise from existing cells.
d.
 Cells are nonliving units that make up organisms.
 
 27.
When the volume of a cell increases, its surface area
a.
 increases at the same rate.
c.
 increases at a faster rate.
b.
 remains the same.
d.
 increases at a slower rate.
 
 28.
Surface area is an important factor in limiting cell growth because
a.
 the cell can burst if the membrane becomes too large.
b.
 materials cannot enter the cell if it is too large.
c.
 the cell may become too large to take in enough food and to remove enough wastes.
d.
 waste products cannot leave the cell if it is too small.
 
 29.
The size to which cells can grow is limited by their
a.
 location.
c.
 function.
b.
 structure.
d.
 surface area-to-volume ratio.
 
 30.
As cell size increases, the surface area-to-volume ratio
a.
 decreases.
c.
 increases then decreases.
b.
 increases.
d.
 remains the same.
 
 31.
To function most efficiently, a cell’s size must be
a.
 large.
c.
 small.
b.
 medium.
d.
 any size.
 
 32.
Which of the following shapes would allow a cell to have the greatest surface area-to-volume ratio?
a.
 sphere
c.
 egg-shaped
b.
 cube
d.
 broad and flat
 
 33.
A cube with a side length of 6 mm has a surface area-to-volume ratio of
a.
 1:1.
c.
 3:1.
b.
 2:1.
d.
 6:1.
 
 34.
One difference between prokaryotes and eukaryotes is that prokaryotes do not have
a.
 DNA.
c.
 cytoplasm.
b.
 a cell membrane.
d.
 a nucleus.
 
 35.
Which cells have a cell membrane, cytoplasm, ribosomes, and DNA?
a.
 only animal cells
c.
 only eukaryotic cells
b.
 only prokaryotic cells
d.
 all cells
 
 36.
The genetic material that provides instructions for making proteins is
a.
 DNA.
c.
 cytoplasm.
b.
 cytosol.
d.
 a ribosome.
 
 37.
A structure within a eukaryotic cell that carries out specific activities inside the cell is called a(n)
a.
 organelle.
c.
 nucleus.
b.
 cytoplasm.
d.
 membrane.
 
 38.
Which of the following statements about prokaryotes is correct?
a.
 They have a nucleus.
b.
 Their evolution preceded that of eukaryotes.
c.
 The organelles in their cytoplasm are surrounded by membranes.
d.
 They are multicellular organisms.
 
 39.
Only eukaryotic cells have
a.
 DNA.
c.
 ribosomes.
b.
 membrane-bound organelles.
d.
 cytoplasm.
 
   
 
nar001-1.jpg
 
 40.
Refer to the illustration above. Which structure acts as a boundary between the outside environment and the inside of the cell?
a.
 structure 1
c.
 structure 3
b.
 structure 2
d.
 structure 4
 
 41.
Refer to the illustration above. Which structure immediately identifies this cell as a eukaryote?
a.
 structure 1
c.
 structure 3
b.
 structure 2
d.
 structure 4
 
 42.
Refer to the illustration above. In eukaryotic cells, DNA is found in
a.
 structure 1.
c.
 structure 3.
b.
 structure 2.
d.
 structure 5.
 
 43.
Refer to the illustration above. Structure 2 is
a.
 rough endoplasmic reticulum.
c.
 a mitochondrion.
b.
 a Golgi apparatus.
d.
 the nucleus.
 
 44.
Refer to the illustration above. Which structure produces vesicles filled with proteins?
a.
 structure 1
c.
 structure 4
b.
 structure 2
d.
 structure 5
 
 45.
Refer to the illustration above. Structure 5 is
a.
 part of the endoplasmic reticulum.
c.
 a mitochondrion.
b.
 a Golgi apparatus.
d.
 the nucleus.
 
 46.
Refer to the illustration above. The cell uses structure 3 to
a.
 transport material from one part of the cell to another.
b.
 package proteins so they can be stored by the cell.
c.
 use light energy to make sugar.
d.
 use energy from organic compounds to make ATP.
 
 47.
Refer to the illustration above. The cell shown is probably an animal cell because it
a.
 has mitochondria.
c.
 has a cell membrane.
b.
 does not have a cell wall.
d.
 does not have a nucleus.
 
 48.
Microfilaments, microtubules, and intermediate fibers are three kinds of cytoskeleton
a.
 protein fibers.
c.
 organelles.
b.
 membranes.
d.
 DNA.
 
 49.
What kind of cytoskeleton fibers could help a cell change shape to fit into a space?
a.
 microfilaments
c.
 intermediate fibers
b.
 microtubules
d.
 tubulin fibers
 
 50.
Which of the following is true of both DNA and some proteins?
a.
 made in nucleus
b.
 made in ribosomes
c.
 must be kept separate from cytoplasm
d.
 must be kept separate from nucleus
 
 51.
cell : cell membrane ::
a.
 nucleus : DNA
c.
 organelle : cell
b.
 nucleus : nuclear envelope
d.
 cell : DNA
 
 52.
The double membrane surrounding the nucleus is called the
a.
 nucleolus.
c.
 ribosome.
b.
 nuclear wall.
d.
 nuclear envelope.
 
 53.
In a cell, proteins are made on the
a.
 mitochondria.
c.
 nucleus.
b.
 ribosomes.
d.
 cell membrane.
 
 54.
Where are bound ribosomes located?
a.
 suspended in the cytosol
b.
 inside the nucleus
c.
 attached to membranes of another organelle
d.
 outside the cell membrane
 
 55.
The organelle that moves proteins and other substances through the cell is the
a.
 endoplasmic reticulum.
c.
 Golgi apparatus.
b.
 mitochondrion.
d.
 cytoplasm.
 
 56.
The organelle that modifies, sorts, and packages proteins is the
a.
 endoplasmic reticulum.
c.
 lysosome.
b.
 ribosome.
d.
 Golgi apparatus.
 
   
 
nar002-1.jpg
 
 57.
Refer to the illustration above. The structures labeled 4 are
a.
 vesicles.
c.
 ribosomes.
b.
 lysosomes.
d.
 chloroplasts.
 
 58.
Refer to the illustration above. Which structure packages proteins for distribution?
a.
 structure 1
c.
 structure 3
b.
 structure 2
d.
 structure 4
 
 59.
Refer to the illustration above. Structure 3 is a(n)
a.
 mitochondrion.
c.
 ribosome.
b.
 endoplasmic reticulum.
d.
 vesicle.
 
 60.
Plant cells have a large membrane-bound compartment in which water, waste products, and nutrients can be stored. This compartment is called the
a.
 mitochondrion.
c.
 Golgi apparatus.
b.
 chloroplast.
d.
 central vacuole.
 
 61.
A cell that requires a lot of energy might contain large numbers of
a.
 chromosomes.
c.
 mitochondria.
b.
 vacuoles.
d.
 lysosomes.
 
 62.
The organelles associated with plant photosynthesis are the
a.
 mitochondria.
c.
 Golgi apparatus.
b.
 chloroplasts.
d.
 vacuoles.
 
 63.
sunlight : chloroplasts ::
a.
 chloroplasts : lysosomes
c.
 organic compounds : ribosomes
b.
 organic compounds : mitochondria
d.
 ATP : vesicles
 
 64.
What do chloroplasts and mitochondria have in common?
a.
 absorption of light energy
c.
 production of ATP
b.
 presence in all cells
d.
 digestion of cell wastes
 
 65.
All the following are found in both plant and animal cells, except
a.
 a cell wall.
c.
 mitochondria.
b.
 a cell membrane.
d.
 endoplasmic reticulum.
 
 66.
Short, thick outgrowths that allow prokaryotes to attach to surfaces or each other are called
a.
 flagella.
c.
 microfilaments.
b.
 microtubules.
d.
 pili.
 
 67.
Which of the following is an example of a prokaryotic cell?
a.
 chloroplast
c.
 bacterium
b.
 fungus
d.
 muscle cell
 
 68.
Which of the following pairs contains unrelated items?
a.
 eukaryote-plant
c.
 cell wall-animal cell
b.
 ribosome-protein
d.
 mitochondria-ATP
 
 69.
What level of organization is the small intestine?
a.
 cell
c.
 organ
b.
 tissue
d.
 organ system
 
 70.
Which of the following statements about colonial organisms is correct?
a.
 They are multicellular.
b.
 Their cell activities are integrated.
c.
 They are a collection of different kinds of cells.
d.
 They can survive when separated.
 
  

Completion
Complete each statement.
 
   71.
All cells arise from ____________________.
 
 

 
   72.
The basic unit of structure and function in an organism is the ____________________.
 
 

 
   73.
The statement that “cells arise only from existing cells” is part of the ____________________.
 
 

 
   74.
As a cell’s size decreases, its surface area-to-volume ratio ____________________.
 
 

 
   75.
The surface area-to-volume ratio limits a cell’s ____________________.
 
 

 
   76.
Eukaryotic cells contain specialized structures called ____________________.
 
 

 
   77.
A cell with a nucleus is a(n) ____________________ cell.
 
 

 
   78.
Scientists think that ____________________ cells evolved about 1.5 billion years ago.
 
 

 
   79.
All substances that enter or leave a cell must cross the cell ____________________.
 
 

 
   80.
The ____________________ houses a cell’s DNA, which contains genetic material.
 
 

 
   81.
The organelles where protein synthesis occurs in a cell are called ____________________.
 
 

 
   82.
Prokaryotic cells have a cell ____________________ that surrounds the cell membrane.
 
 

 
   83.
Some prokaryotic cells have a ____________________ that surrounds the cell wall.
 
 

 
   84.
____________________ cells have a system of internal membranes that divides the cytoplasm into compartments.
 
 

 
   85.
The web of protein fibers that supports the shape of the cell is called the ____________________.
 
 

 
   86.
The cytoskeleton’s network of ____________________ fibers anchors cell organelles.
 
 

 
   87.
A ribosome is made of ____________________ and many proteins.
 
 

 
   88.
DNA instructions are copied as ____________________ messages.
 
 

 
   89.
Ribosomes use RNA messages to assemble ____________________.
 
 

 
   90.
The ____________________ is a structure that makes ribosome parts in the nucleus.
 
 

 
   91.
Rough endoplasmic reticulum has ____________________ attached to its surface.
 
 

 
   92.
____________________ endoplasmic reticulum has no attached ribosomes.
 
 

 
   93.
Vesicles that contain newly made proteins move through the ____________________ from the ER to the Golgi apparatus.
 
 

 
   94.
Vesicles help maintain ____________________ by storing and releasing various substances as the cell needs them.
 
 

 
   95.
Lysosomes work by fusing with other ____________________.
 
 

 
   96.
Photosynthesis takes place in the ____________________ of plant cells.
 
 

 
   97.
Both plant cells and animal cells have cell membranes. In addition, plant cells are surrounded by a(n) ____________________.
 
 

 
   98.
In multicellular organisms, similar cells group together to make ____________________.
 
 

 
   99.
A group of identical cells that can survive alone if separated are called ____________________ organisms.
 
 

 
  

Short Answer
 
   100.
Why did it take more than 150 years for scientists to appreciate the discoveries of Hook and Leeuwenhoek?
 

 
   101.
What are the three parts of the cell theory?
 

 
   102.
What happens to a cell’s surface area-to-volume ratio as the cell gets larger?
 

 
   103.
How can a large cell have a large surface area-to-volume ratio?
 

 
   104.
What is the difference in the location of DNA in a prokaryotic cell and in a eukaryotic cell?
 

 
   105.
What is the function of organelles in eukaryotic cells?
 

 
   106.
Describe the characteristics of DNA in a prokaryotic cell.
 

 
   107.
What are three kinds of cytoskeleton in eukaryotic cells?
 

 
   108.
What are three functions of the cytoskeleton?
 

 
   109.
Where are ribosome parts made and assembled?
 

 
   110.
What kind of ribosomes makes proteins that remain inside the cell?
 

 
   111.
How does the appearance of the two kinds of endoplasmic reticulum differ? What causes the difference?
 

 
   112.
What happens to the vesicle membrane of a vesicle that migrates to the cell membrane and releases proteins to the outside of the cell?
 

 
   113.
What is the function of a contractile vacuole in a protist?
 

 
   114.
Describe what happens in a protist after the cell membrane surrounds food outside the cell.
 

 
   115.
What is the difference between the energy source of chloroplasts and mitochondria? What do the two organelles have in common?
 

 
   116.
Compare the functions of flagella and pili in prokaryotes.
 

 
   117.
What are three structures present in plant cells but not in animal cells?
 

 
   118.
What are the levels of organization of cells in a multicellular organism?
 

 
   119.
How does a multicellular organism develop from a single cell?
 

 
  

Essay
 
   120.
Small cells function more efficiently than large cells do. Briefly explain why this is true, using the concept of surface area-to-volume ratio.
 

 
   121.
Describe the making of a ribosome. Include the difference between the two kinds of ribosomes.
 

 
   122.
Describe the movement of proteins through the internal membrane system of a cell.
 

 

 

 
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