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Quiz Genetics

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True/False
Indicate whether the sentence or statement is true or false.
1.
Genetics is the branch of biology that involves the study of how different traits are transmitted from one generation to the next.
2.
Mendel discovered predictable patterns in the inheritance of traits.
3.
The scientific study of heredity is called genetics.
4.
In Mendel’s experiments with the flower color of pea plants, only the parental generation produced white flowers.
5.
Mendel concluded that the patterns of inheritance are determined entirely by the environment.
6.
The law of independent assortment was proposed by Mendel to explain his observations of inheritance patterns.
7.
Genes on chromosomes are the units of inheritance.
8.
The allele for a recessive trait is usually represented by a capital letter.
9.
Heterozygous individuals have two of the same alleles for a particular gene.
10.
A probability of 1/4 is equal to a probability of 75 percent.
11.
The dominant allele for tallness in pea plants is represented by the letter t.
12.
In codominance, two alleles are expressed at the same time.
13.
All genes have only two alleles.
14.
A dihybrid cross involves two pairs of contrasting traits.
15.
Crosses involving a study of one gene are called monohybrid crosses.
 

Completion
Complete each sentence or statement.
16.
A reproductive process in which fertilization occurs within a single plant is ____________________.
17.
Mendel produced strains of pea plants through the process of ____________________.
18.
____________________ refers to the transmission of traits from parent to offspring in sexually reproducing organisms.
19.
In heterozygous individuals, only the ____________________ allele achieves expression.
20.
A trait that is not expressed in the F1 generation resulting from the crossbreeding of two genetically different, true-breeding organisms is called ____________________.
21.
The principle that states that one factor may mask the effect of another factor is the principle of ____________________.
22.
In Mendel’s experiments, a trait that disappeared in the F1 generation but reappeared in the F2 generation was always a ____________________.
23.
The cellular process that results in the segregation of Mendel’s factors is ____________________.
24.
Mendel formulated two principles known as the laws of ____________________.
25.
An organism that has two identical alleles for a trait is called ____________________.
26.
An organism’s ____________________ refers to the set of alleles it has inherited.
27.
The likelihood that a specific event will occur is called ____________________.
In pea plants, tallness (T) is dominant to shortness (t). Crosses between plants with these traits can be analyzed using a Punnett square similar to the one shown below.
T
t
T
1
2
t
3
4
28.
Refer to the illustration above. The parents shown in the Punnett square could have offspring with a genotype ratio of ____________________.
29.
Refer to the illustration above. The phenotype of the plant that would be represented in box “4” of the Punnett square would be ____________________.
30.
A cross involving two pairs of contrasting traits is a(n) ____________________ cross.

 
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Protein Synthesis Study Guide

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Protein Synthesis Study Guide

 

 

Multiple Choice
Identify the choice that best completes the statement or answers the question.
 1.
What did Griffith observe when he injected into mice a mixture of heat-killed disease-causing bacteria and live harmless bacteria?
a.
 The disease-causing bacteria changed into harmless bacteria.
b.
 The mice developed pneumonia.
c.
 The harmless bacteria died.
d.
 The mice were unaffected.
 2.
Which of the following is a nucleotide found in DNA?
a.
 ribose + phosphate group + thymine
b.
 ribose + phosphate group + uracil
c.
 deoxyribose + phosphate group + uracil
d.
 deoxyribose + phosphate group + cytosine
 3.
DNA replication results in two DNA molecules,
a.
 each with two new strands.
b.
 one with two new strands and the other with two original strands.
c.
 each with one new strand and one original strand.
d.
 each with two original strands.
 4.
During mitosis, the
a.
 DNA molecules unwind.
b.
 histones and DNA molecules separate.
c.
 DNA molecules become more tightly coiled.
d.
 nucleosomes become less tightly packed.
 5.
Unlike DNA, RNA contains
a.
 adenine.
c.
 phosphate groups.
b.
 uracil.
d.
 thymine.
 6.
Which type(s) of RNA is(are) involved in protein synthesis?
a.
 transfer RNA only
b.
 messenger RNA only
c.
 ribosomal RNA and transfer RNA only
d.
 messenger RNA, ribosomal RNA, and transfer RNA
 7.
During transcription, an RNA molecule is formed
a.
 that is complementary to both strands of DNA.
b.
 that is complementary to neither strand of DNA.
c.
 that is double-stranded.
d.
 inside the nucleus.
 8.
How many codons are needed to specify three amino acids?
a.
 3
c.
 9
b.
 6
d.
 12
 9.
Which of the following terms is LEAST closely related to the others?
a.
 intron
c.
 polypeptide
b.
 tRNA
d.
 anticodon
 10.
Which type of RNA functions as a blueprint of the genetic code?
a.
 rRNA
c.
 mRNA
b.
 tRNA
d.
 RNA polymerase
 11.
Which of the following is NOT a gene mutation?
a.
 inversion
c.
 deletion
b.
 insertion
d.
 substitution
 12.
Which of the following statements is NOT true?
a.
 Mutations do not occur in hox genes.
b.
 Hox genes that are found in different animals are very different from each other.
c.
 Hox genes control the normal development of an animal.
d.
 Hox genes occur in clusters.
 13.
Avery’s experiments showed that bacteria are transformed by
a.
 RNA.
c.
 proteins.
b.
 DNA.
d.
 carbohydrates.
 14.

Figure 12-5 shows the structure of a(an)

mc014-1.jpg

 

Figure 12–5

a.
 DNA molecule.
c.
 RNA molecule.
b.
 amino acid.
d.
 protein.
 15.
DNA is copied during a process called
a.
 replication.
c.
 transcription.
b.
 translation.
d.
 transformation.
 16.
In eukaryotes, DNA
a.
 is located in the nucleus.
c.
 is located in the ribosomes.
b.
 floats freely in the cytoplasm.
d.
 is circular.
 17.
RNA contains the sugar
a.
 ribose.
c.
 glucose.
b.
 deoxyribose.
d.
 lactose.
 18.
Which RNA molecule carries amino acids?
a.
 messenger RNA
c.
 ribosomal RNA
b.
 transfer RNA
d.
 RNA polymerase
 19.
What is produced during transcription?
a.
 RNA molecules
c.
 RNA polymerase
b.
 DNA molecules
d.
 proteins
 20.

What does Figure 12-6 show?

mc020-1.jpg

Figure 12-6

a.
 anticodons
b.
 the order in which amino acids are linked
c.
 the code for splicing mRNA
d.
 the genetic code
 21.
What happens during the process of translation?
a.
 Messenger RNA is made from DNA.
b.
 The cell uses information from messenger RNA to produce proteins.
c.
 Transfer RNA is made from messenger RNA.
d.
 Copies of DNA molecules are made.
 22.
Genes contain instructions for assembling
a.
 purines.
c.
 proteins.
b.
 nucleosomes.
d.
 pyrimidines.
 23.
A mutation that involves a single nucleotide is called a(an)
a.
 chromosomal mutation.
c.
 point mutation.
b.
 inversion.
d.
 translocation.
 

Completion
Complete each statement.
 24.

The structure labeled X in Figure 12-1 is a(an) ____________________.

co024-1.jpg

 

Figure 12–1
 25.
The order of nitrogenous bases in DNA determines the order of ____________________ in proteins.
 26.
There is no ____________________ that is specified by a stop codon on an mRNA molecule.
 27.
The lac repressor releases the operator in the presence of ____________________.
 28.
In eukaryotes, proteins that attract RNA polymerase bind to ____________________ sequences in DNA.
 29.
According to the principle of ____________________, hydrogen bonds can form only between adenine and thymine, and between guanine and cytosine.
 30.
Chromatin contains proteins called ____________________.
 31.

In Figure 12-7, A, B, and C are three types of ____________________.

co031-1.jpg

 

Figure 12–7
 32.
After introns are cut out of an RNA molecule, the remaining ____________________ are spliced back together to form the final messenger RNA.
 33.
A mutation in a series of genes, called the ____________________, can change the organs that develop in specific parts of an embryo.
 

Short Answer
 34.
At the beginning of DNA replication, what two processes “unzip” the two strands of a DNA molecule?
 35.

In Figure 12-2, which molecule is tRNA, and what is its function?

sa035-1.jpg

 

Figure 12–2
 36.

According to Figure 12-3, what codons specify the amino acid arginine?

sa036-1.jpg

 

Figure 12–3
 37.
What happens to lac repressors in E. coli when lactose is present?
 38.
What are the three main parts of an RNA nucleotide?
 39.
What must happen to a DNA molecule before RNA polymerase can make RNA?
 40.
What causes translation to stop?
 41.
What is a mutation?
 

Essay
 42.
Describe the structure of a DNA molecule.
 43.
Contrast the functions of the three main types of RNA.
 

Other

USING SCIENCE SKILLS

nar001-1.jpg

 

Figure 12–4
 44.
Interpreting Graphics What process is illustrated in Figure 12-4?
 45.
Interpreting Graphics Identify structure C in Figure 12-4.
 46.
Interpreting Graphics Which labeled structure in Figure 12-4 is a codon?
 47.
Inferring What is the relationship between the codons and anticodons in Figure 12-4? How is this relationship important?
 48.
Predicting In Figure 12-4, what will happen after the ribosome joins the methionine and phenylalanine?

USING SCIENCE SKILLS

nar002-1.jpg

Figure 12–8
 49.
Classifying What general type of mutation results from processes A, B, C, and D in Figure 12-8?
 50.
Interpreting Graphics In Figure 12-8, which process or processes involve two chromosomes?
 51.
Comparing and Contrasting Contrast process A and process B in Figure 12-8.
 52.
Interpreting Graphics During which process in Figure 12-8 does a segment of a chromosome become oriented in the reverse direction?
 53.
Interpreting Graphics In Figure 12-8, which process produces two chromosomes with translocations?

 
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Genetics

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Modified True/False
Indicate whether the statement is true or false.  If false, change the identified word or phrase to make the statement true.
 1.
Mendel discovered predictable patterns in the inheritance of traits. _________________________
 2.
Garden peas are difficult to grow because they mature slowly. _________________________
 3.
When Mendel cross-pollinated two varieties from the P generation that exhibited contrasting traits, he called the offspring the second filial, or F2, generation. _________________________
 4.
The contrasting forms of each character studied by Mendel appeared in a 3:1 ratio in the F2 generation. _________________________
 5.
A dominant allele masks the effect of a recessive allele. _________________________
 6.
The allele for a recessive trait is usually represented by a capital letter. _________________________
 7.
Heterozygous individuals have two of the same alleles for a particular gene. _________________________
 8.
The inheritance of sex-linked traits can be studied by making a pedigree of several generations of a family. _________________________
nar001-1.jpg
 9.
Refer to the illustration above. The father listed in the pedigree is most likely heterozygous for the trait. _________________________
 10.
Refer to the illustration above. Child #3 probably has the dominant phenotype. _________________________
 11.
Albinism is caused by a recessive allele. _________________________
 12.
The phenotype that results from an inherited pair of alleles depends on the instructions in the genes only. _________________________
 13.
Traits for different characters that are usually inherited together are said to be combined. _________________________
 

Multiple Choice
Identify the choice that best completes the statement or answers the question.
 14.
The passing of traits from parents to offspring is called
a.
 genetics.
c.
 development.
b.
 heredity.
d.
 maturation.
 15.
The difference between Mendel’s experiments in the area of heredity and those done by earlier researchers was that
a.
 earlier researchers did not have microscopes.
b.
 earlier researchers used detailed and numerical procedures.
c.
 Mendel expressed the results of his experiments in terms of numbers.
d.
 Mendel used pea plants with both purple and white flowers.
 16.
The scientific study of heredity is called
a.
 meiosis.
c.
 genetics.
b.
 crossing-over.
d.
 pollination.
 17.
The “father” of genetics was
a.
 A. Knight.
c.
 Gregor Mendel.
b.
 Hans Krebs.
d.
 Charles Darwin.
 18.
Garden peas are good subjects for studying heredity because they
a.
 are difficult to grow.
c.
 produce few offspring.
b.
 mature quickly.
d.
 have few traits.
 19.
Mendel obtained his P generation by allowing the plants to
a.
 self-pollinate.
c.
 assort independently.
b.
 cross-pollinate.
d.
 segregate.
 20.
Step 1 of Mendel’s garden pea experiment, allowing each variety of garden pea to self-pollinate for several generations, produced the
a.
 F1 generation.
c.
 P generation.
b.
 F2 generation.
d.
 P1 generation.
 21.
F2 : F1 ::
a.
 P : F1
c.
 F1 : P
b.
 F1 : F2
d.
 P : F2
 22.
An allele that is always expressed whenever it is present is called
a.
 dominant.
c.
 recessive.
b.
 phenotypic.
d.
 superior.
 23.
The discovery of chromosomes provided a link between the first law of heredity that stemmed from Mendel’s work and
a.
 pollination.
c.
 mitosis.
b.
 inheritance.
d.
 meiosis.
 24.
The law of segregation states that
a.
 alleles of a gene separate from each other during meiosis.
b.
 different alleles of a gene can never be found in the same organism.
c.
 each gene of an organism ends up in a different gamete.
d.
 each gene is found on a different molecule of DNA.
 25.
Mendel’s law of segregation states that
a.
 pairs of alleles are dependent on one another when separation occurs during gamete formation.
b.
 pairs of alleles separate independently of one another after gamete formation.
c.
 each pair of alleles remains together when gametes are formed.
d.
 the two alleles for a trait segregate independently when gametes are formed.
 26.
The phenotype of an organism
a.
 is used to represent its genetic composition.
b.
 is the physical appearance of a trait.
c.
 occurs only in dominant individuals.
d.
 cannot be seen.
 27.
If an individual possesses two recessive alleles for the same trait, the individual is said to be
a.
 homozygous for the trait.
c.
 heterozygous for the trait.
b.
 haploid for the trait.
d.
 mutated.
 28.
When an individual heterozygous for a trait is crossed with an individual homozygous recessive for the trait, the offspring produced will
a.
 all have the same genotype.
b.
 show two different phenotypes.
c.
 show three different phenotypes.
d.
 all have the same phenotype.
 29.
Tallness (T) is dominant to shortness (t) in pea plants. Which of the following represents a genotype of a pea plant that is heterozygous for tallness?
a.
 T
c.
 Tt
b.
 TT
d.
 tt
 30.
homozygous : heterozygous ::
a.
 heterozygous : Bb
c.
 probability : chance
b.
 gg : Gg
d.
 factor : gene
 31.
Mendel’s finding that the inheritance of one trait had no effect on the inheritance of another became known as the
a.
 law of dominance.
b.
 law of universal inheritance.
c.
 law of separate convenience.
d.
 law of independent assortment.

In humans, having freckles (F) is dominant to not having freckles (f). The inheritance of these traits can be studied using a Punnett square similar to the one shown below.

nar002-1.jpg
 32.
Refer to the illustration above. The child represented in box 1 in the Punnett square would
a.
 be homozygous for freckles.
b.
 have an extra freckles chromosome.
c.
 be heterozygous for freckles.
d.
 not have freckles.
 33.
Refer to the illustration above. The parents shown in the Punnett square could have children with a phenotype ratio of
a.
 1:2:1.
c.
 3:1.
b.
 4:0.
d.
 2:2.
 34.
Refer to the illustration above. Which box in the Punnett square represents a child who does not have freckles?
a.
 box 1
c.
 box 3
b.
 box 2
d.
 box 4
 35.
Refer to the illustration above. The child in box 3 of the Punnett square has the genotype
a.
 FF.
c.
 ff.
b.
 Ff.
d.
 FfFf.

In rabbits, black fur (B) is dominant to brown fur (b). Consider the following cross between two rabbits.

nar003-1.jpg
 36.
Refer to the illustration above. The device shown, which is used to determine the probable outcome of genetic crosses, is called a
a.
 Mendelian box.
c.
 genetic graph.
b.
 Punnett square.
d.
 phenotypic paradox.
 37.
Refer to the illustration above. Both of the parents in the cross are
a.
 black.
c.
 homozygous dominant.
b.
 brown.
d.
 homozygous recessive.
 38.
Refer to the illustration above. The phenotype of the offspring indicated by box 3 would be
a.
 brown.
c.
 a mixture of brown and black.
b.
 black.
d.
 white.
 39.
Refer to the illustration above. The genotypic ratio of the F1 generation would be
a.
 1:1.
c.
 1:3.
b.
 3:1.
d.
 1:2:1.
 40.
What is the expected genotypic ratio resulting from a homozygous dominant ´ heterozygous monohybrid cross?
a.
 1:0
c.
 1:2:1
b.
 1:1
d.
 1:3:1
 41.
What is the expected genotypic ratio resulting from a heterozygous ´ heterozygous monohybrid cross?
a.
 1:2:1
c.
 1:2
b.
 1:3:1
d.
 1:0
 42.
What is the expected phenotypic ratio resulting from a homozygous dominant ´ heterozygous monohybrid cross?
a.
 1:3:1
c.
 2:1
b.
 1:2:1
d.
 1:0
 43.
The unknown genotype of an individual with a dominant phenotype can be determined using a
a.
 ratio.
c.
 probability formula.
b.
 dihybrid cross.
d.
 test cross.
 44.
What is the probability that the offspring of a homozygous dominant individual and a homozygous recessive individual will exhibit the dominant phenotype?
a.
 0.25
c.
 0.66
b.
 0.5
d.
 1.0
 45.
Probability is calculated by dividing the number of one kind of possible outcome by the
a.
 number of other kinds of outcomes.
b.
 total number of all possible outcomes.
c.
 number of genes being considered.
d.
 total number of offspring produced.
 46.
If a characteristic is sex-linked, the gene for it is found on
a.
 a sex chromosome.
c.
 a linked chromosome.
b.
 an autosome.
d.
 an allele.
 47.
Since the allele for colorblindness is located on the X chromosome, colorblindness
a.
 cannot be inherited.
c.
 is sex-linked.
b.
 occurs only in adults.
d.
 occurs only in females.
 48.
A diagram in which several generations of a family and the occurrence of certain genetic characteristics are shown is called a
a.
 Punnett square.
c.
 pedigree.
b.
 monohybrid cross.
d.
 family karyotype.
 49.
In humans, eye color and height are controlled by
a.
 simple dominance.
c.
 polygenic inheritance.
b.
 multiple alleles.
d.
 incomplete dominance.
 50.
Which of the following traits is controlled by multiple alleles in humans?
a.
 eye color
c.
 colorblindness
b.
 blood type
d.
 albinism
 51.
What would be the blood type of a person who inherited an A allele from one parent and an O allele from the other?
a.
 type A
c.
 type AB
b.
 type B
d.
 type O
 52.
Which of the following is not an outcome of the environment modifying a phenotype?
a.
 the changing of the color of an animal’s fur as the temperature changes
b.
 the increased intelligence of a person who attended school for many years
c.
 the very short stature of a kind of tree that grows at a high altitude in comparison with the same kind of tree growing at a lower altitude
d.
 the pink-flowered snapdragons that result from crosses between red-flowered and white-flowered snapdragon plants
 53.
Genes that are close together on a single chromosome are considered to be
a.
 alleles.
c.
 independent.
b.
 homozygous.
d.
 linked.

 
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PCC Biochemistry 2011

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Multiple Choice
Identify the choice that best completes the statement or answers the question.
 1.
The three particles that make up atoms are
a.
 protons, neutrons, and isotopes.
c.
 positives, negatives, and electrons.
b.
 neutrons, isotopes, and electrons.
d.
 protons, neutrons, and electrons.
 2.
The space surrounding the nucleus of an atom contains
a.
 protons.
c.
 neutrons.
b.
 electrons.
d.
 ions.
 3.
Democritus believed that atoms
a.
 were composed of electrons.
c.
 could be divided.
b.
 were composed of protons.
d.
 could not be divided.
 4.
If an atom contains 3 protons, 4 neutrons,  and 3 electrons, its mass number would be
a.
 3.
c.
 7.
b.
 4.
d.
 11.
 5.
If a chlorine atom had 17 protons and 18 neutrons, it would be called
a.
 chlorine-17.
c.
 chlorine-35.
b.
 chlorine-18.
d.
 chlorine-1.
 6.
Isotopes are atoms of the same element with the same number of protons and
a.
 a different number of electrons.
c.
 a different number of neutrons.
b.
 a different number of molecules.
d.
 the same number of neutrons.
 7.
Which of the following is a use of radioactive isotopes?
a.
 can determine the ages of rocks and fossils
b.
 can be used to treat cancer and kill bacteria that cause food to spoil
c.
 can be used as “tracers” to follow the movements of substances within organisms
d.
 all of the above
 8.
If an atom contains 11 protons and 12 neutrons, its atomic number is
a.
 1.
c.
 12.
b.
 11.
d.
 23.
 9.
Which of the following terms describes a substance formed by the combination of two or more elements in definite proportions?
a.
 compound
c.
 nucleus
b.
 isotope
d.
 enzyme
 10.
Which of the following makes up a molecule of water?
a.
 one atom of hydrogen and one atom of oxygen
b.
 one atom of sodium and one atom of chlorine
c.
 one atom of hydrogen and two atoms of oxygen
d.
 two atoms of hydrogen and one atom of oxygen
 11.
Which of the following is NOT true about chlorine?
a.
 It is a poisonous, greenish gas.
b.
 It combines with sodium to form table salt.
c.
 It was used to kill many soldiers in World War I.
d.
 It is not reactive.
 12.
Which of the following statements about a compound is true?
a.
 The physical and chemical properties of a compound are usually very different from those of the elements from which it is formed.
b.
 Only the physical properties of a compound are usually the same as those of the elements from which it is formed.
c.
 Only the chemical properties of a compound are usually the same as those of the elements from which it is formed.
d.
 The physical and chemical properties of a compound are usually the same as those of the elements from which it is formed.
 13.
A covalent bond is formed as the result of
a.
 transferring electrons.
c.
 transferring protons.
b.
 sharing an electron pair.
d.
 sharing a proton pair.
 14.
Which term does NOT apply to sodium chloride?
a.
 molecule
c.
 compound
b.
 ionic bonding
d.
 crystal
 15.
What type of electron is available to form bonds?
a.
 valence
c.
 ionic
b.
 nucleus
d.
 covalent
 16.
What type of ion forms when an atom loses electrons?
a.
 neutral
c.
 negative
b.
 positive
d.
 possibly positive or negative
 17.
Ice floats on water because
a.
 of cohesion.
c.
 water shrinks when it freezes.
b.
 ice has a higher density than water.
d.
 water expands when it freezes.
 18.
The most abundant compound in most living things is
a.
 carbon dioxide.
c.
 sodium chloride.
b.
 water.
d.
 sugar.
 19.
Water molecules are polar, with the
a.
 oxygen side being slightly positive and the hydrogen side being slightly negative.
b.
 oxygen and hydrogen sides being slightly positive.
c.
 oxygen and hydrogen sides being slightly negative.
d.
 oxygen side being slightly negative and the hydrogen side being slightly positive.
 20.
In a water molecule, shared electrons spend more time around the oxygen atom than the hydrogen atoms.  As a result, the oxygen atom is
a.
 slightly negative.
c.
 slightly positive.
b.
 very negative.
d.
 very positive.
 21.
A solution is a(an)
a.
 combination of isotopes.
b.
 chemical reaction.
c.
 evenly distributed mixture of two or more substances.
d.
 combination of two or more liquids.
 22.
If you stir salt into boiling water, you produce a
a.
 mixture called a suspension.
c.
 solution and suspension.
b.
 mixture called a solution.
d.
 mixture only.
 23.
When salt is dissolved in water, water is the
a.
 reactant.
c.
 solute.
b.
 solution.
d.
 solvent.
 24.
While preparing a cell culture, a scientist places a colony of bacteria into distilled water and stirs it up.  This mixture of water and living cells would best be called a(an)
a.
 solution.
b.
 suspension.
c.
 buffer.
d.
 adhesion.
 25.
If the pH of stomach acid and of oven cleaner were measured,
a.
 both would be below 7.
b.
 both would be above 7.
c.
 the pH of stomach acid would be above 7, but the pH of oven cleaner would be below 7.
d.
 the pH of stomach acid would be below 7, but the pH of oven cleaner would be above 7.
 26.
A map of eastern North America, showing the pH of rainfall in the various states, indicates that the pH of rain in New York State varies from 4.22 to 4.40. According to these figures, the most acidic rainfall in New York State has a pH of
a.
 4.22.
c.
 4.35.
b.
 4.30.
d.
 4.40.
 27.
A substance with a pH of 6 is called
a.
 an acid.
c.
 both an acid and a base.
b.
 a base.
d.
 neither an acid nor a base.
 28.
Solutions that contain concentrations of H+ ions lower than pure water
a.
 have pH values below 7.
c.
 are bases.
b.
 are acids.
d.
 are enzymes.
 29.
Amino acid is to protein as
a.
 fat is to lipid.
c.
 sugar is to fat.
b.
 DNA is to RNA.
d.
 simple sugar is to starch.
 30.
A monosaccharide is a
a.
 carbohydrate.
c.
 nucleic acid.
b.
 lipid.
d.
 protein.
 31.
Which of the following is NOT a monomer?
a.
 a glucose molecule
c.
 a nucleotide
b.
 an amino acid
d.
 a protein
 32.
Which of the following is NOT a function of proteins?
a.
 store and transmit genetic information
b.
 help to fight disease
c.
 control the rate of reactions and regulate cell processes
d.
 build tissues such as bone and muscle
 33.
Which statement is true?
a.
 Simple sugars are made of polysaccharides.
b.
 Glycerol is made of fatty acids.
c.
 RNA molecules are made of nucleotides.
d.
 Amino acids are made of proteins.
 34.
In chemical reactions, atoms are
a.
 created.
c.
 rearranged.
b.
 destroyed.
d.
 neutralized.
 35.
When hydrogen and oxygen combine to form water, water is
a.
 a product.
c.
 both a product and a reactant.
b.
 a reactant.
d.
 neither a product nor a reactant.
 36.
Identify the reactant(s) in the chemical reaction, CO2 + H2O ® H2CO3.
a.
 CO2, H2O, and H2CO3
c.
 H2CO3
b.
 CO2 and H2O
d.
 CO2
 37.
What is the process that changes one set of chemicals into another set of chemicals?
a.
 cohesion
c.
 chemical reaction
b.
 adhesion
d.
 dissolving
 38.
What is the term used to describe the energy needed to get a reaction started?
a.
 adhesion energy
c.
 cohesion energy
b.
 activation energy
d.
 chemical energy
 39.
Chemical reactions that release energy
a.
 will not occur.
c.
 will always explode.
b.
 will never explode.
d.
 often occur spontaneously.
 40.
If a reaction in one direction releases energy, the reaction in the opposite direction
a.
 also releases energy.
c.
 destroys energy.
b.
 absorbs energy.
d.
 cannot occur.
 41.
Which of the following is a form of energy that may be released during a chemical reaction?
a.
 heat
c.
 light
b.
 sound
d.
 all of the above
 42.
Which of the following statements about enzymes is NOT true?
a.
 Enzymes work best at a specified pH.
b.
 All enzymes have the same shape as their substrates.
c.
 Enzymes are proteins.
d.
 The shape of an enzyme allows it to do its job.
 43.
Which of the following statements is true about catalysts?
a.
 Catalysts slow down the rate of chemical reactions.
b.
 All catalysts are enzymes.
c.
 Catalysts are used up during a chemical reaction.
d.
 Catalysts lower the activation energy of a chemical reaction.
 44.
A substance that accelerates the rate of a chemical reaction is called a(an)
a.
 catalyst.
c.
 molecule.
b.
 lipid.
d.
 element.
 45.
Enzymes affect the reactions in living cells by changing the
a.
 products of the reaction.
c.
 temperature of the reaction.
b.
 speed of the reaction.
d.
 pH of the reaction.
 

Short Answer
 46.
Why are atoms considered neutral?
 47.
What is a molecule?
 

Other

USING SCIENCE SKILLS

 

pH Values of Some Common Substances
Substance pH
Hydrochloric acid
1.0
Sulfuric acid
1.2
Tomatoes
4.2
Rainwater
6.2
Pure water
7.0
Sea water
8.5
Ammonium chloride
11.1
Sodium hydroxide
13.0

Figure 2–2
 48.
Applying Concepts What is the strongest acid listed in Figure 2–2?
 49.
Applying Concepts What is the pH of the strongest base listed in Figure 2–2?
 50.
Applying Concepts Using your knowledge of the pH scale, which of the chemicals in Figure 2-2 has the lowest concentration of H+ ions?

 
         Start Over

Moss & Fern Quiz

%CODE1%

Name: 

Moss and Fern

 

 

True/False
Indicate whether the sentence or statement is true or false.
1.
Land plants have a complex life cycle that involves an alternation of generations between a haploid gametophyte and a diploid sporophyte.
2.
The sporophyte of a nonvascular plant is larger and lives longer than the gametophyte.
3.
The life cycle of nonvascular plants involves alternation of generations.
4.
Mosses, liverworts, and hornworts all are generally found in moist habitats.
5.
Nonvascular plants have true leaves but lack true stems and roots.
6.
Mosses and ferns no longer require the presence of a film of water for reproduction.
7.
Ferns need water to reproduce because their sperm must swim to eggs.
8.
Mosses are called pioneer plants because they can promote the development of new communities in barren areas that have been burned or destroyed by humans.
9.
Sphagnum moss is used in potting and gardening soils because of its ability to encourage water drainage.
 

Multiple Choice
Identify the letter of the choice that best completes the statement or answers the question.
10.
The ancestors of today’s land plants were probably
a.
brown algae.
c.
green algae.
b.
red algae.
d.
lichens.
11.
The challenges faced by early land plants included
a.
conserving water.
b.
reproducing on land.
c.
absorbing minerals from the rocky surface.
d.
All of the above
12.
The diploid form in a plant’s life cycle is called the
a.
sporophyte.
c.
parental generation.
b.
gametophyte.
d.
alternate generation.
13.
The haploid form in a plant’s life cycle is called the
a.
sporophyte.
c.
parental generation.
b.
gametophyte.
d.
alternate generation.
14.
Which of the following is not a bryophyte?
a.
moss
c.
hornwort
b.
liverwort
d.
fern
15.
Which of the following is not characteristic of all nonvascular plants?
a.
They produce seeds.
b.
They have an alternation of generations lifestyle.
c.
They produce spores.
d.
They require water for sexual reproduction.
16.
The water-retaining ability of sphagnum moss makes it ideal for
a.
using in garden-soil mixes.
b.
use in packing bulbs and flowers for shipping.
c.
use in houseplant soils.
d.
All of the above
17.
Similarities shared by monocots and primitive dicots suggest that
a.
monocots and dicots evolved independently.
b.
monocots were on Earth long before dicots.
c.
monocots evolved from dicots.
d.
dicots evolved from monocots.

 
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