Category: Study Guides

PCC Virus, Viroids, & Prions Study Guide

%CODE1%

Javascript not enabled

 

 
Name: 
 

 

PCC Virus, Viroids, & Prions Study Guide

 

  

Multiple Choice
Identify the choice that best completes the statement or answers the question.
 
 1.
The outer protein coat of a virus is called a
a.
 DNA core.
c.
 bacteriophage.
b.
 capsid.
d.
 tail sheath.
 
 2.
All viruses are made of proteins and
a.
 nucleic acids.
c.
 bacteriophages.
b.
 prophages.
d.
 endospores.
 
 3.
A viral capsid functions to
a.
 bind the virus to the surface of a host cell.
b.
 transcribe viral genes.
c.
 force a host cell to make copies of the virus.
d.
 destroy a host cell.
 
 4.
The instructions for making new copies of a virus are
a.
 a part of a virus’s capsid.
b.
 coded in surface proteins attached to the protein coat.
c.
 coded in either RNA or DNA.
d.
 found only in bacteriophages.
 
 5.
What is the basic structure of a virus?
a.
 DNA or RNA surrounded by a protein coat
b.
 a capsid surrounded by a protein coat
c.
 a tail sheath surrounded by tail fibers
d.
 a tiny cell surrounded by a cell wall
 
 6.
Viruses
a.
 are all about the same size.
b.
 vary greatly in size and structure.
c.
 rarely contain DNA or RNA.
d.
 can be seen with a basic compound light microscope.
 
 7.
Which of the following characteristics of living things is NOT true about viruses?
a.
 contain genetic material
c.
 obtain and use energy
b.
 evolve over time
d.
 able to reproduce
 
 8.
A lytic infection concludes with the
a.
 embedding of viral DNA into the host cell’s DNA.
b.
 production of a prophage.
c.
 bursting of the host cell.
d.
 production of messenger RNA.
 
 9.
A prophage is made of
a.
 bacteriophages.
c.
 capsid proteins.
b.
 carbohydrates.
d.
 viral DNA.
 
 10.
Bacteriophages infect
a.
 other viruses.
c.
 any available host cell.
b.
 bacteria only.
d.
 cells undergoing the lytic cycle.
 
 11.
Unlike lytic viruses, lysogenic viruses do NOT
a.
 inject their genetic material into the host cell.
b.
 enter the lytic cycle.
c.
 lyse the host cell right away.
d.
 infect host cells.
 
 12.
During a lytic infection, the host cell is
a.
 destroyed.
c.
 copied many times over.
b.
 prepared for the lysogenic cycle.
d.
 all of the above
 
 13.
Which of the following is NOT a viral disease?
a.
 botulism
c.
 measles
b.
 AIDS
d.
 polio
 
 14.
Viral diseases can be
a.
 treated with antibiotics and prevented with vaccines.
b.
 treated with vaccines and prevented with antibiotics.
c.
 prevented with antibiotics but not treated with vaccines.
d.
 prevented with vaccines but not treated with antibiotics.
 
 15.
Plant viruses have a difficult time entering the cells they infect partly because
a.
 plant viruses are weaker than animal viruses.
b.
 plant cells have tough cell walls.
c.
 many plant viruses are spread by insects.
d.
 plant viruses do not have a protein coat.
 
 16.
Viruses cause disease by
a.
 producing toxins that harm the body.
b.
 reproducing independently inside the body.
c.
 forming endospores in the body.
d.
 disrupting the body’s normal equilibrium.
 
 17.
Prions differ from viruses because
a.
 prions do not cause disease.
c.
 prions only infect plant cells.
b.
 prions contain no DNA or RNA.
d.
 prions do not contain any protein.
 
 18.
We know viruses are not alive because they
a.
 are made of cells.
c.
 they are autotrophic.
b.
 make prions rather than proteins.
d.
 they are not made of cells.
 
 19.
The study of viruses is a part of biology because viruses
a.
 belong to the domain Archaea.
c.
 are living organisms.
b.
 are about to become extinct.
d.
 are active inside living cells.
 
 20.
A typical virus consists of a
a.
 protein coat and a cytoplasm core.
b.
 carbohydrate coat and a nucleic acid core.
c.
 protein coat and a nucleic acid core.
d.
 polysaccharide coat and a nucleic acid core.
 
 21.
Biologists now know that viruses
a.
 are the smallest organisms.
b.
 consist of a protein surrounded by a nucleic acid coat.
c.
 contain RNA or DNA in a protein coat.
d.
 all form the same crystalline shape.
 
   
 
nar001-1.jpg
 
 22.
Refer to the illustration above. Which structure represents protein?
a.
 structure B
c.
 structure D
b.
 structure A
d.
 structure E
 
 23.
The function of a bacteriophage’s tail and tail fibers is to inject
a.
 viral protein into the host cell.
c.
 glycoproteins into the host cell.
b.
 viral enzymes into the host cell.
d.
 viral DNA into the host cell.
 
 24.
The capsid of a virus is the
a.
 protective outer coat.
c.
 nucleus.
b.
 cell membrane.
d.
 cell wall and membrane complex.
 
 25.
A provirus is part of a virus’s
a.
 lytic cycle.
c.
 infection cycle.
b.
 conjugation cycle.
d.
 lysogenic cycle.
 
 26.
How is a lytic cycle different from a lysogenic cycle?
a.
 The host cell is destroyed in a lysogenic cycle.
b.
 The host cell is destroyed in a lytic cycle.
c.
 A provirus is formed during a lytic cycle.
d.
 A lytic cycle releases temperate viruses.
 
 27.
A virulent virus is one that
a.
 has only DNA.
b.
 has only RNA.
c.
 reproduces only with a lysogenic cycle.
d.
 reproduces only with a lytic cycle.
 
 28.
In a lytic cycle, viral genetic material
a.
 remains separate from the host cell’s DNA.
b.
 becomes part of the host cell’s DNA.
c.
 becomes a provirus.
d.
 remains in the host cell permanently.
 
 29.
The cycle of viral infection, replication, and cell destruction is called the virus’s
a.
 lysogenic cycle.
c.
 lytic cycle.
b.
 metabolic cycle.
d.
 provirus cycle.
 
 30.
Viroids are
a.
 much smaller than viruses.
c.
 misshapen proteins.
b.
 much larger than viruses.
d.
 found in the brain.
 
 31.
Prions
a.
 always have a capsid.
c.
 change the shape of normal proteins.
b.
 cause abnormal growth in plants.
d.
 are made of RNA.
 

 

 
Check Your Work     Start Over

Sponges & Cnidarians Study Guide

%CODE1%

Javascript not enabled

Name: 

Sponges & Cnidarians Quiz

 

 

Multiple Choice
Identify the choice that best completes the statement or answers the question.
 1.

mc001-1.jpg

Refer to the illustration above. Which organism is most closely related to a jellyfish?

a.
 1
c.
 3
b.
 2
d.
 4
 2.
Which of the following distinguishes sponges from other invertebrates?
a.
 They are not motile in any stage of their life cycle.
b.
 They obtain nutrients by diffusion rather than by ingestion.
c.
 Their cells are not organized into tissues.
d.
 They reproduce only asexually.
 3.
Sponges
a.
 are nonsymmetrical.
b.
 lack organization into tissues and organs.
c.
 possess cells that are capable of recognizing other sponge cells.
d.
 All of the above
 4.
Collar cells
a.
 are specialized for reproduction.
b.
 draw water into the body of a sponge.
c.
 produce cytochrome oxidase.
d.
 are parasitic protozoa.
 5.
Spicules are
a.
 flexible protein fibers.
b.
 hard spike-like structures in the wall of a sponge.
c.
 similar to seeds; a complete sponge can grow from each spicule.
d.
 used for taking in food and water.
 6.
Adult sponges
a.
 have body walls with many pores.
b.
 possess true tissues.
c.
 are active swimmers.
d.
 use stinging cells to capture prey.
 7.
Skeletal support in sponges may be provided by
a.
 spicules of calcium carbonate.
b.
 spicules of silicon dioxide.
c.
 fibers called spongin.
d.
 All of the above
 8.
Sponges obtain food
a.
 through photosynthesis.
b.
 by using their spicules to paralyze protozoa.
c.
 by filtering small organisms from the water.
d.
 with their spongin.
 9.
In sponges, currents that draw water through the organism are created by
a.
 amoebocytes.
c.
 gemmules.
b.
 collar cells.
d.
 spicules.
 10.
The cells that move throughout the sponge’s body wall to deliver food to the organism’s cells are called
a.
 amoebocytes.
c.
 gemmules.
b.
 choanocytes.
d.
 spicules.
 11.
Water leaves the interior of a sponge through the
a.
 food vacuoles.
c.
 body wall.
b.
 spicules.
d.
 osculum.
 12.
collar cell : water ::
a.
 amoebocyte : nutrients and wastes
b.
 spongin : food
c.
 spicule : water
d.
 osculum : mesenchyme
 13.
The gemmules of sponges
a.
 create water currents for feeding.
b.
 are equivalent to the sperm cells of higher animals.
c.
 are equivalent to the egg cells of higher animals.
d.
 are necessary for one form of asexual reproduction.
 14.
Hermaphroditic organisms
a.
 reproduce only by asexual means.
b.
 produce both eggs and sperm.
c.
 have gemmules that are fertilized by amoebocytes.
d.
 possess only male amoebocytes.
 15.
Hermaphrodism is advantageous in sponges because
a.
 they reproduce asexually.
b.
 they have gemmules.
c.
 they are sessile.
d.
 None of the above is true; hermaphrodism does not occur in sponges.
 16.
Sponges can reproduce
a.
 by the budding of new sponges from the parent.
b.
 by a breakup of the original parent into fragments that each become a new sponge.
c.
 sexually, using sperm and eggs.
d.
 All of the above
 17.
some freshwater sponges : gemmules ::
a.
 hermaphrodites : eggs and sperm
b.
 gemmules : eggs
c.
 gemmules : sperms
d.
 amoebocytes : eggs
 18.

mc018-1.jpg

Refer to the illustration above. Which organism captures its prey using nematocysts?

a.
 1
c.
 3
b.
 2
d.
 4
 19.
Many cnidarians have two distinct life stages,
a.
 the gametophyte and the sporophyte.
b.
 the polyp and the medusa.
c.
 the egg and the adult.
d.
 the egg and the larva.
 20.
Nematocysts
a.
 contain harpoonlike structures called cnidocytes.
b.
 create water currents in sponges.
c.
 can spear a cnidarian’s prey.
d.
 are found in most predatory ctenophores.
 21.
The cnidarian’s inner layer of tissue is specialized for
a.
 digestion.
c.
 capturing prey.
b.
 reproduction.
d.
 All of the above
 22.
The outer cell layer of a cnidarian is the
a.
 ectoderm.
c.
 endoderm.
b.
 mesoglea.
d.
 epidermis.
 23.
Which of the following is a characteristic associated only with cnidarians?
a.
 a digestive tract with a single opening
b.
 cnidocytes specialized for defense and capturing prey
c.
 choanocytes containing nematocysts
d.
 a parasitic life cycle
 24.
sponges : fewer than three body layers ::
a.
 ctenophores : no body symmetry
b.
 sponges : bilateral symmetry
c.
 cnidarians : nerve net
d.
 cnidarians : choanocytes
 25.
The phylum Cnidaria includes all of the following except
a.
 jellyfish.
c.
 sea anemones.
b.
 squids.
d.
 corals.
 26.
Planula larvae of scyphozoans
a.
 result from fertilization of eggs by sperm.
b.
 swim freely through the water.
c.
 settle to the ocean bottom and grow into polyps.
d.
 All of the above
 27.
The hydra is unique among the hydrozoans because it
a.
 is an active swimmer.
b.
 lives in colonies.
c.
 is strictly a marine species.
d.
 has no medusa stage.
 28.
Which of the following is not sessile as an adult?
a.
 sponge
b.
 coral
c.
 sea anemone
d.
 Portuguese man-of-war
 29.
Sea anemones are
a.
 medusae.
c.
 larvae.
b.
 polyps.
d.
 eggs.

The diagram below illustrates the life cycle of the jellyfish.

nar001-1.jpg
 30.
Refer to the illustration above. Which stage is called a planula?
a.
 1
c.
 3
b.
 2
d.
 None of the above
 31.
Refer to the illustration above. Which stage reproduces asexually?
a.
 1
c.
 3
b.
 2
d.
 None of the above
 32.
Anthozoans include
a.
 jellyfish.
b.
 hydras.
c.
 the Portuguese man-of-war.
d.
 sea anemones and corals.
 33.
Scyphozoans, such as jellyfish, spend most of their lives as
a.
 polyps.
c.
 corals.
b.
 medusae.
d.
 parasites.
 34.
The class of cnidarians that typically live only as polyps is the
a.
 Anthozoa.
c.
 Scyphozoa.
b.
 Hydrozoa.
d.
 None of the above
 35.
Which of the following is not a characteristic of ctenophores?
a.
 bioluminescence
b.
 movement by means of beating cilia
c.
 use of cnidocytes to capture prey
d.
 hermaphrodism
 

Completion
Complete each statement.
 36.
____________________ is drawn into a sponge through pores and leaves through the osculum.
 37.
A network of tough, flexible protein fibers called ____________________ provides support in some sponges.
 38.
Spike-like objects that make up the skeleton of some sponges are called ____________________.
 39.
A sponge’s ____________________ may be composed of either calcium carbonate or silicon dioxide.
 40.
Food molecules are carried throughout a sponge’s body by ____________________.
 41.
Food-filled balls of amoebocytes that are involved in asexual reproduction in sponges are called ____________________.
 42.
An organism that produces both eggs and sperm is called a(n) ____________________.
 43.
A free-floating, gelatinous body form of a cnidarian is called a(n) ____________________, while an attached body form is called a(n) ____________________.
 44.
Cnidarians have two cell layers, the epidermis and the ____________________.
 45.
A coral is a member of the class ____________________.
 46.
Ctenophores are the largest organisms that move by the beating of ____________________.

 
Check Your Work     Start Over

PCC Fungi Study Guide

%CODE1%

Javascript not enabled

Name: 

 

PCC Fungi Study Guide

 

 

Multiple Choice
Identify the choice that best completes the statement or answers the question.
 1.
All fungi are
a.
 heterotrophic prokaryotes.
c.
 autotrophic prokaryotes.
b.
 heterotrophic eukaryotes.
d.
 autotrophic eukaryotes.
 2.
Fungi do NOT
a.
 carry out photosynthesis.
c.
 digest food outside their bodies.
b.
 grow on their food source.
d.
 absorb food through their cell walls.
 3.
Fungi resemble plants in that they both always
a.
 have stems.
c.
 act as parasites.
b.
 grow from the ground.
d.
 have cell walls.
 4.
A mushroom is a fungal
a.
 fruiting body.
c.
 mycorrhiza.
b.
 lichen.
d.
 yeast.
 5.
The tangled mass that makes up the body of a fungus is the
a.
 hypha.
c.
 mycelium.
b.
 rhizoid.
d.
 stolon.

nar001-1.jpg

Figure 21–1
 6.
Fungal hyphae, shown in Figure 21–1, differ in that some lack
a.
 cell walls.
c.
 nuclei.
b.
 cross walls.
d.
 cytoplasm.
 7.
A circular arrangement of mushrooms sprouting from the same mycelium is known as a(an)
a.
 hypha.
c.
 imperfect fungus.
b.
 fairy ring.
d.
 sporangiophore.
 8.
Most fungi reproduce
a.
 asexually only.
c.
 both sexually and asexually.
b.
 sexually only.
d.
 by budding.
 9.
Stinkhorns, which mimic the odor of rotting meat, have spores that are dispersed by
a.
 wind.
c.
 snow.
b.
 birds.
d.
 flies.
 10.
When hyphae of opposite mating types meet, they first
a.
 enter mitosis
c.
 enter meiosis.
b.
 grow and develop.
d.
 fuse.
 11.
Sporangia are found at the tops of specialized hyphae called
a.
 sporangiophores.
c.
 gametangia.
b.
 mycelia.
d.
 stolons.
 12.
Which of the following processes is first to occur after the nuclei of opposite mating types fuse?
a.
 Spores are produced.
c.
 Mitosis occurs.
b.
 Gametes are produced.
d.
 Meiosis occurs.
 13.
Dark fuzz that grows on bread is an example of
a.
 toadstool.
c.
 yeast.
b.
 spore.
d.
 mold.
 14.
Rhizoids in molds are analagous to which structures on plants?
a.
 flowers
c.
 stems
b.
 roots
d.
 leaves
 15.
In bread mold, haploid gametes are produced by the
a.
 gametangia.
c.
 zygospores.
b.
 rhizoids.
d.
 sporangiophores.
 16.
Which of the following ingredients is NOT added to bread dough in order to make it rise?
a.
 sugar
c.
 water
b.
 yeast
d.
 oxygen
 17.
The dry, powdered yeast used to bake bread actually contains
a.
 zygospores.
c.
 conidia.
b.
 ascospores.
d.
 sporangia.
 18.
Yeasts obtain energy by alcoholic fermentation in the absence of
a.
 moisture.
c.
 oxygen.
b.
 carbon dioxide.
d.
 sugar.
 19.
Mushrooms are classified as
a.
 common molds.
c.
 club fungi.
b.
 sac fungi.
d.
 imperfect fungi.
 20.
Which is responsible for the enlargement of fruiting bodies?
a.
 water uptake by cells in hyphae
c.
 production of haploid spores
b.
 rapid cell division
d.
 expansion of air spaces between the gills
 21.
The common name for members of the phylum Basidiomycota is derived from the shape of their
a.
 spores.
c.
 basidia.
b.
 hyphae.
d.
 stalks.
 22.
Over time, nutrients at the center of a large underground mycelium become depleted, causing new mushrooms to sprout only
a.
 in a cluster at the center.
c.
 when the nutrients are replaced.
b.
 in a ring at the outer edges.
d.
 after budding takes place.
 23.
Each of the following is a basidiomycete EXCEPT
a.
 shelf fungi.
c.
 puffballs.
b.
 mushrooms.
d.
 cup fungi.
 24.
In basidiomycetes, the primary mycelia of different mating types fuse to form
a.
 a secondary mycelium.
b.
 haploid zygotes.
c.
 gills.
d.
 haploid nuclei of the same mating type.
 25.
Which statement about Penicillium is correct?
a.
 It produces mushrooms.
c.
 It is the source of an antibiotic.
b.
 It causes bread to rise.
d.
 It causes athlete’s foot.
 26.
Penicillium is classified in phylum Deuteromycota because Penicillium has
a.
 fruiting bodies.
c.
 no observed sexual phase.
b.
 gills.
d.
 basidiospores.
 27.
Penicillium may have evolved from an ascomycete that lost its ability to carry out
a.
 asexual reproduction.
c.
 spore formation.
b.
 sexual reproduction.
d.
 conidia formation.
 28.
An important role of fungi in an ecosystem is
a.
 photosynthesis.
c.
 making alcohol.
b.
 breaking down dead organisms.
d.
 killing bacteria.
 29.
The oldest fossil fungi on record belong to the phylum
a.
 Ascomycota.
c.
 Basidiomycota.
b.
 Deuteromycota.
d.
 Zygomycota.
 30.
Fungi that absorb food from decaying organic matter are
a.
 parasites.
c.
 mutualists.
b.
 saprobes.
d.
 autotrophs.
 31.
Fungi feed on
a.
 only living organisms.
c.
 both living and dead organisms.
b.
 only dead organisms.
d.
 only other fungi.
 32.
The breakdown of dead organisms is accelerated by the fungal production of
a.
 alcohols.
c.
 digestive enzymes.
b.
 acids.
d.
 recycled nutrients.
 33.
Which of the following statements about fungi is true?
a.
 They bind trace elements and hold them.
b.
 They return trace elements to the soil.
c.
 They do not affect trace elements.
d.
 They deplete the soil of trace elements.
 34.
Athlete’s foot is caused by the same fungus that causes
a.
 wheat rust.
c.
 ringworm.
b.
 moldy bread.
d.
 thrush.
 35.
The growth of yeasts in moist regions of the body is kept in check by competition from
a.
 antibiotics.
c.
 rusts.
b.
 bacteria.
d.
 mildews.
 36.
Crop damage by fungal diseases is
a.
 greatest in tropical areas.
c.
 greatest in temperate areas.
b.
 least in tropical areas.
d.
 not affected by climate.
 37.
Which structures of the fungus Cordyceps digest tropical grasshoppers from the inside out?
a.
 spores
c.
 fruiting bodies
b.
 hyphae
d.
 mycelia
 38.
Each of the following is true of wheat rust EXCEPT that it
a.
 is caused by a basidiomycete.
b.
 is carried by insects into wheat fields.
c.
 is controlled by destroying barberry plants.
d.
 produces two kinds of spores.
 39.
The normal balance between bacteria and yeasts in the body can be upset by
a.
 eating yeast-leavened bread.
c.
 using antibiotics.
b.
 eating edible mushrooms.
d.
 being exposed to mushroom spores.

nar002-1.jpg

Figure 21–2
 40.
Figure 21–2 illustrates an association of a(an)
a.
 cyanobacterium and a plant.
c.
 plant and a fungus.
b.
 alga or cyanobacterium and a fungus.
d.
 alga and a plant.
 41.
Which of the following is NOT a single organism?
a.
 mushroom
c.
 yeast
b.
 smut
d.
 lichen
 42.
Which statement about lichens is correct?
a.
 They are not tolerant of harsh conditions.
b.
 They cannot make their own food.
c.
 They grow only in soil.
d.
 They can serve as an air quality indicator.
 43.
The association of plants and fungi in mycorrhizae illustrates a type of relationship called
a.
 parasitism.
c.
 competition.
b.
 mutualism.
d.
 parallelism.
 44.
In a mycorrhizal relationship, what benefit does the plant get from the fungus?
a.
 protection from harsh conditions
c.
 products of photosynthesis
b.
 aid in seed dispersal
d.
 aid in the absorption of water and minerals
 45.
Beneath the forest floor, carbon atoms can be moved from one tree to the next by
a.
 orchids.
c.
 mycorrhizae.
b.
 fungal spores.
d.
 lichens.
 46.
Which of the following is not a characteristic of fungi?
a.
 membrane-bounded nuclei
b.
 mitochondria
c.
 cell wall of lipopolysaccharides
d.
 primarily terrestrial in habitat
e.
 reproduction via spores
 47.
The cell walls of fungi are composed of:
a.
 cellulose.
b.
 lipids.
c.
 glycogen.
d.
 chitin.
e.
 chlorophyll.
 48.
Fungi can grow under all of the following conditions except:
a.
 concentrated salt solutions.
b.
 an environment with a very low pH of 3.
c.
 a dry environment.
d.
 jelly or other sugar solutions.
e.
 a cold, refrigerated environment.
Figure 25-01
Use the figure below to answer the corresponding questions.nar003-1.jpg
 49.
In Figure 25-01, the structure labeled 1 is:
a.
 a conidium.
b.
 a perforated septum.
c.
 a hypha.
d.
 a basidium.
e.
 a spore.
 50.
In Figure 25-01, the fungus illustrated in Figure A is:
a.
 multicellular.
b.
 coenocytic.
c.
 septate.
d.
 dikaryotic.
e.
 None of the above.
 51.
An example of a unicellular fungus is:
a.
 a mold.
b.
 a mushroom.
c.
 a yeast.
d.
 a rust.
e.
 a smut.
 52.
A ____________ is a filament that makes up the vegetative body of most fungi.
a.
 thallus
b.
 protonema
c.
 fruiting body
d.
 hypha
e.
 septa
 53.
Which group of fungi have hyphae that are multinucleate and not divided by septa?
a.
 monokaryotic
b.
 unicellular
c.
 ascomycete
d.
 coenocytic
e.
 sporophyllous
 54.
A ____________ is a tangled mat of hyphae.
a.
 sporocarp
b.
 sporangia
c.
 zygospore
d.
 mycelium
e.
 coenocyte
 55.
The club fungi typically reproduce by producing:
a.
 zygospores.
b.
 ascospores.
c.
 asci.
d.
 basidia.
e.
 mycorrhizae.
 56.
Most fungal spores are ____________ reproductive cells that are produced ________________________.
a.
 motile; sexually only
b.
 motile; asexually only
c.
 nonmotile; sexually only
d.
 nonmotile; asexually only
e.
 nonmotile; sexually or asexually
 57.
In a fungus, a complex multicellular reproductive structure is called:
a.
 a hypha.
b.
 a gametangium.
c.
 a fruiting body.
d.
 an oogonium.
e.
 an antheridium.
 58.
What makes up most of the mass of an individual mushroom?
a.
 underground mycelium
b.
 above ground mycelium
c.
 underground fruiting body
d.
 above ground ascocarp
e.
 underground ascocarp
 59.
Dikaryotic cells are denoted as:
a.
 n + n.
b.
 n – n.
c.
 n.
d.
 2n.
e.
 2n – n.
 60.
Members of phylum ____________ are the most primitive of the fungi and were previously classified as protists.
a.
 Chytridiomycota
b.
 Zygomycota
c.
 Oomycota
d.
 Ascomycota
e.
 Deuteromycota
 61.
One ancestral characteristic remaining in representatives of the Chytridiomycetes is:
a.
 gametes formed by mitosis.
b.
 alternation of generations.
c.
 cell walls.
d.
 flagellated cells.
e.
 both sexual and asexual reproduction.
 62.
An example of a member of phylum Zygomycota is:
a.
 the common edible mushroom.
b.
 yeast.
c.
 the black bread mold.
d.
 the truffle.
e.
 More than one of the above.
 63.
When bread gets moldy with visible black or blue spots, you are looking at masses of the colored:
a.
 spores.
b.
 hyphae.
c.
 mycelia.
d.
 ascocarps.
e.
 thalli.
 64.
Black bread mold is ___________________, which means that it is self-sterile.
a.
 heterozygous
b.
 heterothallic
c.
 hetertrophic
d.
 mycotoxic
e.
 coenocytic
 65.
Reproduction in the black bread mold occurs between ___________________ hyphae.
a.
 male and female
b.
 + and –
c.
 dikaryotic and monokaryotic
d.
 heterothallic and homothallic
e.
 sterile and self-sterile
 66.
An example of a member of phylum Ascomycota is:
a.
 the common edible mushroom.
b.
 yeast.
c.
 the black bread mold.
d.
 the truffle.
e.
 More than one of the above.
 67.
The sac fungi are characterized by sexual reproductive structures called:
a.
 asci.
b.
 basidia.
c.
 gemmae.
d.
 conidiophores.
e.
 conidia.
 68.
Asexual reproduction in sac fungi involves production of spores called:
a.
 asci.
b.
 basidia.
c.
 gemmae.
d.
 conidiophores.
e.
 conidia.
Figure 25-02
Use the figure below to answer the corresponding questions.nar004-1.jpg
 69.
In Figure 25-02, the structure labeled 11 is:
a.
 a zygote.
b.
 a female gametangium.
c.
 a male gemetangium.
d.
 a zoosporangium.
e.
 a zoospore.
 70.
The process occurring at point 3 in Figure 25-02 is:
a.
 asexual reproduction.
b.
 fertilization.
c.
 meiosis.
d.
 mitosis.
e.
 zygote germination.
 71.
The structure labeled 9 in Figure 25-02 was produced by:
a.
 fertilization of two zygotes.
b.
 meiosis in the resting sporangium.
c.
 meiosis in the zoosporangium.
d.
 mitosis in the resting sporangium.
e.
 mitosis in the zoosporangium.
 72.
An example of a plant disease caused by a basiodiomycete is:
a.
 chestnut blight.
b.
 Dutch elm disease.
c.
 verticillium wilt on potatoes.
d.
 stem rust of wheat.
e.
 All of the above.
 73.
In a mushroom, the primary mycelium is composed of ______________ cells.
a.
 monokaryotic
b.
 dikaryotic
c.
 homothallic
d.
 coenocytic
e.
 prokaryotic
 74.
Puffballs and bracket fungi are most closely related to:
a.
 molds.
b.
 truffles.
c.
 the common edible mushroom.
d.
 yeast.
e.
 the black bread mold.
 75.
Lichens are most typically formed by the symbiotic association of an alga or cyanobacterium and:
a.
 an ascomycete.
b.
 a deuteromycete.
c.
 a basidiomycete.
d.
 a zygomycete.
e.
 All of the above.
 76.
Lichens reproduce primarily asexually by ____________, which are fragments of the body of the lichen.
a.
 conidia
b.
 soredia
c.
 asci
d.
 basidia
e.
 thalli
 77.
Which of the following organisms typically grows most slowly?
a.
 bread molds
b.
 lichens
c.
 yeasts
d.
 mushrooms
e.
 sac fungi
 78.
Which of the following is not produced utilizing fungi?
a.
 beer
b.
 bread
c.
 blue cheese
d.
 yogurt
e.
 wine
 79.
Claviceps purpurea produces _______________, which infests grain and has been important in many historical events, as ingestion of infested grain milled into flour can cause hallucinations and even death.
a.
 an ergot
b.
 a smut
c.
 a rust
d.
 a brown rot
e.
 a mildew
 80.
Fungi parasitic on plants produce specialized hyphae, called ____________, that penetrate the host.
a.
 soredia
b.
 secondary mycelia
c.
 basidia
d.
 asci
e.
 haustoria
 81.
A basidiomycete that infests wheat is the wheat:
a.
 rust.
b.
 wilt.
c.
 strobilus.
d.
 scab.
e.
 rot.
 82.
Which is not a fungal infection in humans?
a.
 ringworm
b.
 athlete’s foot
c.
 yeast infections
d.
 histoplasmosis
e.
 None of the above, all are fungal infections in humans.
 83.
Examples of plant disease caused by an ascomycete are:
a.
 chestnut blight.
b.
 Dutch elm disease.
c.
 stem rust of wheat.
d.
 abnormal leaf fall of rubber.
e.
 Both A and B.
 84.
______________________ is a common chytridiomycete, which exhibits alternation of generation.
a.
 phytophthora
b.
 Allomyces
c.
 Ascomycetes
d.
 chytrids
e.
 None of the above.
 85.
Which one of the following is mismatched?
a.
 Bread mold – zygomycetes
b.
 Sac fungi – Ascomycota
c.
 Yeast – Ascomycota
d.
 Truffles – Ascomycota
e.
 Ascomycota – ascospores
 86.
The characteristic brown, blue-green, pink, or other tints of ascomycetes are due to the color of their__________.
a.
 Mycelia
b.
 Hyphae
c.
 Conidia
d.
 Sporangia
e.
 None of the above.
 87.
Yeasts reproduce asexually by:
a.
 division.
b.
 budding.
c.
 ascospores.
d.
 Binary fission.
e.
 Both B and D.
 88.
Which one of the following statements is true?
a.
 Basidiospores are formed within the basidia.
b.
 Ascospores are formed outside the ascus.
c.
 Both Basidiospores and ascospores are formed within their respective structures.
d.
 Both Basidiospores and ascospores are formed outside their respective structures.
e.
 Basidiospores are formed outside, and ascospores are formed within, their respective structures.
 89.
Which one of the following is mismatched?
a.
 Mushroom – Basidiomycetes
b.
 Sac fungi – Ascomycetes
c.
 Club fungi – Basidiomycetes
d.
 Puff balls – Basidiomycetes
e.
 Corn smut disease – Ascomycetes
 90.
Mushrooms that we eat are technically referred to as:
a.
 Basidiospores.
b.
 Basidiocarp.
c.
 Mycelium.
d.
 Hyphae.
e.
 Gills.
 91.
Color pigments produced by __________________ are used to dye woolens and litmus.
a.
 club fungi
b.
 mushroom
c.
 algae
d.
 lichens
e.
 puff balls
 92.
Reduction in ____________________ growth is used as a sensitive indicator of air pollution.
a.
 fungus
b.
 mushroom
c.
 algae
d.
 lichen
e.
 puff balls
 93.
Mycorrhiza is an example of ________________.
a.
 Commensalism
b.
 Parasitism
c.
 Mutualism
d.
 All of the above.
e.
 None of the above.
 94.
Mycorrhizae benefits plants by:
a.
 increasing photosynthetic area.
b.
 increasing absorptive surface area of roots.
c.
 increasing chlorophyll content.
d.
 increasing leaf area.
e.
 None of the above.
 95.
____________________ cause enormous economic losses by decaying wood, both living trees and stored lumber.
a.
 Sac fungi
b.
 Mushrooms
c.
 Bracket fungi
d.
 Aspergillus
e.
 Rhizopus
 96.
Consuming even a single mushroom of the genus _______________ can be fatal.
a.
 Agaricus
b.
 Shottake
c.
 Portobello
d.
 Amanita
e.
 Oyster
 97.
_________________ is a fungal chemical that shows promise as an anticancer agent.
a.
 Pencillin
b.
 Fumigallin
c.
 Ergot compounds
d.
 Psilocybin
e.
 None of the above.
 98.
Ergot compounds, produced by _____________________, are used as drugs to induce labor and to stop uterine bleeding.
a.
 Aspergillus tamari
b.
 Claviceps purpurea
c.
 Penicillium notatum
d.
 Erwinia carotovora
e.
 None of the above.

 
Check Your Work     Start Over

PCC Phylogeny Study Guide

%CODE1%

Javascript not enabled

Name: 

 

PCC Phylogeny Study Guide

 

 

Multiple Choice
Identify the choice that best completes the statement or answers the question.
 1.
Biologists use a classification system to group organisms in part because organisms
a.
 are going extinct.
c.
 are too much alike.
b.
 are very numerous and diverse.
d.
 share too many derived characters.
 2.
The study of organisms requires the use of
a.
 only large, general categories of organisms.
b.
 only small, specific categories of organisms.
c.
 both large and small categories of organisms.
d.
 no categories of organisms.
 3.
Scientists assign each type of organism a universally accepted name in the system known as
a.
 traditional classification.
c.
 binomial nomenclature.
b.
 the three domains.
d.
 cladistics.
 4.
For many species, there are often regional differences in their
a.
 common names.
c.
 taxa.
b.
 scientific names.
d.
 binomial nomenclature.
 5.
In taxonomy, a group at any level of organization is referred to as a
a.
 cladogram.
c.
 taxon.
b.
 binomial.
d.
 system.
 6.
Scientists have identified and named
a.
 all living species.
c.
 all extinct species.
b.
 all living and extinct species.
d.
 a fraction of all species.
 7.
In the scientific version of a species name, which of the terms is capitalized?
a.
 the first term only
c.
 both the first and second terms
b.
 the second term only
d.
 neither the first nor the second term
 8.
Based on their names, you know that the baboons Papio annubis and Papio cynocephalus do NOT belong to the same
a.
 class.
c.
 genus.
b.
 family.
d.
 species.
 9.
How do binomial, or two-part, names compare with early versions of scientific names?
a.
 They are longer.
c.
 They are completely descriptive.
b.
 They are shorter.
d.
 They are in English.
 10.
The second part of a scientific name is unique to each
a.
 order in its class.
c.
 genus in its family.
b.
 family in its order.
d.
 species in its genus.
 11.
Often, the second part of a scientific name is
a.
 a Latinized description of a particular trait.
b.
 the same as for other members of the same genus.
c.
 capitalized if it derives from a proper name.
d.
 different in different locations.
 12.
Before Linnaeus, scientific names were problematic because they were
a.
 too brief to be descriptive.
c.
 written only in Greek.
b.
 very long and difficult to standardize.
d.
 written only in Latin.
 13.
In Linnaeus’s system of classification, how many taxonomic categories were there?
a.
 one
c.
 five
b.
 three
d.
 seven
 14.
A genus is composed of a number of related
a.
 kingdoms.
c.
 orders.
b.
 phyla.
d.
 species.
 15.
Several different classes make up a
a.
 kingdom.
c.
 family.
b.
 phylum.
d.
 genus.
 16.
Which two kingdoms did Linnaeus recognize?
a.
 bacteria and animals
c.
 plants and animals
b.
 plants and fungi
d.
 protists and animals
 17.
Animals that are warm-blooded, have body hair, and produce milk for their young are grouped in the class
a.
 Amphibia.
c.
 Aves.
b.
 Mammalia.
d.
 Reptilia.
 18.
The most general and largest category in Linnaeus’s system is
a.
 the phylum.
c.
 the genus.
b.
 the kingdom.
d.
 the domain.
 19.
Traditional classifications tended to take into account primarily
a.
 extinct organisms.
c.
 DNA similarities.
b.
 RNA similarities.
d.
 general similarities in appearance.
 20.
Sometimes, organisms that are not closely related look similar because of
a.
 convergent evolution.
c.
 mutations.
b.
 molecular clocks.
d.
 reclassification.
 21.
The procedure of grouping organisms based on their evolutionary history is called
a.
 traditional classification.
c.
 derived characters.
b.
 binomial nomenclature.
d.
 evolutionary classification.
 22.
In an evolutionary classification scheme, species within one genus should
a.
 be more similar to one another than they are to species in other genera.
b.
 not be similar in appearance.
c.
 be limited to species that can interbreed.
d.
 have identical genes.
 23.
What kind of analysis focuses on the order in which derived characters appeared in organisms?
a.
 cladistic analysis
c.
 taxonomy
b.
 traditional classification
d.
 anatomy
 24.
In biology, an evolutionary innovation is also referred to as a
a.
 derived character.
c.
 molecular clock.
b.
 taxonomic group.
d.
 physical similarity.
 25.
What do scientists consider when they perform a cladistic analysis?
a.
 only the RNA of organisms
c.
 derived characters
b.
 all traits of organisms
d.
 only physical similarities
 26.
An analysis of derived characters is used to generate a
a.
 family tree based on external appearance.
b.
 family tree based on DNA structure.
c.
 cladogram.
d.
 traditional classification system.
 27.
What does a cladistic analysis show about organisms?
a.
 the relative importance of each derived character
b.
 the order in which derived characters evolved
c.
 the general fitness of the organisms analyzed
d.
 all traits of each organism analyzed
 28.
Similar genes are evidence of
a.
 binomial nomenclature.
c.
 common ancestry.
b.
 mutations.
d.
 different anatomy.
 29.
What do all organisms have in common?
a.
 They use DNA and RNA to pass on information.
b.
 They are all prokaryotes.
c.
 They are all eukaryotes.
d.
 They are genetically identical.
 30.
What is true about dissimilar organisms such as a cow and a yeast?
a.
 They are not related at all.
b.
 Their degree of relatedness cannot be evaluated.
c.
 Their degree of relatedness can be determined from their genes.
d.
 They can interbreed and thus are the same species.
 31.
Scientists have found that humans and yeasts
a.
 have similar genes for the assembly of certain proteins.
b.
 share all aspects of cellular structure.
c.
 have nothing in common.
d.
 cannot be evaluated for degree of relatedness.
 32.
What does the presence of similar genes in very dissimilar organisms imply?
a.
 The genes were produced by different selection pressures.
b.
 The organisms share a common ancestor.
c.
 The organisms do not share a common ancestor.
d.
 The genes became identical through mutation.
 33.
What is the main idea behind the model of a molecular clock?
a.
 that neutral mutations accumulate at a steady rate
b.
 that certain traits are under the pressure of natural selection
c.
 that segments of DNA can be compared with segments of RNA
d.
 that phenotypes, not genotypes, are affected by natural selection
 34.
All organisms in the kingdoms Protista, Plantae, Fungi, and Animalia are
a.
 multicellular organisms.
c.
 eukaryotes.
b.
 photosynthetic organisms.
d.
 prokaryotes.
 35.
Which kingdom contains heterotrophs with cell walls of chitin?
a.
 Protista
c.
 Plantae
b.
 Fungi
d.
 Animalia
 36.
What kingdoms composed the three-kingdom classification system used by scientists in the late 1800s?
a.
 animals, plants, fungi
c.
 animals, fungi, protists
b.
 animals, plants, bacteria
d.
 animals, plants, protists
 37.
Which of the kingdoms in the six-kingdom system of classification was once grouped with plants?
a.
 Animalia
c.
 Fungi
b.
 Carnivores
d.
 Protista
 38.
Some scientists propose that the kingdom Protista should be broken up into several kingdoms. Which of these statements accurately supports this idea?
a.
 Protists are all very similar and easy to confuse.
b.
 Protista contains very diverse organisms that do not fit into the other kingdoms.
c.
 Protists are the most numerous organisms on Earth.
d.
 Protista evolved before any other kingdom.
 39.
The domain that corresponds to the kingdom Eubacteria is
a.
 Archaea.
c.
 Eukarya.
b.
 Bacteria.
d.
 Fungi.
 40.
The domain that contains unicellular organisms that live in extreme environments is
a.
 Eubacteria.
c.
 Archaea.
b.
 Eukarya.
d.
 Bacteria.
 41.
The two domains composed of only unicellular organisms are
a.
 Eubacteria and Archaea.
c.
 Archaea and Bacteria.
b.
 Eukarya and Bacteria.
d.
 Archaea and Eukarya.
 42.
The three-domain system arose when scientists grouped organisms according to how long they have been
a.
 alive in their present forms.
c.
 evolving independently.
b.
 going extinct.
d.
 using DNA to store information.
 43.
The three-domain system recognizes fundamental differences between two groups of
a.
 prokaryotes.
c.
 protists.
b.
 eukaryotes.
d.
 multicellular organisms.
 44.
Organisms in the kingdoms Eubacteria and Archaebacteria were previously grouped in a kingdom called
a.
 Animalia.
c.
 Monera.
b.
 Fungi.
d.
 Eukarya.
 45.
What is thought to be true about the three domains of living things?
a.
 They diverged from a common ancestor fairly recently.
b.
 They diverged from a common ancestor before the evolution of the main groups of eukaryotes.
c.
 They did not have a common ancestor.
d.
 Domains Bacteria and Archaea evolved after the main groups of eukaryotes.
 46.
Taxonomy is the science of:
a.
 making new biological species.
b.
 generating cladograms that represent evolutionary relationships between organisms.
c.
 naming, describing, and classifying organisms.
d.
 conserving biodiversity.
e.
 comparing macromolecules to assess evolutionary relationships.
 47.
About __________ different species have been described and named to date.
a.
 160,000
b.
 265,000
c.
 750,000
d.
 1.75 million
e.
 6.25 million
 48.
The scientific study of the diversity of organisms and the evolutionary relationships between them is:
a.
 taxonomy.
b.
 ecology.
c.
 biological classification.
d.
 evolutionary biology.
e.
 systematics.
 49.
What is the correct format for the scientific name of an extinct carnivorous dinosaur?
a.
 tyrannosaurus Rex
b.
 Tyrannosaurus Rex
c.
 Tyrannosaurus rex
d.
 Tyrannosaurusrex
e.
 tyrannosaurus rex
 50.
The binomial system of nomenclature is a product of the work of:
a.
 Charles Darwin.
b.
 Carolus Linnaeus.
c.
 Gregor Mendel.
d.
 Paul Hebert.
e.
 Ernst Haeckel.
 51.
Which classification level would contain the greatest number of species?
a.
 class
b.
 division or phylum
c.
 domain
d.
 family
e.
 order
 52.
Which classification level would be the least inclusive?
a.
 genus
b.
 family
c.
 phylum
d.
 order
e.
 class
 53.
Zea mays is the scientific name of the corn plant. Zea is the ____________ name.
a.
 class
b.
 division
c.
 genus
d.
 ordinal
e.
 species
 54.
Closely related or similar genera are grouped into a single:
a.
 class.
b.
 phylum.
c.
 order.
d.
 species.
e.
 family.
 55.
How would the scientific name of the yellow perch, Perca flavescens, be abbreviated?
a.
 Perca f.
b.
 Perca Fl.
c.
 P. flavescens
d.
 Perc. fl.
e.
 P. flav.
 56.
The classification scheme of Linnaeus was originally based on ________, but has now been altered to reflect ___________.
a.
 similarities; structural differences
b.
 biodiversity; structural similarity
c.
 evolutionary history; structural similarity
d.
 similarities; evolutionary history
e.
 differences; similarities
 57.
Which of the following is a taxon?
a.
 class
b.
 family
c.
 phylum
d.
 species
e.
 All of the above.
 58.
Some biologists are considering adopting a different classification scheme based on common ancestors, called:
a.
 BioDiversity.
b.
 the biological BarCode.
c.
 the phylogical guide.
d.
 the molecular blueprint.
e.
 PhyloCode.
 59.
Which of the following is the taxon that can be most clearly defined in biological terms?
a.
 class
b.
 species
c.
 strain
d.
 subspecies
e.
 variety
 60.
Most biologists recognize ___________ domains.
a.
 3
b.
 4
c.
 5
d.
 6
e.
 12
 61.
The classification level of domain is immediately “above” (more inclusive than) the level of:
a.
 a class.
b.
 a genus.
c.
 a kingdom.
d.
 a phylum.
e.
 a species.
 62.
The first kingdom recognized beyond Plantae and Animalia was:
a.
 Archae.
b.
 Protista.
c.
 Eubacteria.
d.
 Archaebacteria.
e.
 Fungi.
Figure 22-02
Use the figure below to answer the corresponding questions.nar001-1.jpg
 63.
The animals in Figure 22-02 are all representative of the:
a.
 Class Carnivora.
b.
 Order Carnivora.
c.
 Phylum Animalia.
d.
 Class Chordata.
e.
 Order Mammalia.
 64.
The taxonomic grouping that would represent the next highest (more inclusive) level above that represented in Figure 22-02 is:
a.
 Family.
b.
 Order.
c.
 Class.
d.
 Phylum.
e.
 None of the above.
 65.
The original two Kingdoms that were established to organize living organisms were:
a.
 Protista and Animalia.
b.
 Eukaryotae and Prokaryotae.
c.
 Plantae and Animalia.
d.
 Plantae and Eukarya.
e.
 Eubacteria and Eukarya.
 66.
Early biologists classified living things into two kingdoms. Many biologists today recognize ____________ kingdom(s).
a.
 one
b.
 two
c.
 three
d.
 six
e.
 twelve
 67.
Bacteria are found in the Kingdom:
a.
 Eubacteria.
b.
 Fungi.
c.
 Protista.
d.
 Animalia.
e.
 Plantae.
 68.
Which Kingdom contains the protozoa, water and slime molds, and algae?
a.
 Prokaryotae
b.
 Fungi
c.
 Protista
d.
 Animalia
e.
 Plantae
 69.
Which of the following does not describe members of the Kingdom Fungi?
a.
 absorb nutrients produced by other organisms
b.
 possess cell walls
c.
 not photosynthetic
d.
 cells lack a nucleus
e.
 yeasts and mushrooms
 70.
Fungi may be differentiated from plants, because fungi are:
a.
 photosynthetic.
b.
 all macroscopic.
c.
 all multicellular.
d.
 heterotrophic.
e.
 all prokaryotic.
 71.
The evolutionary history of a group of organisms from a common ancestor is termed:
a.
 biohistory.
b.
 phylogeny.
c.
 phrenology.
d.
 phenetics.
e.
 species origenetics.
 72.
An example of homologous structures is the wing of a bat and:
a.
 the arm of a human.
b.
 the wing of a beetle.
c.
 the tail of a whale.
d.
 the leg of a chimpanzee.
e.
 the dorsal fin of a shark.
 73.
An example of homoplastic structures is the wing of a butterfly and:
a.
 the wing of a moth.
b.
 the wing of a bird.
c.
 the antenna of the butterfly.
d.
 the legs of the butterfly.
e.
 the antenna of a moth.
 74.
Humans, as well as other mammals ranging from mice to elephants, have hair. Hair, then, would be considered to be:
a.
 a derived character.
b.
 an ancestral character.
c.
 a cladistic character.
d.
 an analogous character.
e.
 a polyphyletic character.
 75.
Sea snakes, which are reptiles, are similar in body form to eels, which are fish. Sea snakes and eels therefore share ________________ body form.
a.
 ancestral
b.
 homoplastic
c.
 homologous
d.
 monophyletic
e.
 cladistic
 76.
A(an) __________________ character is a trait that has evolved relatively recently.
a.
 derived
b.
 ancestral
c.
 cladistic
d.
 homologous
e.
 polyphyletic
 77.
Phylogenetic systematics produces branching diagrams called:
a.
 phylogenic trees.
b.
 cladistic trees.
c.
 phenograms.
d.
 molecular clocks.
e.
 cladograms.
 78.
A cladogram is based on:
a.
 homologous characteristics.
b.
 homoplastic characteristics.
c.
 polyphyletic taxa.
d.
 fossil evidence only.
e.
 derived characters only.
Figure 22-03
Use the figure below to answer the corresponding questions.nar002-1.jpg
 79.
The organism labeled B in Figure 22-03 is a common ancestor to:
a.
 organism 2.
b.
 organism 3.
c.
 organism 5.
d.
 organism 6.
e.
 All of the above.
 80.
In Figure 22-03, the pair of organisms that have the most recent ancestor is:
a.
 2 and 4.
b.
 6 and 4.
c.
 4 and 5.
d.
 2 and 3.
e.
 1 and 2.
 81.
In Figure 22-03, the taxon labeled II is:
a.
 monophyletic.
b.
 paraphyletic.
c.
 polyphyletic.
d.
 a clade.
e.
 an outgroup.

 
Check Your Work     Start Over

Introduction to Plants Study Guide

%CODE1%

Javascript not enabled

Name: 

Introduction to Plants Quiz

 

 

Modified True/False
Indicate whether the statement is true or false.  If false, change the identified word or phrase to make the statement true.
 1.
Plants are multicellular prokaryotes. _________________________
 2.
The plant life cycle includes a diploid gamete and a haploid spore. _________________________
 3.
Mosses are most often found in dry environments. _________________________
 4.
Mosses and liverworts lack a vascular system for transporting water and nutrients. _________________________
 5.
Water must be present for fertilization to take place in mosses. _________________________
 6.
In mosses and liverworts, eggs are formed through mitosis in the antheridia. _________________________
 7.
Gametophytes of conifers are physically much larger than their sporophytes. _________________________
 8.
One important difference between mosses and ferns is that mosses have a vascular system. _________________________
 9.
Shoots, stems, and roots characterize the bodies of vascular plant sporophytes. _________________________
 10.
Ferns are characterized by fronds and fiddleheads. _________________________
 11.
Haploid fern spores are produced by gametophytes. _________________________
 12.
In ferns, a large sporophyte with leaves called fronds alternates with a heart-shaped gametophyte. _________________________
 13.
Ferns need water to reproduce because their sperm must swim to eggs. _________________________
 14.
Both mosses and ferns require a thin film of water for gametes to meet. _________________________
 15.
In both mosses and ferns, eggs are formed through mitosis in the antheridia. _________________________
 16.
Gymnosperm seeds are enclosed in a fruit. _________________________
 17.
Gametophytes of seed plants are large and easily viewed with the unaided eye. _________________________
 18.
Sexual reproduction in seed plants involves the transfer of pollen from the male reproductive structures of a plant to the female reproductive structures. _________________________
 19.
Seed plants cannot reproduce without a film of water for transferring of gametes. _________________________
 20.
A seed is a structure that contains a plant embryo. _________________________
 21.
A plant embryo is a new sporophyte. _________________________
 22.
In flowering plants, the embryos of monocots have two cotyledons. _________________________
 23.
Pollen is produced in the tip of the stamen, a structure called the sepal. _________________________
 24.
The lower portion of the pistil produces pollen. _________________________
 25.
Gametophytes develop within flowers. _________________________
 26.
Pollen tubes grow through the style toward the ovule. _________________________
 27.
Many seeds have appendages that aid in dispersal. _________________________
 28.
Asexual reproduction produces new plants that are genetically different from the parent plant. _________________________
 29.
Vegetative reproduction does require a plant to have flowers. _________________________
 30.
In vegetative reproduction, new plants may be generated from stems or roots. _________________________
 

Multiple Choice
Identify the choice that best completes the statement or answers the question.
 31.
The ancestors of today’s land plants were probably
a.
 brown algae.
c.
 green algae.
b.
 red algae.
d.
 lichens.
 32.
Among the challenges that faced early land plants were
a.
 eliminating excess water.
b.
 obtaining sunlight for photosynthesis.
c.
 absorbing minerals from the rocky surface.
d.
 avoiding being eaten by grazing mammals.
 33.
The waxy protective covering of a land plant is called a
a.
 cuticle.
c.
 rhizome.
b.
 capsule.
d.
 stoma.
 34.
Some land plants developed an internal system of interconnected tubes and vessels called
a.
 cuticles.
c.
 a circulatory system.
b.
 nonvascular canals.
d.
 vascular tissue.
 35.
sporophytes : spores ::
a.
 sporophytes : gametophytes
c.
 gametes : gametophytes
b.
 gametophytes : gametes
d.
 sporophytes : gametes
 36.
The diploid form in a plant’s life cycle is called the
a.
 sporophyte.
c.
 parental generation.
b.
 gametophyte.
d.
 alternate generation.
 37.
The haploid form in a plant’s life cycle is called the
a.
 sporophyte.
c.
 parental generation.
b.
 gametophyte.
d.
 alternate generation.
 38.
A haploid stage following a diploid stage in a plant’s life cycle is called
a.
 generational recycling.
c.
 alternating forms.
b.
 periodic gametogenesis.
d.
 alternation of generations.
 39.
In plants, haploid gametes are produced as a result of
a.
 fertilization.
c.
 encapsulation.
b.
 meiosis.
d.
 mitosis.
 40.
sporophytes : meiosis ::
a.
 sporophytes : spores
c.
 gametophytes : gametes
b.
 gametophytes : mitosis
d.
 sporophytes : gametes
 41.
Mosses, hornworts, and liverworts all possess
a.
 fibrous roots.
c.
 tap roots.
b.
 spore capsules.
d.
 green leaves.
 42.
In nonvascular plants, structures in which spores are produced are known as
a.
 meristems.
c.
 cones.
b.
 pollen grains.
d.
 sporangia.
 43.
Which of the following statements about moss spores is not true?
a.
 They are produced by the sporophyte.
b.
 They are dispersed and then germinate.
c.
 They are produced in a capsule-like top.
d.
 They are diploid.
 44.
The sporophyte generation in mosses produces spores by
a.
 meiosis.
c.
 sexual reproduction.
b.
 mitosis.
d.
 asexual reproduction.
 45.
The most noticeable form of a moss life cycle is the
a.
 sporophyte.
c.
 rhizoid.
b.
 gametophyte.
d.
 zygote.
 46.
In which of the following structures do seedless plants produce eggs?
a.
 antheridia
c.
 archegonia
b.
 capsules
d.
 cones
 47.
antheridia : sperm ::
a.
 rhizoids : gametes
c.
 archegonia : eggs
b.
 seeds : gametophytes
d.
 sperm : megaspores
 48.
Both mosses and ferns produce
a.
 seeds.
c.
 flowers.
b.
 fruit.
d.
 spores.
 49.
Fern sporophytes consist of rhizomes,
a.
 large leaves, and flowers.
c.
 pollen grains, and ovules.
b.
 cones, and stems.
d.
 roots, and fronds.
 50.
Unlike mosses, ferns possess
a.
 spore capsules.
c.
 antheridia.
b.
 archegonia.
d.
 vascular tissue.
 51.
Fiddleheads are produced by
a.
 whisk ferns.
c.
 ferns.
b.
 club mosses.
d.
 horsetails.
 52.
Both mosses and ferns produce gametes through
a.
 mitosis.
c.
 osmosis.
b.
 meiosis.
d.
 diffusion.
 53.
vascular plants : sporophytes ::
a.
 sporophytic plants : gametophytes
c.
 spores : gametes
b.
 gametes : sporophytes
d.
 nonvascular plants : gametophytes
The diagram below shows the plant life cycle.

nar001-1.jpg
 54.
Refer to the diagram above. At which point in the life cycle does fertilization take place?
a.
 1
c.
 3
b.
 2
d.
 4
 55.
Refer to the diagram above. The structures produced at 3 are called
a.
 sporangia.
c.
 spores.
b.
 archegonia.
d.
 antheridia.
 56.
Which of the following were the first land plants to evolve seeds?
a.
 angiosperms
c.
 mosses
b.
 gymnosperms
d.
 horsetails
 57.
liverworts, hornworts, and mosses : nonvascular plants ::
a.
 gymnosperms and angiosperms : bryophytes
b.
 ferns : mosses
c.
 gymnosperms and angiosperms : seed plants
d.
 bryophytes and liverworts : vascular plants
 58.
gymnosperms : naked seeds ::
a.
 pollen : mosses
c.
 liverwort : vascular tissue
b.
 liverwort : pollen
d.
 angiosperms : enclosed seeds
 59.
In seed plants, female gametophytes produce
a.
 sperm.
c.
 cells.
b.
 eggs.
d.
 spores.
 60.
A male gametophyte of a seed plant develops into a
a.
 pollen grain.
c.
 pollen tube.
b.
 spore capsule.
d.
 seed coat.
 61.
The partially developed plant found in seeds is known as a(n)
a.
 gametophyte.
c.
 embryo.
b.
 spore capsule.
d.
 sporophyte.
 62.
A typical seed contains all of the following except a(n)
a.
 seed coat.
c.
 embryo.
b.
 nutritious tissue.
d.
 spore case.
 63.
The tallest trees in the world are a species of
a.
 conifers.
c.
 liverworts.
b.
 dicots.
d.
 angiosperms.
 64.
The process of transferring pollen from a male cone to a female cone in gymnosperms is called
a.
 fertilization.
c.
 pollination.
b.
 seed formation.
d.
 asexual reproduction.
 65.
In conifers, the diploid condition is resumed following
a.
 pollination.
c.
 respiration.
b.
 fertilization.
d.
 sporulation.
 66.
The seeds of monocots have
a.
 one embryo and two cotyledons.
c.
 one embryo and one cotyledon.
b.
 two embryos and two cotyledons.
d.
 two embryos and one cotyledon.
 67.
Flowering plants are classified as monocots or dicots according to the number of their
a.
 leaves.
c.
 meristems.
b.
 flowers.
d.
 cotyledons.
 68.
Monocots and dicots are subdivisions of
a.
 angiosperms.
c.
 ferns.
b.
 gymnosperms.
d.
 mosses.
nar002-1.jpg
 69.
Refer to the diagram above. The structure labeled f
a.
 supports the anther.
c.
 supports the pistil.
b.
 produces pollen.
d.
 develops into a fruit.
 70.
Refer to the diagram above. The structure labeled c
a.
 produces pollen.
b.
 contains sperm cells.
c.
 is the area where pollen lands and sticks.
d.
 contains meristematic tissue.
 71.
Removing a flower’s stigma would initially affect
a.
 fertilization.
c.
 pollination.
b.
 seed production.
d.
 seed dispersal.
 72.
Pollen is produced in a structure called the
a.
 anther.
c.
 ovary.
b.
 stigma.
d.
 pistil.
 73.
In angiosperms, immediately following pollination,
a.
 the seed develops.
c.
 fertilization occurs.
b.
 an egg cell is formed.
d.
 the pollen tube begins to form.
 74.
During fertilization in flowering plants, one sperm fuses with an egg to form an embryo, and another fuses with two nuclei to form nutritive tissue. This event is called
a.
 self-pollination.
c.
 maximization.
b.
 adaptation.
d.
 double fertilization.
 75.
fruit : mature ovary
a.
 gametophyte : sporophyte
c.
 cotyledon : food reserve
b.
 gymnosperm : angiosperm
d.
 vascular plant : nonvascular plant
 76.
If a plant’s flowers are very colorful and produce nectar, the plant is probably pollinated by
a.
 water.
c.
 insects.
b.
 wind.
d.
 self-pollination.
 77.
One way that flowers produced by angiosperms help ensure the transfer of gametes is by
a.
 traveling in the air currents.
b.
 bursting open and projecting gametes onto the landscape.
c.
 attracting animals that carry pollen from one flower to another.
d.
 producing tasty fruits that animals depend on for food.
 78.
What function do all fruits produced by angiosperms perform?
a.
 produce nutrients for the plant
b.
 nourish the embryos
c.
 disperse the seeds
d.
 ensure pollination
 79.
Which structure allows plants to reproduce asexually?
a.
 tuber
c.
 archegonium
b.
 flower
d.
 antheridium
 80.
The production of offspring genetically identical to the parent plant is the result of
a.
 sexual reproduction.
c.
 alternation of generations.
b.
 asexual reproduction.
d.
 double fertilization.
 

Completion
Complete each statement.
 81.
The surface of a vascular plant is covered by a waxy, waterproof layer called a(n) ____________________.
 82.
One of the first environmental challenges that early land plants had to overcome was developing a way to conserve ____________________.
 83.
The sporophyte generation produces spores by the process of ____________________.
 84.
The haploid form of a plant is known as the ____________________ generation.
 85.
Nonvascular plants transport materials within their bodies through the process of ____________________.
 86.
A green, hornlike sporophyte growing upward from the gametophyte is typical of plants known as ____________________.
 87.
In mosses and liverworts, the ____________________ generation is the dominant generation.
 88.
The very tiny liverwort ____________________ grow from the archegonia under the caps of female stalks.
 89.
The gametophytes of ____________________ plants are larger and more noticeable than the sporophytes.
 90.
The seedless plants produce sperm within the ____________________.
 91.
True roots, stems, and leaves are associated with ____________________ plants.
 92.
A fern is an example of a(n) ____________________ vascular plant.
 93.
Both mosses and ferns produce eggs within structures called ____________________.
 94.
Like the nonvascular plants, the seedless vascular plants can reproduce sexually only when a film of ____________________ covers the gametophyte.
 95.
Unlike mosses, ferns have sporophytes that are much ____________________ than their gametophytes.
 96.
Seed plants whose seeds do not develop within a sealed container (fruit) are called ____________________.
 97.
Fruit is a characteristic associated only with the flowering plants, or ____________________.
 98.
A male gametophyte of a seed plant develops into a(n) ____________________.
 99.
The ____________________ is the protective cover that surrounds a seed.
 100.
The seed coat prevents the embryo from drying out, from mechanical injury, and from ____________________.
 101.
A(n) ____________________ is a specialized structure that develops from an ovule and serves to protect a plant embryo from harsh conditions.
 102.
The four major groups of gymnosperms are gnetophytes, cycads, ginkgoes, and ____________________.
 103.
A mature pine tree produces both male and female ____________________.
 104.
Gymnosperms are pollinated by ____________________, which makes sexual reproduction possible even during dry conditions.
 105.
The life cycle of a conifer is characterized by a large ____________________ generation.
 106.
In conifers, seeds form on the ____________________ of cones.
 107.
A plant that has flower parts that occur in fours or fives or multiples of four or five is a member of a subgroup called a(n) ____________________.
nar002-1.jpg
 108.
Refer to the diagram above. The structure labeled f is called the ____________________.
 109.
Refer to the diagram above. The structure labeled b is called the ____________________.
 110.
Refer to the diagram above. A flower like this one has all four basic flower parts and thus is an example of a(n) ____________________ flower.
 111.
The transfer of pollen grains from an anther to a stigma is known as ____________________.
 112.
In angiosperms, seeds develop from the ____________________ inside a(n) ____________________ after an egg has been fertilized.
 113.
The event in which one sperm fertilizes an egg and a second sperm fuses with two nuclei is called _________________________.
 114.
A flower is a(n) ____________________ structure that produces pollen and seeds.
 115.
Flowers are a source of ____________________ for pollinators.
 116.
The seeds of angiosperms are enclosed in ____________________.
 117.
Because flowering plants are rooted in the ground and cannot move from place to place, they must disperse their ____________________ so that their offspring can grow in new environments.
 118.
Many fruits are spread by ____________________ that are attracted to sweet, fleshy fruits, which they use for food.
 119.
Many of the structures by which plants reproduce vegetatively are modified ____________________.
 120.
Bulbs, stolons, and tubers are examples of modified stems that allow plants to reproduce ____________________.

 
Check Your Work     Start Over